MECH.

ENGG / CDC

MECHANICAL ENGINEERING

STRENGTH OF MATERIALS

1100. Strain is defined as the ratio of 1106. Tensile strength of a material is

a. change in volume to original volume obtained by dividing the maximum
b. change in length to original length load during the test by the
c. change in cross-sectional area to a. area at time of fracture
original cross sectional area b. original cross sectional area
d. any one of the above c. average of (a) and (b)
e. none of the above d. minimum area after fracture
e. none of the above
1101. Hooke's law holds good upto 1107. The impact strength of a material is
a. yield point b. limit proportionality an index of
c. breaking point d. elastic limit a. toughness b. tensile strength
e. plastic limit c. capability of being cold worked
d. hardness e. fatigue strength
1102. Young's modulus is defined as the
ratio of 1108. The intensity of stress which
a. volumetric stress and volumetric causes unit strain are called
strain a. unit stress
b. lateral stress and lateral strain b. bulk modulus
c. longitudinal stress and longitudinal c. modulus of rigidity
strain d. modulus of elasticity
d. shear stress to shear strain e. principal stress
e. longitudinal stress and lateral strain
1109. The buckling load for a given
1103. Deformation per unit length in the material depends on
direction of force is known as a. slenderness ratio and area of cross
a. strain b. lateral strain section
c. linear strain d. linear stress b. Poison's ratio and modulus of
e. unit strain elasticity
c. Slenderness ratio, ratio area of
1104. If equal and opposite forces cross section and modulus of
applied to a body tend to elongate it, elasticity
the stress so produced is called d. Poison's ratio and Slenderness ratio
a. internal resistance b. tensile
stress 1110. The property of a material by virtue
c. transverse stress d. compressive of which a body returns to its original
stress shape after removal of load is called
e. working stress a. plasticity b. elasticity
c. ductility d. malleable
1105. Module of rigidity is defined as the e. resilience
ratio of
a. longitudinal stress and longitudinal 1111. The property of a material which
strain allows it to be drawn into a smaller
b. volumetric stress and volumetric section is called
strain a. plasticity b. ductility
c. lateral stress and lateral strain c. elasticity d. malleability
d. shear stress and strain e. drawability
e. linear stress and lateral strain

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1112. Poison's ratio is defined as the 1119. When two plates are put together
ratio of and riveted with cover plates with two
a. longitudinal stress and longitudinal rows of rivets, the joint is known as
strain a. lap joint
b. longitudinal stress and lateral b. butt joint
stress c. single riveted single cover butt joint
c. lateral stress and longitudinal d. double riveted double cover butt
stress joint
d. all of the above e. single riveted double cover butt
e. none of the above joint

1113.The property of a material by virtue 1120. Increase in number of rows of

of which it can be beaten or rolled into rivets results in
plates in called a. decrease in efficiency of joint
a. malleability b. ductility b. increase in efficiency of joint
c. plasticity d. elasticity c. no change in efficiency of joint
e. reliability d. increase/decrease of efficiency of
joint dependent
1114. If a material expands freely due to e. none of the above
heating it will develop
a. thermal stresses b. tensile 1121.A riveted joint in which every rivet
stress of a row is opposite to other rivet of
c. bending d. compressive the outer row, is known as
stress a. chain riveted joint
e. no stress b. diamond riveted joint
c. cris-cross riveted joint
1115. The stress developed in a material d. zig-zag riveted joint
at breaking point in extension is called e. none of the above
a. breaking stressb. fracture stress
c. yield point stress d. ultimate 1122.The diameter of rivets in mm for a
tensile stress plate of thickness `t' mm taken as
e. proof stress a. 5 b. 2t
c. t d. 1.41vt
1116. When it is indicated that a member e. 6.05vt
is elastic, it means that when force is
applied, it will 1123. A riveted joint in which spacing of
a. not deform b. be safest the rivets is staggered in such a way
c. stretch d. no stretch that over rivet is in the middle of the
e. none of the above two rivets of the opposite row is
known as
1117. The distance between the centres a. zig-zag riveted joint
of two consecutive rivets in the same b. diamond riveted joint
row is called c. butt riveted joint
a. lead b. lap d. chain riveted joint
c. pitch d. spacing e. criss-cross riveted joint
e. clearance
1124.The weakest section of a diamond
1118. The distance between the centres riveting is the section which passes
of the rivets in adjacent rows of zig through
zag riveted joint is known as a. the first row
a. pitch b. back pitch b. the second row
c. diagonal pitch d. diametral pitch c. the central row
e. lap d. the rivet hole of the end row
e. none of the above

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c. elastic limit upto which it resists

1125. If b is the width of a plate joined by torsion, shear and bending stresses
diamond riveting of diameter (d) the d. torque required to produce a twist
efficiency of the joint is given by of one radian per unit length of
a. b+d/b b. b-d/b shaft
c. d-b/d d. b-d/d e. maximum power it can transmit at
e. b/b-d highest possible speed

