Network Quiz

Question 1
TCP/IP is a routable protocol that provides the ability to transfer network

packets from one segment to another.
True
False
Answer: True
Question 2
In what layers are the core protocols of TCP/IP found?
a. Transport
b. Application
c. Internet
d. Network
Answer: A and C
Transport layer and Internet layer protocols, are core protocols in TCP/IP. Other protocols,
such as those found in the application layer, are protocols you must be familiar with but dont
represent a core part of the protocol stack.
Question 3
is a nonproprietary industry-standard protocol suite.
a. TCP/IP
b. ARPANET
c. NSFNET
d. None of these
Answer: A
Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP) is a nonproprietary industry-standard
protocol suite that provides communications on networks that support various operating sys-
tems and hardware types.
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Question 4
The application layer is responsible for the addressing and routing
of packets.
True
False
Answer: False
The application layer is about giving programs access to the Internet. The Internet
layer is primarily responsible for the addressing and routing of packets.
Question 5
How many layers does the OSI reference model have?
a. 4
b. 6
c. 7
d. 10
Answer: C
OSI/RM has a seven-layer architecture in comparison to the four-layer architecture
of TCP/IP.
Question 6
Which of the following TCP/IP layers offers the same services using
the protocols TCP and UDP that are specified in the transport layer of
the OSI/RM?
a. Application
b. Internet
c. Transport
d. Network Interface
Answer: C
The transport layer in TCP/IP has the same basic functionality and name as the
transport layer in the OSI/RM.

Question 7
Which of the following core protocols in TCP/IP is responsible for the
addressing and routing of data?
a. TCP
b. UDP
c. ICMP
d. IP
Answer: D
Internet Protocol is primarily responsible for addressing and routing of packets.
Question 8
Which of the following application layer protocols is used for its
efficiency with file transfers in comparison with HTTP?
a. FTP
b. SSH
c. SMTP
d. SMB
Answer: A
The File Transfer Protocol supports efficient file transfers between clients and servers.
Question 9
A DHCP server implies an actual server running the OS.
True
False
Answer: False
A DHCP server does not necessarily imply an actual server running the Windows op-
erating system or Linux distribution but instead could be implemented via a
network device.

Question 10
Which of the following is not part of the DHCP lease process?
a. Discover
b. Offer
c. Broadcast
d. Acknowledge
Answer: C
The DHCP lease process is a four-step process involving discover, offer, request,
and acknowledge packets. The DHCP discover packet is a broadcast from the client,
making a request for an IP address to the server.
Question 11
If you do not have a DHCP server on the same subnet as a client and
you are using an older router, what will you have to install?
a. Nothing
b. DHCP enabled router
c. DHCP relay agent
d. DHCP client service
Answer: C
DHCP is a broadcast type of service that requires broadcast to reach from client to
server. If you dont have a DHCP server on the subnet, you will need a relay agent.
Question 12
You need to create the appropriate DNS entry for your SMTP email
server. Which type of resource record should you create?
a. A
b. PTR
c. SRV
d. MX
Answer: D
You use MX records to identify email servers; it stands for Mail Exchanger.

Question 13
Which of the following records in a DNS zone is the most common and
is required by all clients and servers?
a. A
b. PTR
c. SRV
d. CNAME
Answer: A
The host record or (A) record is required in order to use names to communicate with
other systems.
Question 14
You have a host computer that has automatically generated an address
and you would like to force the client to attempt to contact a DHCP
server. How do you do that?
a. Ipconfig /all
b. Ipconfig /registerdns
c. Ipconfig /flushdns
d. Ipconfig /renew
Answer: D
You can release a DHCP address and then force a renewal with the IPCONFIG com-
mand and these parameters.

