51 QUESTION PAPER SERIES CODE Centre of Exam. : A Name of Candidate : Signature of Invigilator ENTRANCE EXAMINATION, 2015 Pre-Ph.D./Ph.D. BIOTECHNOLOGY [ Field of Study Code : SBTP (168) ] Time Allowed : 3 hours Maximum Marks : 70 INSTRUCTIONS FOR CANDIDATES Candidates must read carefully the following instructions before attempting the Question Paper (i) Write your Name and Registration Number in the space provided for the purpose on the top of this, Question Paper and in the Answer Sheet (i) Please darken the appropriate circle of Question Paper Series Code on the Answer Sheet. (iii) The Question Paper is divided into two parts ; Part—A and Part—B. Both parts have multiple-choice questions, All answers are to be entered in the Answer Sheet provided with the Question Paper for the purpose by darkening the correct choice, ie. (a or (b) or (c) oF (4) with BALLPOINT PEN only against each {question in the corresponding circle (iv) Part—A consists of 30 questions and all are compulsory. (v) Part—B contains 70 questions. Answer any 40 questions. In case any candidate answers more than the required 40 questions, the first 40 questions attempted will be evaluated. (wi) Each correct answer carries 1 mark. There will be negative marking and ¥ mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. (vi) Answer written by the candidates inside the Question Paper will not be evaluated. (vii Simple Calculators and Log Tables may be used. (ix) Page at the end has been provided for Rough Work (x) Return the Question Paper and Answer Sheet to the Invigilator at the end of the Entrance Examination DO NOT FOLD THE ANSWER SHEET. INSTRUCTIONS FOR MARKING ANSWERS 1. Use only Blue/Black Ballpoint Pen (Do not use pencil to darken the appropriate Circle. 2. Please darken the whole Circle. 3. Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each question as shown in example below Wrong Wrong Wrong Wrong Correct ©OHO©O|GHOO|GOHOG|OHOO|/OOO@ Once marked, no change in the answer is allowed. Please do not make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet. Please do not do any rough work on the Answer Sheet, ‘Mark your answer only in the appropriate space against the number corresponding to the question. Ensure that you have darkened the appropriate circle of Question Paper Series Code on the ‘Answer Sheet. /51-A/51L-APART—A Answer all questions 1, Sodium dodecy! sulphate (SDS) is commonly used in polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis experiments in which a mixture of proteins is imparted a uniform negative charge and separated on a gel. SDS works by binding to (a) positively charged side chains (b) negatively charged side chains ()_ hydrophobic side chains (a) hydrophilic side chains 2. The value of the equilibrium constant for the hydrolysis of ATP to form ADP and inorganic phosphate was found to be 16-66x10%. The free energy change for the hydrolysis reaction in kcal/mol would be fa) -3 (o) 5 () -7 (dq -9 3. A functional group X (where X could be F, Cl, Br or I} is known to affect the NMR spectrum in terms of changes in the ‘chemical shift’ values. For a molecule CH3X, the chemical shift for its proton NMR would be in the order (a) CHgF > CHgCl > CHgBr > CHgl (b) CH3Cl > CHF > CH3Br > CH3l (c) CHgCl > CH3F > CHgl > CH3Br (@) CHgl > CHgBr > CHCl > CHF 4, Aconcentrated ribonuclease solution was diluted 100 times with a buffer at pH 7-0 and the resulting solution gave an absorbance of 0-362 in a UV spectrometer at 280 nm using a 1 cm path length quartz cuvette. Given the extinction coefficient of ribonuclease is 2-64 ml/mg, cm and its molecular weight is 137 kDa. The concentration of the protein in millimolar units would be (a) 10 ) 7 (1 (a) On /51-A 3 [P.T.O,(SLA ‘two proteins have a similar molecular weight and size but have a high-level of difference in their secondary structure. Which of the following methods will you use to identify the two proteins? (a) Fluorescence spectroscopy ()_ UV-VIS spectroscopy (c) Dynamic light scattering {d) Circular dichroism A straight line passes through the points (1, 2) and (3, 1). What is its slope and y intercept? (a) -1/2, -5/2 (b) 1/2, -5/2 () -1/2, 5/2 (@) 1/2, 5/2 What would the mean and standard deviation of the following data set be? 1324144) f@) 3, 16 (b) 4, 16 () 3, 1-265 (@) 3,2 A certain compound gives a negative test with ninh: Benedict's solution. The compound is a/an ydrin and a positive test with (@) protein (b) monosaccharide “(e) lipid (@) amino acid At isoelectric point, the amino acid has (@) least viscosity (6) maximum surface tension (¢)_ maximum solubility (d) All of the above10, 1. 