Test 07 - Solution

TEST 7 ANSWERS
1 India was the top producer of tea for nearly a century, but recently China has overtaken India as the
top tea producer of green tea mainly due to
A. Substantial reduction of coffee production in China

B. Increased land availability and labour productivity in China
C. China becoming the largest tea consumer in the world recently
D. Sudden climate events in India have disrupted tea production since last decade
Your Answer : C
Correct Answer : B
Answer Justification :
Justification: China is the worlds largest tea-producing country with an annual output of 1.4- 1.5
million tonne (MT) of green tea.
India is the leading producer of black tea in the world with a 25% share of the total production.
India consumes 75-80% of its own production.
Option C: India is the world's largest tea-drinking nation. However, the per capita consumption of
tea in India remains a modest 750 grams per person every year due to the large population base
and high poverty levels.
Option B: Apart from increased land, labour productivity is also high in China and the wage burden
on the tea sector is lower than in India.
Q Source: Additional Research: Page 45: 8th NCERT Geography
http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=163355
2 Reserve Bank of India has issued an advisory to general public against depositing money in co-
operative societies or primary co-operative credit societies (PACS). Consider the following about
PACS.
1. Such co-operative societies have not been authorized for doing banking business by RBI.
2. These entities are not allowed to raise any deposits from their members or general public.
Which of the above is/are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
Your Answer :
Correct Answer : A
Justification: A Primary Agricultural Credit Society (PACS) is a basic unit and smallest co-
operative credit institutions in India. It works on the grassroots level (gram panchayat and village
level).
Statement 1: Such co-operative societies have neither been issued any licence under Banking
Regulation Act, 1949 (As Applicable to Cooperative Societies) nor are they authorized for doing
banking business.
Statement 2: These entities are allowed to raise deposits only from their members.
The insurance cover from Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation will not be available
for deposits placed with these entities. So, members of public have been advised by RBI to exercise
caution and carry out due diligence of such entities before dealing with them.
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Q Source: Additional Research: Page 52: 8 NCERT Geography
http://economictimes.indiatimes.com/industry/banking/finance/co-operative-societies-pacs-are-not-al
lowed-to-raise-public-deposits-rbi-cautions/articleshow/59388218.cms
3 Consider the following statements. Hydrogen cyanide (HCN)

1. is a colorless and non-flammable liquid
2. is used in manufacture of polymers and pharmaceuticals
3. is a strong base with a high pH value
4. has been detected in the interstellar medium
Select the correct answer using the codes below.

A. 2 and 4 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 1, 2 and 4 only
D. 2, 3 and 4 only
Your Answer :
Correct Answer : A
Justification: Statement 1: Sometimes called prussic acid, is a chemical compound with the
chemical, it is a colorless, extremely poisonous and flammable liquid that boils slightly above room
temperature.
Statement 2: HCN is produced on an industrial scale and is a highly valuable precursor to many
chemical compounds ranging from polymers to pharmaceuticals.
Statement 3: Hydrogen cyanide is a weak acidic that partially ionizes in water solution to give the
cyanide anion.
A solution of hydrogen cyanide in water, represented as HCN, is called hydrocyanic acid.
HCN is obtainable from fruits that have a pit, such as cherries, apricots, apples, and bitter almonds,
from which almond oil and flavoring are made.
Statement 4: HCN has been detected in the interstellar medium and in the atmospheres of carbon
stars.
Since then, extensive studies have probed formation and destruction pathways of HCN in various
environments and examined its use as a tracer for a variety of astronomical species and processes.
HCN can be observed from ground-based telescopes through a number of atmospheric windows.
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4 What are the agro-climatic conditions that differentiate the production of wheat and rice in India?
1. Wheat thrives well in soils that have the highest water retention capacity, whereas rice requires
well drained soils.
2. Wheat requires moderate temperature and high rainfall, whereas rice requires high temperature
and comparatively lower rainfall.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
Your Answer : D
Correct Answer : D
Justification: Statement 1: Rice needs high temperature, high humidity and rainfall. It grows best
in alluvial clayey soil, which can retain water. China leads in the production of rice followed by
India,
Statement 2: Wheat requires moderate temperature and rainfall during growing season and bright
sunshine at the time of harvest. It thrives best in well drained loamy soil. Wheat is grown
extensively in USA, Canada, Argentina, Russia, Ukraine, Australia and India. In India, it is grown in
winter.
Q Source: Page 44: 8th NCERT Geography
5 The oldest rocks in the world can be found in which of these regions?
A. Western Australia
B. Southern Europe
C. North America
D. Eastern Asia
Your Answer : A
Correct Answer : A
Learning: Rocks in Western Australia date from 4,300 million years ago, only 300 million years
after the earth was formed. These are Zircon stones.
Confirmation of the zircon age holds enormous implications for models of early Earth.
Trace elements in the oldest zircons from Australia's Jack Hills range suggest they came from
water-rich, granite-like rocks such as granodiorite or tonalite, other studies have reported.
That means Earth cooled quickly enough for surface water and continental-type rocks just 100
million years after the moon impact, the massive collision that formed the Earth-moon system.
You can read more here https://www.livescience.com/43584-earth-oldest-rock-jack-hills-zircon.html
6 With reference to the United Nations Department of Economic and Social Affairs (UN DESA), consider
the following statements.
1. It is a part of the United Nations Secretariat.
2. It is responsible for the follow-up to major United Nations Summits and Conferences.
3. It is a member of the United Nations Development Group.
4. It supports international cooperation to achieve Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs).

A. 2 only
B. 1 and 4 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Your Answer :
Correct Answer : D
Justification: UN DESA is a vital interface between global policies in the economic, social and
environmental spheres and national action.
Its work is guided by the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development, along with SDGs.
UN DESA provides services to the United Nations Economic and Social Council and the
Second and Third Committees of the United Nations General Assembly.
UN DESA assists countries around the world in agenda-setting and decision-making with the
goal of meeting their economic, social and environmental challenges.
It supports international cooperation to promote sustainable development for all, having as a

foundation the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development and the 17 Sustainable
Development Goals (SDGs) as adopted by the UN General Assembly on 25 September 2015.
It continues to play a key role in monitoring progress towards internationally agreed-upon

development goals.
7 Consider the following:

1. Brazil is the largest producer of high grade iron-ore in the world.
2. China is the biggest producer of copper mineral.
3. Bolivia is the worlds largest producer of diamond.

A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 only
Your Answer : A
Correct Answer : A
Justification: Statement 1: The world's largest producer of iron ore is the Brazilian mining
corporation Vale, followed by Anglo-Australian companies Rio Tinto Group and then BHP Billiton.
Statement 2: Chile is the top producer of copper. The second top producer is China, but the copper
mining industry here is nowhere near the production capacity of Chile.
Statement 3: Brazil and Bolivia are among the worlds largest producers of tin. South America also
has large deposits of gold, silver, zinc, chromium, manganese, bauxite, mica, platinum, asbestos and
diamond.
Mineral oil is found in Venezuela, Argentina, Chile, Peru and Columbia.
8 Which of these rock formations of plains and young fold are most likely to contain non-metallic
minerals?
A. Igneous
B. Metamorphic
C. Sedimentary
D. Any of the above depending on the rainfall in the region
Your Answer : C
Correct Answer : C
Learning: Minerals occur in different types of rocks. Some are found in igneous rocks, some in
metamorphic rocks while others occur in sedimentary rocks.
Generally, metallic minerals are found in igneous and metamorphic rock formations that form large
plateaus. Iron-ore in north Sweden is an example.
Sedimentary rock formations contain non-metallic minerals like limestone. Limestone deposits of
Caucasus region of France is an example.
Mineral fuels such as coal and petroleum are also found in the sedimentary strata.
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Q Source: Page 26: 8 NCERT Geography
9 Horizon 2020 initiative from the European Union
A. Provides grants to research and innovation projects through open and competitive calls for
proposals
B. Funds interstellar exploration projects keeping in view the needs of and capabilities of
emerging economies
C. Gives a timeline of exit of countries from the European Union
D. None of the above
Your Answer : C
Correct Answer : A
Learning: Participants from European Union member states and countries associated to Horizon
2020 are automatically funded.
Legal entities from any country are eligible to submit project proposals to these calls.
Participation from outside the European Union is explicitly encouraged.
Associated countries have signed an association agreement for the purposes of this
framework programme. To date, 14 countries are associated to Horizon 2020.
Horizon 2020 itself is seen as a policy instrument to implement other high-level policy
initiatives of the European Union, such as Europe 2020 and Innovation Union. The
programme runs from 201420 and provides an estimated 80 billion of funding.
Q Source: https://ec.europa.eu/programmes/horizon2020/
10 India has deposits of high grade iron ore which are mainly found in
1. Jharkhand
2. Orissa
3. Chhattisgarh
4. Madhya Pradesh
5. Goa

A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 4 and 5 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Your Answer : A
Correct Answer : D
Justification: It is also found in Maharashtra and Karnataka.
India is ranked 4th in the production of iron ore.
Mining iron ore is a high volume low margin business, as the value of iron is significantly
lower than base metals.
It is highly capital intensive, and requires significant investment in infrastructure such as rail
in order to transport the ore from the mine to a freight ship.
For these reasons, iron ore production is concentrated in the hands of a few major players.
11 Consider the following about Power Grid in India.

1. A Power grid helps transfer power from the surplus regions to the deficit ones.
2. National Power Grid of India connects all major geographical regions of India except North-eastern
India.
3. Power Grid Corporation of India Limited (POWERGRID) is an Indian state-owned electric utilities
company.

A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Your Answer : D
Correct Answer : C
Justification: Statement 1: In this way, power grid manages the peak deficit problems.
Statement 2: A National Power Grid was completed by linking all the five Regions-North, South,
East, West and North East. It is the largest single system in the world both in terms of grid size and
a system capacity of around 200000 MW.
This ensured complete integration of India into seamless network for delivering electricity.
Statement 3: POWERGRID is an Indian state-owned electric utilities company headquartered in

Gurugram, India. POWERGRID transmits about 50% of the total power generated in India on its
transmission network.
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12 Consider the following statements.