1126.A beam of length l, having uniform 1132. At the principle planes

load of w kg per unit length, is a. the normal stress is maximum or
supported freely at the ends. The minimum and shear stress is zero
moments at mid span will be b. the tensile and compressive
a. wl/4 b. wl2/2 stresses are zero
c. wl2/4 d. wl2/8 c. the normal stress is zero and the
e. none of the above shear stress is maximum
d. no stress acts
1127. Twisting couple in a shaft e. all the stresses are maximum
introduces in it
a. bending moment b. deflection 1133. The longitudinal stress induced in
c. shear strain d. stress a thin walled cylindrical vessel is
e. shear stress a. pD/2t b. pD/4t
c. pD/t d. pD/3t
1128. A boiler shell 200 cm dia plate e. pD/6t
thickness 1.5 cm is subjected to
internal pressure of 1.5 MN/m2, then 1134. The circumferential stress induced
the hoop stress will be in a thin-walled cylindrical vessel is
a. 30 N/m2 b. 50 N/m2 a. pD/2t b. pD/4t
c. 100 /m2 d. 200 N/m2 c. pD/t d. pD/3t
e. 300 N/m2 e. pD/6t

1129. Longitudinal stress in a thin 1135. A cylindrical steel bar of L meters

cylinder is deforms by 1 cm. The strain in bar is
a. equal to the hoop stress a. 1/L b. 0.1/L
b. twice the hoop stress c. 0.01/L d. 100/L
c. half of the hoop stress e. none of the above
d. one-fourth of hoop stress 1136. A cylindrical steel bar having
e. fourtimes the hoop stress length of 0.25 m is subjected to a
tensile force of 2000 kg. If stress and
1130. The radius taken into consideration total elongation are not exceed 1000
in calculating the stress in a hollow kg/cm2 and 0.01 cm respectively and E
shaft subjected to torsion is = 2 x 106 kg/cm2, then its cross-
a. inner radius sectional area should be
b. outer radius a. 2 cm2 b. 2.5 cm2
c. mean radius c. 2.5 cm2 d.5 cm2
d. both inner and outer radii e. unpredictable
e. geometric mean of inner and outer
radii 1137. A structural member subjected to
an axial compressive force is called
1131. The torsional rigidity of a shaft is a. beam b. column
expressed by the c. frame d. strut
a. maximum torque it can transmit e. structure
b. number of cycles it undergoes
before failure 1138. Compare the strengths of solid and
hollow shafts both having diameter

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outside D and hollow shaft having d. moments of forces on either side of

inside diameter of D/2 in torsion. The the point
ratio of strength of solid to hollow e. all of the above
shafts in torsion will be
a. 0.5 b. 0.75 1144. The bulk modulus of a material is
c. 15/16 d. 1/16 defined as the ratio of
e. 0.25 a. volume change to modulus of
elasticity
1139. 100 KW is to be transmitted by b. stress intensity to volumetric strain
each of two separate shafts. A is c. volume change to original volume
turning at 250 rpm and B at 300 rpm. d. pressure applied to change in the
Which shaft must have greater volume
diameter e. volumetric strain to the stress
a. A intensity
b. B
c. both will have same 1145. The bending moment on a section
d. unpredictable diameter is maximum where shearing force
e. none of the above a. is maximum b. is minimum
c. is equal d. changes sign
1140. Torsional rigidity of a solid circular e. is zero
shaft of diameter `d' is proportional to
a. d b. d2 1146. A beam is said to be uniform
c. 1/d2 d. d4 strength, if
e. 1/d4 a. B.M is same throughout the beam
b. shear stress is same throughout the
1141. The elongation of a close coiled beam
helical spring subjected to tensile load c. deflection is same throughout the
is proportional to beam
a. mean diameter of spring d. bending stress is same at every
b. reciprocal of length of spring section along its longitudinal axis
c. diameter of wire of coil e. none of the above
d. shear modulus of the material of
spring 1147. Two beams have same width but
e. reciprocal of mean diameter of one beam has double the depth of the
spring other. The elastic strength of double
depth beam compared to other beam
1142. The reactions at each support of will be
beam can be determined from a. double b. four times
following condition of equilibrium c. six times d. eight times
a. algebraic sum of all vertical forces e. none of the above
is zero
b. algebraic sum of all horizontal 1148. Two beams have same depth but
forces is zero one beam has double the width of the
c. algebraic sum of moments about other. The elastic strength of double
any point is zero width beam compared to other beam
d. all of the above will be
e. none of the above a. same
b. double
1143. Bending moment at any point is c. three times
equal to algebraic sum of d. four times
a. all vertical forces e. none of the above
b. all horizontal forces
c. forces on either side of the point 1149. Two beams have same width and
depth. The span of one is twice the