12, 13. /51-A Which of the following statements regarding enzyme inhibition is correct? (2) Competitive inhibition is seen when a substrate competes with an enzyme for binding to an inhibitor protein (b) Noncompetitive inhibitors often bind to the enzyme irreversibly (¢) Competitive inhibition is seen when the substrate and the inhibitor compete for the active site on the enzyme (a) Non-competitive inhibition of an enzyme can be overcome by adding large amount of substrate The given graph shows the effect of substrate concentration on the rate of reaction catalyzed by the enzyme green gram phosphatase : — QL Velocity Substrate concentration ——> What does the graph indicate? (a) The rate of the reaction is directly proportional to the substrate concentration (b) Presence of an enzyme inhibitor in the reaction mixture (c) Formation of an enzyme-substrate complex (4) At higher substrate concentration, the pH increases With reference to enzymes, which one of the following statements is true? a} Apoenzyme = Holoenzyme + Coenzyme (b) Holoenzyme = Apoenzyme + Coenzyme (c) Coenzyme = Apoenzyme + Holoenzyme (a) Holoenzyme = Coenzyme ~ Apoenzyme DNA polymerase I and RNA polymerase from E. coli differ from each other with respect to (a) direction of chain elongation (>) requirement for a divalent metal ion, e.g., Mg?* (c) requirement of a primer (a) association of other accessory proteins/subunits 5 [P.T.0.14, 18. 16. 17. 18. /51-A Which of the following was used by Hershey and Chase to prove that DNA is the genetic material? (a) E. coli (b) TMV (c) T2 bacteriophage (@) Pichia pastoris ‘The number of amino acids that can be coded by a genetic code in which four bases constitute a codon would be (a) 32 (b) 64 (©) 256 (@) 253 In E coli, which enzyme synthesizes the RNA primer for Okazaki fragments? (@) dnaa (b) dnaB () dnac (@) dnag Which of the following repair systems does not require a DNA polymerase? (@) Photoreactivation of thymine dimers (b) Error-prone repair () Mismatch repair (@) Excision repair Under normal conditions, cell cycle? cell division cannot be stopped in which phase of the (a) Gl-phase (&) G2-phase () S-phase (4) Prophase19. 20. 21, 22, /51-A ‘The non-sister chromatids twist around and exchange segments with each other during @) (b) (c) (d) leptotene diakinesis diplotene pachytene If you are provided with root-tips of onion in your class and are asked to count the chromosomes, which of the following stages would be most convenient to count the chromosomes? fa) (b) ( (a) Prophase Anaphase Telophase Metaphase Cells in the GO-phase of the cell cycle are in the process of (a) (b) (e) (a) exiting the cell cycle entering the cell cycle resting in the cell cycle terminating the cell cycle Which stages of cell division do the following figures A and Brepresent respectively? fa) (b) ©) (a) Figure A Figure B Prophase Anaphase Metaphase Telophase Telophase Metaphase Late Anaphase Prophase 7 [P.7.0.23. 24, 25. 26, /31-A Which one of the following is an inflammatory cytokine, which is also produced by Thi cells? (@) TNF-a (o) I-10 () 14 @ Is Which of the following statements regarding T cells activated by specific antigen is incorrect? (a) They receive costimulatory signals from B cells (b) They suppress expression of sphingosine 1-phosphate (SIP) (©) They cease to secrete and respond to interleukin-2 (IL-2) (d) They begin to express CTLA4, which serves to limit T-cell Proliferation MHC class I molecules present peptide antigens derived from the whereas MHC class Il molecules compartment. compartment, Present peptide antigens derived from the (@) extracellular, intracellular (>) intracellular, extracellular (¢) opsonization, neutralization () neutralization, opsonization Which type of ELISA comprises of the following steps—antigen binding, blocking, addition of primary antibody, addition of Secondary antibody, addition of enzyme substrate, calorimetric reading? (a) Direct ELISA () Indirect ELISA () Competitive ELISA (4) Sandwich ELISAa7. 28. 29. 