JEE Advanced Sample Papers 2 (Paper 1 & 2) by FIITJEE

JEE Advanced
Sample Papers
(Paper 1 & 2)
by
FIITJEE
PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & MATHEMATICS
JEE (A) SAMPLE TEST-1 PAPER - 1

Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 186
Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for
this purpose.
You are not allowed to leave the Examination Hall before the end of the test.
INSTRUCTIONS
Caution: Question Paper CODE as given above MUST be correctly marked in the answer
OMR sheet before attempting the paper. Wrong CODE or no CODE will give wrong results.
SAMPLE TEST-1
A. General Instructions
1. Attempt ALL the questions. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheets.
2. This question paper contains Three Parts.
3. Part-I is Physics, Part-II is Chemistry and Part-III is Mathematics.
4. Each part is further divided into three sections: Section-A, B & C
5. Rough spaces are provided for rough work inside the question paper. No additional sheets will be
provided for rough work.
6. Blank Papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic
devices, in any form, are not allowed.
B. Filling of OMR Sheet

1. Ensure matching of OMR sheet with the Question paper before you start marking your answers on
OMR sheet.
2. On the OMR sheet, darken the appropriate bubble with Blue/Black Ball Point Pen for each
character of your Enrolment No. and write in ink your Name, Test Centre and other details at the
designated places.
3. OMR sheet contains alphabets, numerals & special characters for marking answers.
C. Marking Scheme For All Three Parts.

(i) Section-A (01 05) contains 5 multiple choice questions which have only one correct answer. Each
question carries +3 marks for correct answer and 1 mark for wrong answer.
(ii) Section-A (06 13) contains 8 multiple choice questions which have one or more than one correct
answer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and 2 mark for wrong answer and +1
for Partial Marks (For example, if (A), (C) and (D) are all the correct options for a questions,
darkening all these three will result in +4 marks; darkening only (A) and (D) will result in +2 marks;
and darkening (A) and (B) will result in -2 marks, as a wrong option is also darkened).
(iii) Section-C (01 05) contains 5 Numerical based questions with single digit integer as answer,
ranging from 0 to 9 and each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and 1 mark for wrong
answer.
\
Name of the Candidate :____________________________________________
Batch :____________________ Date of Examination :___________________
Enrolment Number :_______________________________________________
FIITJEE Ltd., FIITJEE House, 29-A, Kalu Sarai, Sarvapriya Vihar, New Delhi -110016, Ph 46106000, 26569493, Fax 26513942
website: www.fiitjee.com
JEE(A) SAMPLE TEST -1 -(Paper-1)-PCM-IITJEE
2
PART - I: PHYSICS
Section A
MCQ Single Correct
1. A particle moves along a curve y = x2 x with a constant speed 2 m . Then the acceleration of
s
the particle at point (1, 0) is
(A) 2 2 m (B) 4 2 m (C) 8 2 m (D) 16 2 m
s2 s2 s2 s2
2. A simple pendulum of length l is released from rest from l O
horizontal position as shown and it just completes vertical circle
around nail P. Then the value of r is 37 =
(A) l (B) 3l
4 4 r
(C) 3l (D) 5l
7 7
P
3. A Solid sphere of mass m and radius R is placed on a

rough horizontal surface and imparted an initial velocity Vo
Vo
and angular velocity o as shown. The sphere will V0
2R V0
start rolling without slipping after a time t is 0
2R
V0 2V0
(A) (B)
7g 7g
0.5
V 2V0
(C) 0 (D)
5g 5g
4. Two moles of an ideal monatomic gas is taken through a process in which its internal energy
varies with the volume as U = aV2, Where a is a constant. The heat supplied to the gas to
increase its temperature by 300k during the process is
(A) 400R (B) 800R (C) 1200R (D) 1600R
5. A ball of radius R is charged with volume charge density varies with the distance r from the
2
centre as r , Where is a positive constant. The electric field intensity at distance r=
R/2 from the centre is
R3 R3 R3 R3
(A) (B) (C) (D)
20 0 40 0 60 0 80 0
Section - A
MCQ Multi Correct (One or More than One correct)
6. The water equivalent of a copper calorimeter is 4.5 gm . If the specific heat of copper is
0.09 cal gm1 0C 1 , the
(A) mass of calorimeter is 0.5 kg
(B) thermal capacity of calorimeter is 4.5 cal 0C 1
(C) heat required to raise the temperature of calorimeter by 80 C will be 36cal
(D) heat required to melt 15 gm of ice 0 0 C placed in calorimeter 0 0 C will be 1200 cal
3
7. One end of a uniform rod of length l and mass m is hinged at A. It is released from the horizontal
orientation. At the moment it becomes vertical
3g
(A) Angular velocity of the rod about A is
l
5
(B) Force exerted on the hinge is mg
2
3
(C) Force exerted by the hinge on the rod is mg
2
2g
(D) Angular velocity of the rod is
l
8. Figure shows a system consisting of two massless pulley, two springs

of force constant 'K' and a block of mass 'm' . Frequency of small
oscillations of the block is
5K 1 5K
(A) 2 (B)
m 2 m
1 K 5m K
(C) (D) 2
2 5m K K
m
9. A point moves with deceleration along the circle of radius of R so that at any time its tangential
and radial accelerations are equal in magnitude. At the initial moment t = 0, the velocity of the
point is v0 . The velocity of the point at any time t is v . Then which of the following are not correct
S
u0
R
(A) v after t seconds (B) v u0 e after s meter
u0 t
1
R
R
R
S
(C) v after t seconds (D) v u0 e after s meter
u
1 0 t
R
10. Two blocks are given velocities as shown in figure.

Friction coefficient for both the blocks is same. In the 10m/s 4m/s
process of motion, net displacement of center of 2 kg 5 kg
mass of two block system will be (assume initial
distance between blocks is large enough so that they
do not collide)
(A) Zero (B) towards right
(C) towards left (D) Insufficient data
11. If the first minima in a Youngs slit experiment occurs directly in front of one of the slits, distance
between slit and screen D = 12 cm and distance between slits d = 5 cm, then the wavelength of
the radiation used can be
2 4
(A) 2 cm (B) 4 cm (C) cm (D) cm
3 3
ke 2
12. Suppose the potential energy between electron and proton at a distance r is given by .
3r 3
Application of Bohrs theory to hydrogen atom in this case shows that
(A) Energy in the nth orbit is proportional to n6
3
(B) Energy is proportional to m . m :mass of electron
(C) Energy of the nth orbit is proportional to n 2
(D) Energy is proportional to m3 (m = mass of electron)
4
13. When photons of energy 4.25 eV strike the surface of a metal A, the ejected photoelectrons have
maximum kinetic energy TA eV and de-Broglie wavelength A. The maximum kinetic energy of
photoelectrons liberated from another metal B by photons of energy 4.70 eV is TB=(TA 1.50) eV.
If the de-Broglie wavelength of these photoelectrons is B = 2A then
(A) the work function of A is 2.25 eV (B) the work function of B is 4.20 eV
(C) TA = 2 eV (D) TB = 2.75 eV
Section C
Numerical Based
14. Two factories are sounding their siren at 80 Hz. A man goes from one factory to the other at a
speed of 2 m/s. The velocity of sound is 320 m/s. The number of beats heard by the person in
one second will be
15. A capacitor consists of two stationary plates shaped as a semi-circle of

radius R and a movable plate made of dielectric with permittivity, K = 10
and capable of rotating about an axis O between the stationary plates.
The thickness of movable plate is equal to d which is practically the O R
separation between the stationary plates. A potential difference V =
4d
2
is applied to the capacitor. Find the magnitude of the moment
0 R
of forces relative to the axis O acting on the movable plate in the position
shown in figure.
3 R
16. A conical vessel is completely filled with a liquid of density = as
4 R 3
shown in the figure. The force exerted by the liquid on the curved surface
is
17. A bird flies for 4 s with a velocity of |t - 2| m/s in a straight line, where t = time in second. It covers
a distance in(m) is
18. An electron in the potentiometer wire experiences force of 3.2 x 1019 N. The length of
potentiomenter wire is 4m. the emf of the battery across the wire is
Space for rough work
5
PART - II: CHEMISTRY

Section A
MCQ Single Correct
1. Which of the following compounds has most acidic hydrogen?
NO2 NO 2
(A) (B)
S O
CH CH
S O
NO2 NO2
(C) (D)
NH O
CH CH
NH NH
2. Consider a first order reaction A aq B aq C aq

Reaction progress is measured with the help of titration of reagent R. If all A, B and C reacted
with the reagent and have n factors in the ratio of 1 : 2: 3 with the reagent and that of the reagent
with all these is same. The value of k in terms of t, n1 and n2 is: where n1 and n2 are the moles of
reagent used at time t and infinite time respectively is which of the following
1 n2 1 2n2
(A) k ln (B) k ln
t n2 n1 t n2 n1
1 4n2 1 4n2
(C) k ln (D) k ln
t n2 n1 t 5 n2 n1
CH3
3. 3
1 BH ;THF
(A) The product of the reaction is:
H
2 H O ;OH

2 2
(A) CH3 (B) CH3 (C) CH3 (D) CH3
OH H H H
H H OH H
H HO H CH3
4. Two gases in adjoining vessels were brought into contact by opening a stopcock between them.
One vessel measuring 0.25 L contained NO gas at 800 torr and 220 K, the other measured 0.1 L
contained O2 gas at 600 torr and 220K The reaction to form N 2O4 s exhausts the limiting
6
reagent completely. Neglecting the vapour pressure of N 2 O4 , which of the following is

correct?(molar mass N2O4 = 92)
(A) Pressure of the gas remaining at 220 K after completion of the reaction is 0.3 atm
(B) Mass of N 2 O4 formed is 0.402 g
(C) Both (A) ad (B) are correct
(D) None is correct
5 The state of a mole of an ideal gas changed from state A at

pressure 2P and volume V and follows four different processes
A B
and finally returns to initial state A reversibly as shown below in the 2P
Pressure
graph. What would be total work done by the gas?
(A) PV (B) PV
(C) 0 (D) None of these P C
D
V 2V
Volume
Section - A
6. Which is correct graph for photoelectric effect?
K.E. of photoelectron
Intensity of light

(A) (B) (C) (D)
7. Which of the following changes involve oxidation?

(A) The conversion of ferrous sulphate to ferric sulphate.
(B) The conversion of H 2 S to S
(C) The conversion of Cl2 to NaCl
(D) The conversion of Zn to ZnSO4
8. The rate constant is numerically the same for I order, II order and III order. Select the correct
statements:

(A) If A 1, then r1 r2 r3
(B) If A 1, then r1 r2 r3
(C) If A 1, then r1 r2 r3 (D) If A 1, then r1 r2 r3
9. Which of the following statements is/are correct.

(A) A buffer solution contains a weak acid and its conjugate base.
(B) A buffer solution resists change in pH on the addition of a small amount of acid or base.
(C) A buffer solution can be prepared from acetate ions and acetic acid
(D) The addition of solid potassium cyanide to water increases the pH of water.
10. Which of the following are electrophiles?

(A) BF3 (B) Cl2C : (C) Cl (D) I
7
11. Which of the following statements are correct for butadiene

4 3 2 1
C H2 C H C H C H2
(A) The C1 C2 and C3 C4 bonds are longer than a carbon-carbon double bond.
(B) The C1 C2 and C3 C4 bonds are shorter than a carbon-carbon double bond.
(C) The C2 C3 bond is slightly shorter than a carbon-carbon single bond.
(D) The C2 C3 bond is slightly longer than a carbon-carbon double bond.
12. When PhOC2 H 5 reacts with HI, then the product (s) is/are
(A) CH 3CH 2 I (B) (C) (D) CH 3CH 2OH

OH I
13. An alkyl magnesium halide is

(A) Grignard reagent (B) Organometallic compound
(C) Twitchells reagent (D) Schweizers reagent
Section C
Numerical Based

14. The sum of bond order of N 2 and N 2 is?
15. Find the maximum number of hydrogen bonds that a water molecule can form?
16. One mole of N 2 O4 g at 300 K is kept in a closed container under one atmosphere. It is heated
to 1500 K when 20 % by mass of N2O4(g) decompose to NO2(g). The resultant pressure is..
17. How many compounds has odd number of hydrogens?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
18. How many different functional groups are present in given compound?
OH
HO 2C
8
PART - III: MATHEMATICS

Section A
MCQ Single Correct
1.
If in a ABC sin A sin B sin C sin A sin B sin C 2 3 sin A.sin B 0 , then
C
0 0 0 0
(A) 30 (B) 60 (C) 45 (D) 120
2. If a 1,2,3, 4,5,6,10,15,30 then total number of positive integral solutions of equation xyz a
(A) 21 (B) 64 (C) 54 (D) none of these
3. Line with variable slope m and passing through (2,3) intersects x-axis at A and Y-axis at B. Then
the locus of a point which divides segment BA in ratio m:1 is
(A) 2x - 3y = 0 (B) x + y = 0 (C) y - x = 0 (D) 2x + 3y = 0
4. If cos
1
cos 2 x 3 sin sin 2 x 3 then x
1
3 3 3 3
(A) 2n , 2n (B) n , n
nI
4 2 4 2 nI
2 4 2
3 3 3 3
(C) n , n (D) n , n
nI
4 2 2 nI
2 2
5. If x, y, z are real variables satisfying x + y + z =0 and xy + yz + zx + 45 = 0, then range of x is

(A) 30, 30 (B) 10 3,10 3 (C) 6 5, 6 5 (D) 2 15, 2 15

Section - A
99
6. C3 9 99C7 81 99 C11 .......349 99C99
(A)
1
6 3
99
1 3 1 3
99
(B)
1
12 3
1 3 99
1 3
99