1. Natural gas is often found with petroleum deposits.
2. Russia is a major producer of natural gas.
3. In India, natural gas is found only in Western and Southern India.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Your Answer : C
Correct Answer : A
Justification: Statement 1: It can be released when crude oil is brought to the surface. It can be
used as a domestic and industrial fuel.
Statement 2: Russia, Norway, UK and the Netherlands are the major producers of natural gas.
But, very few countries in the world have sufficient natural gas reserves of their own.
Statement 3: In India Jaisalmer, Krishna Godavari delta, Tripura and some areas off shore in
Mumbai have natural gas resources.
13 Among the following, which continent has the largest proportion of land as arable land?
A. Europe
B. Australia
C. South America
D. Africa
Your Answer : D
Correct Answer : A
Justification: Europe may not be leading in terms of the absolute area, but leads in terms of arable
area as a percentage of total land. This does not mean that all arable area is actually being
cultivated.
14 Organic Farming does NOT deal with which of the following problems of farms?
1. Nutrient management
2. Weed management
3. Insect pest management
4. Disease management in plants

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 3 and 4 only
D. It deals with all of the above using non-synthetic methods.
Your Answer : C
Correct Answer : D
Justification: Organic farming is a production system which avoids or largely excludes the use of
synthetically compounded fertilizers, pesticides, growth regulators, genetically modified organisms
and livestock food additives.
To the maximum extent possible organic farming system rely upon crop rotations, use of crop
residues, animal manures, legumes, green manures, off farm organic wastes etc.
It also focuses on the use of biofertilizers, mechanical cultivation, mineral bearing rocks and aspects
of biological control to maintain soil productivity and tilth to supply plant nutrients and to control
insect, weeds and other pests.
15 Which of these regions of India is most suitable for growing rice for all three cropping seasons
kharif, rabi and zaid?
A. North-western India
B. Eastern India
C. Southern India
D. Western India
Your Answer : C
Correct Answer : C
Justification: Climate with large number of days with sunshine and fertile soils permit growing of
more than one crop annually on the same plot.
Southern India, being nearer to the equator than other regions of India, has more even temperature
conditions than the rest of India.
While rainfall is not evenly distributed throughout the year, irrigation structures allow sowing of
crops in multiple seasons. In fact, rice is sown in all three seasons here. It is both a kharif and rabi
crop despite the huge water demands of rice.
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16 Which of these is/are sign(s) that a rock might contain copper?

1. The rock will necessarily have a red appearance.
2. The rock will be exfoliated and consist of multiple layers.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
Your Answer : D
Correct Answer : D
Justification: Statement 1: If a rock contains copper, it looks blue in colour. For e.g. Azurite
contains copper, which gives its blue colour and a specific gravity of 3.7 to 3.9, which is
exceptionally high for a non-metallic mineral.
Statement 2: This is not necessary. Rocks contain exfoliation or layers depending on their terrain
and geographical environment around.
17 Why are Millets often considered a solution for food security in many developing economies?
1. They can be grown on less fertile and sandy soils as compared to other grains.
2. Their deep root systems and short life cycles make it possible for millets to grow in places even
where the mean annual precipitation is low.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
Your Answer : B
Correct Answer : C
Justification: Statement 1: It is a hardy crop (coarse grains) that needs low rainfall and high to
moderate temperature and adequate rainfall. Jowar, bajra and ragi are millets that are grown in
India.
Statement 2: It can be as low as 300mm or 30 cm which is what the driest regions of India (e.g.
western region) experience annually.
Learning: Maize requires moderate temperature, rainfall and lots of sunshine. It needs well-
drained fertile soils. Maize is grown in North America, Brazil, China, Russia, Canada, India, and
Mexico.
18 The Barbados Programme of Action (BPOA) adopted in 1994, further complemented by The Mauritius
Strategy of Implementation (MSI) of 2005 deals with the problems of
A. Industrial financing in emerging economies

B. Climate change financing in small island developing States (SIDS)
C. Transboundary waste management in ocean economies
D. Customs, trade and commerce in Asia
Your Answer : B
Correct Answer : B
Learning: These documents recognized that although small island developing States (SIDS) are
afflicted by economic difficulties and confronted by development imperatives similar to those of
developing countries generally, have their own peculiar vulnerabilities and characteristics.
Their major problems are their small size, remoteness, narrow resource and export base, and
exposure to global environmental challenges and external economic shocks, including to a large
range of impacts from climate change and potentially more frequent and intense natural disasters.
SIDS unique and particular vulnerabilities are highlighted in The Future We Want, adopted at
Rio+20.
19 With reference to co-operative societies, consider the following statements.

1. Under the Government of India Act, 1935, cooperatives were treated as a provincial subject.
2. "Cooperative Societies" is a State Subject under the Constitution of India.
3. Forming a Cooperative Society is a fundamental right in India.

A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Your Answer :
Correct Answer : D
Justification: Statement 1: Towards the end of the 19th century, the problems of rural
indebtedness and the consequent conditions of farmers created an environment for the chit funds
and cooperative societies.
Under the Montague-Chelmsford Reforms of 1919, cooperation became a provincial subject

and the provinces were authorised to make their own cooperative laws.
In 1958 the National Development Council (NDC) had recommended a national policy on
cooperatives.
Statement 3: The Constitution (97th Amendment) Act 2011 relating to the co-operatives is aimed to
encourage economic activities of cooperatives which in turn help progress of rural India.
It is expected to not only ensure autonomous and democratic functioning of cooperatives, but
also the accountability of the management to the members and other stakeholders.
You can read more at http://pib.nic.in/feature/fe0299/f1202992.html
20 Which of the following is NOT an example of sunrise industry?
A. Information Technology Industry

B. Wellness and Hospitality
C. Renewable energy industry
D. Automobile industry
Your Answer : A
Correct Answer : D
Justification: A sunrise industry is typically characterized by high growth rates, numerous start-
ups and an abundance of venture capital funding.
Sunrise industries generally have plenty of "buzz" surrounding them as public awareness about the
sector increases and investors get attracted to its long-term growth prospects.
Automobile industry is a well-established industry, but renewable energy industry holds a lot of
promise, which is why D is the answer.
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21 Among the following, which ones are ferrous minerals?

1. Mica
2. Chromite
3. Gypsum
4. Lead

A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 4 only
C. 2 only
D. 1 and 4 only
Your Answer : C
Correct Answer : C
Justification: Metallic minerals may be ferrous or non-ferrous. Ferrous minerals like iron ore,
manganese and chromite contain iron.
A non-ferrous mineral does not contain iron but may contain some other metal such as gold, silver,
copper or lead.
The non-metallic minerals do not contain metals. Limestone, mica and gypsum are examples of such
minerals.
The mineral fuels like coal and petroleum are also non-metallic minerals.
22 Consider the following regions and their predominant geographical features:

1. Canadian Shield: Limestone rocks
2. Appalachians: Alternating ridgelines and valleys
3. Western Cordilleras: Intermontane basins and plateaus
4. Lake Superior: Worlds largest salt water lake

A. 1 and 4 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 and 4 only
Your Answer :
Correct Answer : B
Justification: Statement 1: It is a large area of exposed Precambrian igneous and high-grade

metamorphic rocks (geological shield) that forms the ancient geological core of the North American
continent.
Composed of igneous rock resulting from its long volcanic history, the area is covered by a thin
layer of soil.
Statement 2: They are a system of mountains in eastern North America. The Appalachian chain is a
barrier to east-west travel, as it forms a series of alternating ridgelines and valleys oriented in
opposition to most roads running east or west.
Statement 3: The North American Cordillera covers an extensive area of mountain ranges,
intermontane basins, and plateaus in western North America, including much of the territory west
of the Great Plains. It is also sometimes called the Western Cordillera.
Statement 4: Lake Superior is the largest of the Great Lakes of North America. It is generally
considered the largest freshwater lake in the world by surface area. It is the world's third-largest
freshwater lake by volume and the largest by volume in North America
23 Which of these regions is experiencing the highest annual rates of natural increase in the population?
A. West Asia and Africa

B. Eastern South America
C. Northern Australia
D. South Asia
Your Answer : A
Correct Answer : A
Justification: Natural rate of population increase would be high in regions where illiteracy,
standard of living, health and education are in poor shape. Moreover, regions with peculiar socio-
religious structures, like West Asia, may experience high population growth rates.
Q Source: Fig 6.6: 8th NCERT Geography
24 Consider the following minerals and regions associated with their deposits.
1. Bauxite: Madhya Pradesh
2. Mica: Andhra Pradesh
3. Copper: Jharkhand
4. Manganese: Chhattisgarh
Select the correct matches using the codes below.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 3 and 4 only
C. 1, 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Your Answer : B
Correct Answer : D
Justification: Statement 1: Major bauxite producing areas are Jharkhand, Orissa, Chhattisgarh,
Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat, Maharashtra and Tamil Nadu.
Statement 2: Mica deposits mainly occur in Jharkhand, Bihar, Andhra Pradesh and Rajasthan. India
is the largest producer and exporter of mica in the world.
Statement 3: Copper is mainly produced in Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Jharkhand, Karnataka and
Andhra Pradesh.
Statement 4: Indias manganese deposits lie in Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh,

Orissa, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh.
25 One way of studying the population composition of a country is by looking at the population pyramid.
A population pyramid shows which of the following information?
1. The total population divided into various age
2. Percentage of the total population subdivided into males and females
3. Gender composition based on age groups
4. Geographical distribution of population