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span of other. The elastic strength of e. none of the above

longer span beam compared to other
beam will be 1156. When the diameter of a shaft is
a. same b. half doubled, its flexural rigidity is
c. double d. one-fourth increased
e. none of the above a. twice b. four times
c. eight times d. sixteen times
1150. If a shaft of radius r and polar
moment of inertia J be subjected to 1157. Maximum deflection in a beam
bending moment M and torque T, then supported freely at both ends due to a
maximum combined shear stress is central load P at middle is
equal to a. Pl3/48El b. pl3/32El
3
a. r/j(M2+T2) b. j/r(M2+T2) c. pl /96El d. pl3/64El
3
c. 2r/j(M +T ) d. r/j(M/2+M 2T2)
2 2
e. pl /128El
e. r/j[(M2+T2)/2]
1158. Maximum deflection in a cantilever
1151. A cantilever beam is deflected by a beam of length `l' carrying a load` P' at
due to load P. If load is doubled then its end will be
deflection compared to earlier case a. pl3/3El b. pl3/8El
3
will be changed by a factor of c. pl /32El d. pl3/64El
3
a. 2 b. 1/2 e. pl /128El
c. 1/8 d. 8
e. 4 1159. Maximum deflection case of a
cantilever beam carrying uniformly
1152. A cantilever beam is deflected by D distributed load w per unit length will
due to load P. If beam width is be
doubled, then deflection compared to a. wl4/El b. wl4/8El
4
earlier case will be changed by a c. wl /4El d. (5/64)+(wl4/El)
4
factor e. (5/384)/(wl /El)
a. 2 b. 1/2
c. 1/8 d. 8 1160. The ratio of central deflection due
e. 4 to a central load in the case of a beam
freely supported at both ends to the
1153. In a filliot weld, the maximum load beam fixed at both ends will be
that can be applied is equal to a. 1/2 b. 2
a. permissible shearing stress(S s) c. 1/4 d. 4
fillet size fillet length(L) e. none of the above
b. 0.707 (Ss) fillet size L 1161. For a simply supported beam
c. (Ss fillet size L)2 having load at the centre the bending
d. S Ss fillet size L moment will be
e. none of the above a. minimum at support
b. minimum at the centre
1154. The equivalent length of a column c. maximum at the support
supported firmly at both ends is d. minimum and maximum could be
a. 0.1 b. 0.71 any where, along the length
c. 0.51 d. 1 e. none of the above
e. none of the above
1162. A long column fails by
1155. The equivalent length of a column a. crushing b. tension
supported firmly at one-end and free c. shearing d. buckling
at other end is e. buckling and crushing
a. 21 b. 0.71
c. 1 d. 0.51 1163. The value of M.I for a solid shaft of
diameter `d' is equal to

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 MECH. ENGG / CDC

a. d2/32 b. d2/64 c. /32 Ssd3 d. /64 Ssd3

c. d4/16 d. d3/32 e. /16 Ssd4
e. d3/16

1164. Torque in a solid shaft of diameter

`d' and shear strength of Ss is given by
a. /8 Ssd3 b. /16 Ssd3

APPLIED MECHANICS

1165. If three vectors are such that three slides down, at one point it will leave
sides of a triangle taken in order, then the surface of the sphere. At that
their resultant is point, its height from the ground is
a. 3 side of the triangle a. 2/3r b. 5/3r
b. 0 c. (r2+2g) d. (2r/mg)
c. area of the triangle
d. none of the above 1173. The value of gravitational constant
is
1166. The time taken to reach the a. 7.3 10-8 b. 6.67 10-11N.m2/kg2
maximum height for a body, projected c. 9.31 m/s 2
d. 13.38 10-
vertically upwards is, (initial velocity- 23 2
kgf.m /kg2

U) height `H',
a. U/g b. 2U/g 1174. The value of `g' at a height equal to
c. v2gh d. none of the above the radius of the earth from the
ground is
1167. The greatest height reached by a a. 1/8 times g value on the surface of
projectile, with velocity of projection, the earth
u & angle of projection is b. 1/3 times g value on the surface of
a. (USin)/g b. (2U Sin)/g the earth
c. (U2 Sin2)/2g d. (U2 Sin2)/g c. 2 times g value on the surface of
1168. The Trajectory of a projectile is the earth
a. hyperbola b. semiellipse d. 1/4 times g value on the surface of
c. parabola d. sine curve the earth
e. can't be determined with the given
1169. The magnitude of centripetal data
acceleration is
a. U2/r b. U2/2 1175. The escape velocity of a body is
c. IW d. 2N a. constant
b. proportional to its mass
1170. The relation between frinctional c. proportional to its
angle & frinctional d. none of the above distance from the
a. = tan centre of earth
b. = Sin
c. =cos 1176. Bulk modulus is defined as
d. =/4+ , in radians a. P/(V/V) b. P/(V/P)
c. (V/V)/P d. (V/P)/P
1171. The period time of conical
pendulum is, 1177. Reciprocal of bulk modulus is
a. 2 h/g b. mw2l called
c. 1 d. none of the above a. Poison's constant
1172. A particle of mass m slides from b. Elastic constant
rest from the maximum point on the c. Co-efficient of restitution
outside of a sphere of radius `r'. As it d. none of the above