299 299
(C)
6 3
99
3 1 3 1
99
(D)
12 3
3 1
99
3 1
99

2
7. The orthocenter of a triangle formed by any three tangents to parabola 4 x y 6 y 13 can be
(A) 2,5 (B) 2. 2 (C) 0,5 (D) 0, 2
2 2
8. Given 9 x y 1 16 x y 1 288 represents a hyperbola. Now, which of the following
options are correct
(A) Transverse axis is y x 1 and conjugate axis is y 1 x
(B) Transverse axis is y 1 x and conjugate axis is y x 1
5
(C) Eccentricity is
4
5
(D) Eccentricity is
3
9. From any point, P on the locus of centre of circle which touches +ve X and Y axes, tangents PA
2 2
and PB are drawn to circle x 2 y 2 1 . If chord of contact AB always passes through C,
then C can lie on
9
(A) y x 0 (B) y x (C) 3 y x 7 0 (D) 3 x y 7
cos x sin x
10. If dx ln f x g x K then
e x sin x
(A) g x is linear function (B) f x f " x 2e x
(C) f x e x is odd function (D) g x is decreasing function
11. For the differential equation d xy x sin x log x

(A) Integrating factor is x
1
(B) Integrating factor is
x
2 2
x x
(C) Solution of differential equation is yx x cos x sin x log x c
2 4
2 2
x x
(D) Solution of differential equation is yx x cos x sin x log x c
2 4
12. If the ratio of H.M. and G.M. between two numbers a and b is 4 : 5, then the ratio of two numbers
will be
(A) 1 : 2 (B) 2 : 1 (C) 4 : 1 (D) 1 : 4
13. Let z1 , z2 and z3 are three complex numbers such that z1 z 2 z3 1 and
z12 z2 z2
2 3 1 0 then integral values that z1 z2 z3 can assume, is
z2 z3 z1 z3 z1 z2
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 3
Section C
Numerical Based
14.
Number of solutions of the equation of f x g x where f : ,1 ,1 such that
f x x 2 x and g x is inverse of f x
15. If the area bounded by the relation 2 x y 5 , x, y 0 is (where . represents G.I.F.) is p

sq. unit, then p is

16. Let r p q sin q r cos 2 r p

Where p, q & r are three non-coplanar vectors. If r . p q r 0 then minimum value of
2 2 where . shows greatest integer function.
17. Let A and B be two independent events such that

1 1
P ( A) and P B . then 3P A / A B is then is ______
3 4
e2
18. Let y = f(x) satisfies the differential equation xy(1 + y)dx = dy, if f(0) = 1, and f 2 then
k e2
find the value of k.
FIITJEE

this purpose.
INSTRUCTIONS
SAMPLE TEST - 2

OMR sheet.
designated places.

answer.
\
2
PART - I: PHYSICS
Section A
MCQ Single Correct
1. A point charge Q is placed at a distance 2R form centre of a Q

conducting charged spherical shell of radius R and having charge
Q as shown. The electric potential at point P due to charge on the
R
shell is
3Q P Q
(A) zero (B) O
10 0 R R/2
7Q 11Q
(C) (D)
20 0 R 40 0 R
2R
2. A car moving with a constant velocity towards a stationary

wall sounds a horn of frequency 400 Hz. A person is moving v0 2m / s
in between the car and wall with a constant velocity 2m/s
towards the stationary wall. If the person observes a beats
frequency of 5Hz. The velocity of car is (speed of sound in air
= 340 m/s)
(A) 10 m/s (B) 20 m/s
(C) 30 m/s (D) 40 m/s
3. L
In the circuit shown in the figure, R . Switch S is closed at L R
C
time t = 0. The current through C and L would be equal after a time
t equal to C R
(A) CR (B) CR ln 2
L S
(C) (D) LR V
R ln 2
4. A bubble of radius R is formed on a ring of radius a and mass

m. The ring is floating in air in equilibrium. The surface tension of
liquid is
mgR mgR
(A) (B) R
2 2 R
4 a 2 a
2mgR 4mgR
(C) 2
(D) 2
a a
5. In the arrangement shown, all the pulleys are smooth and

massless and all the springs are light. The time period of small K 2K
oscillation of block is K
3m 3m
(A) 2 (B) 4
K K
2 3m 4 3m
(C) (D) m
3 K 3 K
K 4K
3
Section - A
6. Two different coils have selfinductances L1 8 mH and L2 2 mH . The current in one coil is
increased at a constant rate. The current in the second coil is also increased at the same
constant rate. At a certain instant of time, the power given to the two coils is the same. At that
time, the current the induced voltage and the energy stored in the first coil are i1 , V1 and W1
respectively. Corresponding values for the second coil at the same instant are i2 , V2 and W2
respectively. Then
i1 1 i1 W2 1 V1
(A) (B) 4 (C) (D) 4
i2 4 i2 W1 4 V2
7. The uniform magnetic field perpendicular to the plane of a

dB B
conducting ring of radius a changes at the rate ,
dt a
then
(A) all the points on the ring are at the same potential
2
(B) the emf induced in the ring is a
(C) electric field intensity E at any point on the ring is zero
(D) electric field intensity at any point on the ring is
E a / 2
8. The loop shown moves with a velocity v is a uniform magnetic field of L

magnitude B , directed into the paper. The potential difference between P P
v
and Q is e . L L/ 2
1 B Q
(A) e Blv (B) e Blv
2
(C) P is positive with respect to Q . (D) Q is positive with respect to P .
9. Two parallel resistanceless rails are connected by an

inductor of inductance L at one end as shown in Fig. A
magnetic field B exists in the space which is perpendicular L l
to the plane of the rails. Now a conductor of length l and
mass m is placed transverse on the rail and given an
impulse J towards the rightward direction. Then choose the
correct option (s).
(A) Velocity of the conductor is half of the initial velocity
3J 2 L
after a displacement of the conductor d
4 B 2l 2 m
(B) Current flowing through the inductor at the instant when velocity of the conductor is half of the
3J 2
initial velocity is i
4 Lm
(C) Velocity of the conductor is half of the initial velocity after a displacement of the conductor
3J 2 L
d
B 2l 2 m
(D) Current flowing through the inductor at the instant when velocity of the conductor is half of the
3J 2
initial velocity is i
mL
4
P2
10. During an experiment an ideal gas is found to obey a condition = constant ( = density of

gas). The gas is initially at temperature T0, pressure P0 and density 0 . The gas expands such

that density changes to 0 . Then which of the following is/are correct:
2
(A) The pressure of the gas changes to 2P0
(B) The temperature of the gas changes to 2T0
(C) The graph of the above process on the P T diagram is parabola.
(D) The graph of the above process on the P T diagram is hyperbola.
11. The galvanometer shown in the figure has resistance 10 . It 10

is shunted by a series combination of a resistance S = 1
and an ideal cell of emf 2V. A current 2A passes as shown. G
Then choose the correct statement(s). 2A
(A) The reading of the galvanometer is 1A
(B) The reading of the galvanometer is zero
(C) The potential difference across the resistance S is 1.5 V
(D) The potential difference across the resistance S is 2V S=1 2V
12. Velocity-time graph of a particle executing SHM is shown in figure. v

Select the correct alternative (s) 4

(A) at position 1 displacement of particle may be positive or 3
negative 2 t
(B) at position 2 displacement of particle is negative 1
(C) at position 3 acceleration of particle is positive
(D) at position 4 acceleration of particle is positive
13. The speed v of a particle moving along a straight line, when it is at a distance x from a fixed point
on the line is v2 = 144 9x2. Select the correct alternative (s)
2
(A) the motion of the particle is SHM with time period T = units
3
(B) the maximum displacement of the particle from the fixed point is 4 units
(C) the magnitude of acceleration at a distance 3 units from the fixed point is 27 units
(D) the motion of the particle is periodic but not simple harmonic
Section C
Numerical Based
14. In the adjacent figure, a time varying nonuniform magnetic field x
B B0 rt is shown. Where r is the distance from the centre and B B0 rt
t is time. The induced electric field strength at a radial distance
2
R BR R
r is E 0 . Find the value of K.
2 3K
15. A particle moves with deceleration along the circle of radius R so that at any moment of time the
magnitude of tangential acceleration is two times the magnitude of its normal acceleration. If
initial speed of particle is v0 and the speed of particle as a function of distance covered S is
S
n
R
v v0e . Find the value of n.
5
16. A solid cylinder of mass m and radius R is placed on m, R

a rough horizontal surface and imparted an initial
v0
velocity v0 and angular velocity 0 as shown. If v0
4R 0 v0
cylinder starts rolling without slipping with a velocity 4R
3v0
. Find the value of K.
K Rough
17. A uniform metallic rod of length 1m is rigidly clamped at A C D B

two points C and D and longitudinal stationary waves
are set up in the rod. If fundamental frequency of
longitudinal vibration of the rod is f 10m KHz. Find
the value of m.
11 2
( rod 1.6 10 N / m , rod 2500kg / m )
3 10cm 60cm 30cm
3
18. Magnetic field inside a cylindrical wire of radius R varies with distance r from its axis as B = Kr ,
2
nKr
where K is a positive constant. If current density inside the wire varies as j . Find the
0
value of n.
6

Section A
MCQ Single Correct
1. Which of the following solutions will have a pH of 4.74?
3th
(A) 100 ml of 1M CH3COOH (pKa = 4.74) at the of the equivalence point using NaOH.
4
(B) 50 ml of 1M CH3COONa + 25 ml of 1M HCl
(C) 50 ml of 1M CH3COOH + 25 ml of 1M NaOH
(D) (B) and (C) both are correct.
(use log3 = 0.477)
2. When N2O5 is heated, it dissociates as N 2O5 N 2O3 O2 , Kc=4.5. At the same time, N2O3 also
decomposes as N 2O3 N 2 O O2 . If initially 4 moles of N2O5 are taken in a 1 l flask and allowed
to attain equilibrium, concentration of O2 was found to be 4.5M. Which of the following is/are
correct?
5
(A) Equilibrium concentration of N2O is .
3
7
(B) Equilibrium concentration of N2O3 is .
6
(C) Equilibrium constant of the reaction N 2O3 N 2 O O2 is approximately 6.428.
(D) All are correct.
3. The volume temperature graphs of a given mass of an ideal gas at constant pressures are
shown below. What is the correct order of pressures?
P3
V P2
P1
0K 273 K T
(A) P1 P3 P2 (B) P1 P2 P3
(C) P2 P3 P1 (D) P2 P1 P3
4. If all the electrons in the last subshell of Cl are excited to the higher orbitals, maximum value
(n + l + m) for unpaired electrons in Chlorine 17 Cl is:
(A) 28 (B) 25 (C) 20 (D) none of these
5. Which has maximum dipole moment?
(A) Cl (B) Cl
Cl Cl Cl
Cl
(C) Cl Cl (D) Cl
Cl
Cl
7
Section - A
6. (i) A blue compound (A) when heated, loses its water of crystallization and becomes white (B).
When (B) absorbs moisture it again becomes blue.
(ii) Aqueous solution of (A) gives white ppt. with BaCl2 solution, and on reaction with
K4 [ Fe(CN )6 ] gives a brown chocolate colour (C).
(iii) (A) reacts with Kl to give l2 and a white ppt. (D)
(iv) (A) reacts with KCN to give a white ppt. (F), which dissolves in excess of KCN to give soluble
(G).
(v) (A) reacts with NH4OH to give a pale blue ppt. (H) which dissolves in excess of NH4OH in
presence of ( NH 4 )2 SO4 to give a deep blue colour (I).
(vi) (A) reacts with NaOH to give an insoluble ppt. which on boiling gives a black ppt. of (J). The
black ppt. reacts with glucose to give a red ppt. (K)
Identify the correct statement/s.
(A) The white ppt. (F) is due to Cu(CN)2 (B) The compound (H) is [Cu( NH 3 ) 4 ]2
(C) The compound (D) is Cu2 I 2 (D) The compound (G) is [Cu (CN ) 4 ]3
7. A compound that contains only copper and gold atoms crystallizes into a cubic unit cell for which
the cell edge is 0.375 nm. The positions of some of the unique atoms are described by the
following coordinates:
1 1 1 1 1 1
Au = 0, 0, 0 and Cu : 0 , , ; , 0 , ; , ,0
2 2 2 2 2 2
Which of the following is/ are correct (assuming the other Au and Cu atoms are at similar
positions)
(A) The coordination number of Au atoms is 8
(B) The coordination number of Cu atoms is 4
1 1 1
(C) There is no atom at , , in this unit cell. If there were, its coordination number would
2 2 2
be 6
(D) The shortest distance between Cu atoms in this unit cell is 0.265 nm.
8. An element A has BCC structure and another guest atom B, of largest possible size are present
at each edge centre without disturbing the original unit cell dimension. Which of the following
is/are correct?
rB
(A) 0.155 (B) Packing fraction = 0.684
rA
(C) Packing fraction = 0.72 (D) 2 rA rB = a
Where rA = radius of A ; rB = radius of B ; a = unit all length

9. Potassium fluoride (KF) has NaCl type of unit cell with radius of K and F ions 132 and 135
pm respectively.
Which of the following is/are correct?
(A) Shortest K - F distance is 267 pm (B) edge length of the unit cell is 524 pm
(C) Closest K K distance is 377.6 pm (D) None is correct.
10. Among the following, the correct statement is/are