30. /51-A T cells are made in the and complete their differentiation in the — (a) spleen, thyroid (>) spleen, thymus (c) bone marrow, thyroid (d) bone marrow, thymus What among the following is used to produce artificial rain? (a) Copper oxide (b) Carbon monoxide (c) Silver iodide (a) Silver nitrate Human bone does not contain (a) calcium (b) carbon (c) oxygen (d) phosphorous Natural rubber is a polymer derived from (a) ethylene (b) propylene (c) isoprene (a) butadiene [P.1.0.PART—B Answer any forty questions 31, The matrix A has a dimension 3x 3, Bis another matrix of having the dimension 4 x 3. What will be the dimension of the product Ax B? fa) 3x3 (b) 3x4 (4x3 (a) None of the above 32, The hexadecimal equivalent of (11101) is (a) 2136 (b} 2Ch6 () @Dhe @ 56 33. The determinant of the matrix 12 20 16 24 3 6 10 8 is (a) 192 (b) 200 @ 1 @ 0 34, The 12th term of the series 0, 1, 1, 2, 3, 5, ... is (@) 55 (b) 101 (©) 89 (a) 105 35. pees peu Sees za a of the arithmetic progression having the first term 8 and (a) 6400 (&) 3200 (©) 3400 (@) 2400 (51L-A 10‘The slope of the curve described by the function fix) = x3 + 3x? -8x at the point what will be the absorbance in 2-cm 36. x =4 is given by (a) 80 (b) 72 (c) 84 (a) 64 37. The area under curve described by the function f(x) = x? +2x between the intervals 2 and 3 is (a) 105/4 (b) 85/4 {) 21 (@) -33 38. The two roots of the equation 6x? +11x~35=0 are given by (a) -7/2, 5/3 (b) 7/2, -5/3 (c) 7/2, 5/3 (a -7/2, -5/3 39. If the transmittance is 50-8% in a 1-cm cuvette, cuvette? fa) 0588 {b) 0-294 (c) 0-144 (a) 0-508 40. The pH of a buffer solution made from 020 MHC2H302 an acid dissociation constant for HC2H302 @ 48 &) 51 @ 54 (a 56 151-A lL and 050 MCH303 that has of 1-8x10°° is [P.1.0.41. 400 J heat is required to raise the temperature of one mole of ideal gas by 10 °K when heated at constant pressure. The change in internal energy is given by (R=8-3 J/mole °K) (@) 20045 (b) 483. J (©) 3170 (a) 3835 42, A 10 ml protein solution after 50-fold dilution gave an absorbance of 0-4 in a 1-cm cuvette at 280 nm. Its molar extinction coefficient is given by 64000 M7! cm=! The approximate concentration of the stock solution is () 031M (>) 031 mM () 31 mM (@) 31 mM A sample of Se-83 registers 10! disintegrations per second when first tested. What rate would you predict for this sample 3-5 hours later, if the half-life is 22-3 minutes? (a) 1-46x109 () 1-46x10!! () 2-4x108 (@) 2.48109 44. A microscope objective has a numerical aperture of 1:22. What is the minimum + distance between the two closely spaced objects on the slide that can be resolved by the microscope while using light at a wavelength of 600 nm? (a) 400 nm (&) 350 nm (c) 300 nm (@) 250 nm (51-A 12 .45. A di-block copolymer has a hydrophobic tail and a hydrophilic head group. Which of » the following structures is energetically unfavourable in a hydrophilic solvent? (a) Micelle with hydrophilic head facing towards the solvent (b) Bilayer with the hydrophilic heads facing towards the solvent ()_ Micelle with hydrophobic tail facing towards the solvent (@) Both (a) and (b) ‘The pH of 1078 N HCI solution will be (a) between 7 and 8 bo) 8 (o) between 6 and 7 (a) less than 6 47. Two proteins A and B are given where both of them have absorbances in the visible region. By naked eye one can observe the colours. A is blue in colour and B is red. Which of the following statements is correct? (a) Ahas absorbance at 600 nm and B at 410 nm (b) A has absorbance at 410 nm and Bat 600 nm (c) Alas absorbance at 500 nm and Bat 610 nm (4) Ahas absorbance at 400 nm and Bat 510 nm 48. In an ideal CSTR of volume 1 litre at steady-state, the feed rate is S00 mé/hr of 10 gm/é glucose. Given maximum specific growth rate = 1 hl and Y,./. (biomass yield coefficient) = 0-5 g/g, if the outlet biomass concentration is 4 g//, then K, equals (@) lef (b) 2 e/é ) 3e/f @) OS e/f . /31-A 13 [P.T.O.49. 50. 51. 52. /51-A ‘The product formation kinetics is given by 1/x(dp/df) =q 2 8 & al a the product concentration in a CSTR at steady-state is found to be 1 g Ete biomass concentration = 5 g/ at a dilution rate of 0:2 h”. If the biomass concentr: declines to 4 g// at a dilution rate of 0-4 h~}, then the expected product concentration will be fa) 02 g/e (b) 0-4 g/t ( 08 g/t (@) les During photosynthesis, oxygen evolves from (@) sunlight (b) water () carbohydrates (a) fatty acids In @ Teactor with air sparging and constant agitation rate (henc the dissolved oxygen (DO) falls from an initial vale of 70% to 30%, the same time period increases four-fold, then the specif "e constant kLa), If the biomass in ific growth rate of the cells (a) falls to half its earlier value (b) remains the same (c]_ doubles (d) increases four-fold (a) the specific growth rate is constant (b) the doubling time is constant (c)_ Both (a) and (b) (a) the specific growth rate falls in proportion to the increase in biomass 1453. 