Question 15
You have a network that contains many portable systems as well as
desktops. You have a limited number of IP addresses in the DHCP
server scope and need to ensure that you dont run out of addresses.
Which of the following should you configure on the scope?
a. Subnet mask
b. Scope options
c. Default gateway
d. Lease duration
Answer: D
You can reduce the lease duration in order to ensure that you retain enough available
IP addresses when laptop computers are removed from the network.
Question 16
What is the first communication between a client and server in the
DHCP Lease Generation process?
a. DHCP Offer
b. DHCP Discover
c. DHCP Acknowledge
d. DHCP Request
Answer: B
The Discover packet is a broadcast from the client asking for any DHCP servers on
the network to offer an address.
Question 17
Layer one network devices are physical devices.
True
False
Answer: True

Question 18
Layer one devices provide network segmentation.
True
False
Answer: False
Layer one devices do not provide network segmentation of any kind.
Question 19
What is required by any client that is going to connect with and com-
municate over the network?
a. Network interface card

b. Layer 1 device
c. Ethernet
d. MAC address
Answer: A
The network interface card is required by any client that is going to connect with and
communicate over the network. Often these network interface cards are integrated
into the motherboard, although they can also be installed via a separate expansion
card or USB. Each network card, regardless of the variety, is embedded with a MAC
address for communication purposes.
Question 20
Ethernet uses what kind of signal?
a. Wi-Fi
b. Baseband
c. Broadband
d. Network
Answer: B
Ethernet uses a baseband signal. A baseband signal contrary to a broadband
signal will only allow one signal on the media at any given time.

Question 21
A heterogeneous bridge packages frames of one format into the format
of another.
True
False
Answer: False
Encapsulation bridges will package frames of one format into the format of another.
A heterogeneous, or translational, bridge is used to connect dissimilar network
architectures such as Ethernet and token ring.
Question 22
Which network protocol is used to make sure that our topology on
switched Ethernet networks remains loop free?
a. STP
b. RSTP
c. VTP
d. VLAN
Answer: A
Spanning-Tree Protocol (STP) is a network protocol that is used to make sure that our
topology on switched Ethernet networks remains loop free. The basic function of STP
is to prevent loops and the broadcast radiation that would result from those loops.
Question 23
Which of the following is also known as a multiport repeater?
a. Switch
b. Switching hub
c. Hub
d. Router
Answer: C
A hub essentially reproduces a clean signal and sends it to all ports so it is referred to
as a multiport repeater.

Question 24
Hubs generally provide connectivity in older Ethernet networks and
could have which of the following connector types available? (Choose
all that apply.)
a. Coaxial
b. RJ-45
c. RJ-11
d. Token Ring
Answer: A and B
Since they were used in older networks, they might use Thinnet or Thicknet which
utilize coaxial connections. Modern hubs will only use RJ-45 connections.
Question 25
Which of the following is not a standard organization?
a. ISO
b. IEEE
c. CPU
d. ANSI
Answer: C
CPU is part of a computer.
Question 26
is an open committee of groups that work together.
a. TIA/EIA
b. RFC
c. ANSI
d. IETF
Answer: D
The Internet Engineering Task Force, or IETF, is an open committee of groups that
work together to develop and maintain various Internet standards.

Question 27
The data link layer is responsible primarily for constructing this frame.
True
False
Answer: True
Question 28
Which of the following cable types are the most widely used in a
corporate gigabit network?
a. CAT5e
b. CAT4
c. CAT5
d. CAT3
Answer: A
You need at least CAT5e in a gigabit network.
Question 29
An RJ-11 connector is capable of having up to how many pins?
a. 2
b. 4
c. 6
d. 8
Answer: C
The RJ-11 connector has a maximum of 6 pins.

Question 30
Which of the following is the length of a MAC address?
a. 24 bit
b. 32 bit
c. 48 bit
d. 64 bit
Answer: C
The 48-bit MAC address is divided into two 24-bit sections for the manufacturer ID
and the device ID.
Question 31
Which of the following cable standards has the highest effective range
at a greater expense?
a. 1000Base-SX
b. 1000Base-CX
c. 1000Base-T
d. 1000Base-LX
Answer: A
Both SX and LX use fiber, which is more costly, and SX can go greater distances.
Question 32
Which of the following is resistant to EMI and crosstalk?
a. 1000Base-T
b. 10GBase-CX
c. 100Base-FX
d. UTP
Answer: C
Fiber is oblivious to the concept of EMI as it uses light signals.

