Compre 1 | 1

1. A pregnant woman who is at term is admitted to the 6. Which of the following is the most frequent cause of
birthing unit in active labor. The client has only progressed noncompliance to the medical treatment of open-angle
from 2cm to 3 cm in 8 hours. She is diagnosed with glaucoma?
hypotonic dystocia and the physician ordered Oxytocin
(Pitocin) to augment her contractions. Which of the A. The frequent nausea and vomiting accompanying use of
following is the most important aspect of nursing miotic drug.
intervention at this time? B. Loss of mobility due to severe driving restrictions.
C. Decreased light and near-vision accommodation due to
A. Timing and recording length of contractions. miotic effects of pilocarpine.
B. Monitoring. D. The painful and insidious progression of this type of
C. Preparing for an emergency cesarean birth. glaucoma.
D. Checking the perineum for bulging.
7. In the morning shift, the nurse is making rounds in the
2. A client who hallucinates is not in touch with reality. It is nursing care units. The nurse enters in a clients room and
important for the nurse to: notes that the clients tube has become disconnected from
the Pleurovac. What would be the initial nursing action?
A. Isolate the client from other patients.
B. Maintain a safe environment. A. Apply pressure directly over the incision site.
C. Orient the client to time, place, and person. B. Clamp the chest tube near the incision site.
D. Establish a trusting relationship. C. Clamp the chest tube closer to the drainage system.
D. Reconnect the chest tube to the Pleurovac.
3. The nurse is caring to a child client who has had a
tonsillectomy. The child complains of having dryness of the 8. Which of the following complications during a breech
throat. Which of the following would the nurse give to the birth the nurse needs to be alarmed?
child?
A. Abruption placenta.
A. Cola with ice B. Caput succedaneum.
B. Yellow noncitrus Jello C. Pathological hyperbilirubinemia.
C. Cool cherry Kool-Aid D. Umbilical cord prolapse.
D. A glass of milk
9. The nurse is caring to a client diagnosed with severe
4. The physician ordered Phenylephrine (Neo-Synephrine) depression. Which of the following nursing approach is
nasal spray to a 13-year-old client. The nurse caring to the important in depression?
client provides instructions that the nasal spray must be
used exactly as directed to prevent the development of: A. Protect the client against harm to others.
B. Provide the client with motor outlets for aggressive,
A. Increased nasal congestion. hostile feelings.
B. Nasal polyps. C. Reduce interpersonal contacts.
C. Bleeding tendencies. D. Deemphasizing preoccupation with elimination,
D. Tinnitus and diplopia. nourishment, and sleep.

5. A client with tuberculosis is to be admitted in the 10. A 3-month-old client is in the pediatric unit. During
hospital. The nurse who will be assigned to care for the assessment, the nurse is suspecting that the baby may
client must institute appropriate precautions. The nurse have hypothyroidism when mother states that her baby
should: does not:

A. Place the client in a private room. A. Sit up.

B. Wear an N 95 respirator when caring for the client. B. Pick up and hold a rattle.
C. Put on a gown every time when entering the room. C. Roll over.
D. Don a surgical mask with a face shield when entering D. Hold the head up.
the room.

11. The physician calls the nursing unit to leave an order.
The senior nurse had conversation with the other staff. The
newly hired nurse answers the phone so that the senior
nurses may continue their conversation. The new nurse
does not knowthe physician or the client to whom the
order pertains. The nurse should:
A. Ask the physician to call back after the nurse has read
the hospital policy manual.
B. Take the telephone order.
C. Refuse to take the telephone order.
D. Ask the charge nurse or one of the other senior staff
nurses to take the telephone order.
12. The staff nurse on the labor and delivery unit is
assigned to care to a primigravida in transition complicated
by hypertension. A new pregnant woman in active labor is
admitted in the same unit. The nurse manager assigned
the same nurse to the second client. The nurse feels that
the client with hypertension requires one-to-one care.
What would be the initial actionof the nurse?
A. Accept the new assignment and complete an incident
report describing a shortage of nursing staff.
B. Report the incident to the nursing supervisor and
request to be floated.
C. Report the nursing assessment of the client in
transitional labor to the nurse manager and discuss
misgivings about the new assignment.
D. Accept the new assignment and provide the best care.
13. A newborn infant with Down syndrome is to be
discharged today. The nurse is preparing to give the
discharge teaching regarding the proper care at home. The
nurse would anticipate that the mother is probably at the:
A. 40 years of age.
B. 20 years of age.
C. 35 years of age.
D. 20 years of age.
14. The emergency department has shortage of staff. The
nurse manager informs the staff nurse in the critical care
unit that she has to float to the emergency department.
What should the staff nurse expect under these
conditions?
A. The float staff nurse will be informed of the situation
before the shift begins.
B. The staff nurse will be able to negotiate the assignments D. Record detailed notes of the event on the mothers
in the emergency department.
C. Cross training will be available for the staff nurse.
Compre 1 | 2
D. Client assignments will be equally divided among the
nurses.
15. The nurse is assigned to care for a child client admitted
in the pediatrics unit. The client is receiving digoxin. Which
of the following questions will be asked by the nurse to the
parents of the child in order to assess the clients risk for
digoxin toxicity?
A. Has he been exposed to any childhood communicable
diseases in the past 2-3 weeks?
B. Has he been taking diuretics at home?
C. Do any of his brothers and sisters have history of
cardiac problems?
D. Has he been going to school regularly?
16. The nurse noticed that the signed consent form has an
error. The form states, Amputation of the right leg
instead of the left leg that is to be amputated. The nurse
has administered already the preoperative medications.
What should the nurse do?
A. Call the physician to reschedule the surgery.
B. Call the nearest relative to come in to sign a new form.
C. Cross out the error and initial the form.
D. Have the client sign another form.
17. The nurse in the nursing care unit checks the
fluctuation in the water-seal compartment of a closed
chest drainage system. The fluctuation has stopped, the
nurse would:
A. Vigorously strip the tube to dislodge a clot.
B. Raise the apparatus above the chest to move fluid.
C. Increase wall suction above 20 cm H2O pressure.
D. Ask the client to cough and take a deep breath.
18. The pediatric nurse in the neonatal unit was informed
that the baby that is brought to the mother in the hospital
room is wrong. The nurse determines that two babies were
placed in the wrong cribs. The most appropriate nursing
action would be to:
A. Determine who is responsible for the mistake and
terminate his or her employment.
B. Record the event in an incident/variance report and
notify the nursing supervisor.
C. Reassure both mothers, report to the charge nurse, and
do not record.
medical record.