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1178. If three non-parallel forces acting 1183. Angular momentum is

upon a body produce equilibrium, then
a. their points of action should be
collinear
b. F12 + F22 + F22 = 0
c. F1F2 = F2F3 = F1F3 = constant
d. their lines of action should be
concurrent
1179. `Baking' in mechanics means
a. negotiating a curved track
b. giving a slope for the road
depending
c. designing the wings of the
aeroplane
d. measuring the air resistance
1180. A conical pendulum is
a. same as simple pendulum
b. same as compound pendulum
c. same as simple harmonic
d. none of the above motion
1181. Turbo jets require very long run
ways because they want, ram air
pressure at their inlet
a. to pick up speed
b. to steady
c. none of the above
1182. The co-efficient of elasticity
between two load balls of each 0.25
kgs is 0.2 the same between two lead
balls of each 0.5 kgs is
a. 0.4
b. 0.1
c. depends upon the radius
d. none of the above
MACHINE DESIGN
a. momentum angle of rotation, in
radians
b. momentum tan (angle of rotation)
c. momentum acceleration
d. torque
e. none of the above
1184. 1 Faraday is
a. 96.5 coulombs b. 96500 coulombs
c. 10650 coulombs d. none of the
above
1185. Virtual work is the
a. work that is done by virtual force
b. work that should have been done by
a force
c. work that will be done, in the
absence of friction
d. none of the above
1186. The following turbine can be used
as a turbine and as well as a pump
a. Pelton wheel b. Francis turbine
c. Kaplan turbined. De-Laval turbine
1187. The strongest joint of the following
is
a. riveted joint b. welded joint
c. threaded joint d. knuckle joint
1188. Soderberg line is related to
a. refrigeration & air conditioning
b. cooling curve for alloys
c. pressure variation with height in the
atmosphere
d. fluctuating stresses

1189. The ultimate strength of steel in a. T/bt2 b. T/2bt2

tension in comparison to shear is in c. 2T/bt2 d. 3T/bt 2
their ratio of e. T/2bt
a. 1 : 1 b. 2 : 1
c. 3 : 2 d. 1 : 2 1191. For a rectangular cross-section
e. 1 : 2 beam subjected to a shearing force F,
the maximum shearing stress induced
1190. For a long and narrow cross will be
section (i.e. ratio of b/t breadth `b' and a. F/bt b. 2F/bt
thickness `t' above 10) bar subjected c. 3F/2bt d. F/2bt
to torsion T, the value of maximum e. none of the above
shear stress will be

64
 MECH. ENGG / CDC

1192. Stress concentration is caused due c. 4 d. /4

to e. none of the above
a. variation in properties of material
from point to point in a member 1198. The designation M 33 x 2 of a bolt
b. pitting at points or areas at which means
loads on a member are applied a. metric threads of 33 nos. in 2 cm
c. abrupt change of section b. metric threads of with cross section
d. all of the above of 33 cm2
e. none of the above c. metric threads of 33 mm outside
diameter and 2 mm pitch
1193. Endurance limit or fatigue limit is d. bolt of 33 mm nominal diameter
the maximum stress that having 2 threads per cm
a member can withstand for a infinite e. none of the above
number of load applications without
failure when subjected to a. 1199. Which of the following acts as a
dynamic loading permanent fastening
b. static loading a. bolts and nuts b. keys
c. combined static and dynamic c. cotters d. rivets
loading e. screws
d. completely reversed loading
e. all of the above 1200. If threads on a bolt are left hand,
threads on nut will be
1194. The fatigue limit of a material a. right hand with same pitch
a. is greatly decreased by poor surface b. left hand with same pitch
conditions c. could be left or right hand
b. remains same irrespective of d. right hand with fine pitch
surface conditions e. left hand with fine pitch
c. depends mainly on core
composition 1201. Taper on the cotter and slot is
d. is dependent upon yield strength of provided
material a. on both the sides
e. none of the above b. on one side only
c. on none of the sides
1195. Cold working d. may be provided anywhere
a. increases the fatigue strength e. none of the above
b. decreases the fatigue strength
c. has no influence on fatigue strength 1202. The edges of the plates for
d. alone has no influence on fatigue cylindrical vessels are usually beveled
strength to an angle of 80 for
e. none of the above a. reducing stress concentration
b. ease of manufacture
1196. Resistance to fatigue of a material c. safety
is measured by d. fullering and caulking
a. young's modulus e. all of the above
b. coefficient of elasticity
c. elastic limit 1203. Spring index is `C'
d. ultimate tensile strength a. ratio of coil diameter to wire
e. endurance limit diameter
b. load required to produce unit
1197. The deflection of a cantilever beam deflection
under load W is . If its width is halved, c. its capability of storing energy
then the deflection under load W will d. indication of quality of spring
be e. none of the above
a. 2 b. /2