A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 2 and 4 only
C. 1 and 4 only
D. 2 and 3 only
Your Answer : B
Correct Answer : A
Justification: It shows demographic information in age groups, e.g., 5 to 9 years, 10 to 14 years.
The percentage of the total population is further shown subdivided into males and females, in each
of those groups.
The shape of the population pyramid tells the story of the people living in that particular country.
The numbers of children (below 15 years) are shown at the bottom and reflect the level of births.
The size of the top shows the numbers of aged people (above 65 years) and reflects the number of
deaths.
So, the population pyramid also tells us how many dependents there are in a country.
We will cover more on this later.
26 At present, the provisions of the Minimum Wages Act and the Payment of Wages Act do not cover
substantial number of workers. This is mainly because
1. These acts are restricted to the Scheduled Employments or Scheduled Establishments
2. They provisions under the Act do not apply to states in Fifth and Sixth Schedule of the Constitution.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
Your Answer :
Correct Answer : A
Justification: The applicability of both these Acts is restricted to the Scheduled Employments /
Establishments.
However, the new Code on Wages will ensure minimum wages to one and all and timely
payment of wages to all employees irrespective of the sector of employment without any wage
ceiling.
A concept of statutory National Minimum Wage for different geographical areas has been
introduced.
It will ensure that no State Government fixes the minimum wage below the National Minimum
Wages for that particular area as notified by the Central Government.
Learning: The Code on Wages Bill 2017 has been introduced in Lok Sabha.
The Codification of the Labour Laws will remove the multiplicity of definitions and authorities
leading to ease of compliance without compromising wage security and social security to the
workers.
Q Source: AK (Release ID :170541)
27 The political leaders and the industrialists were very much aware and conscious about Indias
economic inheritance right after India became independent. Which of these were part of the broad
consensus that emerged from the policymakers?
1. State should provide only goods and the direct responsibility for development should be given to the
private sector.
2. Foreign investments should be discouraged.
3. Economic development of India needs to be planned.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 3 only
D. 1 only
Your Answer :
Correct Answer : B
Justification: Statement 1: Private sector was at an infant stage and could not tackle the core
developmental issues. So, state must take complete responsibility for development.
Statement 2: This is because of the colonial drain theory as popularized by Dadabhai Naoroji.
Statement 3: This was because the core sectors (e.g. steel, iron, cement etc) were underdeveloped
and their expansion was of utmost importance for economic development. Planned development was
agreed upon.
Q Source: Page 3.3: Indian Economy: Ramesh Singh
28 The National Seeds Policy, 2002, envisages timely availability of quality seeds to achieve which it
suggests
1. Compulsory registration of seeds
2. Creation of Seed Banks
3. Establishment of a licence regime for all seed dealers
4. Banning import of seeds
5. Creating a national seed grid

A. 2, 3 and 4 only
B. 1, 2 and 5 only
C. 1, 4 and 5 only
D. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Your Answer :
Correct Answer : B
Justification: The National Seeds Policy, 2002, envisages timely availability of quality seeds,
compulsory registration of seeds, quality assurance, promotion of the seeds industry, abolition of
licences for seed dealers, import of best quality seeds and creation of Seed Banks and National
Seeds Grid.
The policy seeks to encourage investment in research and development to ensure availability of
high yielding varieties of seeds.
Learning: National Seeds Grid was set up by linking all seeds producing agencies the national and
particularly to ensure that seeds are available on demand by States or farmers. The Grid would
provide district wise information regarding the requirement, production and distribution of seeds
through a computerized network.
Q Source: Additional Research: Page 3.7: Indian Economy: Ramesh Singh
29 With reference to Ancient India, the text Grihya-sutra deals with

1. Science of making garbha-grihas in Hindu temples
2. Domestic Hindu religious rituals
3. Astronomical positions of planets in their own zodiac signs

A. 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Your Answer :
Correct Answer : A
Justification: Grihya-sutra, in Hinduism, is a manual detailing the domestic (grihya) religious

ceremonies performed by both male and female householders over the fire.
The Grihya-sutras, together with the Shrauta-sutras (which deal with the grand Vedic sacrifices)
and the Dharma-sutras (which deal with rules of conduct), make up the Kalpa-sutrascollections of
texts that emerged within the different Vedic schools.
The Grihya-sutras describe the ceremonies (samskaras) that mark each stage of an individuals life,
from the moment of conception to the final death rites; the five daily sacrifices (mahayajna);
seasonal ceremonies; and those observed on special occasions, such as house building or cattle
breeding.
Q Source: Revision: Chapter 2: 6th NCERT
30 Arrange the following core Industries in decreasing order of their weightage under the Index of
Industrial Production (IIP).
A. Coal> Crude Oil> Natural Gas> Electricity> Cement

B. Electricity> Crude Oil > Coal> Cement > Natural Gas
C. Crude Oil > Electricity> Cement > Coal> Natural Gas
D. Natural Gas > Electricity> Cement > Coal> Crude Oil
Your Answer :
Correct Answer : B
Learning: Core industries together have a combined weight of 37.90 per cent in the Index of
Industrial Production (IIP).
Individual percentages of them are: Coal (weight: 4.38 per cent); Crude Oil (weight: 5.22 per cent);
Natural Gas (weight: 1.71 per cent); Petroleum refinery (weight: 5.94 per cent); Fertilizer (weight:
1.25 per cent); Steel (weight: 6.68 per cent); Cement (weight: 2.41 per cent); and Electricity
(weight: 10.32 per cent).
31 Consider the following statements. International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA)

1. is an agency under the direct control of the United Nations (UN)
2. is not obliged to report to any international or inter-governmental agency

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
Your Answer :
Correct Answer : D
Justification: It was set up as the worlds Atoms for Peace organization in 1957 within the
United Nations family.
It is not under direct control of the UN. Though established independently of the United
Nations through its own international treaty, the IAEA Statute, the IAEA reports to both the
United Nations General Assembly and Security Council.
The Agency works with its Member States and multiple partners worldwide to promote safe,
secure and peaceful nuclear technologies.
It also seeks to promote the peaceful use of nuclear energy, and to inhibit its use for any military
purpose, including nuclear weapons.
Q Source:
http://www.thehindu.com/news/international/un-chief-condemns-north-koreas-underground-nuclear-
test/article19618972.ece
32 The Northern Lights are the result of

1. Collisions between gaseous particles in the Earth's atmosphere with charged particles released
from the sun's atmosphere
2. Interaction of volcanic soot with the air mass movements in the stratosphere
3. High speed discharge of radio waves near the ionosphere

A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 3 only
D. 2 only
Your Answer :
Correct Answer : A
Justification: Blown towards the earth by the solar wind, the charged particles are largely
deflected by the earth's magnetic field.
However, the earth's magnetic field is weaker at either pole and therefore some particles enter the
earth's atmosphere and collide with gas particles.
These collisions emit light that we perceive as the dancing lights of the north (and the south).
Q Source: http://www.bbc.com/news/science-environment-41110082
33 The Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) has undertaken several major conservation works across
various countries of Asia. These include
1. Bamiyan Buddhas in Afghanistan
2. Angkor Wat in Cambodia
3. Thungwa temple in Thailand
4. My Son Temple in Vietnam

A. 1, 2 and 4 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 4 only
D. 1, 2 and 3 only
Your Answer :
Correct Answer : A
Justification: Archaeological endeavours of the Survey extended beyond the frontiers of the sub-
continent and have excelled in all its expeditions abroad, even in West Asia.
ASIs list of restoring works include the Bamiyan Buddhas in Afghanistan, the Angkor Wat in
Cambodia, the Ta Prohm Temple in Cambodia, the Vat Phou Temple in Laos, and the My Son
Temple in Vietnam.
You can read more about it here http://asi.nic.in/asi_abroad.asp
Q Source: AKT/NT/SH (Release ID :170572)
34 Consider the following statements.

1. India has never had a women defence Minister, till this year.
2. No women minister has ever been a part of the Cabinet Committee on Security.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
Your Answer :
Correct Answer : D
Justification: Statement 1: Nirmala Sitharaman has become the first woman to become a full-time
defence minister of the country.
She is the first full time and overall second woman to become defence minister: Indira Gandhi, as
the prime minister, had also held the portfolio in the 70s.
Statement 2: Sitharaman will now be a member of the crucial Cabinet Committee on Security.
Members of the Cabinet Committee on Security include the prime minister, home minister, external
affairs minister and the finance minister.
Sushma Swaraj, as the External affairs Minister, is a part of CCS.
Q Source:
http://www.insightsonindia.com/2017/09/04/insights-daily-current-affairs-04-september-2017/
35 The term State-market mix can be applied to which of the following hypothetical economic
situations?
1. The government sub-contracting the construction of a national highway to a private developer
2. An economy where all goods and services are produced by state-owned firms but bought by private
parties
3. Opening bids for the management of a state-owned railway station to private companies

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1 and 2 only
Your Answer :
Correct Answer : B
Justification: The question essentially refers to a mixed economy where both state and the market
undertake economic activities.
Statement 1: In this case, the act of the state sub-letting an activity under its economic domain
shows a state-market mix approach.
Statement 2 and 3: Here all factors of production are owned and used by the state, it is a socialist or
communist economy.
36 It serves as an international corridor for Asian elephant migration between India and Bhutan as it
runs along the international border with Bhutan. The Sinchula hill range lies all along the northern
side of this reserve and the eastern boundary touches that of the Assam state. It is?
A. Kaziranga Tiger Reserve

B. Valmiki Tiger Reserve
C. Achanakmar Tiger Reserve
D. Buxa Tiger reserve
Your Answer :
Correct Answer : D
Learning: Buxa consists of moist, deciduous and evergreen forests.
The Phipsu Wildlife Sanctuary of Bhutan is contiguous to the north of BTR.
Manas National Park lies on east of BTR.
BTR, thus, serves as international corridor for Asian elephant migration between India and Bhutan.
Over the past few years, the number of tigers in the Buxa reserve has been hotly debated by wildlife
enthusiasts.
Q Source:
37 Consider the following about fast radio burst, recently seen in news:
1. They are found in parts of the sky outside the Milky Way galaxy.
2. They last for several years but felt on earth for a very short duration of time.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
Your Answer :
Correct Answer : A
Justification: In radio astronomy, a fast radio burst (FRB) is a high-energy astrophysical

phenomenon of unknown origin manifested as a transient radio pulse lasting only a few
milliseconds.
Fast radio bursts are bright, unresolved (point source-like), broadband (spanning a large
range of radio frequencies), millisecond flashes found in parts of the sky outside the Milky
Way.
Unlike many radio sources the signal from a burst is detected in a short period of time with
enough strength to stand out from the noise floor.
Q Source:
http://news.nationalgeographic.com/2017/09/radio-bursts-galaxy-space-breakthrough-listen-science/
38 The European Free Trade Association (EFTA) is an intergovernmental organisation consisting of

which of these countries?
1. Switzerland
2. Norway
3. Germany
4. France

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 3 and 4 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1 and 3 only
Your Answer :
Correct Answer : A
Justification: EFTA is a regional trade organisation and free trade area consisting of four
European states: Iceland, Liechtenstein, Norway, and Switzerland.
EFTA was established to serve as an alternative trade bloc for those European states that
were unable or unwilling to join the then European Economic Community (EEC) (which
subsequently became the European Union).
The organisation operates in parallel with the European Union (EU), and all four members
participate in the European single market.
Learning: India and the European Free Trade Association (EFTA) are planning to shortly conclude
their long pending negotiations on FTA. So far, several rounds of negotiations have taken place,
talks for which started in 2008.
The proposed agreement covers trade in goods and services, investments, trade facilitation,
Customs cooperation, protection of intellectual property and public procurement.
Q Source: As mentioned above
39 The population pyramid of a country in which birth and death rates both are high is
A. Broad at the base and rapidly narrows towards the top

B. Symmetrical throughout the vertical axis
C. Narrow at the base and rapidly broadens towards the top
D. Like a perfect rectangle
Your Answer :
Correct Answer : A
Justification: We covered the concept in an earlier question in this test.
This shape happens because although, many children are born, a large percentage of them die in
their infancy, relatively few become adults and there are very few old people.
This situation is typified by the pyramid shown for Kenya.

