MCU-FDT Medical Foundation

Department of Microbiology and Parasitology

College of Medicine

1. Bacteria which require organic form of carbon for growth and requires light for
their source of energy are classified as: ( Zinsser Microbiology, 19th ed., p. 54)
A. Photoorganotrophs C. Chemoautotrophs
B. Photolautotrophs D. Chemolithotrophs

2. Doubling time of Mycobacterium tuberculosis is (Essentials of Medical

Microbiology, 5th ed., 430)
A. 1 2 hours C. 10 12 hours
B. 5 10 hours D. 15 20 hours

3. The CNM group of bacteria include the following EXCEPT: (Zinsser

Microbiology, 19th ed., p. 81)
A. Mycobacterium C. Clostridium
B. Nocardia D. Corynebacterium

4. The bioactive center of the lipopolysaccharide of gram-negative bacteria reside in

this region: (Zinsser Microbiology , 19th ed, p. 84)
A. I C. III
B. II D. IV

5. Serologic specificity of the LPS reside in this region: (Zinsser Microbiology, 19th
ed, p. 84
A. I C. III
B. II D. IV

6. Development of spores by Bacillus anthracis occurs during this phase in its

growth cycle:
A. Lag phase C. Stationary phase
B. Log phase D. Decline phase

7. This is a process of exchange of genetic information wherein a bacterial virus

serves as a vector for gene transmission: : (Zinsser Microbiology, 19th ed p. 136)
A. Transformation C. Transfection
B. Transduction D. Conjugation

8. This process is the major mechanism transfer of drug resistance which can
occur between unrelated genera: (Essentials of Medical Microbiology, 5 th ed.,
297)
A. Transformation C. Transfection
B. Transduction D. Conjugation

9. The phosphoribosylribitol phosphate capsule plays the critical role in the

pathogenesis of invasive disease caused by this organism: (Zinsser Microbiology, 19th
ed p. 465)
A. Streptococcus pneumoniae C. Klebsiella pneumoniae
B. Haemophilus influenzae D. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
10. Martin, 2 years old, was admitted for difficulty of breathing and actibve measles.
Chest X-ray revealed the presence of pneumonia with pleural effusion. Diagnostic tap
revealed purulent material which was cultured in BAP. Colonies showed -hemolytic
colonies and Gram staining showed gram-positive cocci in clusters. Catalase test was
positive. What is the most likely causative agent? (Zinsser Microbioology, 19th ed p.
402 and 412)
A. Streptococcus pneumoniae C. Haemophilus influenzae
B. Klebsiella pneumoniae D. Staphylococcus aureus

11. Yinyin, 24 years old, was admitted because of diarrhea after eating oysters. The
organism isolated is a gram-negative bacillus which grew best at pH of 7.6 to 9.0. It is
oxidase positive. What is the most likely agent? (Zinsser Microbiology, 19th ed p.570)
A. Shigella dysenteriae C. Escherichia coli
B. Vibrio parahemolyticus D. Salmonella typhi

12. Sophia, 45 years old, consulted because of multiple nodular lesions on her face
earlobes and wrists. Skin slit smear of the nodule on the earlobe showed numerous acid
fast bacilli (+++++). What is the most likely classification of this patient? (Zinsser
Microbiology, 19th ed p.518)
A. Lepromatous leprosy C. Borderline leprosy
B. Indeterminate leprosy D. Tuberculoid leprosy

13. Diana, 2 weeks old, was admitted because of seizure. CSF examination showed
pleocytosis, increased protein and decreased sugar. The colonies isolated in BAP were
-hemolytic. (Zinsser Microbiology, 19th ed. p 426 427)
A. Streptococcus pneumoniae C. Streptococcus agalactiae
B. Staphylococcyus aureus D. Staphylococcus epidermidis

14. Fred, 39 years old, consulted because of chronic cough of one month. Sputum
culture was requested. The colonies were first observed after two weeks of
incubation. The colonies were described as rough, dry and buff colored. What is
the most likely causative agent? (Zinsser Microbiology, 19th ed, p. 499

A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis C. Mycoplasma pneumoniae