65
 MECH. ENGG / CDC

1204. Spring stiffness is e. none of the above

a. ratio of coil diameter to wire
diameter 1211. Strength of a rivet in bearing is
b. load required to produce unit given by
deflection a. P = St (p-d)t b. P = Sb t d
c. its capability of storing energy c. P = -(/4)d2.Ss d. P = -(/4)d2.St
d. its ability to absorb shocks e. P = Sb (p-d)t
e. none of the above
1212. For riveted joints, the types of joint
1205. When two springs are in series preferred is
(having stiffness K), the equivalent a. lap joint
stiffness will be b. butt joint
a. K b. K/2 c. overlapping joint
c. 2K d. K/4 d. any of the above
e. 1/K e. none of the above

1206. If two springs are in parallel then 1213. The distance from the centre line
their overall stiffness will be of the row of rivet holes nearest the
a. half b. same edge of plate to edge of plate should
c. double d. unpredictable be (where d = diameter of rivet)
e. none of the above a. d b. 1-1.5d
c. 1.5-2.5d d. 2.0-2.5d
1207. In hydrodynamic bearings e. 2.5-3.0d
a. the oil film pressure is generated
only by the rotation of the journal 1214. In the design of a riveted joint,
b. the oil film is maintained by efforts should be made to make it
supplying oil under pressure strong against failure due to
c. do not require external supply of a. tearing
lubricant b. shearing
d. grease is used for lubrication c. bearing
e. none of the above d. equal against tearing, shearing and
bearing
1208. The usual clearance provided in e. none of the above
hydrodynamic bearing per mm of
diameter of shaft is 1215. If the tearing efficiency of a riveted
a. 0.1 micron b. 0.01 micron joint is 60% then the ratio of diameter
c. 1 micron d. 10 microns to pitch of rivet is,
e. 25 microns a. 0.20 b. 0.33
c. 0.40 d. 0.50
1209. In hydrostatic bearings e. 0.60
a. the oil film pressure is generated
only by the rotation of the journal 1216. Thickness of strap for double strap
b. the oil film is maintained by joint in terms of thickness of plate `t'
supplying oil under pressure is equal to
c. do not require external supply of a. 0.4 t b. 0.6 t to t
lubricant c. 1.2 t d. 1.75 t
d. grease is used for lubrication e. 2 t
e. none of the above

1210. In V-belt drive, belt touches 1217. The following type of rivet head is
a. at bottom used for boiler plate riveting
b. at sides only a. snap b. round
c. both at bottom and sides c. spherical d. diamond
d. could touch anywhere e. counter sunk

66
 MECH. ENGG / CDC

b. butt joint
1218. Factor of safety is the ratio of c. welded joint
a. yield stress/working stress d. any one of the above
b. tensile stress/working stress e. none of the above
c. compressive stress/working stress
d. bearing stress/working stress 1224. In welded joint the throat of weld
e. bearing stress/yield stress as compared to size of weld is
a. about same size
1219. In an eccentric riveted connection, b. about 0.7 times
the rivets have to resist c. about 0.5 times
a. linear displacement d. about 0.25 times
b. rotary displacement e. about 1.25 times
c. linear as well as rotary
displacements 1225. Thick cylinders are designed by
d. linear or rotary displacement a. Lame's equation
e. none of the above b. calculating radial stress which is
uniform
1220. Efficiency of a riveted joint is the c. thick cylinder theory
ratio between d. any one of the above
a. tearing strength of the joint to the e. none of the above
strength of a pitch length of the
solid plate 1226. Oldham's coupling is used to
b. shearing strength of the joint to the connect two shafts which
strength of a pitch length of the a. have lateral misalignment
solid plate b. whose axes intersect at a small
c. bearing strength of the joint to the angle
strength of a pitch length of the c. are not is exact alignment
solid plate d. is the simplest type of rigid
d. the minimum of the three strengths coupling
of a joint to the strength of a pitch e. all of the above
length of the solid plate
e. none of the above 1227. In the flange coupling the two
flanges are coupled together by means
1221. According to I.B.R the following of bolts fitted in
type of joint is preferred for a. reamed holes
longitudinal joint b. machined holes
a. lap joint c. threaded holes
b. butt joint d. gasketed holes
c. welded joint e. as cast holes
d. any one of the above
e. none of the above 1228. The holes in the flange coupling for
coupling the two flanges together by
1222. A riveted joint may fail due to bolts are reamed because it permits
a. shearing of the rivet a. equal sharing of load by bolts
b. tearing off the plate at an edge b. avoidance of stress concentration
c. crushing of the rivet c. avoidance of any injury during
d. tearing off the plate across a row of dismantling
rivets d. less wear, tear and vibrations
e. any or all of the above reasons e. full utilisation of power