40 What is FarmerZone, that was recently seen in news?
A. It is an open-source data platform for smart agriculture.

B. It is an Agricultural mandi which will not be regulated by APMC Acts.
C. It is a food processing zone that will be heavily subsidized by the state.
D. It is a farmer distress service to counsel farmers against suicides.
Your Answer :
Correct Answer : A
Justification: FarmerZone has been envisioned by the DBT and aligns with our PMs call for
effective decision-making in agriculture that integrates science, technology, innovation and the
farm ecosystem.
It is a collective open-source data platform for smart agriculture which will use biological
research and data to improve the lives of small and marginal farmers.
It is envisaged that FarmerZone will help cater to all needs of the farmer, from dealing with
climate change, weather predictions and soil, water, and seed requirements to providing
market intelligence.
Learning: The FarmerZone platform will connect farmers and scientists, government officials,
thought leaders in agriculture, economists and representatives from global companies who work in
the big-data and e-commerce space to bring about technology-based localised agri-solutions.
The platform will work on getting relevant quality data related to agriculture into the cloud, develop
sentinel sites to help link with farmers and evolve PPP based enterprises for data delivery.
Q Source:
41 The Union Cabinet has approved a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) between India and Israel
on India-Israel Industrial R&D and Technological Innovation Fund (I4F). Consider the following
with reference to it.
1. The Innovation Fund will be governed by a joint Board which will consist of members from each
country.
2. The fund will be restricted to innovations in renewable energy, defence and computing.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
Your Answer :
Correct Answer : A
Justification: The MoU envisages promotion of bilateral Industrial R&D and Innovation
cooperation in the fields of science and technology by extending support to joint projects for
innovative or technology-driven new or improved products, services or processes.
Such projects will lead to affordable technological innovations in focus areas of mutual
interest such as water, agriculture, energy and digital technologies. I
Institutional support in building up consortia including private industry, enterprises and R&D
institutions from India and Israel will be enabled through these collaborative projects.
India and Israel will make a contribution of four million US Dollars each for the Fund, both
equivalent amount, annually for five years.
Q Source: http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=170353
42 The idea of non-interference as proposed by Adam Smith is essentially the philosophy of
A. Political liberalism
B. Capitalism
C. Social Marxism
D. Leninism
Your Answer :
Correct Answer : B
Justification: Option A: Liberalism is a political philosophy or worldview founded on ideas such as

freedom of speech, freedom of the press, freedom of religion, free markets, civil rights, democratic
societies, secular governments, gender equality, and international cooperation.
Option B: This involves free market economies where each individual tries to maximize his or her
own interest.
Option C: This is usually understood to be against the system of capitalism.
Option D: This is essentially Marxism as applied by Lenin. It stands for the achievement of a
dictatorship of the proletariat (workforce), as a political prelude to the establishment of socialism (a
system that is more or less opposite of capitalism).
43 Consider the following about Asia-Africa Growth Corridor project.

1. It was proposed and planned by India and China.
2. African Development Bank rejected the project due to its economic unviability.
3. It will help integrate the economies by increased connectivity of Asia with Oceania and Africa.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Your Answer :
Correct Answer : C
Justification: Statement 1: It was planned by India and Japan with the active support of the African
Development Bank and several African countries including South Africa who wish to reduce their
dependence on Beijing.
So, including China in statement 1 would be wrong.
Statement 2 and 3: It primarily focuses on Development Cooperation Projects, Quality

Infrastructure and Institutional Connectivity, Enhancing Skills, and People-to-People Partnership.
The idea is to create a free and open Indo-Pacific region by rediscovering ancient sea-routes and
creating new sea corridors by integrating the economies of South, Southeast, and East Asia with
Oceania and Africa.
Q Source:
44 Consider the following matches:

1. Anantavarman: Kerala
2. Jagannatha: Bengal
3. Mahodayapuram: Orissa
4. Lilatilakam: Kangra

A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 2 and 4 only
C. 1 and 3 only
Your Answer :
Correct Answer : D
Justification: Statement 1: Anantavarman Chodaganga Deva was a ruler of the Eastern Ganga
dynasty which ruled southern part of Kalinga.
Statement 2: Literally meaning "Lord of the Universe", it is a deity worshipped in regional traditions
of Hinduism and Buddhism in India and Bangladesh. Correct match is Odisha.
Statement 3: Correct match is Tamil Nadu. The Later Cheras (the Kulasekharas) ruled from
Mahodayapuram (now Kodungallur) on the banks of River Periyar and fought numerous wars with
their powerful neighbours such as the Cholas and Rashtrakutas.
Statement 4: Lilatilakam is a text in Manipravalam dealing with grammar and poetics written in
Manipravalam. The correct match would be Kerala.
Q Source: Revision: 12th NCERT: Themes in India History I
45 The PSUs were considered by the government as the focus of the 'trickle-down effect'. How PSUs
were intended to bring trickle-down effect?
1. Generating employment for the masses
2. Initiating industrial development in backward regions
3. Raise the purchasing power of the masses

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Your Answer :
Correct Answer : D
Justification: Trickle-down economics assumes investors, savers and company owners are the real
drivers of growth. It thus believes that if investment flows to the higher echelons of the economy,
the benefits slowly percolate to the poor and the lower echelons of the economy.
Employment would raise purchasing power and increase demand for certain goods and services.
This would push the demand for new industries which would again generate employment and tackle
poverty.
This creates a virtuous cycle.

46 Consider the following about imperative planning.
1. This planning process is followed by socialist economies.
2. Economic planning decisions are made through a central planning authority instead of a market
system.
3. This process assumes that state and non-state actors have equitable control over economic
resources.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Your Answer :
Correct Answer : A
Justification: In this system, allocation of resources, the mix of output and the distribution of
output among the people (i.e., What, How and For Whom problems) are determined centrally in
accordance with the predetermined plans and targets.
Administrative control and regulation from the central planning authority flows in all
directions.
Because of control over the available resources of the country by the state, resources are
allocated in such a way that production becomes maximum, people get goods and services in
fixed quantities at fixed prices, and welfare of the nation gets maximised.
Thus, communist China was the purest example of such planning.
47 Xiamen declaration, as adopted in the 2017 BRICS summit, includes

1. Initiatives for dialogue and cooperation with non-BRICS countries, including through BRICS Plus
cooperation
2. Calling upon the international community to establish a broad counterterrorism coalition
3. BRICS Agriculture Research Platform proposed to be established in India

A. 1 only
B. 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Your Answer :
Correct Answer : D
Justification: BRICS Summit was recently held in Xiamen, China. This is the second time the China
has hosted the summit after the 2011 summit.
As per the declaration, BRICS countries have resolved to promote the development of BRICS
local currency bond markets and to jointly establish a BRICS local currency bond fund and
also to facilitate financial market integration.
They will also encourage explorations toward the establishment of the BRICS Institute of
Future Networks.
Learning: China had proposed the idea of BRICS plus nations to enhance cooperation with various
developing nations.
Several rounds of dialogues were held with the other developing countries outside the BRICS
during the previous summits of the bloc.
However, Chinas ambitious plan have been opposed by other members, especially India which
believes that this might be an attempt to establish Chinese domination in the institution.
Q Source:
48 Consider the following statements about National Agricultural Policy, 2000.

1. This was the first ever National Agricultural Policy announced in India.
2. The Policy aims at a growth rate in excess of four per cent per annum in the agriculture sector.
3. It explicitly prohibits the use of contract farming and land leasing in India.

A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Your Answer :
Correct Answer : C
Justification: Statement 2: It seeks to realise the growth potential of Indian agriculture,

strengthen rural infrastructure for faster agricultural development, promote value addition,
accelerate the growth of agro business, create employment in rural areas.
This is in order to secure a fair standard of living for farmers and agricultural workers and their
families, discourage migration to urban areas and face the challenges arising out of economic
liberalisation and globalisation.
Statement 3: As per the policy, contract farming and land leasing is done to promote private sector
participation, to allow accelerated technology transfer, capital inflow, assured markets for crop
production, especially of oilseeds, cotton and horticulture crops.
Q Source: Additional Research: Page 3.7: Indian Economy: Ramesh Singh
49 To provide a major thrust to job creation by enhancing Indias exports, an Expert Task Force has
been constituted. It has which of the following members?
1. Prime Minister
2. Minister of Commerce and Industry
3. CEO, NITI Aayog Member
4. President, FICCI

A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2 and 4 only
Your Answer :
Correct Answer : B
Justification: It will be chaired by the Vice-Chairman of NITI Aayog, so statement 1 (Prime

Minister) cant be a member.
Members of the Task force include CEO, NITI Aayog, Secretary, Department of Commerce,
Secretary, Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion, Secretary, Department of Economic
Affairs, Secretary, Ministry of Textiles. Leading economists and industry experts are also members
of the Task Force,
The task force will propose a comprehensive plan of action to generate employment and alleviate
under-employment in both goods and services sectors and low wages by boosting Indias exports in
key labour-intensive industries.
Q Source: AKT/NT (Release ID :170578)
50 The West Bengal government will distribute identity cards issued by the United Nations High
Commissioner for Refugees (UNHCR) to Rohigya children lodged in the juvenile justice homes of the
State. Consider the following about these identity cards:
1. These cards contain biometric identity data related to the refugee.
2. They can also be used as a temporary work visa to visit a neighbouring nation in case the victim is
facing persecution.
3. These are not issued to asylum seekers who wish to avoid detention or deportation by another
nation.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 only
D. 1 and 3 only
Your Answer :
Correct Answer : C
Justification: Statement 3: The UNHCR issues ID cards to registered refugees and documents to
asylum-seekers which help to prevent arbitrary arrests, detention and deportation.
Statement 1: The card includes a number of enhanced security features including 3D holograms,
bar codes and a large SQR code.
The card is supported by enhanced biometric data collection at the UNHCR office, including retina,
10 fingers and face scan.
Statement 2: The government issues long-term visas (which is separate from this ID card) to
refugees which ease their access to public services and employment in the private sector.
Because of some recent changes to the documentation processes, some refugees have reportedly
been facing challenges in accessing public services and opening bank accounts.
It is important for refugees to have access to employment and basic services. Therefore, refugee
cards help in facilitating their access to these services.
Q Source:
http://www.thehindu.com/news/national/other-states/rohingya-children-to-get-unhcr-cards-in-bengal
/article19604066.ece
51 What are Systematically Important Banks (D- SIBs) as recognized by the Reserve Bank of India?
1. These banks are exempt from CRR and SLR regulations.
2. These are perceived as perceived as Too Big To Fail (TBTF) banks.
3. The RBI determines a cut-off score beyond which banks are considered as D-SIBs.