19. Before the administration of digoxin, the nurse
completes an assessment to a toddler client for signs and
symptoms of digoxin toxicity. Which of the following is the
earliest and most significant sign of digoxin toxicity?
A. Tinnitus
B. Nausea and vomiting
C. Vision problem
D. Slowing in the heart rate
20. Which of the following treatment modality is
appropriate for a client with paranoid tendency?
A. Activity therapy.
B. Individual therapy.
C. Group therapy.
D. Family therapy.
21. The client with rheumatoid arthritis is for discharge. In
preparing the client for discharge on prednisone therapy,
the nurse should advise the client to:
A. Wear sunglasses if exposed to bright light for an
extended period of time.
B. Take oral preparations of prednisone before meals.
C. Have periodic complete blood counts while on the
medication.
D. Never stop or change the amount of the medication
without medical advice.
22. A pregnant client tells the nurse that she is worried
about having urinary frequency. What will be the most
appropriate nursing response?
A. Try using Kegel (perineal) exercises and limiting fluids
before bedtime. If you have frequency associated with
fever, pain on voiding, or blood in the urine, call your
doctor/nurse-midwife.
B. Placental progesterone causes irritability of the bladder
sphincter. Your symptoms will go away after the baby
comes.
C. Pregnant women urinate frequently to get rid of fetal
wastes. Limit fluids to 1L/daily.
D. Frequency is due to bladder irritation from concentrate
urine and is normal in pregnancy. Increase your daily fluid
intake to 3L.
23. Which of the following will help the nurse determine
that the expression of hostility is useful?
A. Expression of anger dissipates the energy.
Compre 1 | 3
B. Energy from anger is used to accomplish what needs to
be done.
C. Expression intimidates others.
D. Degree of hostility is less than the provocation.
24. The nurse is providing an orientation regarding case
management to the nursing students. Which
characteristics should the nurse include in the discussion in
understanding case management?
A. Main objective is a written plan that combines
discipline-specific processes used to measure outcomes of
care.
B. Main purpose is to identify expected client, family and
staff performance against the timeline for clients with the
same diagnosis.
C. Main focus is comprehensive coordination of client care,
avoid unnecessary duplication of services, improve
resource utilization and decrease cost.
D. Primary goal is to understand why predicted outcomes
have not been met and the correction of identified
problems.
25. The physician orders a dose of IV phenytoin to a child
client. In preparing in the administration of the drug, which
nursing action is not correct?
A. Infuse the phenytoin into a smaller vein to prevent
purple glove syndrome.
B. Check the phenytoin solution to be sure it is clear or
light yellow in color, never cloudy.
C. Plan to give phenytoin over 30-60 minutes, using an in-
line filter.
D. Flush the IV tubing with normal saline before starting
phenytoin.
26. The pregnant woman visits the clinic for check up.
Which assessment findings will help the nurse determine
that the client is in 8-week gestation?
A. Leopold maneuvers.
B. Fundal height.
C. Positive radioimmunoassay test (RIA test).
D. Auscultation of fetal heart tones.
27. Which of the following nursing intervention is essential
for the client who had pneumonectomy?
A. Medicate for pain only when needed.
B. Connect the chest tube to water-seal drainage.
C. Notify the physician if the chest drainage exceeds
100mL/hr.

D. Encourage deep breathing and coughing.
28. The nurse is providing a health teaching to a group of
parents regarding Chlamydia trachomatis. The nurse is
correct in the statement, Chlamydia trachomatis is not
only an intracellular bacterium that causes neonatal
conjunctivitis, but it also can cause:
A. Discoloration of baby and adult teeth.
B. Pneumonia in the newborn.
C. Snuffles and rhagades in the newborn.
D. Central hearing defects in infancy.
29. The nurse is assigned to care to a 17-year-old male
client with a history of substance abuse. The client asks the
nurse, Have you ever tried or used drugs? The most
correct response of the nurse would be:
A. Yes, once I tried grass.
B. No, I dont think so. methods. Most accidental pregnancies in couples
C. Why do you want to know that?
D. How will my answer help you?
30. Which of the following describes a health care team
with the principles of participative leadership?
A. Each member of the team can independently make
decisions regarding the clients care without necessarily
consulting the other members.
B. The physician makes most of the decisions regarding the
clients care.
C. The team uses the expertise of its members to influence
the decisions regarding the clients care.
D. Nurses decide nursing care; physicians decide medical
and other treatment for the client.
31. A nurse is giving a health teaching to a woman who
wants to breastfeed her newborn baby. Which hormone,
normally secreted during the postpartum period,
influences both the milk ejection reflex and uterine
involution?
A. Oxytocin.
B. Estrogen.
C. Progesterone.
D. Relaxin.
32. One staff nurse is assigned to a group of 5 patients for
the 12-hour shift. The nurse is responsible for the overall
planning, giving and evaluating care during the entire shift.
After the shift, same responsibility will be endorsed to the
Compre 1 | 4
next nurse in charge. This describes nursing care delivered
via the:
A. Primary nursing method.
B. Case method.
C. Functional method.
D. Team method.
33. The ambulance team calls the emergency department
that they are going to bring a client who sustained burns in
a house fire. While waiting for the ambulance, the nurse
will anticipate emergency care to include assessment for:
A. Gas exchange impairment.
B. Hypoglycemia.
C. Hyperthermia.
D. Fluid volume excess.
34. Most couples are using natural family planning
preferred to use this method have been related to
unprotected intercourse before ovulation. Which of the
following factor explains why pregnancy may be achieved
by unprotected intercourse during the preovulatory
period?
A. Ovum viability.
B. Tubal motility.
C. Spermatozoal viability.
D. Secretory endometrium.
35. An older adult client wakes up at 2 oclock in the
morning and comes to the nurses station saying, I am
having difficulty in sleeping. What is the best nursing
response to the client?
A. Ill give you a sleeping pill to help you get more sleep
now.
B. Perhaps youd like to sit here at the nurses station for
a while.
C. Would you like me to show you where the bathroom
is?
D. What woke you up?
36. The nurse is taking care of a multipara who is at 42
weeks of gestation and in active labor, her membranes
ruptured spontaneously 2 hours ago. While auscultating
for the point of maximum intensity of fetal heart tones
before applying an external fetal monitor, the nurse counts
100 beats per minute. The immediate nursing action is to:
A. Start oxygen by mask to reduce fetal distress.