84, 55. 56. /51-A Yeast cells grow anaerobically on glucose to produce biomass and ethanol. The enthalpy efficiency of this process can be estimated to be (@) approximately 0-4 (0) approximately 06 (c) close to 1 (@) Depends on the fraction of ethanol produced Which one of the following is the basis of the VSEPR model of molecular bonding? (a) Regions of electron density on an atom will organize themselves so as to maximize s-character (b) Regions of electron density in the valence shell of an atom will arrange themselves so as to maximize overlap (c)_ Atomic orbitals of the bonding atoms must overlap for a bond to form (a) Plectron domains in the valence shell of an atom will arrange themselves so as to minimize repulsions ‘The bond angles marked a, b and ¢ in the molecule below are about — and respectively. gp lk 0 Hep Ree rn PG H (a) 109'5*, 1095, 109:5° (b) 120°, 109:5°, 120° () 1095, 109:5°, 120° (a) 90°, 180", 90° Aspirin is a weak acid with a pK, of 35. It is absorbed into the bloodstream through the cells lining the stomach and small intestine. The rate of absorption across the plasma membrane is determined by the polarity of the molecule. The pH of the stomach contents is about 15 and the pH of the contents of the small intestine is about 6. More aspirin will be absorbed into the bloodstream from which of the following organ(s}? (a) Stomach (b) Small intestine (c) Equally in both organs (a) Will not absorb in both organs 15 [P.7.0.id has the same pair of 6 and y shows a tetrapeptide. Each amino acic eo, The backbone is thickened for your convenience. Side chain hydrogens are not shown 87. Sequence of the peptide, using three-letter codes will be (a) NV terminal (Ser-Asn-His-Trp) C terminal (b) C terminal (Ser-Asn-His-Trp) N terminal (¢) NW terminal (Ser-Asp-Trp-His) C terminal (@) WV terminal (Lys-Asn-His-His) C terminal 58. The figure given below shows three velocity-substrate concentration curves for an enzyme reaction Initial velocity (vy) —> Substrate concentration (3) ——> What do the curves a, b and ¢ depict respectively? @) @normal enzyme reaction, b-competitive inhibition and non-competitive inhibition (b) qenzyme with an alloste } bnormal enzyme activity and c-competitive inhibition (6) aenzyme with an allosteric Stimulator, b-competitive inhibitor added and normal enzyme reaction (@) anormal enzyme r action, b-non-competitive inhibitor added inhibitor added and callosteric /5L-A 1659, The curve given below shows the enzymatic activity with relation to three conditions (pH, temperature and substrate concentration) : y-axis What do both axes (x and y) represent? x-axis yaxis (a) Enzymatic activity Temperature (b) Enzymatic activity pH (c) Temperature Enzyme activity (a) Substrate concentration Enzymatic activity 60. Suppose you were to study the signalling pathway in an excised intestinal epithelium layer in an in vitro system. Referring to the diagram below, which of the following treatments or genetic manipulations would be expected to increase the production of IP3? signal molecule inositol phospholipid >) Gprotein-tinked activated receptor phospholipase C / f_diacrlaly cerol Bycomplex @ subunit inositol 1,4,5-trisphosphate “P. o ‘A mutation in phospholipase-C that strengthens its interaction with the G-protein -subunit (a) () Decreasing the cholesterol content of the membrane () A mutation in the receptor that weakens its dissociation with the signal molecule (a) Adding a hydrolyzable analog of GTP 151-4 17 [P.7.0.61. 62, 63. 