B. Streptococcus pneumoniae D. Haemophilus influenzae

14. Jodie, 10 years old, was admitted with admitting diagnosis of bacterial
endocarditis. Blood culture in BAP grew colonies with partial hemolysis. Gram staining
of the growth revealed gram-positive cocci. Optochin and bile solubility tests were
negative. What is the most likely causative agent? (Jawetz Medical Microbiology, 23th
ed, p. 236)
A. Staphylococcus aureus C. Viridans streptococcus
B. Streptococcus pneumoniae D. Staphylococcus epidermidis

15. Charlie, 21-year old male, complaint of dysuria. Urine culture was done on
MacConkey showing colorless colonies. Biochemical test revealed K/A with H2S on
TSI, urease and phenylalanine deaminase tests were positive. What is the most likely
causative agent? (Jawetz Medical Microbiology, 23th ed, p. 249)
A. Yersinia enterocolitica C. Escherichia coli
B. Pseudomoans aeruginosa D. Proteus mirabilis
 16. Cholo, 27 years old engineer, was diagnoed with rickettsial infection. His serum
sample was for Weil-Felix test which turned out to be positive for antibodies to
Proteus OK-19 and OX-2. The serum sample was also inoculated
intraperitoneally to a male guinea pig producing scrotal swelling. What is the
most likely causative agent? (Essentials of Medical Microbiology, 5th ed., 463)
A. Rickettsia typhi C. Rickettsia tsutsugamushi
B. Rickettsia prowazeki D. Rickettsia ricketsii

16. This organism is obligately intracellular, susceptible to sulfonamide and produces

inclusion bodies that contain glycogen in tissue culture: J(awetz Medical Microbiology,
23th ed, p. 359)
A. Chlamydia trachomatis C. Ureaplasma urealyticum
B. Mycoplasma hominis D. Coxiella burnetti

17. This gram-negative, non-motile, non-lactose fermenting bacillus produces toxin

which is neurotoxic, cytotoxic and enterotoxic: (Zinsser Microbiology, 19th ed, p. 557-
558)
A. Salmonella typhi C. Escherichia coli
B. Campylobacter jenuni D. Shigella dysenteriae

18. The following characteristics differentiate the el tor biotype of Vibrio cholera from
the classic biotype EXCEPT: (Zinsser Microbiology, 19th ed, p. 567)
A. Positive VP test C. Agglutination of chicken erythrocytes
B. Positive oxidase test D. Resistance to polymyxin B

19. This gram-negative bacillus grows well in moist environment, produces blue
phenazine pigment, obtain energy from carbohydrates using the oxidative rather than
the fermentative pathway: (Zinsser Microbiology, 19th ed, p. 577)
A. Klebsiella pneumoniae C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
B. Proteus vulgaris D. Escherichia coli

20. This gram-negative, facultatively intracellular bacillus is marked by bipolar

staining and produces V and W antigens which correlate with its ability to proliferate
rapidly and cause overwhelming infection: (Zinsser Microbiology, 19th ed p. 585)
A. Yersinia pestis C. Calymmatobacterium granulomatis
B. Bacillus anthracis D. Pasteurella multocida

21. The toxin of this gram-positive obligate anaerobic organism acts on the
cholinergic nerve endings to block the release of acetylcholine: (Zinsser Microbiology,
19th ed p. 650)
A. Clostridium botulinum C. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
B. Clostridium tetani D. Bacillus anthracis

22. Ryza, 6 years old, female, was diagnosed with meningitis. CSF specimen was
cultured in CAP at 5-10% CO2. The colonies that grew were gram stained which
revealed gram-negative cocci. What is the most liley causative agent of the meningitis?
(Zinsser Microbiology, 19th ed p. 444 and 447)
A. Haemophilus influenzae C. Neisseria meningitidis
B. Streptococcus pneumoniae D. Streptococcus agalactiae

23. Jhona, 5 years old, was brought for consultation because of sore throat. PE
showed enlarged, exudative tonsillitis with large palpable, tender, cervical lymph nodes.
 A smear from the tonsils was gram stained showing gram-positive, clubbed-shaped
bacilli which lie parallel or form angles with each other. What is the most likely causative
agent? ( Zinsser Microbiology, 19th ed p. 487 and 492)
A. Clostridium tetani C. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
B. Bacillus anthracis D. Coxiella burnetti