B. Examine the woman for signs of a prolapsed cord.
C. Turn the woman on her left side to increase placental
perfusion.
D. Take the womans radial pulse while still auscultating
the FHR.
37. The nurse must instruct a client with glaucoma to avoid D. 15 seconds of intermittent suction during catheter
taking over-the-counter medications like:
A. Antihistamines.
B. NSAIDs.
C. Antacids.
D. Salicylates.
38. A male client is brought to the emergency department B. Tracheostomy set.
due to motor vehicle accident. While monitoring the client, C. Suction equipment.
the nurse suspects increasing intracranial pressure when:
A. Client is oriented when aroused from sleep, and goes
back to sleep immediately.
B. Blood pressure is decreased from 160/90 to 110/70.
C. Client refuses dinner because of anorexia.
D. Pulse is increased from 88-96 with occasional skipped
beat.
39. The nurse is conducting a lecture to a class of nursing
students about advance directives to preoperative clients.
Which of the following statement by the nurse js correct?
A. The spouse, but not the rest of the family, may
override the advance directive.
B. An advance directive is required for a do not
resuscitate order.
C. A durable power of attorney, a form of advance
directive, may only be held by a blood relative.
D. The advance directive may be enforced even in the
face of opposition by the spouse.
40. A client diagnosed with schizophrenia is shouting and
banging on the door leading to the outside, saying, I need
to go to an appointment. What is the appropriate nursing
intervention?
A. Tell the client that he cannot bang on the door.
B. Ignore this behavior.
C. Escort the client going back into the room.
D. Ask the client to move away from the door.
41. Which of the following action is an accurate tracheal
suctioning technique?
Compre 1 | 5
A. 25 seconds of continuous suction during catheter
insertion.
B. 20 seconds of continuous suction during catheter
insertion.
C. 10 seconds of intermittent suction during catheter
withdrawal.
withdrawal.
42. The clients jaw and cheekbone is sutured and wired.
The nurse anticipates that the most important thing that
must be ready at the bedside is:
A. Suture set.
D. Wire cutters.
43. A mother is in the third stage of labor. Which of the
following signs will help the nurse determine the signs of
placental separation?
A. The uterus becomes globular.
B. The umbilical cord is shortened.
C. The fundus appears at the introitus.
D. Mucoid discharge is increased.
44. After therapy with the thrombolytic alteplase (t-PA. ,
what observation will the nurse report to the physician?
A. 3+ peripheral pulses.
B. Change in level of consciousness and headache.
C. Occasional dysrhythmias.
D. Heart rate of 100/bpm.
45. A client who undergone left nephrectomy has a large
flank incision. Which of the following nursing action will
facilitate deep breathing and coughing?
A. Push fluid administration to loosen respiratory
secretions.
B. Have the client lie on the unaffected side.
C. Maintain the client in high Fowlers position.
D. Coordinate breathing and coughing exercise with
administration of analgesics.
46. The community nurse is teaching the group of mothers
about the cervical mucus method of natural family
planning. Which characteristics are typical of the cervical
mucus during the fertile period of the menstrual cycle?
A. Absence of ferning.

B. Thin, clear, good spinnbarkeit.
C. Thick, cloudy.
D. Yellow and sticky.
47. A client with ruptured appendix had surgery an hour
ago and is transferred to the nursing care unit. The nurse
placed the client in a semi-Fowlers position primarily to:
A. Facilitate movement and reduce complications from
immobility.
B. Fully aerate the lungs.
C. Splint the wound.
D. Promote drainage and prevent subdiaphragmatic
abscesses.
48. Which of the following will best describe a
management function?
A. Writing a letter to the editor of a nursing journal.
B. Negotiating labor contracts.
C. Directing and evaluating nursing staff members.
D. Explaining medication side effects to a client.
49. The parents of an infant client ask the nurse to teach
them how to administer Cortisporin eye drops. The nurse
is correct in advising the parents to place the drops:
A. In the middle of the lower conjunctival sac of the
infants eye.
B. Directly onto the infants sclera.
C. In the outer canthus of the infants eye.
D. In the inner canthus of the infants eye.
50. The nurse is assessing on the client who is admitted
due to vehicle accident. Which of the following findings
will help the nurse that there is internal bleeding?
A. Frank blood on the clothing.
B. Thirst and restlessness.
C. Abdominal pain.
D. Confusion and altered of consciousness.
51. The nurse is completing an assessment to a newborn
baby boy. The nurse observes that the skin of the newborn
is dry and flaking and there are several areas of an
apparent macular rash. The nurse charts this as:
A. Icterus neonatorum
B. Multiple hemangiomas
C. Erythema toxicum
D. Milia
Compre 1 | 6
52. The client is brought to the emergency department
because of serious vehicle accident. After an hour, the
client has been declared brain dead. The nurse who has
been with the client must now talk to the family about
organ donation. Which of the following consideration is
necessary?
A. Include as many family members as possible.
B. Take the family to the chapel.
C. Discuss life support systems.
D. Clarify the familys understanding of brain death.
53. The nurse is teaching exercises that are good for
pregnant women increasing tone and fitness and
decreasing lower backache. Which of the following should
the nurse exclude in the exercise program?
A. Stand with legs apart and touch hands to floor three
times per day.
B. Ten minutes of walking per day with an emphasis on
good posture.
C. Ten minutes of swimming or leg kicking in pool per day.
D. Pelvic rock exercise and squats three times a day.
54. A client with obsessive-compulsive behavior is
admitted in the psychiatric unit. The nurse taking care of
the client knows that the primary treatment goal is to:
A. Provide distraction.
B. Support but limit the behavior.
C. Prohibit the behavior.
D. Point out the behavior.
55. After ileostomy, the nurse expects that the drainage
appliance will be applied to the stoma:
A. When the client is able to begin self-care procedures.
B. 24 hours later, when the swelling subsided.
C. In the operating room after the ileostomy procedure.
D. After the ileostomy begins to function.
56. A female client who has a 28-day menstrual cycle asks
the community health nurse when she get pregnant during
her cycle. What will be the best nursing response?
A. It is impossible to determine the fertile period reliably.
So it is best to assume that a woman is always fertile.
B. In a 28-day cycle, ovulation occurs at or about day 14.
The egg lives for about 24 hours and the sperm live for
about 72 hours. The fertile period would be approximately
between day 11 and day 15.