A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Your Answer :
Correct Answer : B
Concept: A few banks assume systemic importance due to their size, cross-jurisdictional activities,
complexity, lack of substitutability and interconnectedness.
The disorderly failure of these banks has the propensity to cause significant disruption to the
essential services provided by the banking system, and in turn, to the overall economic
activity.
These banks are considered Systemically Important Banks (SIBs) as their continued
functioning is critical for the uninterrupted availability of essential banking services to the
real economy.
Justification: After adding the State Bank of India and private lender ICICI, the Reserve Bank of
India has listed HDFC to systemically important banks list.
Statement 1: Since 2015, RBI has been identifying banks whose failure would impact the whole
financial system. These banks are subject to more rigorous regulation and capital requirement.
This perception of TBTF creates an expectation of government support for these banks at the
time of distress. Due to this perception, these banks enjoy certain advantages in the funding
markets.
The indicators the RBI uses for identifying Domestic-SIBs are: size, interconnectedness,
substitutability and complexity.
Q Source:
52 Which of these European nations has the most indented and longest coastline, among the following?
A. Norway
B. Finland
C. Moldova
D. Cyprus
Your Answer :
Correct Answer : A
Justification: Indented coastline makes for good natural harbours and ports, and gives the nation a
strategic maritime trade advantage.
Q Source: Map based questions: Europe
53 Which of these is/are examples of Fixed capital formation?

1. Accumulation of foreign exchange reserve
2. Road and bridge construction
3. Energy infrastructure
4. Office equipment, such as computers

A. 2, 3 and 4 only
B. 1, 2 and 4 only
C. 1, 3 and 4 only
D. 2 and 3 only
Your Answer :
Correct Answer : A
Justification: Statement 1: Currency is not considered as fixed capital, it is liquid capital.

Fixed capital are the assets used in the productive process.
Others examples include Building or expanding existing factory, Purchase of transport equipment
and all other machineries used in the productive process
Generally, the higher the capital formation of an economy, the faster an economy can grow its
aggregate income. Increasing an economy's capital stock also increases its capacity for production,
which means an economy can produce more. Producing more goods and services can lead to an
increase in national income levels.
Q Source: Additional Research: Chapter 3: Indian Economy: Ramesh Singh
54 Which of these conditions is important for the proper growth of cotton?

1. Frost-free days and bright sunshine
2. Presence of red and yellow soils
3. Minimum rainfall of 150-200 cm
4. Very low temperature conditions

A. 1 only
B. 2, 3 and 4 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 and 4 only
Your Answer :
Correct Answer : A
Justification: Cotton requires high temperature, light rainfall, two hundred and ten frost-free days
and bright sunshine for its growth.
It grows best on black and alluvial soils.
China, USA, India, Pakistan, Brazil and Egypt are the leading producers of cotton. In India, it is
extensively grown in Punjab, Gujarat, Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Karnataka, Haryana, Tamil
Nadu, Rajasthan.
th
55 When it is summers in velds, what season would it be in the prairies?
A. Summer season
B. Autumn season
C. Spring season
D. Winter Season
Your Answer :
Correct Answer : D
Learning: Velds lie in the Southern hemisphere, and prairies lie in the Northern Hemisphere.
This is because Southern hemisphere (Velds) faces the Sun whereas Northern Hemisphere
comparatively receives lesser insolation.
Conditions change once earth changes position and moves towards summer solstice (for Northern
Hemisphere).
Q Source: Revision: Previous test: 7th NCERT Geography
56 Multilateral Carbon Credit Fund (MCCF) is maintained by the
A. European Investment Bank (EIB) with the European Bank for Reconstruction and
Development (EBRD)
B. Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency (MIGA) with the World Bank (WB)
C. Global Carbon Facility (GCF) with UNFCCC
Your Answer :
Correct Answer : A
Learning: The European Bank for Reconstruction and Development (EBRD) and the European
Investment Bank (EIB) established the Multilateral Carbon Credit Fund (MCCF) as a key instrument
in their strategy for combating climate change.
Fully subscribed, with over 200 million in commitments, the MCCF is one of the few carbon funds
dedicated specifically to countries from Central Europe to Central Asia.
By joining the MCCF, private and public companies as well as EBRD and EIB shareholder countries
can purchase carbon credits from emission reduction projects financed by EIB or EBRD to meet
their mandatory or voluntary greenhouse gas (GHG) emission reduction targets.
Q Source: http://www.ebrd.com/downloads/research/factsheets/mccfe.pdf
57 Tolkappiyam refers to four castes namely arasar, anthanar, vanigar and vellalar. Consider the
following about the roles of these castes.
1. The ruling class was called arasar.
2. Anthanars were the untouchables.
3. Vanigars were responsible for protecting the empire.
4. The vellalas were priests.
A. 1 and 4 only
B. 2, 3 and 4 only
C. 1 only
D. 2 and 3 only
Your Answer :
Correct Answer : C
Justification: This division of caste refers to the Sangam age.
Statement 2: Anthanars played a significant role in the Sangam polity and religion.
Statement 3 and 4: Vanigars carried on trade and commerce. The vellalas were agriculturists.
Learning: Other tribal groups like Parathavar, Panar, Eyinar, Kadambar, Maravar and Pulaiyar
were also found in the Sangam society. Ancient primitive tribes like Thodas, Irulas, Nagas and
Vedars lived in this period.
Q Source: Revision: Previous test: 12th NCERT: Themes in Indian History-I
58 The international crude oil price of Indian Basket as computed/published today by Petroleum
Planning and Analysis Cell (PPAC) under the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas is determined by
A. Market forces of supply and demand

B. Daily government notifications that regulate domestic prices
C. Oil Marketing Companies (OMCs) irrespective of the market prices
D. Organization of Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC)
Your Answer :
Correct Answer : A
Learning: It is market determined. It was regulated earlier due to the subsidy provided by the
government. Now, OMCs are free to change prices based on market conditions.
For e.g. the price as on 06.09.2017 was US$ 52.97.
So, international price shocks are directly transmitted to the domestic market.
Q Source: KM/SA Daily Crude Oil Price (Release ID :170589)
59 Which of these nations borders both Black Sea and Caspian Sea?
1. Albenia
2. Greece
3. Russia
4. Ukraine
5. Georgia

A. 1, 2 and 5 only
B. 2, 4 and 5 only
C. 3 only
D. 1, 3 and 4 only
Your Answer :
Correct Answer : C
Justification:

60 Recently, the Ease of Doing Business report based on an Enterprise Survey of over three thousand
manufacturing firms across Indian states and union territories was recently released by
A. NITI Aayog
B. WEP- India chapter
C. Department of industrial Policy and Promotion (DIPP)
D. Industrial Development Bank of India (IDBI)
Your Answer :
Correct Answer : A
Learning: The survey has been conducted, along with the IDFC Institute, to assess the business
regulations and enabling environment across India from firms perspective.
The Survey was released by the Union Minister of Commerce and Minister of Law & Justice.
The major findings of this report are as follows:
The major findings of this report are as follows:
A higher level of economic activity and better performance on a range of doing business
indicators are strongly correlated.
Newer and younger firms report a more favorable business environment in that they take less
time in obtaining approvals than older firms, suggesting an improvement in the business
environment.
Labor regulations are a bigger constraint for labor intensive firms
The experience of firms with fewer employees is different from that of larger firms. In some
cases, large firms face more regulatory barriers than smaller firms.
61 Which of these are examples of trans-national resources over which more than one nation can have
joint control?
1. Marine animals
2. Manganese nodules
3. Crude Oil and natural Gas

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 only
C. 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Your Answer :
Correct Answer : D
Learning: There are international institutions which regulate some resources.
The oceanic resources beyond 200 km of the Exclusive Economic Zone belong to open ocean and no
individual country can utilise these without the concurrence of international institutions.
Anything useful found in the sea or seabed can be termed as a resource like gas, oil etc.
Q Source: General questions on resources: 8th NCERT Geography
62 Consider the following stupas that were built in the places associated with Buddhas life.
1. Lumbini: Where he died
2. Bodh Gaya: Where he attained mahaparinibbana
3. Sarnath: Where he built his first vihara
4. Kusinagara: Where he ordained his first disciple

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 3 and 4 only
Your Answer :
Correct Answer : D
Justification: Lumbini is where he was born.
Bodh Gaya is where he attained enlightenment.
Sarnath is where he gave his first sermon (public speech).
Kusinagara is where he attained nibbana (Death) gradually, each of these places came to be
regarded as sacred.
Learning: By the second century BCE a number of stupas, including those at Bharhut, Sanchi and
Sarnath had been built.
These were built because:
The tradition of erecting stupas may have been pre-Buddhist, but they came to be associated
with Buddhism.
Stupas were built because relics of the Buddha such as his bodily remains or objects used by
him were buried there.
63 Consider the following statements. Sacred groves

1. Are pristine stretches of forests that must be registered under National parks
2. Have been left untouched by the local tribals as any interference with them is banned by the local
community