24. Cathy, 28 years old, consulted because of dysuria. Urine was cultured on BAP.
The growth was Gram stained showing gram-positive cocci in clusters. What is the most
likely organism? ( Zinsser Microbiology, 19th ed p. 401 and 414)
A. Staphylococcus saprophyticus C. Proteus mirabilis
B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa D. Streptococcus agalactiae

25. Marie, 3 years old, was admitted with a diagnosis of acute glomerulonephritis.
Review of history revealed that she had impetigo on the buttocks. What M-protein type
of Streptococcus pyogenes is the most likely cause? (Zinsser Microbiology, 19th ed p.
424)
A. M4 C. M49
B. M12 D. M57

26. This organism grows in 6.5% NaCl, 40% bile, and can hydrolyze esculin and is
resistant to penicillin: (Zinsser Microbiology, 19th ed, p. 427-428)
A. Streptococcus bovis C. Enterococcus fecalis
B. Streptococcus pneumoniae D. Staphylococcus epidermidis

27. Sputum culture of a patient diagnosed with pneumonia showed partial hemolysis
on BAP. Biochemical tests showed the colonies which are bile-soluble. Subculture of
growth in disc containing ethylhydroxycupreine HCl showed inhibition of growth. What
is the most likely causative agent? (Jawetz Medical Microbiology, 23th ed, p. 237).
A. Streptococcus pneumoniae C. Streptococcus viridans
B. Klebsiella pneumonaie D. Haemophilus influenzae

30. What is the most useful and rapid method for the identification of Streptococcus
pneumoniae? (Zinsser Microbiology, 19th ed, p. 434)
A. Bacitracin test C. CAMP test
B. Neufeld Quellung test D. VP test

31. The capsule contributes to the invasive property of the following organisms
EXCEPT one: (Zinsser Microbiology, 19th ed, p. 447, 464, 549)
A. Neisseria menigitidis C. Hemophilus influenzae
B. Klebsiella pneumoniae D. Corynebacterium diphtheriae

32. The presence of this antigen is one of the factors that can explain the virulence of
Escherichia coli in neonatal disease: (Zinsser Microbiology, 19th ed, p. 545)
A. Vi antigen C. O antigen
B. H antigen D. K1 antigen

33. Edgar, 9 years old boy, was admitted because of fever of 5 days duration with
accompanying headache, abdominal pain, and vomiting. Enteric fever was entertained.
How are you going to confirm the diagnosis? (Zinsser Microbiology, 19th ed, p. 563)
A. Blood culture C. Polymerase chain reaction
B. Stool culture D. Serology

34. What is considered the most sensitive method to the diagnosis of whooping
cough? Jawetz Medical Microbiology, 23th ed, p. 283.
A. Direct fluorescent antibody test C. Culture isolation
B. Polymerase chain reaction D. Serology
35. The exotoxin of Pseudomonas aeruginosa and Corynebacterium diphtheriae
have the same mechanism of action: (Zinsser Microbiology, 19th ed, p. 578)
A. Inhibition of protein synthesis by blocking EF-2
B. Activation of intracellular adenyl cyclase
C. Inhibition of the release of excitatory neurotransmitter
D. Activation of extracellular guanyl cyclase

36. This highly specific laboratory test for syphilis is easy to perform, inexpensive and

sensitive: (Zinsser Microbiology, 19th ed, p. 664)

A. IgG-FTA-ABS C. MHA-TP

B. TPI D. VDRL

37. Chester, 17 years old, was brought for consultation for productive cough of three
weeks duration. On PE, she was afebrile, not in CR distress, with coarse and fine
rales appreciated on both lung fields. This is most probably caused by this gram-
negative, branched, filamentous organism that can induce the development of
hemagglutinins that will agglutinate human type-O erythrocytes when incubated
at 0oC to 4oC, but not at 37oC: (Zinsser Microbiology, 19th ed, p. 735)

A. Streptococcus pneumoniae C. Chlamydia pneumoniae

B. Klebsiella pneumoniae D. Mycoplasma pneumoniae

38. Laryngeal papilloma is commonly associated with this human papillomavirus

serotypes: (Zinsser Microbiology, 19th ed, p. 976)