Question 33
A WAN is a grouping of sites belonging to a single organization.
True
False
Answer: True
A wide area network doesnt simply mean a connection to the outside world like an
Internet connection, but instead a grouping of sites belonging to a single organization.
Question 34
is required in this type of connection to convert digital
computer signals into analog signals.
a. Modulation
b. A modem
c. Demodultion
d. PSTN
Answer: B
A modem is required in this type of connection to convert digital computer signals into
analog signals, the process which is referred to as modulation, and then the reverse
at the destination computer, referred to as demodulation.
Question 35
The capability of remotely connecting to networks for resource sharing
and service access is called:
a. Remote Access
b. POTS
c. Connectivity
d. Networking
Answer: A
Remote access is the capability of remotely connecting to networks for the purposes
of resource sharing and service access.

Question 36
Which of the following WAN transmission methods provides a type of
cell-switching network using fixed length cells and provides very high-
speed WAN bandwidth?
a. Frame relay
b. T1
c. X.25
d. ATM
Answer: D
Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM) is primarily a WAN technology that uses cell-
switching technology and is capable of high speeds for voice, video, and data.
Question 37
In order to connect an organization to the public carrier for either frame
relay or T1 connections, which of the following components is used?
a. Punchdown block
b. Patch panel
c. CSU/DSU
d. Router
Answer: C
The CSU/DSU is a component that usually connects through a router and
interfaces with the T1 or Frame Relay networks performing the necessary conversion
to LAN signaling.

Question 38
Which of the following connectivity methods is often used for small
businesses and homes in order to connect to a public carrier, but could
also be used as a backup connection for larger companies providing a
dedicated and guaranteed amount of bandwidth?
a. Cable
b. DSL
c. PSTN
d. ISDN
Answer: B
DSL is capable of providing dedicated bandwidth at varying rates, depending on
requirements, and is perfect as a primary or backup Internet connection.
Question 39
Which of the following T-connections will use leased lines and circuit-
switched connections to provide 44.7 Mbps?
a. T1
b. T2
c. T3
d. T4
Answer: C
The T3 line will provide these speeds. Only T1 and T3 are used, and T1 is only
1.5 Mbps.

Question 40
Which of the following protocols is an industry standard providing
centralization of AAA for all remote access clients and wired hosts?
a. RADIUS
b. VPN
c. PSTN
d. RAS
Answer: A
Centralized authentication and authorization is the purpose of the RADIUS protocol.
Question 41
Which of the four primary monitoring tools in Windows breaks down the
four major subsystems?
a. Task Manager
b. Event Viewer
c. Resource Monitor
d. Performance Monitor
Answer: C
Resource Monitor breaks down the four major subsystems processor, memory,
disk, and network and allows you to evaluate the performance of each. In the area
of network connections, Resource Monitor provides very detailed information and
using a graphical interface is able to filter network traffic down to the executable
that is involved.
Question 42
Freeware utilities are less capable than other, more expensive utilities.
True
False
Answer: False
Freeware utilities are not necessarily less capable than other, more expensive utilities.

Question 43
The term used for the study of various network activities is:
a. Patch management
b. Reconfiguration
c. Round-trip latency
d. Traffic analysis
Answer: D
Traffic analysis is a term used for the study of various network activities.
Traffic analysis can be used to identify inbound and outbound protocols on
a particular system.
Question 44
Which of the following utilities provides notifications when system and
application errors occur?
a. Performance Logs and Alerts

b. Services console
c. Event Viewer
d. Tasks Scheduler
Answer: C
Event Viewer will provide the ability to configure notifications when particular
events occur.
Question 45
Which of the following can be used to view errors and warnings from
multiple logs in a single results pane?
a. Details
b. Custom view
c. Custom logs
d. Subscriptions
Answer: B
A custom view in Event Viewer will provide the ability to view certain types of events or
sources from multiple logs.