C. In a 28- day cycle, ovulation occurs at or about day 14.
The egg lives for about 72 hours and the sperm live for
about 24 hours. The fertile period would be approximately
between day 13 and 17.
D. In a 28-day cycle, ovulation occurs 8 days before the
next period or at about day 20. The fertile period is
between day 20 and the beginning of the next period.
57. Which of the following statement describes the role of
a nurse as a client advocate?
A. A nurse may override clients wishes for their own good.
B. A nurse has the moral obligation to prevent harm and
do well for clients.
C. A nurse helps clients gain greater independence and
self-determination.
D. A nurse measures the risk and benefits of various health
situations while factoring in cost.
58. A community health nurse is providing a health
teaching to a woman infected with herpes simplex 2.
Which of the following health teaching must the nurse
include to reduce the chances of transmission of herpes
simplex 2?
A. Abstain from intercourse until lesions heal.
B. Therapy is curative.
C. Penicillin is the drug of choice for treatment.
D. The organism is associated with later development of
hydatidiform mole.
59. The nurse in the psychiatric ward informed the male
client that he will be attending the 9:00 AM group therapy
sessions. The client tells the nurse that he must wash his
hands from 9:00 to 9:30 AM each day and therefore he
cannot attend. Which concept does the nursing staff need
to keep in mind in planning nursing intervention for this
client?
A. Depression underlines ritualistic behavior.
B. Fear and tensions are often expressed in disguised form
through symbolic processes.
C. Ritualistic behavior makes others uncomfortable.
D. Unmet needs are discharged through ritualistic
behavior.
10. The nurse assesses the health condition of the female
client. The client tells the nurse that she discovered a lump
in the breast last year and hesitated to seek medical
advice. The nurse understands that, women who tend to
delay seeking medical advice after discovering the disease
are displaying what common defense mechanism?
Compre 1 | 7
A. Intellectualization.
B. Suppression.
C. Repression.
D. Denial.
61. Which of the following situations cannot be delegated
by the registered nurse to the nursing assistant?
A. A postoperative client who is stable needs to ambulate.
B. Client in soft restraint who is very agitated and crying.
C. A confused elderly woman who needs assistance with
eating.
D. Routine temperature check that must be done for a
client at end of shift.
62. In the admission care unit, which of the following client
would the nurse give immediate attention?
A. A client who is 3 days postoperative with left calf pain.
B. A client who is postoperative hip pinning who is
complaining of pain.
C. New admitted client with chest pain.
D. A client with diabetes who has a glucoscan reading of
180.
63. A couple seeks medical advice in the community health
care unit. A couple has been unable to conceive; the man is
being evaluated for possible problems. The physician
ordered semen analysis. Which of the following
instructions is correct regarding collection of a sperm
specimen?
A. Collect a specimen at the clinic, place in iced container,
and give to laboratory personnel immediately.
B. Collect specimen after 48-72 hours of abstinence and
bring to clinic within 2 hours.
C. Collect specimen in the morning after 24 hours of
abstinence and bring to clinic immediately.
D. Collect specimen at night, refrigerate, and bring to clinic
the next morning.
64. The physician ordered Betamethasone to a pregnant
woman at 34 weeks of gestation with sign of preterm
labor. The nurse expects that the drug will:
A. Treat infection.
B. Suppress labor contraction.
C. Stimulate the production of surfactant.
D. Reduce the risk of hypertension.

65. A tracheostomy cuff is to be deflated, which of the
following nursing intervention should be implemented
before starting the procedures?
A. Suction the trachea and mouth.
B. Have the obdurator available.
C. Encourage deep breathing and coughing.
D. Do a pulse oximetry reading.
66. A client is diagnosed with Tuberculosis and respiratory
isolation is initiated. This means that:
A. Gloves are worn when handling the clients tissue,
excretions, and linen.
B. Both client and attending nurse must wear masks at all
times.
C. Nurse and visitors must wear masks until chemotherapy
is begun. Client is instructed in cough and tissue
techniques.
D. Full isolation; that is, caps and gowns are required
during the period of contagion.
67. A client with lung cancer is admitted in the nursing care vagina.
unit. The husband wants to know the condition of his wife. B. Excessive saliva, bumps around the areolae, and
How should the nurse respond to the husband?
A. Find out what information he already has.
B. Suggest that he discuss it with his wife.
C. Refer him to the doctor.
D. Refer him to the nurse in charge.
68. A hospitalized client cannot find his handkerchief and
accuses other cient in the room and the nurse of stealing
them. Which is the most therapeutic approach to this
client?
A. Divert the clients attention.
B. Listen without reinforcing the clients belief.
C. Inject humor to defuse the intensity.
D. Logically point out that the client is jumping to
conclusions.
69. After a cystectomy and formation of an ileal conduit,
the nurse provides instruction regarding prevention of
leakage of the pouch and backflow of the urine. The nurse conflicting sexual, aggressive, or dependent feelings.
is correct to include in the instruction to empty the urine
pouch:
A. Every 3-4 hours.
B. Every hour.
C. Twice a day.
D. Once before bedtime.
Compre 1 | 8
70. Which telephone call from a students mother should
the school nurse take care of at once?
A. A telephone call notifying the school nurse that the
child pediatrician has informed the mother that the child
will need cardiac repair surgery within the next few weeks.
B. A telephone call notifying the school nurse that the
childs pediatrician has informed the mother that the child
has head lice.
C. A telephone call notifying the school nurse that a child
has a temperature of 102F and a rash covering the trunk
and upper extremities of the body.
D. A telephone call notifying the school nurse that a child
underwent an emergency appendectomy during the
previous night.
71. Which of the following signs and symptoms that
require immediate attention and may indicate most
serious complications during pregnancy?
A. Severe abdominal pain or fluid discharge from the
increased vaginal mucus.
C. Fatigue, nausea, and urinary frequency at any time
during pregnancy.
D. Ankle edema, enlarging varicosities, and heartburn.
72. The nurse is assessing the newborn boy. Apgar scores
are 7 and 9. The newborn becomes slightly cyanotic. What
is the initial nursing action?
A. Elevate his head to promote gravity drainage of
secretions.
B. Wrap him in another blanket, to reduce heat loss.
C. Stimulate him to cry,, to increase oxygenation.
D. Aspirate his mouth and nose with bulb syringe.
73. The nurse is formulating a plan of care to a client with a
somatoform disorder. The nurse needs to have knowledge
of which psychodynamic principle?
A. The symptoms of a somatoform disorder are an attempt
to adjust to painful life situations or to cope with
B. The major fundamental mechanism is regression.
C. The clients symptoms are imaginary and the suffering is
faked.
D. An extensive, prolonged study of the symptoms will be
reassuring to the client, who seeks sympathy, attention
and love.