A. 6 and 11 C. 45 and 52

B. 16 and 18 D. 62 and 65

39. What is the most common cause of rhinitis is all age group?

A. Adenovirus C. Parainfluenza virus

B. Rhinovirus D. Respiratory syncytial virus

40. Among these viruses, which one has the following characteristics: ssRNA,
enveloped virus with non-segmented, positive-sense genome? (Zinsser
Microbiology, 19th ed, p. 761-762)

A. Respiratory syncytial virus C. Coronavirus

B. Measles virus D. Influenza virus

41. The human immunodeficiency virus is described with the following

characteristics: (Zinsser Microbiology, 19th ed, p. 761-762)

A. ssRNA, enveloped virus with segmented, positive-sense genome

 B. ssRNA, enveloped virus with non-segmented, positive-sense genome

C. ssRNA, enveloped virus with segmented, negative-sense genome

D. ssRNA, enveloped virus with non-segmented, negative-sense genome

42. The Rhabdoviruses are described with the following characteristics: (Zinsser
Microbiology, 19th ed, p. 761-762)

A. ssRNA, enveloped virus with non-segmented, positive-sense genome

B. ssRNA, naked virus with non-segmented, positive-sense genome

C. ssRNA, enveloped virus with non-segmented, negative-sense genome

D. ssRNA, naked virus with non-segmented, negative-sense genome

43. The picornaviruses are described with the following characteristics: Zinsser
Microbiology, 19th ed, p. 761-762)

A. ssRNA, enveloped viruses with non-segmented, positive-sense genome

B. ssRNA, naked viruses with non-segmented, positive-sense genome

C. ssRNA, enveloped viruses with non-segmented, positive-sense genome

D. ssRNA, naked viruses with non-segmented, positive-sense genome

44. The hepatitis C virus is described as follows: (Zinsser Microbiology, 19th ed, p.
761-762 and 1040)

A. ssRNA, enveloped viruses with non-segmented, positive-sense genome

B. ssRNA, naked viruses with non-segmented, positive-sense genome

C. ssRNA, enveloped viruses with non-segmented, positive-sense genome

D. ssRNA, naked viruses with non-segmented, positive-sense genome

45. Which of these markers of hepatitis B infection correlates with the absence of
HBcAg and DNA polymerase, less infectivity and a better prognosis for chronic
hepatitis. (Zinsser Microbiology, 19th ed, p. 1043)

A. Anti-HBc C. Anti-HBe

B. Anti-HBd D. Anti-HBs

46. Which of these markers of HIV indicates active viral replication?

A. p24 C. gp41

B. p55 D. gp120

47. Which of the following is the only filamentous mammalian virus? Zinsser, 19th ed,
p. 761-762 and 1031

A. Ebola C. Japanese B encephalitis

 B. Dengue D. Yellow fever

48. This virus family is described with the following characteristics: double-stranded
nucleic acid, naked with segmented genome: (Zinsser Microbiology, 19th ed, p.
761-762)

A. Picornaviridae C. Coronaviridae

B. Reoviridae D. Rhabdoviridae

49. This virus shows tropism for the B lymphocytes and certain epithelial cells. It
produces nonproductive infection and transformation of B cells: (Essentials of
Medical Microbiology by Volk et al, 5th ed., p. 553-554 )

A. Human herpes 1 and 2 C. Human herpes virus 4

B. Human herpes virus 3 D. Human herpes virus 5

50. This virus undergoes antigenic shift producing major changes in the H and N
glycoproteins: (Zinsser Microbiology, 19th ed, p. 994)

A. Influenza A virus C. Parainfluenza virus

B. Respiratory syncytial virus D. Calicivirus

51. This fungus occurs as yeast in tissues of infected patients and when cultured at
room temperature occurs as mold form: (Zinsser Microbiology, 19th ed, p.1072)

A. Trichophyton mentagrophytes C. Sporothrix schenckii

B. Cladosporium werneckii D. Epidermophyton floccosum

52. Mark, 24-year old male, consulted because of hypopigmented macules on his
chest, upper back, shoulders and arms. Scrapings of the lesions were taken for
microscopic examination. Short, unbranched hyphae and numerous spherical
cells were seen. What is the most likely causative agent? Zinsser Microbiology,
19th ed, p. 1131-1132