(A) Argentite and bauxite are oxide ores
(B) Calamine and azurite are carbonates
(C) Zinc blende and pyrites are oxides
(D) Malachite and azurite are ores of copper
8
11. Predict which of the following have a positive entropy change

(A) A liquid substance crystallizes into a solid
(B) Temperature of a crystal is increased
(C) CaCO3 s CaO s O2 g
(D) N 2 g 1 atm N 2 g 0.5 atm
12. The Maxwell Boltzmann distribution law of molecular speed is graphically represented as;
Number of molecules
A
molecular speed
This curve has which of the following characteristics.
(A) It has symmetrical distribution
(B) The point A on x-axis represents the most probable speed.
(C) The area under the curve gives the total number of molecules
(D) The maxima shifts to the right as the temperature increases.
13. Which of the following are correct about liquid junction potential?
(A) The liquid junction potential is due to different ionic mobility of ions.
(B) The liquid junction potential can be measured directly.
(C) The magnitude of liquid junction potential depends upon relative speed of ions.
(D) It increases the E.M.F. of cell.
Section C
Numerical Based
14. An aromatic compound contains 69.4% carbon and 5.8% hydrogen. A sample of 0.303 g of this
compound was analyzed for nitrogen by kjeldahls method. The ammonia evolved was absorbed
in 50 ml of 0.05 M H2SO4. The excess of the acid required 25 ml of 0.1 M NaOH for
neutralization. Its molecular mass is 121. Determine the molecular formula and express the
w x y z
answer in the form of if the molecular formula of the compound is C w H x N y Oz .
2
15. The standard molar enthalpy of formation of benzene(liq.) at 25C is 49 KJ/mole. Find the value
x
Where
Enthalpy of hydrogenation of cyclohexene in KJ/mol Resonance energy of benezene in KJ/mol
x
11
at 25C if the resonance energy of benzene is known to be -152 KJ/mole and Hcombustion of
C(graphite) is -393.5 KJ/mole, Hcombustion of H2 is -272.5 KJ/mole and that of C6H12 is -3840
KJ/mole respectively.
16. Depression of f.pt. of 0.01 m aq. CH 3COOH solution is 0.02046 K . 1m urea solution freezes at
1.860 C. Assuming molarity equal to molality, pH of CH 3COOH solution is __________
17. How many products will be obtained when propane is subjected to vapour phase nitration?
9
0 0
18. A perfect gas undergoes a reversible adiabatic expansion from 27 C, 200 atm to -183 C and 10
atm. What is the probable atomicity of the gas?
10

Section A
MCQ Single Correct
1. Suppose you are required to form different words with the help of the letters of the word
INTEGER, Let m 1 be the number of words in which I and N are never together and m 2 be the
number of words which start with I and end with R. Then m 1/m2 is
(A) 42 (B) 30
1
(C) 6 (D)
30
2. If the parabola y a b x 2 b c x c a touches the x-axis in the interval [0, 1] then

the line ax + by +c = 0
(A) always passes through a fixed point (B) represents the family of parallel lines
(C) data insufficient (D) none of these
n 1 n+1
3. If total number of runs scored in n matches is (2 n 2) where n > 1, and the runs
4
scored in the kth match are given by k. 2n+1k, where 1 k n. Then value of n is,
(A) 6 (B) 7
(C) 8 (D) 9
2 2
4. The joint equation of two altitudes of an equilateral triangle is x 3 y 4 x 6 3 y 5 0 . The
third altitude has the equation
(A) x 2 0 (B) y 3 (C) x 2 (D) None of these
f b f a f b, c f a , b
5. If f a, b and f a, b, c , then f a, b, c
ba ca
f a f b f c 1 1 1 f a f b f c 1 1 1
(A) 1 1 1 a b c (B) 1 1 1 a b c
2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2
a b c a b c a b c a b c
f a f b f c 1 1 1
2 2 2 2 2 2
(C) a b c a b c (D) None of these
1 1 1 a b c
Section - A
x
6. A differentiable function satisfies f x f t cos t cos t x dt
0
which of the following
hold good
1
(A) f x has a minimum value 1 e (B) f x has a maximum value 1 e

(C) f " e (D) f ' 0 1
2
2
7. If x R let f: R R be a function given by f(x) = 8x x 4 and g(x) = 3 + |x 2|, let (x) be a
max f(t) : x 1 t x 2, 0 x 5
function defined by (x) = ;
min x 5 : 5x8
11
min g(t) : x 1 t x 2 x 2,x 4

(x) = , then (x) is
max 2x 3 : 4 x 10
(A) discontinuous and not differentiable
(B) continuous but not differentiable in (0, 8)
(C) continuous and differentiable in (0, 3) (5, )
(D) differentiable at x = 3
dy
8. Let y f x , where y is a continuous function of x with y 0 1 and
dx
e x if 0 x 2
f x 2 which of the following hold(s) good
e if x 2
1 1 3 3
(A) y 1 2e (B) y ' 1 e (C) y 3 2e (D) y ' 3 2e
x2 y2
9. If two tangents can be drawn to the different branches of hyperbola 1 from the point
1 4
, , then
2
(A) 2, 0 (B) 0, 2
(C) , 2 (D) 2,
10. Coordinates of four vertices of a tetrahedron OABC are (0,0,0) (0, 0, 2) (0, 4, 0) (6, 0, 0)
respectively . A point P inside the tetrahedron is at the same distance r from the four planes of
the tetrahedron, then r cannot be
(A) 2/3 (B) 2 (C) 4 (D) 4/3
10
11. Let AB B 2 A , if AB B k A10 , then factors of K are
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 11 (D) 31
12.
Let 1 tan10 1 tan 20 ....... 1 tan 450 2K then K 1 is divisible by
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 6
13. Given that x 2 4 y 2 9 z 2 36 , then x y z can be equal to

(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) - 6 (D) 12
Section C
Numerical Based
2 2 2
14. Total number of all non-negative integral pairs (x, y) for which xy 7 x y , is
15. Let a1 , a2 ,....., a10 be in A.P. and h1 , h2 ,..., h10 be in H.P. If a1 h1 2 and a10 h10 3, then
a4 h7
0 a2 n 4 a2 n 20
2 n
2n
16.
If n N and 1 x x ar x r and A a4 0 a2 n 5 then A
r 0
a20 a5 0
1
1
17. For f x sin 2 cos
tan 2 tan 1 x

Number of real solution of equation tan f x 0 is
12
4 3 2
18. Let f x x ax bx ax 1 be a polynomial where a and b are real number, then if
f x 0 has two distinct negative roots and equal positive roots then least integral value of a is
FIITJEE

this purpose.
INSTRUCTIONS
SAMPLE TEST - 3

OMR sheet.
designated places.

answer.
\
2
PART - I: PHYSICS
Section A
MCQ Single Correct
1. A particle is projected with an initial velocity v0 20m / s at y
an angle 530 from horizontal. The velocity of particle will make
0 2
an angle 37 with the horizontal after time (take g = 10 m/s )
(A) 0.3 sec (B) 0.5 sec
(C) 0.7 sec (D) 0.9 sec v
20m / s v0 370
530
x
2. A block of mass m = 10 kg is placed on a rough horizontal

F=(10t)N
surface with s 0.4 and k 0.3 as shown. A time m=10kg
varying horizontal force F 10t N is applied to the block.
s 0.4
Then, the velocity of the block at t = 6 sec is (take g = 10
m/s2) k 0.3
(A) 2 m/s (B) 4 m/s
(C) 6 m/s (D) 8 m/s
3. A particle is attached to one end of a massless inextensible l

string of length l 0.7 m whose other end is fixed at a point O
0
O in a vertical plane. Another nail P is fixed at a distance r 37
0
from Point O and line OP makes an angle 37 from
horizontal. Initially the string is horizontal and if the particle is r
released from rest, it just completes the vertical circle around P

nail P. Then the value of r is cos 37 0.8
0

(A) 0.3 m (B) 0.4 m (C) 0.5 m (D) 0.6 m
4. What is the equivalent refractive index of the combination of two liquids of same layer width but
different refractive indices 1 & 2
d 1
?
d 2
1 2 21 2
(A) 1 2 (B) (C) 1 2 (D)
2 1 2
3
5. Two identical small balls A and B each of mass

m = 2kg are connected by a massless v0 10m / s
inextensible string of length l 10cm and A d 6cm B
m
placed at a separation d 6cm on a smooth
m
horizontal surface so that string is initially
slacked. Now an initial horizontal velocity
l 10 cm
v0 10m / s is imparted to the ball B
perpendicular to line AB as shown. Then, the
impulse due to tension in the string, when it
becomes taut, is
(A) 2 N s (B) 4N s (C) 6N s (D) 8N - s
Section - A
6. In a stationary wave system, all the particles of the medium
(A) have zero displacement simultaneously at some instant
(B) have maximum displacement simultaneously at some instant
(C) are at rest simultaneously at some instant
(D) reach maximum velocity simultaneously at some instant
7. A charged particle having charge q and mass m enters into a uniform magnetic field of induction
B at an angle with direction of the field. The frequency of revolution of the particle
(A) is independent of the angle
(B) is proportional to the specific charge q/m of the particle
(C) is inversely proportional to the value of B.
(D) is independent of speed of the particle, at the instant entering into the field.
8. When a nucleus with atomic number Z and mass number A undergoes a radioactive decay
process
(A) Z will increase but A will not increase if the process is + decay
(B) both Z and A will decrease if the process is -decay
(C) Z will increase but A will not increase if the process in -decay
(D) Z will decrease but A will not increase if the process is +decay
9. A metallic rod of length 1 m is rigidly clamped at, two points C 15 cm C 60 cm D 25 cm

A B
and D as shown and the longitudinal standing waves are set up
in the rod. Then choose the correct option(s)
Y rod 2 1011 N / m 2 , rod 8000kg / m3
(A) The fundamental frequency of longitudinal vibration of rod is 25 KHz
(B) The first overtone frequency of longitudinal vibration of rod is 50 KHz
(C) The first overtone frequency of longitudinal vibration of rod is 75 KHz
(D) The second overtone frequency of longitudinal vibration of rod is 75 KHz
10. Two blocks A and B each of mass m = 2kg are placed at the ends of a plank of mass M = 8kg
and length l = 8 m which is placed on a smooth horizontal surface. A horizontal force F = 34 N is
applied to the plank, then choose the correct option(s) (g = 10m/s2)
A B
A 0.4 m m B 0.2
M = 8 kg F = 34 N
l 8
(A) frictional force acting on the block B is 4 N
(B) frictional force acting on the block A is 6 N
(C) time after which the two blocks will collide is 2 sec
4
(D) time after which the two blocks will collide is 4 sec
11. A viscous liquid of density ' ' and viscosity ' ' flows
through a tube of length ' l ' and radius R the velocity
of flow varies with distance r from the axis of the tube
2
r
as v v0 1 2
. If flow is steady, then
R

2
v0 R
(A) the volume of liquid flowing per second through the tube is
2
4lv0
(B) the pressure difference at the two ends of the tube is 2
R
2lv0
(C) the pressure difference at two ends of the tube is 2
R
(D) the viscous force acting on the tube is 4 lv0
12. In the AC circuit shown in the figure

(A) the net impedance of circuit is 4 10 F R2= 20
C = 500
5
(B) the rms current through resistor R1 is A
2 L = 0.1H R1 = 10
5
(C) the rms current through resistor R2 is A ~
4
(D) the power developed in the resistor R1 is 62.5 watt 50sin 100t
13. Two moles of an ideal monoatomic gas is taken V

through a cyclic process ABCA as shown in V-T
C
diagram. During the process BC, VT = constant. Then VC
(A) the heat supplied to the gas during the process AB
is 1500R
(B) the heat rejected by the gas during the process VB B
BC is 300R
(C) the work done by the gas during the process BC is VA
A
600R
(D) the work done by the gas during the process CA is TA=300
T
TB=600K
1200R. K
Section C
Numerical Based
14. A parallel beam of light of intensity I is incident on the I

4
surface of an air bubble of radius R in the water .
3
R
3I
If intensity of refracted light is and the power of light
4
27 I R 2
refracted inside the air bubble is . Then find the air
8K
value of K.
Water
4 / 3
5
15. The acceleration time graph of a particle moving in a straight

line is as shown in figure. The velocity of the particle at time t =
0 is 2 m/s. Find the velocity after 2 s. a
4
m/s2
1 2 t(s)
16. The particle of mass m is thrown tangentially from the GM

surface of an earth like heavenly body (mass M, radius R = Vo
m 2R

6M
9 km) with velocity v o , find the maximum distance R
2R M
reached by the particle w.r.t. the centre of the heavenly

body (assume m < < M).
17. What is the maximum attainable temperature of ideal gas under the process which follow
1
P Po e V where Po = 4e( e = 2.303) and = are positive constants and P and V are
R
pressure and volume respectively. (R = universal gas constant)
18. Two separate air bubble (radii 2 mm and 4 mm) formed of the same liquid (surface tension 0.07
N/m) come together to form a double bubble. Find the radius of curvature of the internal film
surface common to both the bubbles.
6

Section A
MCQ Single Correct
1. Born Haber cycle is not helpful in the determination of
(i) Binding energy of nucleons
(ii) hydration energy of cation
(iii) electron affinity and ionization potential
(iv) Electronegativity
(A) (iii) and (iv) (B) (i), (ii) and (iv) (C) (ii), (iii), (iv) (D) (ii) and (iii)
2. Consider the following reaction flowchart

Yellow colour (W)
Ti SO4 2 / H
KMnO4 / OH
E + F X Brown ppt. (V)
(absorbed in alk. pyrogallol) Cl2
KI/starch
Blue solution (Z)