74. An infant is brought to the health care clinic for three
immunizations at the same time. The nurse knows that
hepatitis B, DPT, and Haemophilus influenzae type B
immunizations should:
A. Be drawn in the same syringe and given in one injection.
B. Be mixed and inject in the same sites.
C. Not be mixed and the nurse must give three injections in
three sites.
D. Be mixed and the nurse must give the injection in three
sites.
75. A female client with cancer has radium implants. The
nurse wants to maintain the implants in the correct
position. The nurse should position the client:
A. Flat in bed.
B. On the side only.
C. With the foot of the bed elevated.
D. With the head elevated 45-degrees (semi-Fowlers).
76. The nurse wants to know if the mother of a toddler
understands the instructions regarding the administration
of syrup of ipecac. Which of the following statement will
help the nurse to know that the mother needs additional
teaching?
A. Ill give the medicine if my child gets into some toilet
bowl cleaner.
B. Ill give the medicine if my child gets into some aspirin. What is the best advice the nurse could give to the couple?
C. Ill give the medicine if my child gets into some plant
bulbs.
D. Ill give the medicine if my child gets into some vitamin especially when the partners are in their mid-30s. Eat well,
pills.
77. To assess if the cranial nerve VII of the client was
damaged, which changes would not be expected?
A. Drooling and drooping of the mouth.
B. Inability to open eyelids on operative side.
C. Sagging of the face on the operative side.
D. Inability to close eyelid on operative side.
78. The community health nurse makes a home visit to a
family. During the visit, the nurse observes that the mother this test is for. The best response by the nurse is:
is beating her child. What is the priority nursing
intervention in this situation?
A. Assess the childs injuries.
B. Report the incident to protective agencies.
C. Refer the family to appropriate support group.
D. Assist the family to identify stressors and use of other
coping mechanisms to prevent further incidents.
Compre 1 | 9
79. The nurse in the neonatal care unit is supervising the
actions of a certified nursing assistant in giving care to the
newborns. The nursing assistant mistakenly gives a formula
feeding to a newborn that is on water feeding only. The
nurse is responsible for the mistake of the nursing
assistant:
A. Always, as a representative of the institution.
B. Always, because nurses who supervise less-trained
individuals are responsible for their mistakes.
C. If the nurse failed to determine whether the nursing
assistant was competent to take care of the client.
D. Only if the nurse agreed that the newborn could be fed
formula.
80. The nurse is assigned to care for a client with urinary
calculi. Fluid intake of 2L/day is encouraged to the client.
the primary reason for this is to:
A. Reduce the size of existing stones.
B. Prevent crystalline irritation to the ureter.
C. Reduce the size of existing stones
D. Increase the hydrostatic pressure in the urinary tract.
81. The nurse is counseling a couple in their mid 30s who
have been unable to conceive for about 6 months. They
are concerned that one or both of them may be infertile.
A. it is no unusual to take 6-12 months to get pregnant,
exercise, and avoid stress.
B. Start planning adoption. Many couples get pregnant
when they are trying to adopt.
C. Consult a fertility specialist and start testing before you
get any older.
D. Have sex as often as you can, especially around the
time of ovulation, to increase your chances of pregnancy.
82. The nurse is caring for a cient who Is a retired nurse. A
24-hour urine collection for Creatinine clearance is to be
done. The client tells the nurse, I cant remember what
A. It provides a way to see if you are passing any protein
in your urine.
B. It tells how well the kidneys filter wastes from the
blood.
C. It tells if your renal insufficiency has affected your
heart.
 Compre 1 | 10
D. The test measures the number of particles the kidney A. Minimizes discomfort from afterpains.
filters. B. Suppresses lactation.
C. Promotes lactation.
83. The nurse observes the female client in the psychiatric D. Maintains uterine tone.
ward that she is having a hard time sleeping at night. The
nurse asks the client about it and the client says, I cant 88. The nurse in the nursing care unit is aware that one of
sleep at night because of fear of dying. What is the best the medical staff displays unlikely behaviors like confusion,
initial nursing response? agitation, lethargy and unkempt appearance. This behavior
has been reported to the nurse manager several times, but
A. It must be frightening for you to feel that way. Tell me no changes observed. The nurse should:
more about it.
B. Dont worry, you wont die. You are just here for some A. Continue to report observations of unusual behavior
test. until the problem is resolved.
C. Why are you afraid of dying? B. Consider that the obligation to protect the patient from
D. Try to sleep. You need the rest before tomorrows harm has been met by the prior reports and do nothing
test. further.
C. Discuss the situation with friends who are also nurses to
84. In the hospital lobby, the registered nurse overhears a get ideas .
two staff members discussing about the health condition D. Approach the partner of this medical staff member with
of her client. What would be the appropriate action for the these concerns.
registered nurse to take?
89. The physician ordered tetracycline PO qid to a child
A. Join in the conversation, giving her input about the case. client who weights 20kg. The recommended PO
B. Ignore them, because they have the right to discuss tetracycline dose is 25-50 mg/kg/day. What is the
anything they want to. maximum single dose that can be safely administered to
C. Tell them it is not appropriate to discuss such things. this child?
D. Report this incident to the nursing supervisor.
A. 1 g
85. The client has had a right-sided cerebrovascular B. 500 mg
accident. In transferring the client from the wheelchair to C. 250 mg
bed, in what position should a client be placed to facilitate D. 125 mg
safe transfer?
90. The nurse is completing an obstetric history of a
A. Weakened (L) side of the cient next to bed. woman in labor. Which event in the obstetric history will
B. Weakened (R) side of the client next to bed. help the nurse suspects dysfunctional labor in the current
C. Weakened (L) side of the client away from bed. pregnancy?
D. Weakened (R) side of the cient away from bed.
A. Total time of ruptured membranes was 24 hours with
86. The child client has undergone hip surgery and is in a the second birth.
spica cast. Which of the following toy should be avoided to B. First labor lasting 24 hours.
be in the childs bed? C. Uterine fibroid noted at time of cesarean delivery.
D. Second birth by cesarean for face presentation.
A. A toy gun.
B. A stuffed animal. 91. The nurse is planning to talk to the client with an
C. A ball. antisocial personality disorder. What would be the most
D. Legos. therapeutic approach?