Question 46
Which of the following components is used in Windows Server to
provide a single component containing performance counters and
system configuration events?
a. Data Collector Sets

b. Counters
c. Alerts
d. Subscriptions
Answer: A
You can use DCS to gather particular counters and events for performance
monitoring.
Question 47
Which of the following elements of a monitoring strategy is used to
provide a report of normal operational values that can be used in
troubleshooting and interpreting real-time data?
a. Bottleneck
b. Network diagram
c. Baseline
d. None of these
Answer: C
The baseline represents the normal operational values which act as an interpretive
lens through which you can examine real-time data.

Question 48
You need to determine which system on your network is consuming the
most bandwidth. Which of the following types of tools/reports will be
the most useful?
a. Port scanner
b. Packet analyzer
c. Connection diagnostics
d. Traffic monitoring
Answer: D
Traffic monitoring tools/reports will generally show you the systems that are consum-
ing bandwidth and the type of traffic being utilized.
Question 49
Wireless devices communicate with one another through what?
a. WAP
b. WPA
c. WLANs
d. APs
Answer: A
Wireless devices can communicate directly with one another or through wireless
access points (WAP) and this identifies the mode in which the network is operating.
Question 50
technologies are often used for remote controls.
a. Radio
b. Bluetooth
c. Infrared
d. Wi-Fi
Answer: C
Infrared technologies are often used for remote controls and the wireless is limited to
those types of scenarios because infrared requires line-of-sight using pulses
of infrared light to transmit signals and is not overly conducive to business
wireless scenarios.

Question 51
Ad hoc networks require access points to provide connectivity directly
between two nodes.
True
False
Answer: False
Ad hoc networks do not require access points to provide connectivity directly
between two nodes.
Question 52
Which of the following wireless protocols suffers from fewer interference
problems and can be used when required to provide up to 54Mbps
transfer rates?
a. 802.11b
b. 802.11a
c. 802.11g
d. 802.11n
Answer: B
802.11a uses the 5.0 GHz frequency range so that it is not nearly as susceptible to
interference in comparison with 802.11b and 802.11g.
Question 53
Which of the following devices is used in infrastructure WLANs to
connect wireless clients to the wired network devices and connections?
a. SSID
b. WPA
c. WAP
d. WEP
Answer: C
The wireless access point is used to provide a connection to a wired network in
infrastructure mode.

Question 54
Which of the following wireless technologies provides slow transfer over
short distances and is primarily used for mobile device connectivity?
a. 802.11
b. WIMAX
c. 802.11a
d. Bluetooth
Answer: D
Bluetooth is the connection that is used for wireless devices, headsets, etc., that are
within close range, typically 10 meters.
Question 55
Which of the following wireless network protocols is the newest
standard providing 200+ Mbps transfer rates over radio frequencies
operating on the 2.4GHz band or the 5.0 GHz band?
a. 802.11g
b. 802.11a
c. 802.11n
d. 802.16
Answer: C
802.11n is the most recent standard supporting speeds up to 600Mbps on both the
2.4 and 5 GHz frequency ranges.

Question 56
Which of the following security protocols should not be used due to the
fact that it is susceptible to IV attacks?
a. WPA
b. WPA2
c. 802.1x
d. WEP
Answer: D
Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) is the original wireless security protocol but the
initialization vectors (IV) are only 24-bit and unchanging, making them really easy
to crack.
Question 57
Which of the following virtualization platforms is a Type 1 Hypervisor?
a. Hyper-V
b. VMWare Workstation
c. VirtualBox
d. Virtual PC
Answer: A
Hyper-V and most server-based virtualization platforms are Type 1 Hypervisors, while
the client applications are not.
Question 58
Which cloud services model allows you to create virtual machines and
virtual networks in the public cloud?
a. IaaS
b. PaaS
c. SaaS
d. Public
Answer: A
The infrastructure as a service model allows you the most control and the ability
to create virtual machines and networks (an infrastructure) when using a public
cloud model.