A. Phialophora verrucosa C. Aspergillus fumigatus

B. Malassezia furfur D. Trichosporon beigellii

53. Rapid presumptive test for Candida albicans is Zinsser Microbiology, 19th ed,
p. 1142

A. Grape-like clustering of microconidia C. Multiple budding yeast cell

B. Germ tube production D. Sclerotic bodies

54. What is the most common cause of athletes foot? (Zinsser Microbiology, 19th
ed, p. 1130)

A. Trichophyton mentagrophytes C. Microsporum canis

B. Epidermophyton floccosum D. Microsporum gypseum
 55. Multiple budding yeast cell is characteristic of this fungus: Zinsser Microbiology,
19th ed, p. 1109)

A. Coccidioides immitis C. Sporothrix schenckii

B. Histoplasma capsulatum D. Paracoccidioides braziliensis

56. Charlie, 57 years old male, was admitted because of meningitis. India ink
staining of the CSF showed large, encapsulated yeast cells. What is the most
likely causative agent? Zinsser Microbiology, 19th ed, p. 1144)

A. Cryptococcus neoformans C. Coccidioides immitis

B. Candida albicans D. Histoplasma capsulatum

57. What is the diagnostic feature of chromoblastomycosis? Zinsser Microbiology,

19th ed, p. 1118

A. Spherule C. Multiple buds

B. Sclerotic bodies D. Rosetting of microconidia

58. What is the infectious particle of Coccidioides immitis? Zinsser Microbiology, 19th
ed, p. 1092)

A. Arthroconidium C. Spherule
B. Chlamydospore D. Macroconidia

57. The defining feature of this fungal infection is the presence of local swelling and
interconnecting sinuses containing sulfur granules: Jawetz Medical Microbiology, 23rd
ed, p. 633.
A. Lobos disease C. Darlings disease
B. Mycetoma D. Sporothrichosis

58. Mang Tomas, 56 year old gardener, came in with multiple subcutaneous nodules
and abscesses along the lymphatics: Jawetz Medical Microbiology, 23rd ed, p. 636.
A. Sporothrix schenckii C. Trichophyton tonsurans
B. Epidermophyton floccosum D. Pseudoallescheria boydii

61. One of the following is a type IV hypersensitivity reaction: Zinsser Microbiology,

19th ed, p. 323

A. Bronchial asthma
B. Contact dermatitis
C. ABO incompatibility
D. Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis

62. The following are mediators of non-specific cellular immunity EXCEPT

A. T and B cells C. Macrophages
B. Polymorphonuclear leukocytes D. NK cells

63. Specificity of the immunoglobulin molecule is determined by these components:

A. Variable and constant regions of the light chains
B. Variable regions of both the light and the heavy chains
C. Constant regions of both the light and heavy chains
 D. Variable and constant regions of the heavy chains

64. The cellular mediators of immediate response to cytosolic pathogens are the:
A. PMNs C. NK cells
B. T and B cells D. CRP

65. The predominant antibody found in breastmilk is the: ( Zinsser Microbiology, 19th
ed, p. 224)

A. IgA C. IgG

B. IgE D. IgM

66. This antibody molecule has neutralizing, opsonizing and complement activating
activity:
A. IgA C. IgG
B. IgE D. IgM

67. The level of this antibody approximates that of the adult at birth:
A. IgA C. IgG
B. IgE D. IgM

68. These cells have dual functions in immunity: antibody secretion and antigen
presentation:
A. B cells C. Macrophages
B. NK cells D. Dendritic cells

69. This cytokine secreted by TH1 cells enhances the microbicidal power of the
macophages:
A. TNF- C. IL-2
B. IFN- D. GM-CSF

70. The primary mediators of specific humoral immunity:

A. Antibodies C. Acute phase proteins
B. Alternate complement D. Lysozyme

71. What is the only nematode that requires intermediate host to complete its life
cycle? (Clinical Parasitology by Beaver et al, 9th ed., 246)
A. Capillaria philippinensis C. Trichuris trichiura
B. Enterobius vermicualris D. Trichinella spiralis