Which of the following is correct statement?
(A) When Cl2 reacts with X, X acts as a reductant.
(B) Oxidation number of the most electronegative element in the compound X is 1.
(C) Both (A) and (B) are correct
(D) None of these
3. The decomposition temperatures of alkaline earth metal carbonates are given below
BeCO3 MgCO3 CaCO3 SrCO3 BaCO3
0 0
100 C ..............
900 C ........... 1300 0 C
The decomposition temperatures of MgCO3 and SrCO3 are respectively
0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0
(A) 540 C ,1290 C (B) 1290 C ,540 C (C) 540 C ,800 C (D) 1290 C ,1200 C
4. Consider the following datas
a b
Gas 2 2
L atm / mol L / mol
He 0.0341 0.0237
CO2 3.59 0.0427
Which of the following is correct?
(A) He gas would require the greater number of calories to reheat to the original temperature if
the volume of each were doubled by sudden expansion into a vacuum.
(B) CO2 gas would do more work on the surroundings if the original volume of each gas was
doubled by expanding against a constant pressure of 1 atm at constant temperature.
(C) If a given quantity of heat were added to each gas, CO2 would experience the greater rise in
temperature.
(D) None of the above statements is correct.
7
0 4
5. The solubility of sparingly soluble salt Ax B y in water at 25 C 1.4 10 M . The solubility
11
product is 1.1 10 . The possibilities are (i) x 1, y 2 (ii) x 2, y 1 (iii) x 1, y 3 (iv)
x 3, y 1 . Indicate the right choice
(A) (i) and (ii) (B) (i) and (iii) (C) (iii) and (iv) (D) (ii) and (iv)
Section - A
6. Choose the correct statement(s)
(A) In P4O6 , each O atom has two lone pairs and each P atom has one lone pair.
(B) In P4O10 , each O atom has two lone pairs and no P atom has one lone pair
(C) Boiling point of O2 is greater than boiling point of N2
3
(D) Average bond order of PO4 1.25
7. Which of the following will give the test of nitrogen in the Lassaignes method?
O S
(A) B) (C) NH2 (D) H 2 N NH 2
H2N C NH2 H2N C NH2
8. Select the correct reaction
CH2
2 Na OH 4
H SO conc .
(A) Br Cl
B)
2

Mg / dry
NaOH aq.
(C) Br Br
ether
(D) C6 H 5 SO3 H C6 H 6
9. Which of the following statement is/are correct?

(A) 2-bromocyclohexanone exists majority in a chair form with Br atom in equatorial position.
(B) 2-bromocylohexanone exists majorly in a chair form with Br atom in axial position.
(C) 2-bromo-4,4-dimethylcyclohexanone exists majorly in a chair form with Br atom at the
equatorial position.
(D) 2-bromo-4,4-dimethylcyclohexananone exists majorly in a boat form with Br atom at the axial
position.
10. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct?

(A) K Cr H 2O 2 C2 O4 2 can show cis trans isomerism and also optical isomerism.
(B) Co en 3 Cl3 exhibits optical isomerism
(C) Co NH 3 5 NO2 NO3 2 shows ionization isomerism.
(D) Pt NH 3 H 2O Cl2 can show geometrical isomerism.
11. Choose correct statement(s)

(A) Bond length of B- F bond in BF3 is longer than bond length of B F in BF4
(B) is more acidic than
S S O O
(C) Both singlet and triplet carbons are electrophilic

(D) CH 3 3 COH is more acidic than CH 3 3 SiOH
8
12. Choose the correct statement(s)

(A) LiClO4 is much more soluble in water than NaClO4
(B) Sodium metal can be used for drying diethyl ether but not for ethanol
(C) LiH is stable to approximately 9000C, while NaH decomposes at 3500C
(D) All the above
13. Select the correct statement(s)

(A) Benzene is a saturated molecule.
(B) A positive catalyst can change H of the reaction
(C) A mixture of reactants may be thermodynamically unstable but kinetically stable
(D) A negative catalyst increases the activation energy of the reaction.
Section C
Numerical Based
3
14. Number of sp hybrid carbon atoms present in the product (B) is
dil OH
Cyclohexane (A) (B)

15. How many of the following amine can give carbylamines reaction.
NH2
NH2 NH2
, N , , , Ph CH2 CH NH2
H CH3
16. Calculate order of the reaction given w.r.t. A2

A2 B2
3C
Steps:
2
(i) 2 A, K c
A2
A
A2
Slow
(ii) 2 A B2
C
17. Degree of unsaturation present in product of the following reaction.

H
2 Ph CH CH 2 Product
18. An insulted container contains 1 mole of a liquid, molar volume 100 ml at 1 bar. When liquid is
3
steeply passed to 100 bar, volume decreases to 90 ml. H is x 10 bar / ml. Value of x is
9

Section A
MCQ Single Correct
1. If x, x , x forms a G.P. then x is x 0 . (where is G.I.F. and is fractional part of x)

(A) Natural number (B) Irrational Number (C) Integer (D) None of these
2
sin ax 2 bx c
2. If is a repeated root of ax bx c 0 then lim is
x x tan x
(A) a (B) b (C) c (D) 0

3. Let r .a d1 0, r .b d 2 0 and r .c d3 0 are the vector equations of three distinct non

parallel planes such that a. b c 0 then which of the statement is correct?

(A) If r1 .a d1 0, r1.b d 2 0 and r1 .c d3 0 then, there exist exactly one point which is
equidistant from three given planes.

(B) number of solution of plane r .n d 4 with the given three planes is either 0 or 1.

(C) r1 .a d1 0, r1.b d 2 0 and r1 .c d3 0 , then r .a d1 x1 r .b d 2 x2 r .c d 3
for some scalar x1 & x2

(D) None of these
4. If x has exactly 3 possible values greater than one for which exactly two consecutive terms in the
n
expansion of 1 x are equal in modulus, then n can be equal to
(A) 4 (B) 3 (C) 5 (D) 6
5. If the length of the sides of a triangle are three consecutive natural numbers and its largest angle
is twice the smallest one, then area of triangle is
15 35 3 21 5
(A) 7 (B) (C) (D) None of these
4 4 4
Section - A
6. Which of the following curves are orthogonal?

x/ 2a 2 x /2 a
(A) y 4ax & y e (B) y 4ax & y e
2 2 2 2 2
(C) y ax & x y c (D) y ax & x y c
7. If the axis of a parabola and a rectangular hyperbola is same and the vertex of the parabola is
same as center of rectangular hyperbola then if locus of the point whose chord of contact with
respect to the parabola touches the hyperbola is a curve then
(A) cuve is ellipse with the same center
(B) curve is ellipse whose axes concide with the axes of the hyperbola
(C) curve is hyperbola with the same center
(D) curve is hyperbola whose axes concide with the axes of the hyperbola
8. If sin 3 sin e
sin
cos d a sin 3 b cos 2 c sin d cos E esin F , then
(A) b2 (B) d = 0 (C) b = 12 (D) d = 1
10
a b c

9. Let A b c a If trace ( A) 9 and a, b, c are positive integers such that

c a b

ab bc ca 26 . Let A1 denotes the adjoint of A; A2 denote adjoint of A1.......and so on.
If value of det A4 is M then
48 24
(A) M 3 (B) M 3
(C) Last two digits of M is 61 (D) Det A 27
10. An urn contains r red balls and b black balls. If probability of getting two red balls in first two
1
draws (without replacement) is , then value of r can be
2
(A) 3 (B) 15 (C) 1 (D) 6
n n 2 n n
11. Let Z r , r 1, 2,..., n are the n distinct roots of equation C1 x C2 x ..... C n x 0 in
argand plane. If there exist exactly one Z r , r 1, 2,...., n such that

Z r 1 2i
arg

then n can be

1 1 2i 4

(A) 5 (B) 8 (C) 12 (D) 16
12. Let f x
x x x x
1 2
such that x2 x1 and x4 x3 . If range of f x is , 1,
1
x x x x
3 4
4
then
(A) x1 x3 x4 x2 (B) x3 x1 x2 x4 (C) x1 x2 x3 x4 (D) f ' x 0 has two
real roots
13. A plane cuts the rectangular prism, having x y 0 , x y 0 and x = 1 as equation of its faces,
in a section which forms equilateral triangle, then direction ratio of normal to plane can be

(A) 1, 2,0 (B) 1, 2,0 (C) 2,0,1 (D) 2,0,1
Section C
Numerical Based
1 1 1
14. Let S n denote the number of ordered pairs (x, y) satisfying where n > 1 and
x y n
x, y N then S 6 is
15.
If points x, y are chosen randomly from intervals 0,3 and 0,1 respectively and the probability
2
that y x is p then 3p is
16. If tangents OP and OQ are drawn to variable circle having radius r and center lying on xy 1
and locus of circumcenter of OPQ is xy 1 then is
11
9
17.
2
If f x 2 x 1 x 2 x 2 then number of integers in domain of f x
x 2x
18. Maximum integral value of k for which all the roots of the equation
x 4 4 x 3 8 x 2 2k 0 are real and distinct
FIITJEE
JEE (A) SAMPLE TEST -1 PAPER - 2
this purpose.
INSTRUCTIONS
SAMPLE TEST-1
4. Each part is further divided into two sections: Section A & C.
OMR sheet.
designated places.

(iii) Section-A (15 18) contains 2 Paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 2 Multiple Choice
Questions have to be answered. Each question has Only One Correct answer and carries +3 marks
for the correct answer and zero mark for a wrong answer.
2
PART - I: PHYSICS
Section A
MCQ Single Correct
1. A time varying non-uniform magnetic field in a cylindrical

3
region having radius R, B kr t is shown in the figure. 3
Where k is a constant, r is the distance from centre and t is
B = kr t
time. The induced electric field strength at a distance r = 2R
from the axis is R
4 4
kR kR
(A) (B)
10 20
kR 4 kR 4
(C) (D)
30 40
2. In the circuit shown, switch s is closed at t = 0. Then the S R
current through the inductor in steady state condition is
2 4
(A) (B) 3
13R 13R L
2R
8 12
(C) (D) R R
13R 13R R

3. A point mass m oscillates along the x-axis as defined by x x0 cos t . Its acceleration is
4
defined as a Acos t . Then
3
(A) A 2 x0 , (B) A x0 , (C) A 2 x0 , (D) A 2 x0 ,
4 4 4 4
4. Two thin films each of surface tension T are formed between a

A C
rectangular frame and semicircular rings AB and CD each of mass
m and radius R. The semicircular rings are also connected by an K
ideal non deformed spring of stiffness k and released from rest.
Then the maximum velocity of each semicircular ring is
2 4 B D
(A) TR (B) TR
mk mk
8 1
(C) TR (D) TR
mk 2mk
5. The pitch of a screw gauge is 1 mm and its cap has 100 divisions. When a wire is placed
th
between its studs, the main scale reading is 2 mm and 35 division of circular scale coincides
with the reference line. There is no zero error in the screw gauge. If the length of the wire is
9.45cm, then the curved surface area of the wire with true significant figure is
(A) 6.98 cm2 (B) 5.24 cm2 (C) 5.68 cm2 (D) 4.85 cm2
6.
Two equal point charges of 1 C each are located at points i j k m and 2i 3 j k m.
What is the magnitude of electrostatic force between them?
3 6 9 12
(A) 10 N (B) 10 N (C) 10 N (D) 10 N
3
Section - A
3
7. A point object is placed at 20 cm from a convex glass thin lens 0 of focal length 10 cm.
2
The final image of object will be formed at infinity if
(A) another convex lens of focal length 10 cm is placed in contact with the previous lens.
(B) another concave lens of focal length 20 cm is placed in contact with the previous lens.
6
(C) The whole system is immersed in a liquid of refractive index .
5
9
(D) The whole system is immersed in a liquid of refractive index .
8
8. Two moles of an ideal monoatomic gas is taken V

through a cyclic process ABCA as shown in V-T
C
diagram. During the process BC, VT = constant. Then VC
(A) the heat supplied to the gas during the process AB
is 1500R
(B) the heat rejected by the gas during the process BC VB B
is 300R
(C) the work done by the gas during the process BC is VA
A
600R
(D) the work done by the gas during the process CA is TA=300 T
TB=600K
1200R. K
9. Three identical metallic plates are kept at small separations as -2Q +6Q +Q
shown. Initially charge -2Q, +6Q and +Q are given to the plates
A, B, and C respectively. Now both the switches S1 and S2 are
closed simultaneously, then A B C
(A) charge flown through S1 is 2Q
(B) charge flown through S1 is 6Q
(C) charge flown through S2 is 5Q
(D) charge flown through S2 is 3Q S1
d 2d
S2
10. Two thin walled long co-axial circular cylinder of radii a 3I

and 2a carrying current 2I and 3I respectively in opposite x x
x
directions are shown in the figure. Then the pressure
x x
exerted on the wall of
2I x
0 I 2
(A) inner cylinder is x
8 2 a 2 x
0 I 2
(B) inner cylinder is x a x
2 2 a 2
9 0 I 2 x x
(C) outer cylinder is
32 2 a 2 x 2a x
3 0 I 2 x
(D) outer cylinder is x
32 2 a 2 x x
x
4
11. A ray of light travelling in air is incident at grazing angle at the y

origin and enters a region whose refractive index varies as
1 e y / a . The medium is bounded by the planes
x 0, x a and y 0 as shown in the figure. 1 e y /a
(A) The equation of trajectory of ray of light in the medium is
x 2a 1 e y / a O
x
(B) The equation of trajectory of ray of light in the medium is 90 0
x 2a 1 e y / 2 a x=0 x=a
(C) The co-ordinates of point at which the ray emerges from
medium are a, a ln 2
(D) The co-ordinates of point at which the ray emerges from
medium are a, 2a ln 2
12. A uniform circular ring of mass m and radius R is m,R

placed on smooth horizontal surface and rotating with
angular velocity '0 ' about a fixed vertical axis passing
through its centre. Now a particle of mass m falls
vertically and gets stuck to the ring at point A as shown
in the fig. then
A
0
0
(A) the angular velocity of ring after collision is
2
20
(B) the angular velocity of ring after collision is
3
(C) the velocity of centre of mass of the ring plus particle
0 R
after collision is
3
0 R
(D) the velocity of particle after collision is
3
13. The electric potential inside a charged sphere varies with the distance r form its centre as V = a
br3, where a and b are positive constant. Then select the correct statement(s) from the
following.
2 2
(A) E r (B) E r (C) r (D) r
(where E = Electric field inside the sphere at a distance r from its centre, volume charge
density inside
the sphere at a distance r from its centre)
14. In the AC circuit shown in the figure