1223. According to I.B.R the following 1229. The sleeve of muff coupling is
type of point is preferred for designed as a
circumferential joint a. thin vessel b. thick vessel
a. lap joint c. solid shaft d. hollow shaft

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 MECH. ENGG / CDC

e. all of the above a. (P/EI) (l/2) = -/2

1230. Muff coupling is used to join two
shafts which
a. have lateral misalignment
b. whose axes intersect at a small
angle
c. are not in exact alignment
d. is the simplest type of rigid
coupling
e. all of the above
1231. Keys are normally made from
b. (P/EI) (l/2) =
c. (P/EI) (2l) = /2
d. (P/EI) l = /2
e. none of the above
1237. The sharing stress in a helical
spring of wire diameter `d' and having
mean diameter `D', supporting a
compressive load `F' is given by
a. (2FD/ d3) K b. (4FD/d3) K
c. (8FD/d3) K d. (16FD/d3) K
e. (32FD/d ) K
3

a. cold rolled mild steel bars

b. forged steel 1238. The Wahl stress factor `K' for
c. hot rolled mild steel bars springs of spring index C = D/d = (Mean
d. cold rolled carbon steel dia of coil/wire diameter) is given by
e. machined stainless steel a. 4C-1/4C-2 + 0.615/C
b. C-4/4C-4 + 0.615/C
1232. Screws used for power c. 4C-4/4C-1 + 0.615/C
transmission should have d. 4C-1/4C-4 + 0.615/C
a. high efficiency e. 4C-1/C-4 + 0.615/C
b. strong teeth
c. finished threads 1239. Value of Wahl stress factor `K' for
d. high efficiency and strong teeth springs with increase in value of `C'
e. proper heat treatment a. decreases linearly
b. increases
1233. Bushed pin flexible coupling is c. remains same
used to join two shafts which d. decreases exponentially
a. have lateral misalignment e. increases exponentially
b. whose axes intersect at a small
angle 1240. The deflection of helical spring is
c. are not in exact alignment directly and inversely proportional
d. is the simplest type of rigid respectively to
coupling a. D2, d2 b. D3 , d2
e. all of the above 4
c. D , d 3
d. D3 , d4
4 4
e. D , d
1234. Slenderness ratio is Where D = mean diameter of coil and
a. shaft dia/Shaft length d = wire diameter
b. length of strut/least radius of
gyration 1241. Cocentric helical springs should be
c. column width/column depth a. wound in same direction
d. max. size of column/min. size of b. wound with opposite hand helices
column c. could be wound in any direction
e. none of the above d. direction of winding depends on the
load to be carried
1235. Rankine's formula is valid upto the e. none of the above
slenderness ratio of
a. 60 b. 120 1242. Allowable stresses in compression
c. 180 d. 240 springs for most of the materials with
e. 300 increase in size of wire will
a. increase b. decrease
1236. Euler's buckling or cripping load c. remain same d. unpredictable
corresponds to load `p'such that

68
 MECH. ENGG / CDC

e. none of the above

1249. For spur gear, the product of
1243. Which is true statement about circular pitch and diametral pitch is
Belleville springs equal to
a. these are used for dynamic loads a. unity b. 1/
b. these are composed of coned discs c. d. module
which may be stacked upto obtain e. pitch circle diameter
variety of load deflection
characteristics 1250. The part of the tooth between the
c. these are commonly used in clocks pitch circle and dendendum circle is
and watches called
d. these take up torsional loads a. half tooth b. flank
e. these do not exist c. face d. upper tooth
e. lower tooth
1244. Angle of twist of shaft is inversely
proportional to 1251. Stub tooth in gears
a. shaft diameter a. is standard tooth
b. (shaft diameter)2 b. is longer than standard tooth
c. (shaft diameter)3 c. is shorter than standard tooth
d. (shaft diameter)4 d. has special profile
e. none of the above e. is used where great precision in
transmission is required
1245. For a shaft subjected to a torque T
and bending moment `M', the 1252. Backlash in spur gears is the
equivalent twisting moment is a. difference between the dendendum
a. (T2+M2)/2 b. 2(Q2+T2) of one gear and the addendum of
c. [(M/2)+M +T ] d. (M2+T2)
2 2
the mating gear
e. [T2+(M2/2)] b. difference between the tooth space
of one gear and the tooth thickness
1246. In a horizontal flat belt drive, it is of the mating gear measured on the
customary to use pitch circle
a. bottom side of the belt as the slack c. intentional extension of centre
side during the transmission of distance between two gears
power d. does not exist
b. top side of the belt as the slack side e. none of the above
c. crossed-belting
d. idler in between 1253. Lewis equation in gears used to
e. none of the above find the
a.tensile stress
1247. Centrifugal tension in belts b. compressive stress in bending
a. reduces power transmission c. contact stress
b. increases power transmission d. fatigue stress
c. does not affect power transmission e. endurance stress
d. increases power transmission at
high speed and decreases it at 1254. Involute profiles in gears are very
lower speed popular because of the following
e. un predictable advantage
a. pressure angle is constant
1248. The standard angle between the b. face and flank of a tooth form a
sides of V-belt is continuous curve
a. 25 b. 30 c. all gears having the same pitch and
c. 40 d. 45 pressure angle work correctly
e. 60 together
d. involute rack is a straight line