Question 59
Which Windows operating system has the ability to function as an iSCSI
target creating a complete Microsoft-based storage solution?
a. Windows Server 2012

b. Windows Server 2003
c. Windows Server 2008
d. Windows 8.1
Answer: A
Windows Server 2012 and 2012 R2 provide the iSCSI Target Server role that provides
the ability to configure a complete Microsoft storage solution.
Question 60
What term is used to describe the cables that are used to connect
workstations to the patch panel?
a. Patch cables
b. Drop cables
c. Crossover cables
d. Intermediate distribution frame
Answer: B
Drop cables connect the workstations to the patch panel, while patch cables are used
from the front of the patch panel into the network switch.
Question 61
Which protocol is used by unified communications to establish a ses-
sion between the caller and recipient?
a. RTP
b. VoIP
c. SIP
d. SLIP
Answer: C
SIP is Session Initiation Protocol and is used to establish a session for unified
communications.

Question 62
Which protocol is used by unified communications to actually transport
voice data over Ethernet?
a. RTP
b. SIP
c. VoIP
d. SLIP
Answer: A
The Real-time Transfer Protocol is used to transport voice data over regular Ethernet
networks.
Question 63
Which of the following Microsoft offerings represents a software as a
service model?
a. Windows Azure
b. Windows Server 2012
c. Office 365
d. None of these
Answer: C
Office 365 provides access to office applications, exchange messaging, Lync,
SharePoint, and more.
Question 64
Which device provides battery backup capabilities for servers in most
LAN infrastructures?
a. Power inverter
b. Power converter
c. Generator
d. UPS
Answer: D
Uninterruptible power supplies are used as a battery backup in most modern LAN
infrastructures. Generators may be used in addition to UPS, but the most common
implementation is the UPS.

Question 65
Which of the following is not part of the CIA triad?
a. Confidentiality
b. Integrity
c. Authentication
d. Availability
Answer: C
Availability is the A in CIA triad.
Question 66
is the inability of a person or organization to disown its
own data.
a. Confidentiality
b. Non-repudiation
c. A threat
d. Modification
Answer: B
A supplemental goal of the CIA triad would be non-repudiation. Non-repudiation is the
inability of a person or organization to disown its own data.
Question 67
A vulnerability is any event or action that might cause a breach or
violation in security policies.
True
False
Answer: False
A threat is any event or action that might cause a breach or violation in security
policies and/or procedures.

Question 68
What is the first A?
a. Authentication
b. Authorization
c. Access control
d. Auditing
Answer: A
The first A is Authentication and is the process of validating the identity of an individual
who is using the system.
Question 69
Cryptography is nearly as old as language itself.
True
False
Answer: True
Cryptography is the science of encrypting and decrypting data in order to hide
information and is nearly as old as language itself.
Question 70
A firewall capable of examining data streams and performing more
advanced security checks is referred to as which of the following
devices?
a. NAT
b. SPI
c. ACL
d. Stateless
Answer: B
A firewall that performs stateful packet inspection is capable of advanced security
checks such as the determination of whether or not packets are part of a previously
allowed communication session.