(A) the net impedance of circuit is 4 10 C = 500 F
5
(B) the rms current through resistor R1 is A
2 R2= 20
5
(C) the rms current through resistor R2 is A
4 L = 0.1H R1 = 10
(D) the power developed in the resistor R1 is 62.5 watt
~
50sin 100t
5
Section A
Comprehension Type
Paragraph for question Nos. 15 to 16
A thin uniform rod of mass M and length l is suspended vertically from A
hinged end A. A particle of mass m moving horizontally with a velocity M,l
V0 collides at end B of the rod and gets stuck to it. If the rod rotates up to
horizontal position after collision and then stops. Then answer the
following questions.
M
Take 3
m m V B
15. The angular velocity of the rod just after collision is

3g 5g 7g g
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2l 2l 2l 2l
16. The velocity of particle V0 just before collision is
(A) 10gl (B) 5gl (C) 3gl (D) 2gl
Two smooth parallel horizontal rails are connected with an uncharged C P

S
capacitor of capacitance C and a battery of emf . A conducting rod PQ
of mass m, length l and resistance R is placed on the rails. The switch
S is closed at t = 0.
B
Then answer the following questions. m,l,R
Q
17. The charge on the capacitor in steady state is
mC mC 2mC
(A) (B) (C) (D) C
2 m CB 2l 2 m CB 2l 2 m CB 2l 2
18. The velocity of conducting rod in steady state is
BlC 2BlC 4BlC BlC
(A) (B) (C) (D)
m CB 2l 2 m CB 2l 2 m CB 2l 2 2 m CB 2l 2
6

Section A
MCQ Single Correct
1. Hydroboration of 1-methylcyclopentene using B2 D6 followed by treatment with alkaline
hydrogenperoxide in basic medium gives which of the following
(A) CH3 (B) CH3 (C) CH3 (D) CH3
D D OH OH
OH H D H
H OH H D
2. In which of the following reactions, diastereomers will be formed?
CH3
H D
CH3 CH
HBr
(A)
CCl4
(B) CH
CH2
HBr

CCl4

Br
(C) HBr
(D) All of these

CCl4

3. The gas A2 in the left flask is allowed to react with gas B2

present in right flask as: 2 mole 4 mole
A2 g B2 g 2 AB g ; K c 4 at 270 C A2 B2
What is the concentration of AB when equilibrium is
established? 1l at 270 C 3l at 270C
(A) 1.33 M (B) 2.66 M
(C) 0.66 M (D) 0.33 M
4. The following acid base titration graphs are given:
10
9
7 4 - 9.7 7.46 -10
pH
pH
pH
3 6.55 - 4
3
0 10 30 40 60 0 10 20 30 40
Volume of base
Volume of base Volume of base (III)
(I) (II)
Which of the following graph represents titration of?
7
(i) NH 4OH / HCl WB / S A

(ii) HNO3 / KOH S A / S B
(iii) C6 H5COOH / KOH WA / S B
W B = Weak base
SB = Strong base
W A = Weak acid
SA = Strong acid
Graph Titration
(A) I, II, III (i), (ii), (iii)
(B) I, II, III (ii), (iii), (i)
(C) I, II, III (iii), (ii), (i)
(D) I, II, III (iii), (i), (ii)
5. A six coordinate complex of formula CrCl3 .6 H 2O has green colour. A 0.1 M, 1L solution of the
complex when treated with excess AgNO3 gave 28.7 g of white precipitate. The formula of the
complex would be: (At. wt. of Ag = 108, Cl = 35.5)
(A) Cr H 2O 6 Cl3 (B) CrCl H 2 O 5 Cl2 .H 2O
(C) CrCl2 H 2O 4 Cl .2 H 2O (D) Cr H 2O 3 Cl3 3H 2O
6. A halide C5 H11 Br on treatment with alc. KOH give 2-pentene only. The halide will be:
(A) CH 3CH 2 CH 2CH 2CH 2 Br (B) CH 3CH 2 CH 2CH CH 3
Br
(C) CH 3CH 2 CH CH 2CH 3 (D) CH 3
Br CH 3 CH CH CH 3
Br
Section - A
7. Select the correct statements
(A) Carbon differs form the rest of the family members because of non-availability of d-orbitals in
valence shell
4
(B) The non-existence of PbI4 is due to highly reducing nature of Pb
(C) Because of inert pair effect thallium forms +1 oxidation states.
(D) The first ionization enthalpy is of the following order B < C < O < N
8. During discharging of a lead storage battery, the density of sulphuric acid fell from x to
y gml-1. Sulphuric acid with density x is 39% by mass and with density y is 20% by mass. The
battery holds 3.5 l of the acid and the volume practically remained constant during discharge.
Based on these observations, predict the correct option/s?
(A) The number of ampere-second for which the battery must have been used is
96500
(1365 x -700y) .
98
(B) The minium amount of lead required in any form in a battery if it is designed to deliver 100
amp-hour. (assuming 50% efficiency of the battery) is 1544.46g.
(C) 84.8g of PbSO4 are reduced at the cathode if we charge a lead storage battery for 1.5h with a
constant current of 10 A.
(D) When the cell is discharging, the reaction at anode converts Pb to PbO2.
8
9. Consider the following statements for the compound NO BF4 . Which of the above statement/s
is/are not correct?
(A) It has 5 and 2 bonds.
(B) It is a diamagnetic species.
(C) Nitrogen Oxygen bond length in the given compound is higher than nitric oxide (NO).
(D) B-F bond length in this compound is lower than in BF3.
10. At very high pressure, the van der Waals equation reduces to
aRT RT a
(A) PV RT Pb (B) PV (C) P (D) PV RT
V2 V b V
11. Identify the name of the reaction involved in forming the following product from the reactants
given below:
H3C H3C
OCH3
H
C2 H 5O
OCH 3 CH 2 CHCOCH 3

O O
(A) Perkin condensation (B) Michael addition
(C) Aldol condensation (D) Dehydration
12. Consider the following reaction sequence:

Maleic Acid

i Ac2O
LiAlH 4 2
ii H . Pt

A B
C D E F
O3 / Zn
O
1 mole of + 2 mole of HCHO
O
(A) D is CH2OH
CH2OH
(B) E on heating undergoes Ei reaction
(C) The IHD of C is 6
(D) The compound B can undergo Friedel craft reaction.
13. Suppose that the vapour over an ideal solution contain n1 mole of liquid 1 and n2 mole of liquid
2 and occupies a volume V under pressure P. Which of the following is/are correct for the
0 0 0 0
above solution if P1 and P2 are the vapour pressure of pure liquids and V1 , m and V2 , m are
the molar volume occupies by the vapours of the pure liquids having vapour pressure P10 and P20
respectively.
(A) V n1V10 , m n2V20 , m
1 1 1 1
(B) 0 0 0 y1
P P2 P1 P2
P20 y1
(C) x1 0
P1 P20 P10 y1
9
P10 P20 P20

(D) x1 for which y1 x1 has a maximum value
P10 P20
14. Select the correct statements if 9.65 ampere current is passed for 1 hour through the cell
Ag | Ag || Cu 2 | Cu :
1M 1M
+ +
(A) Ag will oxidize to Ag and new [Ag ] = 1.36 M
+ + +
(B) Ag will reduce to Ag and new [Ag ] = 0.64 M
2+ 2+
(C) Cu will oxidize to Cu and new [Cu ] = 0.82 M
2+ 2+
(D) Cu will oxidize to Cu and new [Cu ] = 0.82 M
Section A
Comprehension Type
Consider an atom whose nucleus is located at x y z 0 . If the probability of finding an s-orbital
electron in a tiny volume around x a, y z 0 is 1 105. Solve the following questions:
15. What is the probability of finding the electron in the in the same sized volume around
x z 0, y a.
(A) 0 (B) 105 (C) 105 a (D) 105 a 3
16. What is the probability at the second site if the electron were in p z -orbital?
(A) 0 (B) 105 (C) 4 105 (D) 105 a 3
1.5g of an impure sample containing Na2CO3 and NaHCO3 is dissolved in 100ml of water. A 25ml
portion of this solution required 22.45ml of 0.202N HCl using methylorange as indicator. In a
separate analysis, 25ml portion of the same stock solution is mixed with 30ml of 0.204N NaOH
and then excess of BaCl2 is added resulting in precipation of all carbonate as BaCO3. Filterate
required 9.98ml HCl of same strength . Based on the above observations reply to the following
questions:
(Use Molar Masses: Na2CO3=106, NaHCO3 = 84)
17. Calculate mass percentage of Na2CO3 in the mixture.

(A) 6.09% (B) 7.5% (C) 5.5% (D) 76%
18. The milliequivalent of Na2CO3 in 25ml of O.S is which of the following?

(A) 0.43 (B)2.3 (C)5.3 (D)4.1
10

Section A
MCQ Single Correct
2
1. Let a b and a, b are real roots of equation x x 0 . If b 1 then the
2
x
equation log a 1 has atleast one root lies between
b
(A) 0, b (B) b , (C) 0, a (D) None of these
n
n 1
2. lim sin when Q is equal to
n n 1 n

1 1
(A) e (B) e (C) e (D) None of these
3. If f x y 2 f x . f y for all x, y where f ' 0 3& f 4 2 then f ' 4 is equal to

(A) 6 (B) 12 (C) 4 (D) None of these
4. The equation of the curve, passing through (2,5) and having the area of triangle formed by the x-
axis, the ordinate of a point on the curve and the tangent at the point equals to 5 square units can
be
(A) xy 10 (B) x 2 10 y (C) y 2 10 x (D) xy1/2 10
5. If the system of equations x 2 y 3z 2, k 3 z 3, 2k 1 y z 2 is inconsistent, then

integral value of k is
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
Let from a point A 3,3 on the circle x y 18 two chords AB and AC each of one unit
2 2
6.
length are drawn, then equation of BC is
(A) 6 x 6 y 35 0 (B) 6 x 6 y 37 0 (C) x y 6 0 (D) x y 6 0
Section - A
1
dx
7. If I then
0 4 x2 x3

(A) I (B) I (C) I (D) I
6 6 4 2 4
2
8. Let P, Q, R be the three points on the ellipse. Eccentric angles of P, Q and R are , and
3
4 3 3
respectively. If area of PQR is times the area of ellipse then ' ' can be
3 4

(A) 0 (B) (C) (D)
6 3 2
9. If the function y f x is satisfying the condition f x f ' x f " x 0 x R then which of

the following statements are true?
(A) f x is decreasing function
11
(B) f x and f " x are of same sign

(C) If f x cuts the y axis at (0, 1) then f f x lies between 0,1
1
(D) curve y f x does not intersect y axis
10. Let a triangle is formed where vertices are the vertices of a cube. The probability that the triangle
is
1 6 3
(A) Equilateral is (B) Right angled is (C) scalene is (D) Right angled
7 7 7
3
isosceles is
7
11. A function f x satisfies the relation f x y f x f y xy x y x, y R . If

f ' 0 1 , then
(A) f x is polynomial function
(B) f x is exponential function
(C) f x is twice differentiable for all xR

(D) f ' 3 6
12. Let Products of distance of any point on hyperbola x y 1 x y 3 60 to its asymptotes is

K then K is divisible by
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5
99
13. C3 9 99C7 81 99 C11 .......349 99C99
(A)
1
6 3
99
1 3 1 3
99
(B)
1
12 3
1 3 99
1 3
99

299 299
(C)
6 3
99
3 1 3 1
99
(D)
12 3

3 1
99
3 1
99

n n n
14. Let N 7 1 9 2 11 1 . Total number of divisors of N in the form of 4 1 is a.. If n1 is odd then a
must be divisible by
(A) n2 1 (B) n1 1 (C) n1 (D) n1 2
Section A
Comprehension Type

The position vectors of two points A and C are 9i j 7 k and 7 i 2 j 7 k respectively. The point of

intersection of vectors BA 8i 2 j 6 k and DC 6i 3 j 6 k is P.
15. Point P is
(A) 1,1,1 (B) 1, 1,1 (C) 1,1, 1 (D) 1,1,1

16. The area of parallelogram whose diagonals are AB and CD is
(A) 3 (B) 9 (C) 3/2 (D) 9/2
12

If an equilateral triangle ABC with vertices z1 , z2 and z3 be inscribed is circle z 2 then
17. Value of Re z1 z2 z 2 z3 z3 z1 is
(A) 6 (B) -6 (C) -12 (D) None of these
z1
18. is equal to
z3
(A) 1 i 3 (B) 1 i 3 (C) 1 i 3 (D) None of these
FIITJEE
this purpose.
INSTRUCTIONS
SAMPLE TEST - 2
OMR sheet.
designated places.