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
Your Answer :
Correct Answer : B
Learning: Nature worship is an age old tribal belief based on the premise that all creations of
nature have to be protected.
Such beliefs have preserved several virgin forests in pristine form called Sacred Groves (the
forests of God and Goddesses).
These patches of forest or parts of large forests have been left untouched by the local people
and any interference with them is banned.
Certain societies revere a particular tree which they have preserved from time immemorial.
For e.g. the Mundas and the Santhal of Chhota Nagpur region worship mahua and kadamba trees.
Q Source:
http://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/jaipur/intach-worries-for-trees-in-future-smart-city/articlesho
w/60410951.cms
64 As per the Environment (Protection) Rules, 1986, emissions of which of the following compounds,
emitted by certain industries, is regulated by the Central Pollution Control Board?
1. Caustic Soda Industry: Mercury
2. Man-made fibres Industry: Suspended Solids
3. Petroleum and Oil Refinery: Sulphides

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Your Answer :
Correct Answer : D
Justification: Statement 1: Caustic soda is a solution of Sodium hydroxide (NaOH) in water. It is a

strong base with a wide range of applications in different industries. Mercury is the main effluent.
Statement 3: These are the published standards:
Q Source: http://www.cpcb.nic.in/Industry-Specific-Standards/Effluent/402.pdf
65 Consider the following statements. National Mission for Clean Ganga (NMCG)
1. is the implementation wing of National Ganga Council
2. is a statutory authority
3. authorized to approve projects for cleaning Ganga

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 only
D. 2 and 3 only
Your Answer :
Correct Answer : B
Justification: Statement 1: The Council is also called National Council for Rejuvenation, Protection
and Management of River Ganga.
In 2016, National Ganga Council has replaced National Ganga River Basin Authority(NGRBA) which
was constituted under the provisions of the Environment (Protection) Act (EPA), 1986.
Statement 2 and 3: It was established in 2011 as a registered society under Societies Registration
Act, 1860. It has a two-tier management structure and comprises of Governing Council and
Executive Committee.
Both of them are headed by Director General (DG), NMCG. Executive Committee is authorized to
approve projects under mission up to Rs.1000 crore.
Statement 3: Similar to structure at national level, State Programme Management Groups (SPMGs)
acts as implementing arm of State Ganga Committees.
This structure attempts to bring all stakeholders on one platform to take a holistic approach
towards the task of Ganga cleaning and rejuvenation.
Q Source: Frequently in news
66 If you are to give the correct North-south order of these European nations, it would be?
1. Poland
2. Romania
3. Bulgaria
4. Czech Republic

A. 1234
B. 1423
C. 2341
D. 3214
Your Answer :
Correct Answer : B
Justification:
67 With reference to the legal framework of disaster management in India, consider the following
statements.
1. Public liability insurance Act, 1991 provides for mandatory general insurance coverage all families
living in hazardous zones.
2. Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 provides for quality standards and testing so that food
consumption does not result in mass poisoning.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
Your Answer :
Correct Answer : B
Justification: Statement 1: It provides for insurance to give immediate relief to the persons
affected by accident occurring while handling any hazardous substance and for matters connected
therewith or incidental thereto.
Statement 2: It prohibits manufacture, storage and use of products unsafe of human consumption.
Thus, it covers aspects of disaster management.
68 With reference to the Servants of India Society, consider the following statements.
1. It was the first nationalist organization to be established and operated from outside India.
2. The society was only concerned with promotion of swadeshi and achievement of political swaraj.
3. It published Hitavada in all the major regional languages of India.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 only
Your Answer :
Correct Answer : D
Justification: Statement 1: The Servants of India Society was formed in Pune, Maharashtra, in
1905 by Gopal Krishna Gokhale.
Statement 2: The Society organized many campaigns to promote education, sanitation, health care
and fight the social evils of untouchability and discrimination, alcoholism, poverty, oppression of
women and domestic abuse.
Statement 3: The publication of The Hitavada, the organ of the Society in English from Nagpur
commenced in 1911.
Q Source:
http://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-in-school/Gopal-Krishna-Gokhale/article14572977.ece
69 Which of these is/are possible reasons for India NOT being a signatory to the 1951 Refugee
Convention?
1. India already has a National refugee policy and National Refugee protection law which does not
conform to the convention.
2. India is not a member of the United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees (UNHCR) executive
committee.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
Your Answer :
Correct Answer : D
Justification: The Indian government has signed neither the Refugee Convention nor its Protocol,
and Indian law does not offer any special language or provisions for refugees. However, India is a
member of the UNHCR executive committee.
A possible reason for India not signing the Refugee convention may be that a protection
framework will encourage refugee inflow in India putting pressure on resources.
South-Asian borders are also very porous and any conflict can result in a mass movement of
people.
Learning: However, India does protect refugees. The Indian refugee protection framework is based
on executive decisions; judicial pronouncements; and international conventions (1984 Convention
against torture which prevents forcible repatriation of refugees).
For e.g. under the RTA, even refugees can claim right to education. They are also entitled to public
health facilities; justice systems etc.
Q Source: Recent episode of Rohingyas exodus
70 The Food Standards Programme is an initiative of
A. World Health Organization (WHO) and FAO (Food and Agricultural Organization) jointly
B. United Nations Development Programme (UNDP)
C. World Economic Forum (WEP)
D. United Nations Children's Fund (UNICEF)
Your Answer :
Correct Answer : A
Learning: The Codex Alimentarius Commission is the central part of the Food Standards
Programme.
The Codex alimentarius is a collection of internationally adopted food standards presented in a

uniform manner.
These food standards aim at protecting consumers health and ensuring fair practices in the food
trade.
It includes standards for all the principal foods, whether processed, semi-processed or raw for
distribution to the consumer.
Q Source: http://www.who.int/foodsafety/areas_work/food-standard/en/
71 To stabilize Indias population, which of these is the prescribed Total Fertility Rate (TFR)?
A. A number between 3 and 4

B. Any number between 1 and 2, provided the influx of population is stopped
C. A number between 2 and 3, closer to 2
D. No TFR range can stabilize natural population growth rate
Your Answer :
Correct Answer : C
Justification: TFR is the number of births attributed to each child bearing woman in the country.
A TFR below 2 would tend to reduce population in the long run and a TFR above 3 will cause a
population growth spiral.
The Mission Parivar Vikas family planning initiative, recently launched by the government, will
bring down the Total Fertility Rate (TFR) to 2.1, which is when the population starts stabilizing, by
the year 2025.
Learning: The key strategic focus of this initiative will be on improving access to contraceptives
through delivering assured services, dovetailing with new promotional schemes, ensuring
commodity security, building capacity (service providers), creating an enabling environment along
with close monitoring and implementation.
72 Consider the following about the International Organization for Migration (IOM).
1. It is an inter-governmental organization of countries that are signatories to the Vienna convention.
2. It provides services and advice to governments and humanitarian assistance to migrants.
3. It does not deal with cases of Forced migration.

A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 only
C. 3 only
D. 1 and 2 only
Your Answer :
Correct Answer : B
Justification: Statement 1: Established in 1951, IOM is the leading inter-governmental

organization in the field of migration and works closely with governmental, intergovernmental and
non-governmental partners.
Statement 2: IOM works to help ensure the orderly and humane management of migration, to
promote international cooperation on migration issues, to assist in the search for practical solutions
to migration problems and to provide humanitarian assistance to migrants in need, including
refugees and internally displaced people.
Statement 3: IOM works in the four broad areas of migration management:
Migration and development, facilitating migration, regulating migration and forced migration.
Q Source:
73 Machine-to-machine (M2M) communications will likely to have a bearing on the development of

which of the following in India?
#4969
1. Smart electricity grids
2. Smart cities
3. Telecom Industry
4. Health care industry

A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 and 4 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Your Answer :
Correct Answer : D
Justification: M2M is the basis for automated information exchange between machines and can
impact various industry verticals like smart city, smart grid, smart water, smart transportation,
smart health etc.
The government has also recognized the potential of M2M and emphasized the same in National
Telecom Policy 2012.
Statement 1: For e.g. in a smart grid, data needs to be communicated not only between power
stations, but also between a home and the power station. M2M will facilitate this.
Statement 2: In a smart city, there are several devices interacting with each other, for e.g. a wi-fi
device communicating with a smart high-speed transportation network to save from traffic
congestions.
Statement 4: In the health sector, when the health of a patient is monitored by several devices, a
comprehensive report on his health can be generated simply by better coordination and
understanding between various machines.
Q Source:
74 DIKSHA Portal initiative of HRD ministry focusses for providing a digital platform for which of the following groups?
A. Students in scheduled areas
B. Girl children in backward and remote regions
C. Teachers, to make their teaching styles more digital
D. Differently abled children with special needs
Your Answer :
Correct Answer : C
Learning: Diksha portal launched with a tagline National Digital Infrastructures for Our Teacher
Our Teacher.
The portal will consist the whole teachers life cycle from the time they were enrolled as student
teachers in Teacher Education Institutes (TEIs) to after they retire as teachers.
Teacher can learn and train themselves for which assessment resources will be available.
The complete work and accomplishment of teachers in Teachers educational institutes will be
recorded from start to end point till their retirement.
It will help teachers boost their teaching skills and create their own profile with their skills
and knowledge.
Not only the government, private institutes and NGOs are also allowed to participate in the
Diksha initiative.
Q Source:
75 Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership (RCEP) is a proposed free trade agreement (FTA)
between
1. India
2. Australia
3. China
4. Japan
5. Russia

A. 1, 3 and 4 only
B. 1, 2 and 4 only
C. 2, 3 and 5 only
Your Answer :
Correct Answer : B
Justification: RCEP is between the ten member states of the Association of Southeast Asian
Nations (ASEAN) (Brunei, Burma (Myanmar), Cambodia, Indonesia, Laos, Malaysia, the Philippines,
Singapore, Thailand, Vietnam) and the six states with which ASEAN has existing FTAs (Australia,
China, India, Japan, South Korea and New Zealand).
RCEP negotiations were formally launched in November 2012 at the ASEAN Summit in Cambodia.
At the forthcoming ministerial-level meeting on the proposed Free Trade Agreement (FTA) involving
16 Asia-Pacific nations, India has decided to raise concerns regarding the slow pace of
negotiations on services trade liberalisation as opposed to higher priority being accorded to
commitments to open up goods trade in the region.
Q Source: Upcoming FTA conference between ASEAN+6
76 India-China Line of Actual Control touches through which of these regions?
A. Siachen Glacier
B. Aksai Chin
C. Srinagar
D. Kargil
Your Answer :
Correct Answer : B
Justification: The LAC, starting from northwest of the Karakoram Pass and ending at Arunachal
Pradesh, has not been demarcated and is virtually passed on by word of mouth.
This has led to differing perceptions regarding the alignment, with China making territorial
claims in at least eight areas.
These are those areas where regular incursions and face-offs take place. They include
Asaphila, Longju, Namka Chu, Sumdorong Chu, and Yangste in Arunachal Pradesh, Barahoti
in Uttarakhand, and Aksai China and Demchok in Ladakh.
Q Source:
http://indianexpress.com/article/india/ncert-to-replace-map-depicting-aksai-chin-as-indian-claim-465
3961/
77 For Imported and exported Goods, which of these authorities determines the rate of exchange of
conversion of Australian Dollar currency to Indian currency?
A. Trade Division, Reserve Bank of India