Question 71
Which of the following DMZ configurations provides the highest level of
security while still allowing Internet access for LAN computers without
the use of protocol switching?
a. Back-to-back
b. Three homed
c. Bastion host
d. Dead zone
Answer: A
The back-to-back DMZ configuration uses two firewalls and is the most secure
perimeter network configuration.
Question 72
Which of the following protocols are included in IPSec?
a. Authentication Headers (AH)

b. Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP)
c. Layer Two Tunneling Protocol (L2TP)
d. Microsoft Point-to-Point Encryption (MPPE)
Answer: A and B
AH and ESP are the core protocols in the IP Security suite and are used to provide
mutual authentication and encryption of network communications.
Question 73
A single physical host server operates as a host for multiple virtual
machines.
True
False
Answer: True

Question 74
Virtualization has a large effect on user experience.
a. True
b. False
Answer: False
Virtualization is transparent to users. So while it offers flexibility from an administrative
standpoint, it has little or no effect on the actual user experience.
Question 75
Which is a type I hypervisor platform?
a. VMware Workstation
b. VMWare ESX Server
c. Virtual Server
d. Microsoft Virtual PC
Answer: B
The major three virtualization platforms that are type I hypervisors are Microsoft
Hyper-V, VMWare ESX Server, and Citrix XENServer.
Question 76
Which of the three main types of storage uses storage on a physical
server?
a. Network attached storage

b. Storage area networks
c. Direct attached storage
Answer: C
Direct attached storage uses storage on a physical server. The application software,
the file system, and the storage all reside in the same place.

Question 77
Which of the following file types is not a type of virtual hard drive?
a. VHD
b. VHDX
c. VDI
d. ISO
Answer: D
ISO files contain images of CD/DVD that can be used to install software into a virtual
machine, but are not a type of virtual drive.
Question 78
What do you need to enable on the host system in order to be able to
use some advanced virtualization features?
a. CPU Virtualization in the BIOS

b. Power Management
c. Virtualization software
d. None of these
Answer: A
In order to use all virtualization features, the BIOS functions have to be enabled for
hardware and CPU virtualization.
Question 79
Which of the following options available with virtual machines is a
backup, providing the ability to restore a virtual machine to a previous
point in time?
a. Checkpoints
b. Virtual hard drives
c. VSS
d. VMDK
Answer: A
The checkpoint or snapshot is a picture of the virtual machine at a particular point
in time, which can be used to revert changes that have been made to the virtual
machine.

Question 80
Which of the following protocols are included in IPSec?
a. Authentication Headers (AH)

b. Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP)
c. Layer Two Tunneling Protocol (L2TP)
d. Microsoft Point-to-Point Encryption (MPPE)
Answer: A and B
AH and ESP are the core protocols in the IP Security suite and are used to provide
mutual authentication and encryption of network communications.
Question 81
Which numbering system only uses zeros and ones?
a. Decimal
b. Binary
c. Hexadecimal
Answer: B
The binary numbering system uses only zeros and ones.
Question 82
Which type of communication is one-to-everyone?
a. Unicast
b. Multicast
c. Broadcast
Answer: C
Broadcast is a one-to-everyone type of communication. A broadcast is similar to a
network node shouting out information that everyone on the same network will hear.

Question 83
Demultiplexing is a method by which multiple analog signals or digital
data streams are combined into one signal over a shared medium.
True
False
Answer: False
Multiplexing is a method by which multiple analog signals or digital data streams are
combined into one signal over a shared medium.
Question 84
In a environment, each individual node manages its
own security.
a. peer-to-peer
b. client/server
c. domain
d. controller
Answer: A
In a peer-to-peer environment, each individual node manages its own security.
Question 85
The topology of the network relates to its actual layout either logically
or physically.
True
False
Answer: True
The topology of the network relates to its actual layout either logically or physically.

Question 86
Which of the following OSI/RM layers primarily looks at MAC addresses
to determine the forwarding of packets?
a. Data Link
b. Network
c. Physical
d. Transport
Answer: A
The Data Link layer contains the MAC sub layer and devices residing at this layer, as
well as bridges and switches using MAC addresses for the forwarding of packets.
Question 87
Which of the following is an acronym describing control systems for
industrial networks?
a. LAN
b. MAN
c. PAN
d. ICS
Answer: D
Industrial Control Systems are software and technologies used to control physical
processes primarily involving industrial networking.
Question 88
Which of the following primarily uses wireless technologies and includes
mobile devices, smart phones, and personal computers?
a. LAN
b. WAN
c. PAN
d. MAN
Answer: C
The personal area network primarily uses Bluetooth wireless technology, though it
can also use infrared and Near Field Communications to connect mobile devices
and PCs.