87. The LPN/LVN asks the registered nurse why oxytocin A. Provide external controls.
(Pitocin), 10 units (IV or IM) must be given to a client after B. Reinforce the clients self-concept.
birth fo the fetus. The nurse is correct to explain that C. Give the client opportunities to test reality.
oxytocin: D. Gratify the clients inner needs.

92. The nurse is teaching a group of women about fertility
awareness, the nurse should emphasize that basal body
temperature:
A. Can be done with a mercury thermometer but no a
digital one.
B. The average temperature taken each morning.
C. Should be recorded each morning before any activity.
D. Has a lower degree of accuracy in predicting ovulation
than the cervical mucus test.
93. The nursing applicant has given the chance to ask
questions during a job interview at a local hospital. What
should be the most important question to ask that can
increase chances of securing a job offer?
A. Begin with questions about client care assignments,
advancement opportunities, and continuing education.
B. Decline to ask questions, because that is the
responsibility of the interviewer.
C. Ask as many questions about the facility as possible.
D. Clarify information regarding salary, benefits, and
working hours first, because this will help in deciding
whether or not to take the job.
94. The nurse advised the pregnant woman that smoking
and alcohol should be avoided during pregnancy. The
nurse takes into account that the developing fetus is most
vulnerable to environment teratogens that cause
malformation during:
A. The entire pregnancy.
B. The third trimester.
C. The first trimester.
D. The second trimester.
95. A male client tells the nurse that there is a big bug in
his bed. The most therapeutic nursing response would be:
A. Silence.
B. Wheres the bug? Ill kill it for you.
C. I dont see a bug in your bed, but you seem afraid.
D. You must be seeing things.
96. A pregnant client in late pregnancy is complaining of
groin pain that seems worse on the right side. Which of the
following is the most likely cause of it?
A. Beginning of labor.
B. Bladder infection.
C. Constipation.
D. Tension on the round ligament.
Compre 1 | 11
97. The nurse is conducting a lecture to a group of
volunteer nurses. The nurse is correct in imparting the idea
that the Good Samaritan law protects the nurse from a suit
for malpractice when:
A. The nurse stops to render emergency aid and leaves
before the ambulance arrives.
B. The nurse acts in an emergency at his or her place of
employment.
C. The nurse refuses to stop for an emergency outside of
the scope of employment.
D. The nurse is grossly negligent at the scene of an
emergency.
98. A woman is hospitalized with mild preeclampsia. The
nurse is formulating a plan of care for this client, which
nursing care is least likely to be done?
A. Deep-tendon reflexes once per shift.
B. Vital signs and FHR and rhythm q4h while awake.
C. Absolute bed rest.
D. Daily weight.
99. While feeding a newborn with an unrepaired cardiac
defect, the nurse keeps on assessing the condition of the
client. The nurse notes that the newborns respiration is 72
breaths per minute. What would be the initial nursing
action?
A. Burp the newborn.
B. Stop the feeding.
C. Continue the feeding.
D. Notify the physician.
100. A client who undergone appendectomy 3 days ago is
scheduled for discharge today. The nurse notes that the
client is restless, picking at bedclothes and saying, I am
late on my appointment, and calling the nurse by the
wrong name. The nurse suspects:
A. Panic reaction.
B. Medication overdose.
C. Toxic reaction to an antibiotic.
D. Delirium tremens.
[divider] Answers & Rationale
1. A. The oxytocic effect of Pitocin increases the intensity
and durations of contractions; prolonged contractions will
jeopardize the safetyof the fetus and necessitate
discontinuing the drug.

2. B. It is of paramount importance to prevent the client
from hurting himself or herself or others.
3. B. After tonsillectomy, clear, cool liquids should be
given. Citrus, carbonated, and hot or cold liquids should be
avoided because they may irritate the throat. Red liquids
should be avoided because they give the appearance of
blood if the child vomits. Milk and milk products including
pudding are avoided because they coat the throat, cause
the child to clear the throat, and increase the risk of
bleeding.
4. A. Phenylephrine, with frequent and continued use, can
cause rebound congestion of mucous membranes.
5. B. The N 95 respirator is a high-particulate filtration
mask that meets the CDC performance criteria for a
tuberculosis respirator.
6. C. The most frequent cause of noncompliance to the
treatment of chronic, or open-angle glaucoma is the miotic what foods are high in potassium, and the child should be
effects of pilocarpine. Pupillary constriction impedes
normal accommodation, making night driving difficult and childs serum potassium level should be carefully
hazardous, reducing the clients ability to read for
extended periods and making participation in games with
fast-moving objects impossible.
7. B. This stops the sucking of air through the tube and
prevents the entry of contaminants. In addition, clamping
near the chest wall provides for some stability and may
prevent the clamp from pulling on the chest tube.
8. D. Because umbilical cords insertion site is born before lungs has reexpanded.
the fetal head, the cord may be compressed by the after-
coming head in a breech birth.
9. B. It is important to externalize the anger away from
self.
10. D. Development normally proceeds cephalocaudally; so
the first major developmental milestone that the infant
achieves is the ability to hold the head up within the first 8- Bradycardia. For a toddler, any heart rate that falls below
12 weeks of life. In hypothyroidism, the infants muscle
tone would be poor and the infant would not be able to
achieve this milestone.
11. D. Get a senior nurse who know s the policies, the
client, and the doctor. Generally speaking, a nurse should
not accept telephone orders. However, if it is necessary to
take one, follow the hospitals policy regarding telephone
orders. Failure to followhospital policy could be considered
Compre 1 | 12
negligence. In this case, the nurse was new and did not
know the hospitals policy concerning telephone orders.
The nurse was also unfamiliar with the doctor and the
client. Therefore the nurse should not take the order
unless A. no one else is available and B. it is an emergency
situation.
12. C. The nurse is obligated to inform the nurse manager
about changes in the condition of the client, which may
change the decision made by the nurse manager.
13. A. Perinatal risk factors for the development of Down
syndrome include advanced maternal age, especially with
the first pregnancy.
14. B. Assignments should be based on scope of practice
and expertise.
15. B. The child who is concurrently taking digoxin and
diuretics is at increased risk for digoxin toxicity due to the
loss of potassium. The child and parents should be taught
encouraged to eat a high-potassium diet. In addition, the
monitored.
16. A. The responsible for an accurate informed consent is
the physician. An exception to this answer would be a life-
threatening emergency, but there are no data to support
another response.
17. D. Asking the client to cough and take a deep breath
will help determine if the chest tube is kinked or if the
18. B. Every event that exposes a client to harm should be
recorded in an incident report, as well as reported to the
appropriate supervisors in order to resolve the current
problems and permit the institution to prevent the
problem from happening again.
19. D. One of the earliest signs of digoxin toxicity is
the norm of about 100-120 bpm would indicate
Bradycardia and would necessitate holding the medication
and notifying the physician.
20. B. This option is least threatening.
21. D. In preparing the client for discharge that is receiving
prednisone, the nurse should caution the client to (A. take
oral preparations after meals; (B. remember that routine