2
PART - I: PHYSICS
Section A
MCQ Single Correct
1. Two moles of an ideal monoatomic gas is taken through P
a cyclic process ABCA as shown in P-T diagram. During
process AB, PT2 = constant. The efficiency (in
4P0 B C
percentage) of cycle is (approx.) (Take ln 2 0.7 )
(A) 5 (B) 10
(C) 15 (D) 20
P0 A
T
TB=300K TA=600K
2. A point object O is kept at a distance 36 cm from a convex lens of focal length 30 cm as shown.
Its final image I is formed by (after refraction through plane surface of water) on the bottom of a
container filled with water 4 / 3 upto height h. Then the value of h is
f =30cm
O 450
36cm
1
m
90cm
I
(A) 10 cm (B) 20 cm (C) 30 cm (D) 40 cm
3. Four particles are located at the vertices of a square of side a. They a v

all start moving simultaneously, at t = 0, with the same speed
constant v, with first particle heading for second, second heading for
v
a a
third and so on. Then the acceleration of each particle at t = is
4v
v v
4v 2 2v 2
(A) (B)
a a a
2
4v v2
(C) (D)
3a a
y
4. An L shaped rectangular loop is symmetrically placed about
origin O and carries a current I as shown. The direction of the a
magnetic field caused at point P is best represented by
P(a,a,0)
1 1
(A)
2

i k (B)
2
ij I 2a
1 3 2a
(C)
2
ij (D)
2
i k O(0,0,0) a
x
2a
3
5. A smooth sphere of radius R is moving with constant horizontal m

acceleration a. A particle of mass m starts sliding from rest from the
top of the sphere. If particle looses contact with the surface of sphere
0
at an angle 37 from vertical. Then the acceleration a of the
sphere is

g 2g
(A) (B)
3 3 a
g 2g
(C) (D)
9 9
6. In the circuit shown, switch S is closed at t =0, then the S

charge on the capacitor C2 in steady state is 10 10
(A) 20 C
(B) 40 C C1 18 F
(C) 80 C 20V 10 10
(D) 160 C
C2 9 F
R= 20
Section - A
7. Two small blocks A and B of masses m 1 = 1kg and =10rad/s

m2 = 2kg respectively are connected by an ideal
string of length 0.5 m and placed along the diameter
of a rough horizontal circular disc at distance A B
l1 0.3m and l2 0.2m respectively from the O
m1 m2
centre O as shown. The disc is rotated with a l
1 0.6 l1 = 0.3m 2 = 0.2m
constant angular velocity 10 rad / s about its 2 0.4
vertical axis passing through the centre O. Then
choose the correct statement(s) (Assume the string
was just slack before rotation of disc)
(A) acceleration of each block relative to disc is zero
(B) acceleration of each block relative to disc is 2
m/s2
(C) frictional force on the block B is 8N
(D) frictional force on the block A is 2 N
8. Two identical balls A and B each of mass m = 0.5 kg A B

are connected by an ideal string and placed on a m m
smooth horizontal surface. A third ball C of same mass
0
m = 0.5 kg moving along the surface with a velocity u 53
= 10 m/s collides with the ball B and gets stuck with it u 10m / s
as shown. Then
(A) velocity of ball A just after collision is 2m / s m
(B) velocity of ball B just after collision is 5 m/s C
(C) velocity of ball C just after collision is 2 5 m/s
(D) impulse due to tension in the string is 1 N-s
4
9. Two moles of an ideal monoatomic gas is first P

expanded isobarically then undergoes a process
A B
PT 2 constant followed by an isothermal process to
complete the cycle as shown in P- T diagram. Then P0
choose the correct option(s)
(A) Heat absorbed by the gas in the process AB is
5RT0
C
(B) Heat rejected by the gas in the process BC is RT0 T
T0 2T0
(C) Work done by the gas in the process BC is 2RT0
(D) Work done by the gas in the process CA is 4RT0
10. A point charge q is located at a

distance r from the centre of an R
earthed spherical conductor of radius q
R and it is moving with a constant v
velocity v away from the centre of the O
spherical conductor as shown. Then r
choose the correct option(s)
q
(A) The charge on the spherical conductor at r = 5R is
5
q
(B) The charge on the spherical conductor at r = 3R is
3
qv
(C) The electric current in the connecting wire at r = 2R is
4R
qv
(D) The electric current in the connecting wire at r = 3R is
9R
11. P-V diagram of a cyclic process ABCA is as shown in Fig. Choose the P
correct statement(s):
(A) QA B is negative A
(B) U BC is positive
(C) UC A is negative
B
(D) WCAB is negative C

12. The equation of a wave disturbance is given as y 0.02sin 50 t cos 10 x where x and
2
y are in metres and t is in seconds. Choose the correct statement(s).
(A) The wavelength of wave is 0.2m (B) Displacement node occurs at x = 0.15m
(C) Displacement antinode occurs at x = 0.3m (D) The speed of constituent waves is 0.2 m/s
13. Two adiabatic processes bc and ad for the same gas are given to P
intersect two isotherms at T1 and T2 (as shown). Then
Va T2 Va T1
(A) (B) a b
Vb T1 Vd T2 T1
1
V T 1 d
T2
(C) b 2 (D) VaVc VbVd c
Vc T1
Va Vd Vb Vc
V
5
1
14. y x ,t 2
represents a moving pulse where x and y are in metre and t in second.
t
1x
2
Then
(A) Pulse is moving in positive x-direction.
(B) Velocity of wave pulse is 0.5 m/s
(C) In 3 second it will travel a distance of 3 m.
(D) Maximum displacement of particle is 1 m.
Section A
Comprehension Type
A rod AB of length L and mass M is lying on a smooth horizontal x-y y

plane with its centre of origin O as shown in figure. An impulse J is
applied just near the end a perpendicular the rod. A
J
O L x
15. The distance of point P from centre of the rod which is at rest just after the impact is
L L L L
(A) (B) (C) (D)
6 3 4 8
16. Speed of the point A, just after the impact is

J 3J 4J 2J
(A) (B) (C) (D)
m m m m
A ring of mass m connecting freely two identical thin M,R M,R

hoops each of mass M, starts sliding down. The hoops
move apart without slipping over a rough horizontal m
surface. Neglect the friction between the ring and the

M 2
O1 O2
hoops. ( Take 4, 37, g 10m / s , M 2kg )
m
Now answer the following questions
17. The acceleration of the ring just after start is

2 2 2 2
(A) 0.5 m/s (B) 0.75m/s (C) 1 m/s (D) 1.5 m/s
18. The frictional force on each hoop just after start is

(A) 0.5 N (B) 1 N (C) 1.5 N (D) 2 N
6

Section A
MCQ Single Correct
1. 3C zero order ; k0 2.5 102 M min 1
A 1M
2 D First order ; k1 6.93 10 2 min 1
B 1M
At the end of 20 minutes, find the value of

C D
B A
(A) 5 (B) 6 (C) 9 (D) 3
2. A body centered cubic lattice is made up of hollow spheres of B. Spheres of solid A are present in
hollow spheres of B. Radius of A is half of radius of B. What is the ratio of total volume of spheres
of B unoccupied by A in a unit cell and volume of unit cell?
7 3 7 3 7
(A) (B) (C) (D) None of these.
64 128 24
3. Consider the following graph which is plotted between the mass of Na2 Fe CN 5 NO taken
(with a fixed mass of Na2S taken) and the mass of the product Na4 Fe CN 5 NOS formed. If
a total of 702 g is present at the end of the reaction with the same amount of Na2S taken as used
in the above observation, find the number of moles of Na2 Fe CN 5 NO taken in the
beginning.
(Given: Molar masses of Na2S = 78g; Na2 Fe CN 5 NO = 312 g; Na4 Fe CN 5 NOS =
390 g)
Mass of Na4[Fe(CN)5NOS]
formed
390 g
312 g
Mass of Na2 Fe CN NO taken
5
(A) 3 (B) 2
(C) 702 (D) data is inadequate
4. Which of the following molecule is expected to have the greatest resonance stabilization?
(A) (B) (C) (D)
5. The correct order for triple bond energy in CO, N2 CN and C C is

(A) CO N 2 CN C C (B) N 2 CO C C CN
(C) C C CO N 2 CN (D) CN CO N 2 C C
7
6. What is the % dissociation of H2S if 1 mole of H2S is introduced into a 1.1 litre vessel at 100K? KC
for the reaction,
2 H 2 S g 2 H 2 g S 2 g is 10 6
(A) 2.6% (B) 1.3% (C) 5% (D) 3%
Section - A
7. Consider the packing of the two-dimensional

square unit cell shown below and select the
correct statement(s). (Assuming radius of
sphere is r)
(A) Number of particles in one unit cell is two
2
(B) Area of unit cell is 2 2r
(C) Area covered by particle is 2 r 2

(D) Packing efficiency is
4
8. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct?

(A) Cr C6 H 6 2 is aromatic and effective atomic number of metal = 36
(B) Fe C5 H 5 2 is aromatic and effective atomic number of metal = 36
H
N
H B B H
(C) is aromatic
H N N H
B
H
Cl
C
(D) N N is aromatic
Cl C C Cl
N
9. Consider the following titration graph for the mixture of acid z

HCl and CH3COOH and tell which of the statement/s is/are
correct?
Conductance
y
(A) The point of intersection x represents the end point of x
HCl with NaOH
(B) The sharpness with which the end point x is
established depends on the concentration of base
(C) Point of intersection of y represents the end point of
the reaction of CH3COOH and NaOH V1 V2
(D) None of these is correct Volume of NaOH
10. Which of the following molecule/s has a O O bond?

(A) H 2 S 2O8 (B) H 2 S 2O7 (C) H 2 SO5 (D) H 2 S 2O6
8
11. 0.1 M solution of KI reacts with excess of H 2 SO4 and KIO3 solution according to equation:
5 I IO3 6 H
3I 2 3H 2O . Which of the following statement is/are correct?
(A) 200 ml of the KI solution react with 0.004 mole KIO3
(B) 200 ml of the KI solution react with 0.006 mole of H2SO4
(C) 0.5 l of the KI solution produced 0.005 mole of I2
(D) Equivalent weight of KIO3 is equal to
Molecular weight
5
12. Which of the following compounds when reacted with AlCl3 will form an aromatic compound.
(A) Cl (B) Cl (C) Cl (D) Cl
13. For a sparingly soluble salt Ap Bq , the relationship of its solubility product Ls with its solubility
(s) is:
pq
(A) Ls s p q p p q q (B) Ls s p p p q q s q (C) Ls s pq p p q q (D) Ls s pq pq
14. Which of the following species has sp3 d hybrid state of central atom.
(A) I 31 (B) SF4 (C) PF5 (D) IF5
Section A
Comprehension Type
A compound A with molecular formula C8 H 8O2 when heated with AlCl3 , forms B which when treated
with KMnO4 , H+ and on heating forms another compound (C). When (C) is treated with bromine water it
gives a ppt. When A is hydrolysed, we get two products (D) and (E). The compound A doesnot give any
colouration with neutral FeCl3 solution but the compound D does give a violet colouration with FeCl3
solution. Calcium salt of E when heated forms a compound that gives a positive iodoform test.
On the basis of the above passage, answer the following questions:
15. Which of the following represents the correct structure of the compound (A)?
(A) O (B) O (C) OH (D) None of these

C O CH3
O C CH3
C CH3
O
16. The ppt.obtained when (C) is treated with Br2 water is due to which of the following?
(A) OH (B) OH (C) OH (D) OH

Br Br Br Br Br Br Br
C OH
O COOH
C OH Br Br Br
O
9
Diazonium salts readily undergo coupling reactions with highly activated molecules like phenols,
naphthols and aromatic amines to form highly coloured azo compounds. The mechanism of the reaction
is electrophilic aromatic substitution.
Answer the following questions based on coupling reactions.
17. Predict the major product B of the following reaction:

NR2

PhN 2 H

weakly basic medium
A B
OH
(A) NR2 (B) NR2
N N Ph
N N Ph
OH OH
(C) Both are formed in equal quantities (D) N N Ph
OH
18. Predict the product of the following reaction

CH3 +
N2
+
?
H3C CH3
(A) CH3 (B) CH3
H3C CH3 H3C N N CH3

N N Ph
(C) Both (A) and (B) are formed (D) No reaction takes place
10

Section A
MCQ Single Correct
2
1. The tangent to the hyperbola xy c at the point P intersects the x-axis at T and the y-axis at T.
The normal to the hyperbola at P intersects the x-axis at N and the y-axis at N. The areas of the
1 1
triangles PNT and PNT are and respectively , then is
'
(A) equal to 1 (B) depends on t
(C) depends on c (D) equal to 2
2. Let f1 x sin 2 x, f 2 x cos 2 x, f3 x x , f4 x x

( where. showsgreatestintegerfunction )
then, if three function f a x , f b x and f c x are selected at random then the probability that

f a fb f c x is a constant function(a, b and c are distinct numbers), is
1 1 3
(A) (B) 4
(C) (D) None of these
3 C3 4
3. The number of real solution(s) of the following equation for x [-1, 1]

11
C1 x10 11C3 x 8 11C5 x 6 11C7 x 4 11C9 x 9 11C11 0
x x x
4. lim 2 2 ..... 2 is equal to
x x 1 x 2 x x

(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) cannot be determined (D) None of these
5. If x1 , x2 are real numbers, then maximum value of