72. The infective larva of this parasite causes erythematous, serpiginous,

intracutaneous tunnels which is accompanied by intense itchiness: (Clinical
Parasitology by Beaver et al, 9th ed., 281)
A. Ancylostoma braziliense C. Toxocara canis
B. Strongyloides stercoralis D. Trichuris trichiura

73. The adult stage of this parasite is described to have attenuated anterior portion
and a fleshy posterior portion: (Clinical Parasitology by Beaver et al, 9th ed., 240)
A. Ancylostoma brazilinese C. Necator americanus
B. Strongyloides stercoralis D. Trichuris trichiura

74. All these parasites have a lung phase during their developmental cycle EXCEPT:
(Clinical Parasitology by Beaver et al, 9th ed., 259, 283, 310)
A. Ascaris lumbricoides C. Strongyloides stercoralis
 B. Enterobius vermicularis D.. Necator americanus

75. Embryonated ovum is the infective stage of this parasite: (Clinical Parasitology
by Beaver et al, 9th ed., 303)
A. Trichinella spiralis C. Capillaria philippinensis
B. Enterobius vermicularis D. Strongyloides stercoralis

76. This adult nematode is larviparous which means it produces larva rather than
ova: (Clinical Parasitology by Beaver et al, 9th ed., 232)
A. Capillaria philippinensis C. Enterobius vermicualris
B. Trichinella spiralis D. Trichuris trichiura

77. The most effective preventive measure against this parasite is thru thorough
freezing or cooking of food potentially carrying the parasite: (Clinical Parasitology
by Beaver et al, 9th ed., 240)
A. Trichuris trichiura C. Enterobius vermicularis
B. Trichinella spiralis D. Strongyloides stercoralis

78. When embryonated egg of this parasite is ingested, its second-stage larva
encysts in tissues such as the liver and lungs and cause hypereosinophilia:
(Clinical Parasitology by Beaver et al, 9th ed., 326-327)
A. Wuchereria bancrofti C. Toxocara canis
B. Trichinella spiralis D. Trichuris trichiura

79. A stained peripheral blood film revealed the presence of this microfilaria with two
discreet nuclei at the tip of the tail: (Clinical Parasitology by Beaver et al, 9th ed., 365)
A. Brugia malayi C. Onchocerc volvulus
B. Loa loa D. Wuchereria bancrofti

80. The ova of this parasite are NOT commonly recovered in the stool: (Clinical
Parasitology by Beaver et al, 9th ed., 303)
A. Ascaris lumbricoides C. Enterobius vermicularis
B. Trichuris trichiura D. Hookworms

81. Routine examination of a stool sample was submitted for facalysis. The result
revealed the presence of spherical cyst-like material with two nuclei and one
chromatoidal body with rounded ends. What is the most probable parasite seen?
(Clinical Parasitology by Beaver et al, 9th ed., 103)
A. Balantidium coli C. Giardia lamblia
B. Entamoeba coli D. Entamoeba histolytica

82. This parasite is transmitted by ingestion of the sporulated oocyst: (Basic

ClinicalParasitology by Brown et al, 6th ed., p.52)
A. Naegleria fowleri C. Cryptosporidium parvum
B. Trichomonas vaginalis D. Balantidium coli

83. Parasites which are rounded anteriorly and pointed posteriorly with a pair of
nuclei containing a central karyosome were seen in watery stool of a patient with severe
diarrhea. What is the most likely causative agent? (Clinical Parasitology by Beaver et
al, 9th ed., 44)
A. Trichomonas vaginalis C. Giardia lamblia
B. Chilomastix mesnilii D. Endolimax nana

84. Nelson, 32-year old engineer. Was admitted because of on and off high grade
fever with accompanying chills of two weeks duration. Peripheral blood smear showed
 ring form trophozoites and crescent-shaped gametocytes. What is the most probable
causative agent? (Clinical Parasitology by Beaver et al, 9th ed., 188)
A. Plasmodium vivax C. Plasmodium ovale
B. Plasmodium malariae D. Plasmodium falciparum

85. The infective stage of Trypanosoma cruzi is... (Clinical Parasitology by Beaver et
al, 9th ed., 90)
A. Amastigote C. Epimastigote
B. Promastigote D. Trypomastigote