Question 89
There is only one troubleshooting model.
True
False
Answer: False
There are a few troubleshooting models out there and the exact model you choose is
of little concern.
Question 90
What is the final step of troubleshooting methodology?
a. Identify the problem

b. Develop a theory
c. Create a plan of action
d. Implement a solution
Answer: D
The final steps to our troubleshooting methodology will involve implementing a
solution based on the information that we have obtained and the plan of action.
Question 91
Multimeters are capable of reading voltage, current, and resistance.
True
False
Answer: True

Question 92
A customer is having a problem with network connectivity to the
Internet and you are troubleshooting over the phone. Which of the
following is the first action that you should take?
a. Identify the affected area

b. Determine if anything has changed
c. Plan the proposed solution
d. Document the problem
Answer: A
During the initial information gathering you need to determine the affected area of
the problem. This is particularly critical with Internet related problems. Determining if
something has changed is important but you should determine the scope of the issue
prior to doing this.
Question 93
Which of the following tools could be used to determine if there are
physical problems with copper Ethernet cabling?
a. OTDR
b. Butt set
c. Crimper
d. TDR
Answer: D
A time domain reflectometer is used to determine if there are physical faults within
copper cabling.

Question 94
Which of the following tools would be used to attach RJ-45 connectors
to Ethernet cables using the EIA/TIAB wiring standard?
a. Punchdown tool
b. Stripper
c. Cable checker
d. Crimper
Answer: D
The crimper is the network tool that you use to attach an RJ-45 connector to the end
of UTP.
Question 95
Which of the following terms describes interference between
neighboring signals on Ethernet wiring that occurs closest to the
source system?
a. Crosstalk
b. NEXT
c. Attenuation
d. Collisions
Answer: B
Near-end crosstalk is crosstalk that occurs closest to the source system. Crosstalk is
interference between neighboring systems on Ethernet wiring.
Question 96
Which of the following is a problem unique to troubleshooting WLANs?
a. Signal strength
b. Encryption mismatch
c. Authentication failures
d. Connectivity issues
Answer: A
Signal strength is a unique wireless issue related to the distance between wireless
nodes, the standard utilized, and environmental factors.

Question 97
Server rooms should be secured using locks and a form of access
control.
True
False
Answer: True
A consideration for server rooms is the general security of that location. At the very
least, there should locks on the door and some form of access control.
Question 98
What is critical for keeping servers at an acceptable temperature?
a. Rack System
b. Airflow
c. HVAC
d. Drop floors
Answer: B
You need to think about circulation, so you wont set up the rack system directly
against a wall because this would impede airflow. Airflow is critical for keeping the
servers at an acceptable temperature level.
Question 99
What can become a single point of failure if we arent careful?
a. Labeling
b. Circulation
c. Power
d. Cabling
Answer: C
Power management is very important when building a basic local area network. In a
sense, power can become a single point of failure if we arent careful.

Question 100
Which of the following components represents the point at which the
company equipment interfaces with the providers equipment?
a. Demarcation point
b. Intermediate distribution frame
c. Main distribution frame
d. Patch panel
Answer: A
The demarc is the point at which the customer equipment terminates and the service
provider equipment begins. This represents the end of customer responsibility in
relation to equipment.

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Question 1

TCP/IP is a routable protocol that provides the ability to transfer network

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a. Network interface card

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a. Performance Logs and Alerts

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a. Data Collector Sets

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a. Windows Server 2012

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a. Authentication Headers (AH)

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a. Network attached storage

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a. CPU Virtualization in the BIOS

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a. Authentication Headers (AH)

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a. Identify the problem

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a. Identify the affected area

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