64, /51-A Peptidoglycan is a polymer comprising of all, except (a) N-acetyl glucosamine (b) N-acetyl muramic acid () N-acetyl neuraminic acid (a) sialic acid Glycoside linkage is an (a) amide linkage (0) ether linkage (c) ester linkage (@) None of the above Given below is the diagrammatic representation of one of the categories of small molecular weight organic compounds in the living tissues, Identify the category shown and the one blank component X in it 0. HOCH, x OH OH Category Component (a) Nucleotide Adenine (b) Nucleoside Uracil (c) Cholesterol Guanine (@) Amino acid NH Which of the following |S not correct in relation to the regulation of lac operon of £, coli by the lac repressor? {@) "In the absence of inducer, the repressor binds more tightly to operator DNA than to non-specific DNA (6) In the presence of inducer, the Fepressor binds more tightly to operator DNA than to non-specific DNA ©) @ Mutations in the DNA binding domain are recessive Mutations in the tetramerization domain are recessive 1865. The proteins synthesized early during infection from early mRNA of a lytic phage in susceptible bacterial cells are required for (a) attachment of the phage to its host cell (b) entry of the phage nucleic acid into the host cell (c) replication of the phage nucleic acid (d) lysis of the host cell 66. Which one of the following is a correct statement? (a) Not all lytic phages bring about transduction (b) Mutation in gene encoding RNAi would result in uncontrolled replication and unlimited copy number (c)_ As the name indicates, Kil-Kor system only helps in getting rid of plasmidless cells (a) Cytidine deaminase encoded by T4 is an essential enzyme 67. Which of the following best describes F and ColE1 plasmids, respectively? (@) Conjugative, non-transmissible (b) Conjugative, transmissible (©) Selftransmissible, mobilizable (@) Mobilizable, self-transmissible 68. Which of the following proteins serves as a repressor only in the presence of the small molecule indicated together? (a) Tet repressor/Tetracycline (b) AraC protein/Arabinose (©) Trp repressor/Tryptophan (d) Lac repressor/IPTG /5L-A 19 [P.7.069. 70. 1. /31-A During the second step of RNA splicing (@) the UlsnRNP binds to the branch point (b) the branch point 2’-OH attacks the 5’ intron-exon junction (c)__ the 3'-OH of the upstream-exon performs a nucleophilic attack at the 3’ splice site (a) formation of the GpppG cap takes place Bacteriophage lambda brings about specialized transduction of either biotin or gal genes from donor to recipient bacteria, as it gets integrated as a specific int site between the two, However, occasionally a generalized transducing phage grown on a wild-type biotins donor, can bring about transduction as well. How would you select transductants ofa biotin-requiring mutant recipient when infected with this generalized transducing phage? (a) Plate the phage preparation on the recipient host in soft agar to select plaques (b) Generalized phages will never be able to transduce biotin gene (©) Plate the phage-infected-recipient cells on glucose plus biotin medium (@) Plate the phage-infected recipient cells on glucose without biotin medium A replicative transposon forms a cointegrate with the target DNA during transposition. The cointegrate, is generally highly unstable, However, sometimes the cointegrate becomes stable and cannot ever come out of this state, Thin is due to the fact that (@) the host cells are defective in the resolvase enzyme (0) the resolvase gene encoded by the transposon is defective (¢)_ both the resolvase enzy, (d) a transposon defective in rec “ombination /resolvase will never enter the cointegrate state Which of the following will be the most effic ‘ent and effective approach to obtain “ non-specific transcription from both the sti ands of a’ DNA molecule? (@) Enriching the extract with sigma factor (b) Including the RNA holoenzyme in the reaction (c) Using the core enzyme of RNA polymerase (@) Including both the RNA in the reaction 2073. 74. 75. 76. /51-A Which of the following is most likely to occur if glucose levels fall down in a bacterial cell? (@) Lowering of cAMP levels (b) CAP will assist in upregulating the transcription from lac operon if lactose is added {c)__ Inhibition of CRP levels (a) Both (a) and (¢) How would a mutation that inactivates the Shine-Dalgarno sequence in the ip leader affect expression of the trp operon? (a) Expression in high tryptophan would increase (b) Expression in low tryptophan would increase (c) Expression in high tryptophan would decrease (a) Expression in low tryptophan would decrease Paramecium caudatum collects fluid from a system of canals in the cytoplasm into @ vacuole called ‘contractile vacuole’ that expels water out by contraction. If this organism swims from a hypotonic environment to an isotonic environment, it will be expected that (a) the contractile vacuole becomes more active (b) the contractile vacuole becomes less active (c)_ the activity of the contractile vacuole does not change (a) the contractile