2
4 1 x2 3 is
2 2 2
x1 x2 1 x1

2
6. A tangent at point P on parabola y 4ax cuts the directrix and axis of the parabola at Q and T
0
respectively. If S is the focus and PTS 30 , then QT equals to
TS 2 3
(A) (B) TS (C) 3TS (D) TS
3 3 2
Section - A
2
dy dy
7. A solution of differential equation x y 0 is
dx dx
(A) y 3x 9 (B) y 2x 4
(C) y x 1 (D) y 2x 2 4
11
8. Principal period of f x sec 4 x cos ec6 x is P and coefficient of x 24 P in expansion of

32 P
b
x 3 is Q then
x
1
(A) P (B) P 2 (C) Q 16 C8b8 (D) Q 16 C7 b 7
2
a 2 b2 c2
9. If a, b, c are sides of ABC and sec then can be
ab bc ca
5
(A) (B) (C) (D)
12 4 6 2
10. If an equilateral triangle ABC with vertices z1 , z2 and z3 be inscribed in circle z 2 then, the
correct statement is
(A) Value of Re z1 z2 z 2 z3 z3 z1 is negative (B) Value of Re z1 z2 z 2 z3 z3 z1 is positive
z1 1 z1 1
(C)
z3
can be
2

1 i 3 (D)
z3
can be
2

1 i 3
11. For a positive integer n, let

f n tan 1 sec 1 sec 2 1 sec 4 ..... 1 sec 2n , then
2

(A) f 2 1 (B) f3 1 (C) f 4 1 (D) f5 1
16 32 64 128
sin 2 x 2
12. If 0 x and 81 81cos x 30, then x is equal to
5 2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
6 3 6 3
13. In a triangle the lengths of the two larger sides are 10 and 9 respectively. If the angles are in
A.P., then the length of third side can be
(A) 5 6 (B) 3 3 (C) 5 3 (D) 5 6
5 4 3 2
14. Let f x a5 x a4 x a3 x a2 x a1 x, where ai ' s are real and f x 0 has a positive root
0 . Then,
(A) f ' x 0 has a root 1 such that 0 1 0
(B) f ' x 0 has at least one real root
(C) f " x 0 has at least one real root
(D) None of these
12
Section A
Comprehension Type
f x and g x are polynomial of degree two such that
a2 b2
f x 1 dx g x 1 dx , where a , a a
a1 b1
1 2 2
a1 are roots of equation f x 1 and

b1 , b2 b2 b1 are roots of equation g x 1
15. If f " x and g " x are positive constant and

b2 b2
g x dx b
b1
2 g x 1 dx
b1
b1
and
a2 a2
f x dx a
a1
2 f x 1 dx
a1
a1
then
(A) a2 a1 b2 b1 (B) a2 a1 b2 b1 (C) f " x g " x (D) none of these
a1 a2 b1 b2
16. If f 1 g 1 then
2 2
(A) a2 a1 b2 b1 (B) f " x g " x (C) f " x g " x (D) none of these
Let P be a point in the plane of ABC such that the PAB, PBC & PCA all have same area. Then
17. If PAB, PBC & PCA all have same perimeter also and P lies inside the ABC , then
ABC is
(A) equilateral (B) scalene (C) right angled (D) None of these
18. If PA and PB are mutually perpendicular and C 4cm & BC 3cm. then length of the side
AB is
FIITJEE
this purpose.
INSTRUCTIONS
SAMPLE TEST - 3
OMR sheet.
designated places.

2
PART - I: PHYSICS
Section A
MCQ Single Correct
1. A thin uniform rod AB of length l 1m is sliding between y
two mutually perpendicular surfaces as shown. When the
0
rod makes an angle 37 with the vertical surface, the A
end B is moving along the horizontal surface with a velocity
l 1m
vB 20m / s . Then, the angular velocity of the rod at this 370
0
instant is cos 37 0.8,sin 37 0.6
0

(A) 25rad / s x
B
(B) 20rad / s vB 20m / s
(C) 15rad / s
(D) 10rad / s
2. In the adjacent circuit, the initial current in the inductor is zero. At 4CV0 4CV0
t = 0, switch S is closed. Then the maximum current through the
inductor is
C 2C
(A) V0 (B) V0 C
L L S
L
3C 6C 2CV0 2CV0
(C) V0 (D) V0
L L
2C
3. Three particles are located at the vertices of an equilateral triangle of

side a as shown. They all start moving simultaneously with the same v
speed v with the first particle heading for second, second for third and a
third for first. The radius of curvature of the trajectory of any particle a
a v
relative to ground at t is
3v
a 2a
(A) (B) v
3 3 a
3a
(C) (D) 3a
2
4. A solid cylinder of mass m = 5kg and radius R = 10 cm is F m, R
placed on a rough horizontal surface with coefficient of
friction 0.2 . When a horizontal force F is applied to h=R/4
R
the cylinder at a height h above the centre level, the
4
cylinder starts rolling without slipping on the horizontal
surface. Then the maximum magnitude of force F that can
be applied to the cylinder without slipping is
0.2
(A) 80 N (B) 60 N (C) 40 N (D) 20 N
3
5. Two blocks A and B of masses m1 4kg and =10rad/s

m2 2kg , respectively are connected at the ends of a
massless inextensible string of length 0.5 m and placed
on a rough horizontal circular disc with string along the A B
diametre of the disc. The blocks A and B are placed at O
m1 m2
distances l1 0.2m and l2 0.3m respectively from
1 0.6 l1 = 0.2m l2 = 0.3m
the centre of the disc. The coefficient of friction between 2 0.5
the block A and disc is 1 0.6 and that between the
block B and disc is 2 0.5 . Now the disc is rotated
about its vertical axis with constant angular velocity
10rad/s . Then the frictional force acting on the
block B is
(A) 4 N (B) 6 N (C) 8 N (D) 10 N
6. 2
A time varying magnetic field B Kr t is shown in the fig. Where x
2
K is a constant, r is the distance from centre and t is time. Then the B Kr t
R
electric field induced at r is R O
3
KR3 KR3
(A) (B)
9 27
KR3 KR3
(C) (D)
54 108
Section - A
7. A uniform circular ring of mass m and radius R is m,R

placed on smooth horizontal surface and rotating with
angular velocity '0 ' about a vertical axis passing
through its centre. Now a partice of mass m falls
vertically and gets stuck to the ring at point A as shown
in the fig. then
A
0
0
(A) the angular velocity of ring after collision is
2
20
(B) the angular velocity of ring after collision is
3
(C) the velocity of centre of mass of the ring after
0 R
collision is
3
0 R
(D) the velocity of particle after collision is
3
4
8. Two identical balls A and B each of mass m are A B

connected by a massless inextensible string and placed
on a smooth horizontal surface. A third ball C of same
mass m moving with a velocity v0 on the surface at an 37
angle 37 from string collides with the ball B and v0
then moves with a velocity v0 / 4 opposite to v0 just after
collision . Then
C
(A) the velocity of ball A just after collision is v0 / 2
3v0
(B) the velocity of ball B just after collision is
4
mv0
(C) the impulse due to tension in the string is
2
3mv0
(D) the impulse due to tension in the string is
4
9. A spring connected by two particles of mass m 1 and m2 horizontal a2 a1

force F acts on m 1. Ignoring friction, when the elongation of spring
is x then F
m m
kx F kx
(A) a2 (B) a1
m2 m1
F
(C) F m1a1 m2 a2 (D) a1 a2 at the time of maximum elongation
m1 m2
10. A particle moves with uniform acceleration along a straight line AB. Its speed at A and B are 2
m/s and 14m/sec respectively then
(A) Its speed at mid point at AB is 10 m/sec
(B) Its speed at point P such that AP : BP = 1:5 is 6 m/sec
(C) the time to go from A to the mid point of AB is double at that to go from mid point to B.
(D) None of these
11.
A particle of mass m moving with a velocity 3i 2 j m / sec collides with a stationary body of
m 1

mass M and finally moves with a velocity 2i j m / sec. If
, then
M 13
5i
j i 5 j
(A) Final velocity of mass M is m / sec (B) Final velocity of mass M is m / sec
13 13
(C) Impulse received by m is m 5i j
(D) Impulse received by M is m 5i j
12. A student records Q, U and W for a thermodynamics cycle A B C A. Some certain
entries are missing. The correct entry of the following is/are
AB BC CA
W 50 70
U 30
Q 110 70
(A) U AB 60 (B) WBC 30 (C) U CA 90 (D) QCA 20
5
13. For a body executing SHM along Y-axis amplitude A, time period T, max velocity vmax and phase
constant zero, which of the following statement is/are correct.
(A) at y A / 2, v vmax / 2 (B) v vmax / 2 for y A / 2
T A A T
(C) For t = ,y (D) For y ,t
8 2 2 8
14. A bottle is kept on the ground as shown in figure. The bottle R

can be modeled as having two cylindrical zones. The lower
zone of the bottle has a cross sectional radius 2 R and is 2H
filled with a fluid of density 2 . The upper zone is filled with
2R
water of density . The height of lower zone is H while that of
the upper zone is 2H. Now the fluid and water are mixed to 2 H
make a homogeneous solution then
(A) The pressure inside the bottle at the base will remain unchanged
(B) The normal reaction will not changed
3
(C) New density of mixture is
2
1
(D) The pressure at the bottom will increase by amount gH
2
Section A
Comprehension Type
Two identical blocks each of mass m = 1kg are connected by A m
a spring of stiffness K = 100 N/m and the lower block is placed
on a horizontal surface. The initial compression in the spring is
l0 0.5m and connected by a string as shown. At t = 0, the l0 0.5m
2
sting is burnt, then (Take g 10m / s )
B m
15. The normal force on the lower block just after string burnt is
(A) 20 N (B) 40 N (C) 60 N (D) 80 N
16. When the compression in the spring is l 0.3m, the acceleration of the centre of mass of
system is
(A) 10 m/s2 (B) 20 m/s2 (C) 30 m/s2 (D) 40 m/s2

When a charge particle having charge q moves
y
in a combined, E and B fields. It experiences

electric force Fe qE and magnetic force

Fm q v B . The resultant of electric force
E
and magnetic force acting on the charge particle O x
is called Lorentz force, which is given by
v0
B
F qE q v B
z

When E and B fields are parallel to each other in a gravity free space (i.e. g = 0). and if a charge

particle having charge q and mass m is projected with an initial velocity v in this region (where v is
6

non parallel to B field). Then take the two components of v one is perpendicular to B field (say v )

and other is parallel to B field (say v11 ). The charge particle will move along a circle (whose plane is

always perpendicular to B field) with v due to magnetic force Fm qv B as well as the charge

particle will have an axial accelerated motion parallel to B field due to v11 and electric force Fe qE .
Hence the path followed by the charge particle is called non uniform helix.

If E 40 N / C i and B 6 Tesla i and a charge particle having charge q 1 10 C and mass
6

m 1 105 kg is projected with an initial velocity v 4i 3 j 4k m / s from origin at t = 0, then
17. The magnetic force acting on the charge particle is

5 5 5 5
(A) 1 10 N (B) 2 10 N (C) 3 10 N (D) 4 10 N
18. The net Lorentz force acting on the charge particle is

5 5 5 5
(A) 5 10 N (B) 4 10 N (C) 3 10 N (D) 2 10 N
7

Section A
MCQ Single Correct
1. A cylinder containing an ideal gas and closed by movable piston is submerged in an ice water
mixture. The piston is quickly pushed down from position (1) to position (2) (process AB). The
0
piston is held at position (2) until the gas is again at 0 C (process BC). Then the piston is slowly
raised back to position (1) (process CA)
1
The above process is described by any one of the given figures. Which of these correctly
represents the process?
A
A
C
P P
(A)
B (B) B
C
V2 V1 V2 V1
V V
B B
A
P P
C
(C) C (D)
A
V2 V1 V2 V1
V V
2. In an experiment to determine the enthalpy of neutralization of sodium hydroxide with sulphuric

acid 50ml of 0.4 M NaOH were titrated thermometrically with 0.25 M sulphuric acid in
adiabatic container. Which of the following plots gives the correct representation
Temp. Temp.
(A) (B)
10 30 50 10 20 30 40 50
Vol. of H2SO4(ml) Vol. of H2SO4(ml)
8
Temp. Temp.
(C) (D)
10 30 50 10 20 30 40 50
Vol. of H2SO4(ml) Vol. of H2SO4(ml)
3. The root mean square speed of molecules of a fixed mass of a gas is V1 . The root mean square
speed of molecules is V2 when the gas has been compressed reversibly and adiabatically to half
V22
of its original value. Then 2 is of gas = 1.4
V1
1.4 0.4 2.4 0.4
(A) 2 (B) 2 (C) 2 (D) 2
4. In a photoelectric effect experiment, the maximum kinetic energy of the ejected photoelectrons is
measured for various wavelengths of the incident light. Figure shows a graph of this maximum
kinetic energy K max as a function of the wavelength of the light falling on the surface of the
metal. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
K max eV 20
15
10
100 200 250 300

nm
15
(A) Threshold frequency for the metal is 1.2 10 Hz
(B) Work function of the metal is 4.968 eV
(C) Maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons corresponding to light of wavelength 100 nm is
nearly
7.4 eV
(D) Photoelectric effect takes place with red light.
5. 804 g of sample of impure Al2 CrO4 3 on reacting with 200 ml of 1 M K 4 Fe CN 6 in

3 2
acidic medium to form Fe , CO3 and NO3 ions. Excess of K 4 Fe CN 6 is back titrated
M
with 300 ml of Zn 2, where it forms a complex K 2 Zn3 Fe CN 6 . What is the % purity of
10 2
Al2 CrO4 3 in the sample

(Use At. Mass: Al = 27, Cr = 52, O = 16)
(A) 22% (B) 50 % (C) 61 % (D) 88%
9
6. Consider the following equilibrium reaction:

i A2 X 3 s 2 A3 aq. 3 X 2 aq. K sp
The solubility of A2 X 3 M .wt 200 in pure water is 20 ppm at 250C.