checks of vital signs, weight, and lab studies are critical; (C.
NEVER STOP OR CHANGE THE AMOUNT OF MEDICATION
WITHOUT MEDICAL ADVICE; (D. store the medication in a
light-resistant container.
22. A. Progesterone also reduces smooth muscle motility in period, conception may result.
the urinary tract and predisposes the pregnant woman to
urinary tract infections. Women should contact their
doctors if they exhibit signs of infection. Kegel exercise will age-typical sleep pattern (that of waking in the early
help strengthen the perineal muscles; limiting fluids at
bedtime reduces the possibility of being awakened by the
necessity of voiding.
23. B. This is the proper use of anger.
24. C. There are several models of case management, but
the commonality is comprehensive coordination of care to
better predict needs of high-risk clients, decrease
exacerbations and continually monitor progress overtime.
25. A. Phenytoin should be infused or injected into larger
veins to avoid the discoloration know as purple glove
syndrome; infusing into a smaller vein is not appropriate.
26. C. Serum radioimmunoassay (RIA. is accurate within
7days of conception. This test is specific for HCG, and
accuracy is not compromised by confusion with LH.
27. D. Surgery and anesthesia can increase mucus
production. Deep breathing and coughing are essential to
prevent atelectasis and pneumonia in the clients only
remaining lung.
28. B. Newborns can get pneumonia (tachypnea, mild
hypoxia, cough, eosinophiliA. and conjunctivitis from
Chlamydia.
29. D. The client may perceive this as avoidance, but it is
more important to redirect back to the client, especially in
light of the manipulative behavior of drug abusers and
adolescents.
30. C. It describes a democratic process in which all
members have input in the clients care.
31. A. Contraction of the milk ducts and let-down reflex
occur under the stimulation of oxytocin released by the
posterior pituitary gland.
32. B. In case management, the nurse assumes total
responsibility for meeting the needs of the client during
the entire time on duty.
Compre 1 | 13
33. A. Smoke inhalation affects gas exchange.
34. C. Sperm deposited during intercourse may remain
viable for about 3 days. If ovulation occurs during this
35. B. This option shows acceptance (key concept) of this
morning).
36. D. Taking the mothers pulse while listening to the FHR
will differentiate between the maternal and fetal heart
rates and rule out fetal Bradycardia.
37. A. Antihistamines cause pupil dilation and should be
avoided with glaucoma.
38. A. This suggests that the level of consciousness is
decreasing.
39. D. An advance directive is a form of informed consent,
and only a competent adult or the holder of a durable
power of attorney has the right to consent or refuse
treatment. If the spouse does not hold the power of
attorney, the decisions of the holder, even if opposed by
the spouse, are enforced.
40. C. Gentle but firm guidance and nonverbal direction is
needed to intervene when a client with schizophrenic
symptoms is being disruptive.
41. C. Suctioning is only done for 10 seconds,
intermittently, as the catheter is being withdrawn.
42. D. The priority for this client is being able to establish
an airway.
43. A. Signs of placental separation include a change in the
shape of the uterus from ovoid to globular.
44. B. This could indicate intracranial bleeding. Alteplase is
a thrombolytic enzyme that lyses thrombi and emboli.
Bleeding is an adverse effect. Monitor clotting times and
signs of any gastrointestinal or internal bleeding.
45. D. Because flank incision in nephrectomy is directly
below the diaphragm, deep breathing is painful.
Additionally, there is a greater incisional pull each time the
person moves than there is with abdominal surgery.
Incisional pain following nephrectomy generally requires
analgesics administration every 3-4 hours for 24-48 hours

after surgery. Therefore, turning, coughing and deep-
breathing exercises should be planned to maximize the
analgesic effects.
46. B. Under high estrogen levels, during the period
surrounding ovulation, the cervical mucus becomes thin,
clear, and elastic (spinnbarkeit), facilitating sperm passage.
47. D. After surgery for a ruptured appendix, the client
should be placed in a semi-Fowlers position to promote
drainage and to prevent possible complications.
48. C. Directing and evaluation of staff is a major
responsibility of a nursing manager.
49. A. The recommended procedure for administering
eyedrops to any client calls for the drops to be placed in
the middle of the lower conjunctival sac.
50. B. Thirst and restlessness indicate hypovolemia and
hypoxemia. Internal bleeding is difficult to recognized and
evaluate because it is not apparent.
51. C. Erythema toxicum is the normal, nonpathological
macular newborn rash.
52. D. The family needs to understand what brain death is
before talking about organ donation. They need time to
accept the death of their family member. An environment
conducive to discussing an emotional issue is needed.
53. A. Bending from the waist in pregnancy tends to make
backache worse.
54. B. Support and limit setting decrease anxiety and
provide external control.
55. C. The stoma drainage bag is applied in the operating
room. Drainage from the ileostomy contains secretions
that are rich in digestive enzymes and highly irritating to
the skin. Protection of the skin from the effects of these
enzymes is begun at once. Skin exposed to these enzymes
even for a short time becomes reddened, painful and
excoriated.
56. B. It is the most accurate statement of physiological
facts for a 28-day menstrual cycle: ovulation at day 14, egg chemical isolation is established, many institutions require
life span 24 hours, sperm life span of 72 hours. Fertilization the client to wear a mask when visitors are in the room or
could occur from sperm deposited before ovulation.
Compre 1 | 14
57. C. An advocate role encourage freedom of choice,
includes speaking out for the client, and supports the
clients best interests.
58. A. Abstinence will eliminate any unnecessary pain
during intercourse and will reduce the possibility of
transmitting infection to ones sexual partner.
59. B. Anxiety is generated by group therapy at 9:00 AM.
The ritualistic behavioral defense of hand washing
decreases anxiety by avoiding group therapy.
60. D. Denial is a very strong defense mechanism used to
allay the emotional effects of discovering a potential
threat. Although denial has been found to be an effective
mechanism for survival in some instances, such as during
natural disasters, it may in greater pathology in a woman
with potential breast carcinoma.
61. B. The registered nurse cannot delegate the
responsibility for assessment and evaluation of clients. The
status of the client in restraint requires further assessment
to determine if there are additional causes for the
behavior.
62. C. The client with chest pain may be having a
myocardial infarction, and immediate assessment and
intervention is a priority.
63. B. Is correct because semen analysis requires that a
freshly masturbated specimen be obtained after a rest
(abstinence) period of 48-72 hours.
64. C. Betamethasone, a form of cortisone, acts on the
fetal lungs to produce surfactant.
65. A. Secretions may have pooled above the tracheostomy
cuff. If these are not suctioned before deflation, the
secretions may be aspirated.
66. C. Proper handling of sputum is essential to allay
droplet transference of bacilli in the air. Clients need to be
taught to cover their nose and mouth with tissues when
sneezing or coughing. Chemotherapy generally renders the
client noninfectious within days to a few weeks, usually
before cultures for tubercle bacilli are negative. Until
when the nurse is in attendance. Client should be in a well-
ventilated room, without air recirculation, to prevent air
contamination.