86. Kalaazar is caused by this parasite: (Clinical Parasitology by Beaver et al, 9th ed.,
71)
A. Trypanosoma cruzi C. Leishmania donovani
B. Trypanosoma gambiense D. Leishmania tropica

87. CJ, 1 year old male, had dysentery described as bloody and mucoid. What are
the most probable causative agents? (Clinical Parasitology by Beaver et al, 9th
ed., 115, 216)
A. Entamoeba coli and Endolimax nana
B. Entamoeba histolytica and Balantidium coli
C. Cryptosporidium parvum and Isospora belli
D. Giardia lamblia and Trichomonas hominis

88. The infective stage of Plasmodium falciparum to the intermediate host is the
(Clinical Parasitology by Beaver et al, 9th ed., 176)
A. Trophozoites C. Merozoites
B. Sporozoites D. Gametocytes

89. This is the only trematode with a non-operculated ovum: (Clinical Parasitology by
Beaver et al, 9th ed., 418, 452, 459, 464)
A. Schistosoma japonicum C. Clonorchis sinensis
B. Fasciola hepatica D. Paragonimus westermani

90. The metacercaria is the infective stage of the following parasites EXCEPT:
(Clinical Parasitology by Beaver et al, 9th ed., 416-417, 458, 473, 481)
A. Opistorchis felineus C. Schistosoma japonicum
B. Metagonimus yokogawai D. Echinostoma ilocanum

91. Mang Pandoy, 58 years old male, had a history of four weeks cough with blood-
tinged expectorate. Sputum examination was done which revealed the presence
of operculated ova. What is the most likely causative agent? (Clinical
Parasitology by Beaver et al, 9th ed., 464)
A. Metagonimus yokogawai C. Paragonimus westermani
B. Clonorchis sinensis D. Echinostoma ilocanum,

92. This cestode requires two intermediate hosts for the completion of its
developmental cycle: (Clinical Parasitology by Beaver et al, 9th ed., 496)
A. Taenia saginata C. Echinococcus granulosus
B. Diphyllobothrium latum D. Dipylidium caninum

93 Sparganum larva is the infective stage of this parasite: (Clinical Parasitology by

Beaver et al, 9th ed., 496)
A. Diphyllobotrium latum C. Dipylidium caninum
B. Taenia solium D. Hymenolepis nana
94 These parasites are transmitted by eating improperly cooked pork EXCEPT:
(Clinical Parasitology by Beaver et al, 9th ed., 167, 240, 519, 533)
A. Taenia solium C. Trichinella spiralis
B. Echinococcus granulosus D. Toxoplasma gondii

95 This parasite utilizes the snail as its first and second intermediate hosts to
complete its developmental cycle: (Clinical Parasitology by Beaver et al, 9th ed.,
458)
A. Metagonimus yokogawai C. Paragonimus westermani
B. Clonorchis sinensis D. Echinostoma ilocanum,

96. This parasite is described as ribbon-like, scolex with 4 cup-like suckers and
rostellum with double row of large and small hooks: (Clinical Parasitology by
Beaver et al, 9th ed., 513)
A. Taenia soilum C. Hymenolepis nana
B. Taenia saginata D. Hymenolepis diminuta

97. This parasite is referred to as the dwarf tapeworm: (Basic Clinical Parasitology by
Brown, 6th ed, p. 191)
A. Hymenolepis nana C. Echinococcus granulosus
B. Hymenolepid diminuta D. Dipylidium caninum

98. Which of the following cestodes does NOT require an intermediate host to
complete its life cycle? (Basic Clinical Parasitology by Brown, 6th ed, p. 192)
A. Hymenolepis nana C. Echinococcus granulosus
B. Hymenolepid diminuta D. Dipylidium caninum

99. Proper cooking of food is the most important preventive measure against this
condition: (Clinical Parasitology by Beaver et al, 9th ed., 247, 261, 425)
A. Schistosomiasis C. Capillariasis
B. Cochin china diarrhea D. Malaria

100. Man becomes infected by this parasite by ingestion of cysticercoid larva: (Clinical
Parasitology by Beaver et al, 9th ed., 508)
A. Taenia solium C. Diphyllobothrium latum
B. Dipylidium caninum D. Metagnonimus yokogawai