When a reagent L is added to it, a complex formation takes place.
ii A3 aq. 4 L aq. AL4 aq. K f
So the overall equilibria would become:
iii A2 X 3 s 8L1 aq. 2 AL4 aq. 3 X 2 aq.
If 0.201 mole of a soluble salt ACl3 and 0.805 mole of NaL (100% ionized) are dissolved in
water and volume of solution is made to 500 ml. At equilibrium the concentration of the complex

ion AL4 formed is 0.4 M. Find the equilibrium constant of the overall equilibria (iii)?
6 6 2
(A) 432 (B) 2.16 10 (C) 2.16 10 (D) 4.32 10
Section - A
7. HCOOH is a weak acid and hydrochloride acid is a strong acid. Then correct statement(s) is/are
(A) OH of 0.01 M HCl(aq.) will be less than that of 0.01 M HCOOH (aq.)
(B) Solution containing 0.2 M NaOH(aq) and 0.1 M HCOONa (aq.) is buffer solution.
9
(C) pH of 10 M HCl aq. is approximately 7 at 250C
(D) pH of a solution formed by mixing equimolar quantities of a smililar solution formed from
HCOOH and HCOONa
8. The reagent(s) used for softening the temporary hardness of water is(are)
(A) Ca3 PO4 2 (B) Ca OH 2 (C) Na2 CO3 (D) NaOCl
9. Among the following, the intensive property is (properties are)

(A) Molar conductivity (B) Electromotive force
(C) Heat capacity (D) Resistance
10. Aqueous solutions of HNO3, KOH, CH3COOH and CH3COONa of identical concentrations are
provided. The pair(s) of solutions which form a buffer upon mixing is(are)
(A) HNO3 and CH3COOH (B) KOH and CH3COONa
(C) HNO3 and CH3COONa (D) CH3COOH and CH3COONa
11. According to kinetic theory of gases

(A) Collisions are always elastic
(B) Heavier molecules transfer more momentum to the wall of the container
(C) Only a small member of molecules have very high velocity
(D) Between collisions, the molecules move in straight lines with constant velocities.
12. Which are correct for a cyclic process as shown in the figure?
30
P 10
Pa
10 3 30
V(m )
(A) dU 0 (B) q w (C) 314 J (D) 31.4 J
10
13. Consider the following reaction sequence:

Maleic Acid

i Ac2O
LiAlH 4 2
ii H . Pt

A B
C D E F
O3 / Zn
O
1 mole of + 2 mole of HCHO
O
(A) D is CH2OH
CH2OH
(B) E on heating undergoes Ei reaction
(C) The IHD of C is 6
(D) The compound B can undergo Friedelcraft reaction.
14. An organic compound A gives a white ppt. with Tollens reagent and when reacted with 1eq of H2
forms B which on ozonolysis in presence of Me2S forms two compounds C and D. C on
reaction with Ba(OH)2 followed by heating forms E whose ozonolysis in presence of Zn forms 3,
3 dimethyl-2,5-dioxohexan -1,6-dial. When D is mildly oxidized it forms E which give a positive
Tollens reagent test. Which of the given option /s is/are correct?
(A) Compound A is optically inactive.
(B) Index of hydrogen deficiency of compound B is 3.
(C) The compound B is Me Me
CH2
(D) The compound D is HCHO.

Section A
Comprehension Type
Concept of hybridisation and V.S.E.P.R theory are two important parameters to determine the structure of
a covalent species. Hybridization defines the geometry of molecule/ species by energy redistribution of
orbitals whereas V.S.E.P.R theory explains the shape of molecule/species by repulsion force working
between lone pairs and bond pairs. Since lone pairs are bulky size and having higher energy, they show
higher repulsion force than bond pairs. The order of repulsion force is
L.P. L.P. L.P. B.P. B.P. B.P.
15. Correct order of bond angle is

(A) PF3 PCl3 PBr3 PI 3 (B) H 2O H 2 S H 2 Se H 2Te

(C) BF3 AlCl3 BCl3 (D) CH 4 CCl4 NH 4 PO4
16. Number of 900 bond angle in XeOF2 is

(A) two (B) one (C) three (D) zero
11
4
Silicates are made up of complex polymers of the basic unit, SiO4 tetrahedron. Simple orthosilicates
4 4
have discrete SiO4 anions. If two SiO4 share a common oxygen, a pyrosilicate is formed. Ring
silicates are formed when two oxygen atoms of each silicate tetrahedra are shared with others
Infinite chain silicates of single strand chain of formula SiO
2
3 n
and double strand cross linked chain of
formula Si O
4
6
11 n are formed. eg. Asbestos. Two dimensional sheet structures are formed by sharing
4 4
three oxygen atoms of each SiO4 tetrahedron. e.g. Clay. When all the four oxygen atoms of SiO4
tetrahedron are shared we get three dimensional network e.g. Quartz, Zeolite etc.
17. The formula of zinc pyrosilicate would be

(A) ZnSiO4 (B) Zn2 SiO4 (C) Zn3 Si2O7 (D) Zn3 Si2O8
18. Wollastonite Ca3 Si3O9 is a type of

(A) Orthosilicate (B) Pyrosillicate
(C) Sheet-Silicate (2-D silicates) (D) Cyclic silicate
12

Section A
MCQ Single Correct
1
1. If r .a r .b r .c for some non-zero vector r , then the area of triangle whose vertices are
2

A(a ), B( b ) and C(c ) is ( a, b, c are non-coplanar)

(A) | [abc ] | (B) | r | (C) | [abc ]r | (D) None of these
2. A point P moves in a plane x + y + z = 3 such that area of PAB A 1, 1, 0 B 0, 3, 1 is

minimum then coordinates of P.
7 14 3 5 13 7 12 1 5 14 1
(A) , , (B) , , 0 (C) , , (D) , ,
6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6
3 1 4 1 5 1
3. 2 3 4 ........ is equal to
1.2 2 2.3 2 3.4 2
1 3 3
(A) (B) (C) 1 (D)
2 4 2
3 1 3 3
4. Let in a ABC , cos A cos B cos C , sin A sin B sin C , b 4 3 and
8 8
A B C , then R is equals to
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 4 (D) 8
5. Let P 8, 6 is the point on the parabola whose axis is parallel to x axis and S a, b is focus. If
7
tangent at P meets the directrix at 3, then a equals to
2
(A) 1 (B) 3 (C) 5 (D) 7
6. Let f(x) be a non constant differentiable function defined on such that f(x) = f(4 x) and f(x)
= 0 has at least 2 distinct repeated roots in (2, 4) then minimum number of roots of f"(x) = 0 in [0,
4] is :
Section - A
2
7. Let P, Q, R be the three points on the ellipse. Eccentric angles of P, Q and R are , and
3
4 3 3
respectively. If area of PQR is times the area of ellipse then ' ' can be
3 4

(A) 0 (B) (C) (D)
6 3 2
8. If f x is a polynomial function satisfying the functional equation f f x 6 x f x then

f 1 can be equal to
(A) 2 (B) -2 (C) 3 (D) - 3
13
9. Let a triangle is formed where vertices are the vertices of a cube. The probability that the triangle
is
1 6
(A) Equilateral is (B) Right angled is
7 7
3 3
(C) scalene is (D) Right angled isosceles is
7 7
10. In a triangle ABC, where A and B are acute and A B and

sin 2 A cos B sin B 2sin A sin A 2sin B sin 2 B cos A then

(A) A B (B) C (C) A B (D) C
2 2 4
2
11. If , are roots of the equation x 4 x 0 and , are roots of the equation
2
x 64 x 0 and are in G.P., then
7
(A) 64 / 25 (B) 4 / 25 (C) 8 / 5 (D) 64 / 25
10
12.
For the expansion x sin P x cos P
1
; P R
10!
(A) The greatest term independent of x is 5 2
2 5!
(B) The least value of sum of coefficient is zero
(C) The greatest value of sum of coefficient is 32

(D) The least value of the term independent of x occurs when P 2n 1 , nZ
4
13. If from a point representing the complex number z1 on the curve z 2, two tangents are drawn
to the curve z 1, meeting at points Q z2 and R z , then
3
z1 z 2 z3
(A) The complex number will be on the curve z 1
3
4 1 1 4 1 1
(B) 9
z z z3
1 2 z1 z2 z3
z 2R
(C) arg 2
z 3
3
(D) Orthocentre and circumcentre of PQR will coincide
2
dy 1 dy
14. Solution of 2 x 1 0 are
dx 4 x dx
2 1 2 1
(A) y x c (B) y ln x c (C) y x c (D) y x
c
2 2 ln 2
Section A
Comprehension Type
Probability of occurrence of an event E is denoted by P(E) and is defined as
nE number of cases favorable to event E
PE
n S total number of cases in sample space S
14
E event of a sample space

S sample space
Set of all possible outcomes is called the sample space for an experiment. It is denoted by S .
For example when a dice is thrown, sample space ( S ) = 1, 2,3, 4,5, 6
E = 1, 3,5
nE 3 1
then P E
nS 6 2
15. If A tosses three coins. The probability that he gets exactly two heads , is
1 1 3
(A) (B) (C) (D) None of these
8 4 8
16. A composite number is selected at random from the first 30 natural numbers and it is divided by
5. The probability that there will be a remainder is
14 5 5 7
(A) (B) (C) (D)
19 19 6 15
Let L, M, N be the feet of the altitudes drawn from vertices A, B and C respectively then (R is
circumradius of ABC )
17. Perimeter of LMN is

abc abc 2abc
(A) (B) (C) (D) None of these
R2 2R2 R2
18. Area of LMN is is area of ABC

(A) 2 cos A cos B cos C (B) 2 sin A sin B sin C
(C) cos A cos B cos C (D) sin A sin B sin C

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JEE Advanced

JEE (A) SAMPLE TEST-1 PAPER - 1

B. Filling of OMR Sheet

C. Marking Scheme For All Three Parts.

Name of the Candidate :____________________________________________

Batch :____________________ Date of Examination :___________________

Enrolment Number :_______________________________________________

3. A Solid sphere of mass m and radius R is placed on a

8. Figure shows a system consisting of two massless pulley, two springs

10. Two blocks are given velocities as shown in figure.

15. A capacitor consists of two stationary plates shaped as a semi-circle of

Space for rough work

PART - II: CHEMISTRY

2. Consider a first order reaction A aq B aq C aq

(A) CH3 (B) CH3 (C) CH3 (D) CH3

reagent completely. Neglecting the vapour pressure of N 2 O4 , which of the following is

5 The state of a mole of an ideal gas changed from state A at

7. Which of the following changes involve oxidation?

(C) If A 1, then r1 r2 r3 (D) If A 1, then r1 r2 r3

9. Which of the following statements is/are correct.

10. Which of the following are electrophiles?

11. Which of the following statements are correct for butadiene

(A) CH 3CH 2 I (B) (C) (D) CH 3CH 2OH

13. An alkyl magnesium halide is

17. How many compounds has odd number of hydrogens?

Space for rough work

PART - III: MATHEMATICS

5. If x, y, z are real variables satisfying x + y + z =0 and xy + yz + zx + 45 = 0, then range of x is

(A) y x 0 (B) y x (C) 3 y x 7 0 (D) 3 x y 7

11. For the differential equation d xy x sin x log x

15. If the area bounded by the relation 2 x y 5 , x, y 0 is (where . represents G.I.F.) is p

2 2 where . shows greatest integer function.

17. Let A and B be two independent events such that

Space for rough work

JEE (A) SAMPLE TEST-2 PAPER - 1

B. Filling of OMR Sheet

C. Marking Scheme For All Three Parts.

Name of the Candidate :____________________________________________

Batch :____________________ Date of Examination :___________________

Enrolment Number :_______________________________________________

1. A point charge Q is placed at a distance 2R form centre of a Q

2. A car moving with a constant velocity towards a stationary

4. A bubble of radius R is formed on a ring of radius a and mass

5. In the arrangement shown, all the pulleys are smooth and

7. The uniform magnetic field perpendicular to the plane of a

8. The loop shown moves with a velocity v is a uniform magnetic field of L

9. Two parallel resistanceless rails are connected by an

11. The galvanometer shown in the figure has resistance 10 . It 10

12. Velocity-time graph of a particle executing SHM is shown in figure. v

16. A solid cylinder of mass m and radius R is placed on m, R

17. A uniform metallic rod of length 1m is rigidly clamped at A C D B

Space for rough work

PART - II: CHEMISTRY

5. Which has maximum dipole moment?

10. Among the following, the correct statement is/are

11. Predict which of the following have a positive entropy change

Space for rough work

PART - III: MATHEMATICS

2. If the parabola y a b x 2 b c x c a touches the x-axis in the interval [0, 1] then

min g(t) : x 1 t x 2 x 2,x 4

13. Given that x 2 4 y 2 9 z 2 36 , then x y z can be equal to

Space for rough work

JEE (A) SAMPLE TEST-3 PAPER - 1

B. Filling of OMR Sheet

JEE Advanced Sample Papers 2 (Paper 1 & 2) by FIITJEE

JEE Advanced Sample Papers 2 (Paper 1 & 2) by FIITJEE

Batch :__ Date of Examination :_

Batch :__ Date of Examination :_

Batch :__ Date of Examination :_

Batch :__ Date of Examination :_