vacuole will swell due to the accumulation of larger volume of fluid Arf-1 is a monomeric G-protein that helps in the formation of COPI-coated vesicles at the Golgi membrane by inserting a hydrophobic tail in the Golgi membrane that then recruits other necessary adapter proteins to start bud formation. The hydrophobic tail of Arf-1 is exposed when Arf-1 is bound to GTP and is retracted when Arf-1 hydrolyses the bound GTP to GDP. If there is a mutation in Arf-1 so that it cannot hydrolyse GTP, then all of the following can be expected to happen, except (a) COPI-coated vesicles will readily form but may form at places other than Golgi (b) COPI-coated vesicles will disassemble quickly (c) transport mediated by COPI-coated vesicles will be inhibited (d) it would be lethal for the cell 21 [P.7.0.77. The stimulus response curve for the components of the MAP-kinase pathway is shown below : MAPK 100-4 > ‘APKK| el MAPKKK, E 2 ° — Claas eee Input stimulus It can be concluded from this curve that (@) components of the cascade are arranged on a scaffold (b) MAPK js upstream of MAPKKK () MAPK is upstream of MAPKK (@) MAPK is acting like a switch 78. Jon channels have a central region that is constricted such that only ions of a certain diameter can pass through. If a threonine in the central regions is replaced with a leucine, it can be expected that (a) the current flowing through the channel will be unaltered (b) the current flowing through the channel will be increased (¢) the current flowing through the channel will be reduced (a) the channel will allow free flow of ions 79. Cigarette smoking is strongly correlated with development of lung cancer. Smokers are ‘advised to quit smoking and it has been observed that smokers who have quit smoking have a lower rate of development of lung cancer compared to those who keep smoking. The molecular logic behind this observation is (a) continuous smoking is required to generate mutations (b) quitting smoking stops all further mutations (¢) quitting smoking slows down the rate of mutations (a) quitting smoking increases the rate of mutations /51-A 2280. 81, 82, 83. 151-A You are studying the cell cycle parameters of an organism that can exist in haploid, diploid and tetraploid forms. You estimate the length of the S-phase of the cell cycle that represents the time the cells spend in duplicating its genome for all the three forms of the organism. You find that (a) (>) (o) @ the duration of the S-phase for the haploid form is the shortest and longest for the tetraploid form that has four times as much DNA to be duplicated the duration of the S-phase for the haploid form is the longest and shortest for the tetraploid form that has four times less DNA to be duplicated the S-phase duration is constant for all the three forms the S-phase duration has no correlation with the ploidy of the genome as chromosomes and genomes have a defined order and timing of replication which depends on epigenetic modifications and overall organization of the genome that may be different for all the three forms of the organism The checkpoint controls in the cell cycle mostly work in which of the following ways? (a) (b) () (a) ‘They use positive signalling to allow an incremental increase in the signal till a threshold to allow the progression of the subsequent phase of the cycle They use negative signalling to ensure that the last inhibitory signal is removed before the next step can proceed Checkpoint controls exclusively work at the level of transcriptional regulation Checkpoint controls exclusively work at the level of translational regulation Microtubules display the property of dynamic instability that causes them to either grow or shrink. If free tubulin concentration is increased, then it can be expected that fa) the frequency of switching to growing mode will be higher for a shrinking microtubule the frequency of switching to growing mode will be lower for a shrinking microtubule the frequency of switching between growing and shrinking modes will be unaffected the frequency of switching to growing mode will be higher till the concentrations of free tubulin falls so that the rate of GTP-tubulin addition is slowed down and the microtubule will then switch to shrinking mode Disulfide bonds do not get formed in the cytosol but keratin intermediate filaments in the skin are cross-linked by disulfide bonds. This can be explained by which of the following? (a) intermediate filaments are transported to the cell exterior via the secretory pathway that allows the formation of disulfide bonds (b) keratinocytes do not have a strongly reducing cytosol thereby allowing the formation of disulfide bonds in the cytosol (c) keratinocytes lack ghucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase so that their cytosol is less reducing (a) disulfide bonds in keratin are formed after cells have died and therefore cannot maintain the reducing environment in the absence of metabolic activity and cellular contents are oxidized 23 [P.7.084, 85. 