69
 MECH. ENGG / CDC

e. all of the above c. 9/(9+V) d. [0.75/(1+V)]+0.25

e. none of the above
1255. The value of form factor used in where v = pitch line velocity in m/sec
design of gear is
a. independent of the size of the tooth 1260. If both pinion and gear are made of
b. depends on the number of teeth on the same material, then the load
a gear transmitting capacity is decided by
c. depends on the system of the teeth a. gear
d. all of the above b. pinion
e. (b) and (c) above c. any one of the two
d. both should be considered
1256. Compared to spur gears, helical independently for tooth strength
gears e. there are many other considerations
a. run more smoothly 1261. Zero axial thrust is experienced in
b. run with more vibrations and noise a. helical gears b. bevel gears
c. run exactly alike c. spiral gears d. worm gears
d. consume more power e. herringbone gears
e. consume less power
1262. Bearing characteristic number
1257. In helical gears, the right hand relating Z-absolute viscosity of
helix will mesh with lubricant, N-speed of journal and P-
a. right hand helix bearing pressure on projected bearing
b. left hand helix area is
c. both of the above a. ZN/p b. p/NZ
d. any one of the above c. Z/pN d. N/pZ
e. none of the above e. pN/Z

1258. The limiting pitch line velocity of 1263. Antifraction bearings are
commercially cut gears is about a. sleeve bearings
a. 1 m/sec b. 5 m/sec b. gas lubricated bearings
c. 10 m/sec d. 20 m/sec c. ball and roller bearings
e. 30 m/sec d. special bearings requiring no
lubricant
1259. For accurately cut gears operating e. plastic bearings
at velocities upto 20 m/sec, the
velocity factor is equal to
a. 3/(3+V) b. 6/(6+V)

PRODUCTION TECHNOLOGY

1264. In arc welding, eyes need to be
protected against
a. intense glare b. sparks
c. infra-red rays d. ultraviolet rays
e. infra-red and ultra-violet rays
1265. In which type of welding a pool of
molten metal is used
a. electroslag b. submerged arc
c. MIG d. TIG
e. thermit welding
1266. The main criterion for selection of
electrode diameter in are welding is
a. material to be welded
b. type of welding process
c. thickness of material
d. voltage used
e. current used
1267. The material used for coating the
electrode is called
a. protective layerb. binder
c. slag d. deoxidiser

70
 MECH. ENGG / CDC

e. flux e. none of the above

1268. Which of the following welding 1276. TIG welding is best suited for
process uses non-consumable welding
electrode a. mild steel b. stainless steel
a. LASER welding b. MIG welding c. carbon steel d. silver
c. TIG welding d. Iron beam e. alumimnium
welding
e. Plasma welding 1277. The advantages of electroslag
welding welding are
1269. Following gases, are used in a. ability to weld metals of great
tungsten inert gas welding thickness in a singlepass without
a. hydrogen and oxygen calling for joint preparation
b. CO2 and H2 b. high welding speed
c. argon and neon c. little distortion and good stress
d. helium and neon distribution across the weld
e. argon and helium d. protection from contamination
e. all of the above
1270. Projection welding is
a. multi-spot welding process 1278. In MIG welding, helium or argon is
b. continuous spot welding process used in order to
c. used to form mesh a. provide cooling effect
d. used to make cantilevers b. act as flux
e. none of the above c. act as shielding medium
d. facilitate welding process
1271. Grey cast iron is best welded by e. protect electrode
a. TIG b. arc
c. MIG d. submerged arc 1279. Acetylene is stored in the gas
e. oxy-acetylene cylinders
a. in gaseous form
1272. Seam welding is b. in liquid form
a. multi-spot welding process c. in solid form
b. continuous spot welding process d. under high pressure
c. used to form mesh e. under low pressure
d. used for welding cylindrical objects 1280. In sand moulding the bottom most
e. none of the above part of flask is called
a. cope b. cheek
1273. Upto what thickness of plate, edge c. drag d. flask bottom
preparation for welding is not required e. none of the above
a. 4 mm b. 6 mm
c. 8 mm d. 10 mm 1281. The purpose of gate is to
e. 15 mm a. feed the casting at a rate
consistent with the rate of
1274. Preheating is essential in welding solidification
a. high speed steel b. stainless steel b. act as reservoir as for molten metal
c. cast iron d. german silver c. help feed the casing until all
e. aluminium solidification takes place
d. feed molten metal from pouring
1275. In thermit welding, the iron oxide basin to gate
and aluminium oxide are mixed in the e. none of the above
proportion of
a. 1:1 b. 3:1 1282. Honey combing/sponginess refer to
c. 1:3 d. mixture of different a. presence of impurities in molten
oxides metal