67. A. It is best to establish baseline information first.
68. B. Listening is probably the most effective response of
the four choices.
69. A. Urine flow is continuous. The pouch has an outlet
valve for easy drainage every 3-4 hours. (the pouch should
be changed every 3-5 days, or sooner if the adhesive is
loose).
70. C. A high fever accompanied by a body rash could
indicate that the child has a communicable disease and
would have exposed other students to the infection. The
school nurse would want to investigate this telephone call
immediately so that plans could be instituted to control
the spread of such infection.
71. A. Severe abdominal pain may indicate complications
of pregnancy such as abortion, ectopic pregnancy, or
abruption placenta; fluid discharge from the vagina may
indicate premature rupture of the membrane.
72. D. Gentle aspiration of mucus helps maintain a patent
airway, required for effective gas exchange.
73. A. Somatoform disorders provide a way of coping with
conflicts.
74. C. Immunization should never be mixed together in a
syringe, thus necessitating three separate injections in
three sites. Note: some manufacturers make a premixed
combination of immunization that is safe and effective.
75. A. Clients with radioactive implants should be
positioned flat in bed to prevent dislodgement of the
vaginal packing. The client may roll to the side for meals
but the upper body should not be raised more than 20
degrees.
76. A. Syrup of ipecac is not administered when the
ingested substances is corrosive in nature. Toilet bowl
cleaners, as a collective whole, are highly corrosive
substances. If the ingested substance burned the
esophagus going down, it will burn the esophagus
coming back up when the child begins to vomit after
administration of syrup of ipecac.
77. B. Inability to open eyelids on operative side is seen
with cranial nerve III damage.
78. A. Assessment of physical injuries (like bruises,
lacerations, bleeding and fractures) is the first priority.
Compre 1 | 15
79. C. The nurse who is supervising others has a legal
obligation to determine that they are competent to
perform the assignment, as well as legal obligation to
provide adequate supervision.
80. D. Increasing hydrostatic pressure in the urinary tract
will facilitate passage of the calculi.
81. A. Infertility is not diagnosed until atleast 12months of
unprotected intercourse has failed to produce a
pregnancy. Older couples will experience a longer time to
get pregnant.
82. B. Determining how well the kidneys filter wastes
states the purpose of a Creatinine clearance test.
83. A. Acknowledging a feeling tone is the most
therapeutic response and provides a broad opening for the
client to elaborate feelings.
84. C. The behavior should be stopped. The first is to
remind the staff that confidentiality maybe violated.
85. C. With a right-sided cerebrovascular accident the
client would have left-sided hemiplegia or weakness. The
clients good side should be closest to the bed to facilitate
the transfer.
86. D. Legos are small plastic building blocks that could
easily slip under the childs cast and lead to a break in skin
integrity and even infection. Pencils, backscratchers, and
marbles are some other narrow or small items that could
easily slip under the childs cast and lead to a break in skin
integrity and infection.
87. D. Oxytocin (Pitocin) is used to maintain uterine tone.
88. B. The submission of reports about incidents that
expose clients to harm does not remove the obligation to
report ongoing behavior as long as the risk to the client
continues.
89. C. The recommended dosage of tetracycline is 25-
50mg/kg/day. If the child weighs 20kg and the maximum
dose is 50mg/kg, this would indicate a total daily dose of
1000mg of tetracycline. In this case, the child is being given
this medication four times a day. Therefore the maximum
single dose that can be given is 250mg (1000 mg of
tetracycline divided by four doses.)
 Compre 1 | 16
90. C. An abnormality in the uterine muscle could reduce
the effectiveness of uterine contractions and lengthen the
duration of subsequent labors.

91. A. Personality disorders stem from a weak superego,

implying a lack of adequate controls.

92. C. The basal body temperature is the lowest body

temperature of a healthy person that is taken immediately
after waking and before getting out of bed. The BBT usually
varies from 36.2 C to 36.3C during menses and for about
5-7 days afterward. About the time of ovulation, a slight
drop in temperature may be seen, after ovulation in
concert with the increasing progesterone levels of the
early luteal phase, the BBT rises 0.2-0.4 C. This elevation
remains until 2-3 days before menstruation, or if
pregnancy has occurred.

93. A. This choice implies concern for client care and self-
improvement.

94. C. The first trimester is the period of organogenesis,

that is, cell differentiation into the various organs, tissues,
and structures.

95. C. This response does not contradict the clients

perception, is honest, and shows empathy.

96. D. Tension on round ligament occurs because of the

erect human posture and pressure exerted by the growing
fetus.

97. D. The Good Samaritan Law does not impose a duty to

stop at the scene of an emergency outside of the scope of
employment, therefore nurses who do not stop are not
liable for suit.

98. C. Although reducing environment stimuli and activity

is necessary for a woman with mild preeclampsia, she will
most probably have bathroom privileges.

99. B. A normal respiratory rate for a newborn is 30-40

breaths per minute.

100. D. The behavior described is likely to be symptoms of

delirium tremens, or alcohol withdrawal (often
unsuspected on a surgical unit.)