B. Secretary, Department of Commerce
C. Central Board of Excise and Customs
D. It is an entirely market determined rate
Your Answer :
Correct Answer : C
Justification: India follows a managed exchange rate system where currency exchange rate is
market determined by occasional interventions from RBI.
However, there are certain cases where the Customs Act, 1962 and associated notifications grant
the CBEC the power to determine exchange rates of certain currencies for e.g. Bahrain Dinar,
Canadian Dollar.
The entire list can be found here

http://www.cbec.gov.in/resources//htdocs-cbec/customs/cs-act/notifications/notfns-2017/cs-nt2017/c
snt81-2017.pdf;jsessionid=BDB303621EAE1CB84CC3A451A2DADD85
Q Source: DSM/SBS/KA (Release ID :170595)
78 What is the impact of SAUNI Yojna?

1. The project will make the longest conventional open canal system in India which would increase
groundwater recharge in nearby regions.
2. The project requires a very large land area to be acquired which would result in large scale
development displacement.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
Your Answer :
Correct Answer : D
Justification: Parts of Saurashtra are prone to drought, and irrigation water is also a politically
sensitive issue in this region.
SAUNI stands for Saurashtra Narmada Avtaran Irrigation, a project launched in 2012.
SAUNI envisages filling several major dams of the arid Saurashtra region by diverting floodwaters
overflowing from the Sardar Sarovar Dam across the Narmada in south Gujarat.
Unlike traditional irrigation projects, SAUNI is technically a linking project, where the water
will be filled in irrigation dams that are already equipped with canal network.
This network of canals will then help channel water into farms.
Also, SAUNI project involves making pipe canals instead of the conventional open canals. The
pipelines in the SAUNI project are underground, which means that no land needs to be
acquired.
Q Source: http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=161096
79 Consider the following about CERT-In (the Indian Computer Emergency Response Team).
1. It was created by the Department of Information Technology in 2014.
2. The purpose of CERT-In is to respond to computer security incidents and report on vulnerabilities.
3. CERT-In is responsible for overseeing administration of Information Technology Amendment Act
2008.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 only
D. 2 only
Your Answer :
Correct Answer : B
Justification: Statement 1: It is a government-mandated information technology (IT) security

organization. CERT-In was created by Deity in 2004 and operates under the auspices of that
department.
Statement 2: It also promotes effective IT security practices throughout the country.
Statement 3: According to the provisions of the Information Technology Amendment Act 2008,
CERT-In is responsible for overseeing administration of the Act.
CERT-In) has issued an alert about spread of a new malicious software Locky, which is being
circulated through spam messages that can potentially lock computers and demand ransom for
restoring access to users.
Q Source:
80 Consider the following with reference to the Indian Antarctic Program.

1. It was setup under the Ministry of Science and Technology.
2. It was initiated with the first Indian expedition to Antarctica.
3. India has officially acceded to the Antarctic Treaty System.
4. Maitri and Bharati are Indias research stations on Antarctica.

A. 2 and 3 only
B. 1 and 4 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
Your Answer :
Correct Answer : C
Justification: It is a multi-disciplinary, multi-institutional program under the control of National

Centre for Antarctic and Ocean Research, Ministry of Earth Sciences, Government of India. It was
initiated in 1981 with the first Indian expedition to Antarctica.
Under the program, atmospheric, biological, earth, chemical, and medical sciences are studied by
India, which has carried out several scientific expeditions to the Antarctic.
The program gained global acceptance with India's signing of the Antarctic Treaty and subsequent
construction of the Dakshin Gangotri Antarctic research base in 1983, superseded by the Maitri
base from 1990.
The newest base commissioned in 2015 is Bharati.
Q Source: Additional Research: 6th NCERT Geography
81 Fahiens account on the Gupta administration provides useful information about the empire. As per
his accounts
1. Imposing a fine was a common punishment.
2. There was no spy system.
3. Roads were not safe for travellers due to frequent thefts.
4. People were not free to move and their movements were heavily controlled by the state.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 3 and 4 only
C. 1 only
D. 2, 3 and 4 only
Your Answer :
Correct Answer : A
Justification: Statement 2 and 3: He mentioned that people were generally prosperous and the
crimes were negligible.
There was no state interference in the individuals life. Punishments were not severe. The
administration was so efficient that the roads were kept safe for travellers, and there was no fear of
thieves.
Fahien had also appreciated the efficiency of the Gupta administration as he was able to travel
without any fear throughout the Gangetic valley.
Statement 3 and 4: He characterises the Gupta administration as mild and benevolent. There were
no restrictions on peoples movements and they enjoyed a large degree of personal freedom.

82 Which of these European nations are open to seas/oceans or have coasts?
1. Serbia
2. Belgium
3. Macedonia
4. Austria

A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 2 only
D. 1 and 4 only
Your Answer :
Correct Answer : C
Justification:
83 The Animal Welfare Board of India is a statutory advisory body on Animal Welfare Laws and promotes
animal welfare in the country. It was established in 1962 under
A. Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act
B. Wildlife Protection Act
C. Environment Protection Act
D. Forest Act
Your Answer :
Correct Answer : A
Learning: The Animal Welfare Board of India was started under the stewardship of Late Smt.
Rukmini Devi Arundale, well known humanitarian.
From ensuring that animal welfare laws in the country are diligently followed, to provide grants to
Animal Welfare Organizations and advising the Government of India on animal welfare issues, the
Board has been the face of the animal welfare movement in the country for the last 50 years.
The Board consists of 28 Members. The term of office of Members is for a period of 3 years.
84 Decomposition of organic matter Its speed is determined by which of these major factors?
1. Soil organisms
2. Temperature conditions
3. Moisture conditions
4. Quality of the organic matter

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2, 3 and 4 only
C. 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Your Answer :
Correct Answer : D
Justification: It is largely a biological process that occurs naturally.
High temperature and high moisture aide the process of decomposition.
In the decomposition process, different products are released: carbon dioxide (CO2), energy, water,
plant nutrients and resynthesized organic carbon compounds.
Learning: Successive decomposition of dead material and modified organic matter results in the
formation of a more complex organic matter called humus.
This process is called humification. Humus affects soil properties.
As it slowly decomposes, it colours the soil darker; increases soil aggregation and aggregate
stability; increases the CEC (the ability to attract and retain nutrients); and contributes N, P
and other nutrients.
Soil organisms, including micro-organisms, use soil organic matter as food. As they break
down the organic matter, any excess nutrients (N, P and S) are released into the soil in forms
that plants can use.
This release process is called mineralization.
Q Source: Revision: 7th NCERT Geography
85 The organized sector of India shares which of the following characteristics?

1. Recognition and registration by the government
2. Security of employment for the employed based on a contract
3. Terms of employment are regular and negotiated between the employer and employee
4. The sector is mandated to comply with labour laws in India
Choose the answer from the codes below:

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2, 3 and 4 only
C. 3 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Your Answer :
Correct Answer : D
Justification: The organized sector gives fixed wages, gives job security, pensions to workers, have
assured regular work in employment and provides other facilities like provident fund, paid wages
and medical benefits.
This growth of this sector is crucial for the growth of India as this sector contains high paid and
skilled jobs, as against uncertain low-skilled and poorly paid jobs in the unorganized sector.
86 As per available data, which of the following sources provides the most credit to rural households?
A. Government of India loan waiver schemes

B. Cooperatives and commercial banks
C. Professional and agricultural money lender networks
D. Traders and landlords with traditional affiliates
Your Answer :
Correct Answer : B
Justification:
Q Source: Revision: Chapter 3: 9th NCERT Economics
87 Consider the following with reference to the United Nations Guidelines for Consumer Protection
(UNGCP).
1. It assists Member States in formulating and enforcing domestic and regional laws.
2. The Intergovernmental group of experts on consumer protection law and policy has been
established to monitor the implementation of the guidelines.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
Your Answer :
Correct Answer : C
Justification: They provide a valuable set of principles for setting out the main characteristics of
effective consumer protection legislation.
The Intergovernmental group of experts on consumer protection law and policy has been
established to monitor the implementation of the guidelines, provide a forum for consultations,
produce research and studies, provide technical assistance, undertake voluntary peer reviews, and
periodically update the UNGCP.
Its first meeting took place in 2016 in Geneva under the auspices of the United Nations Conference
on Trade and Development (UNCTAD).
Q Source: http://www.un.org/esa/sustdev/publications/consumption_en.pdf
88 Which of these countries touches Celtic sea, English Channel and Bay of Biscay all?
A. France
B. Switzerland
C. Italy
D. Austria
Your Answer :
Correct Answer : A
Justification:
89 Humus is least in which of the following soils?

A. Laterite soils
B. Black soil
C. Alluvial soil
D. Soils of temperate forests
Your Answer :
Correct Answer : A
Learning: This is mainly due to the intense leaching of these soils by rainfall and high temperature.
The thick brown or black substance that remains after most of the organic litter has decomposed is
called humus. Earthworms often help mix humus with minerals in the soil.
Humus contains many useful nutrients for healthy soil. One of the most important is nitrogen.
Q Source: Revision: Previous test: 7th NCERT Geography
90 With reference to Himalayan Yew, consider the following statements.