87. /51-A Export of HCO3 out of cells via a Cl7-HCO3 exchanger will result in (a) increase in intracellular pH (b) decrease in intracellular pH (c})_ no change in intracellular pH (a) switch in the directionality of the exchanger Highly active antiretroviral therapy is used for the treatment of a) HBV infection (b) HCV infection (c) HIV infection (4) HIN1 infection Antigen recognition by T cells in the absence of costimulation results in (a) upregulation of B7 (b) expression of the high-affinity IL-2 receptor (©) T-cell anergy (@) T-cell apoptosis ‘The Philadelphia chromosome is associated with which type of cancer? (@) Breast (b) Thyroid (c) Nerve (@) Leukemia People who cannot produce a complete protein resist HIV infection. fa) CD4 (b) ccRS () cytotoxin (@) AIDS 2489. 90. 91. 93. /51-A Which of the following types of antigen presenting cells (APCs) has immunoglobulin that functions as a receptor, then the antigen is internalized, degraded and presented to T cells? (a) Macrophage (b) Dendritic cells () Bcells (@) T cells Drug X has pKa of 6'5 and is absorbed into the blood through the cells lining the stomach (pH 1:5) and the upper small intestine (pH 60). The percent of X absorbed in small intestine is (a) 757% (b) 243% () 443% (a) 29:3% ‘The metal that is used as a catalyst in the hydrogenation of oils is (a) Pb (b) Ni (Cu (@) Pt Which one of the following metals does not react with water to produce hydrogen? (a) Cadmium (b) Lithium a () Potassium (@) Sodium According to Langmuir’s adsorption isotherm, which one of the following assumptions is not correct? - (a) The surface of the adsorbent is in contact with a solution containing an adsotbate which is strongly attracted to the surface (b) All the vacant sites may not have equal size and shape on the surface of adsorbent (c) The adsorption involves the attachment of only one layer of molecules to the surface, i.e., monolayer adsorption (4) Dynamic equilibrium exists between adsorbed gaseous molecules and the free gaseous molecules 25 [P.7.0.94. 95. 96. /51-A Which one of the following metals has the ability to adsorb O2, Nz, CO, CO, CaHy through chemisorption? (a) Vanadium (b) Nickel () Rhodium (2) Aluminium In the following figure, which of the following component{(s) is melting incongruently? AtABy ABy*B a AB B @ oa (b) ABy © B (4) Both (a) and (b) Lithium aluminium hydride in ether is added to a soluti that will be obtained? (LAH) is a reducing agent. When a soluti ion of cinnamaldehyde in ether at 10 “0 _Lan Oe ion containing LAH *C, what is the product fa) ~ a Cc ‘on ‘ @ 4 (@) Both (b) and (c) 2697. 98. 99. 100. 151-A Identify the correct statement that defines a supercritical fluid (a) A supercritical fluid has densities similar to that of liquids, while the viscosities and diffusivities are closer to that of gases (b) A supercritical fluid has densities and viscosities similar to that of liquids ()_ A supercritical fluid has densities similar to that of gases, while the viscosities and diffusivities are closer to that of liquids (4) A supercritical fluid has the densities and diffusivities that are closer to gases During the progression of solid phase peptide synthesis, the unreacted amino acids are capped with acetylation before the next coupling, This is done to (a) stop the elongation of less-reactive amino groups (b) minimize the deletion sequence (c) facilitate purification of desired peptide from other impurities (4) All of the above The following reaction can be performed under which condition? (a) Thermolysis (b) Photolysis (©) Blectrolysis (4) None of the above For the first-order reaction 24 > 2B+C, which will give a straight line plot? (a) {Al vs. time (b)In[4] vs. time () 1/[Al vs. time (a) Aj? vs. time 27 [P.T.0SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK 151-A ES E15~1150«3