1. It is an endemic and exclusive species of Indo-Burma biodiversity hotspot region.
2. Taxol extracted from the plant has been successfully used to treat some cancers
3. It is currently classified as endangered by the IUCN.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 3 only
D. 1 and 3 only
Your Answer :
Correct Answer : B
Justification: The Himalayan Yew is a medicinal plant found in various parts of Himachal Pradesh
and Arunachal Pradesh.
A chemical compound called taxol is extracted from the bark, needles, twigs and roots of this tree,
and it has been successfully used to treat some cancers the drug is now the biggest selling anti-
cancer drug in the world.
The species is under great threat due to over-exploitation.

th
Q Source: Additional research: Chapter 2: 8 NCERT
91 Arrange the following in decreasing order of protection and funding given by the government in
connection with safeguarding wildlife, biodiversity and forests:
A. Protected forests> National Park> Wildlife Sanctuary
B. Reserved forests> National Park> Protected Forests> Wildlife Sanctuary
C. National Park> Wildlife Sanctuary> Reserved Forests > Protected forests
D. All of the above enjoy the same level of protection and funding.
Your Answer :
Correct Answer : C
Justification: Typically, reserved forests are often upgraded to the status of wildlife sanctuaries,
which in turn may be upgraded to the status of national parks, with each category receiving a
higher degree of protection and government funding.
For example, Sariska National Park was declared a reserved forest in 1955, upgraded to the status
of a wildlife sanctuary in 1958, becoming a Tiger Reserve in 1978.
Sariska became a national park in 1992, though primary notification to declare it as a national park
was issued as early as 1982.
Q Source:
http://www.thehindu.com/news/national/green-nod-for-neutrino-project-suspended/article17547654.
ece
92 Which of these nations border Baltic sea?

1. Russia
2. Germany
3. Poland
4. Belarus

A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 2 and 4 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 3 and 4 only
Your Answer :
Correct Answer : A
Justification:
93 A system of agriculture where monoculture is practiced on a large area is
A. Subsistence Agriculture
B. Plantation Agriculture
C. Slash and Burn Agriculture
D. Transhumance Agriculture
Your Answer :
Correct Answer : B
Learning: Plantation agriculture is a form of commercial farming where crops are grown for profit.
Large land areas are needed for this type of agriculture.
Countries that have plantation agriculture usually experience high annual temperatures and receive
high annual rainfall.
Plantations are mainly found in countries that have a tropical climate.
94 Which of the following processes contributes to the enrichment of minerals in rocks?
A. Weathering of rocks
B. Erosional and depositional action of rivers
C. Both (a) and (b)
Your Answer :
Correct Answer : C
Justification: Enrichment of many low-grade ores occurs when the metal-bearing solutions of these
valuable metals drain downward along the vein or other deposits and then are re-precipitated into
concentrated, bonanza grade deposits at shallow depths.
Some of these enriched deposits are quite large, being the product of long, continued forces of
weathering with the descending mineral salts acting to concentrate the metal values from a great
thickness of vein matter and rocks that were once located above the current outcrop, but now have
been removed by erosion.
This process of natural concentration is how this the action of weathering can produce such
amazingly rich ore bodies.
Q Source: Additional Research: Chapter on Minerals: 8th NCERT
95 Despite having large reserves of coal, why India imports millions of tonnes of coal every year?
1. Availability of coking coal is limited in India.
2. Indian coal has very high calorific value that is unsuitable for the power plants in India.
3. Fumes emitted by Indian coal contain Mercury.

A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 3 only
Your Answer :
Correct Answer : A
Justification: Statement 1: Indian coal quality is poor and the supplies are less given so many
problems like mining licenses issue, problems of fuel supply agreements; technology deficit for
sustainable coal mining etc.
Coking coal needs to be of higher quality and hence needs to be imported.
Statement 2: This is incorrect, there are better coal grades available abroad that yield high calorific
value. Higher the calorific value, better it is for the power plants.
Statement 3: All Coal emissions invariably contain mercury, so this cant be a reason for importing
coal from abroad.
Q Source:
http://www.thehindu.com/business/Industry/coal-imports-decline-to-192-mt-in-fy17/article19528835.
ece
96 Coastal erosion can be caused by

1. Global warming induced sea level rise
2. removal of beach sediments by wave action
3. Presence of coral reefs
4. Growth of mangroves near the seashore

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2, 3 and 4 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Your Answer :
Correct Answer : A
Justification: Statement 1: According to a study, Parali I island, one of biodiversity-rich

uninhabited islands part of Lakshadweep has disappeared due to coastal erosion and another four
such islands in Lakshadweep sea are shrinking fast. Sea level rise is considered to be a major factor
behind this.
The study has recommended of a bio protection strategy using mangroves, in addition to the
conventional physical protection measures from coastal erosion.
Statement 2: Waves, generated by storms, wind, or fast moving motor craft, can cause coastal
erosion, which may take the form of long-term losses of sediment and rocks, or merely the
temporary redistribution of coastal sediments; erosion in one location may result in accretion
nearby.
Statement 3 and 4: They protect the coast from erosion because they bear the impact of waves and
tidal action.
97 Press Trust of India (PTI) is chaired by
A. Union Minister of Information and Broadcasting

B. Secretary, Union Ministry of Information and Broadcasting
C. An eminent personality nominated by the Prime Minister of India
D. A person elected by the PTI, who need not necessarily belong to the government
Your Answer :
Correct Answer : D
Learning: Vivek Goenka was recently elected as chairman of Press Trust of India.
He is the chairman and managing director of Express Group. N Ravi, former editor-in-chief of
The Hindu was elected vice-chairman. They were elected at meeting of board of directors of
PTI
PTI is largest news agency in India. It is non-profit cooperative among more than 500 Indian
newspapers.
It had taken over operations of Associated Press of India (API) from Reuters after India's
independence in 1947.
98 India's zero-subsidy UJALA (Unnat Jyoti by Affordable Lighting for All) Scheme model was replicated
in which of these countries?
A. Malaysia
B. Pakistan
C. Sri Lanka
D. Bhutan and Bangladesh
Your Answer :
Correct Answer : A
Learning: It highlights success of this scheme that promotes efficient lighting, using efficient
equipment to reduce electricity bills and preserve environment at global level.
The initiative is implemented by India's EESL with logistical assistance and facilitation support from
Green Growth Asia, a non-profit organisation in Malaysia.
The EESL is planning to distribute about 1 million 9W LED bulbs, replacing 18W CFLs.
99 SLINEX 2017, recently in news, was a
A. Major conference on alternative sustainable energy sources

B. India-Sri Lanka joint maritime naval exercise
C. Optical fibre communication line setup by major ISPs of India
D. Ransomware quarantined by McAfee
Your Answer :
Correct Answer : B
Learning: SLINEX is a series of biennial bilateral maritime exercises between India and Sri Lanka.
Initiated in 2005, it has the mandate to enable navies of both countries to rehearse and improve
their own capabilities and enhance operational effectiveness required to maintain maritime security
in the region.
SLINEX 2017 focused on fleet work, seamanship, communication, replenishment at sea as well as
helicopter operations.
100 Why a desert cooler cools better on a hot dry day?

1. Low humidity helps in better evaporation
2. Air pressure is higher on a hotter day as compared to a colder day
3. Latent heat of vaporization is higher for water on a drier day

A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 only
Your Answer :
Correct Answer : A
Justification: A desert cooler cools better on a hot dry day because on a hot dry day temperature is
high and humidity is less which helps in better evaporation.
Due to the higher rate of evaporation it gives better cooling effect.
The cooling in a desert room cooler is due to the process of evaporation.
Desert cooler cools better on a hot dry day because the temperature of the atmosphere
increases the rate of evaporation also increases and in hot day the humidity in atmosphere is
less. If humidity is less evaporation is more.
This gives better cooling effect.
Q Source: Questions on General Science

Test 07 - Solution

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TEST 7 ANSWERS

A. Substantial reduction of coffee production in China

Q Source: Additional Research: Page 45: 8th NCERT Geography

Which of the above is/are correct?

3 Consider the following statements. Hydrogen cyanide (HCN)

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

A solution of hydrogen cyanide in water, represented as HCN, is called hydrocyanic acid.

Which of the above is/are correct?

Q Source: Page 44: 8th NCERT Geography

You can read more here https://www.livescience.com/43584-earth-oldest-rock-jack-hills-zircon.html

Q Source: Page 28: 8th NCERT Geography

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

It supports international cooperation to promote sustainable development for all, having as a

It continues to play a key role in monitoring progress towards internationally agreed-upon

Q Source: Additional Research: Page 5: 8th NCERT Geography

7 Consider the following:

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Mineral oil is found in Venezuela, Argentina, Chile, Peru and Columbia.

Q Source: Page 28: 8th NCERT Geography

9 Horizon 2020 initiative from the European Union

Participation from outside the European Union is explicitly encouraged.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Justification: It is also found in Maharashtra and Karnataka.

India is ranked 4th in the production of iron ore.

Q Source: Page 29: 8th NCERT Geography

11 Consider the following about Power Grid in India.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Statement 3: POWERGRID is an Indian state-owned electric utilities company headquartered in

12 Consider the following statements.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Q Source: Page 32: 8th NCERT Geography

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Q Source: Page 42: 8th NCERT Geography

16 Which of these is/are sign(s) that a rock might contain copper?

Which of the above is/are correct?

Q Source: Page 26: 8th NCERT Geography

Which of the above is/are correct?

Q Source: Page 44: 8th NCERT Geography

A. Industrial financing in emerging economies

Q Source: Additional Research: Page 5: 8th NCERT Geography

19 With reference to co-operative societies, consider the following statements.

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Under the Montague-Chelmsford Reforms of 1919, cooperation became a provincial subject

You can read more at http://pib.nic.in/feature/fe0299/f1202992.html

Q Source: Additional Research: Page 52: 8th NCERT Geography

20 Which of the following is NOT an example of sunrise industry?

A. Information Technology Industry

21 Among the following, which ones are ferrous minerals?

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Q Source: Page 25: 8th NCERT Geography

22 Consider the following regions and their predominant geographical features:

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Justification: Statement 1: It is a large area of exposed Precambrian igneous and high-grade

A. West Asia and Africa

Q Source: Fig 6.6: 8th NCERT Geography

Statement 4: Indias manganese deposits lie in Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh,

Q Source: Page 29: 8th NCERT Geography

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Justification: It shows demographic information in age groups, e.g., 5 to 9 years, 10 to 14 years.

We will cover more on this later.

Q Source: Page 73: 8th NCERT Geography

Which of the above is/are correct?

Q Source: AK (Release ID :170541)

Select the correct answer using the codes below.