71
 MECH. ENGG / CDC

b. molten metal at low temperature c. diamond d. emerald

c. formation of a number of cacvities e. aluminium
in close proximity in casting
d. defects due to poor heat treatment 1291. A 20 ton press implies that the
e. surface defects produced during hot a. weight of press is 20 tons
working b. press can handle works weighing
upto 20 tons
1283. Steel and cast iron pipes are cast c. it can exert pressure upto 20 tons
by d. its foundation should be designed
a. die casting for 20 tons
b. continuous casting e. its turnover in a day is 20 tons
c. true centrifugal casting
d. centrifuging 1292. The fatigue strength of metal is
e. investment casting improved by setting up compressive
stress in the surface by a process
1284. Large and heavy castings are made known as
by a. lancing b. spinning
a. green sand moulding b. pit moulding c. hemming d. shot-peening
c. dry sand moulding d. pressure e. slugging
moulding
e. machine moulding 1293. In drawing operation the metal
flows due to
1285. Graphite moulds are used for a. ductility b. work hardening
continuous casting process in order to c. plasticity d. shearing
provide e. yielding
a. non-wetting agent
b. self lubricating qualities 1294. The process of jigs and fixtures is
c. chilling effect to
d. quick solidification of a. increase production rate
e. machine moulding metal b. increase machining accuracy
c. facilitate interchangeable
1286. cooling is the operation of manufacture
a. cold forging b. hot forging d. enable employ less skilled
c. cold extrusion d. piercing operators
e. reeling e. all of the above

1287. Seaging is an operation of 1295. Which of the following methods

a. hot rolling b. forging produces gear by generating process
c. extrusion d. piercin a. hobbing b. casting
e. drawing c. punching d. milling
e. broaching
1288. Seamless tubes are made by
a. piercing b. extrusion 1296. Gears are best mass produced by
c. cold rolling d. plug rolling a. milling b. hobbing
e. rolling mill c. shaping d. forming
e. casting
1289. In four high rolling milol the bigger
rollers are called 1297. Which of the following is a gear
a. guide rolls b. back up rolls finishing operation
c. main rolls d. support rolls a. hobbing b. shaping
e. none of the above c. milling d. shaving or
burnishing
1290. Laser is produced by e. none of the above
a. graphite b. ruby

72
 MECH. ENGG / CDC

1298. In lathe, the carriage and tail stock 1305. The size of a power circular saw is
are guided on indicated by the
a. same guideways a. blade diameter
b. different guideways b. motor horse power
c. not guided on guideways c. saw weight d. number of gullets
d. not guided on guideways e. maximum depth of out
e. none of the above
1306. Circular saw blades are specified
1299. Tumbler gears are the gears used by their diameter, number of teeth and
in a. gauge b. maximum rpm
a. milling machine to change direction c. arbor-hole d. number of gullers
of rotation by 90 e. all of the above
b. dividing head
c. lathe for increasing/decreasing 1307. Tool life is said to be over if
cutting speed a. poor surface finish is obtained
d. lathe for cutting threads b. sudden increase in power and
e. lathe for reversing direction of cutting force with chatting take
rotation place
c. overheating and fuming due to
1300. In machine tools, chatter is due to friction start
a. free vibrations b. random d. all of the above
vibrations e. it can not longer machine
c. forced vibrations d. self excited
vibrations 1308. Tool life is most affected by
e. cutting vibrations a. cutting speed
b. tool geometry
1301. Half nut is connected with c. feed and depth
a. milling machine b. locking d. microstructure of material
device e. not using coolant and being cut
c. jigs and fixtures d. thread lubricant
cutting on lathe
e. quick engaging and disengaging 1309. The spindle speeds of machine
devices tools are usually designed to follow
a. arithmetical progression
1302. Lathe spindle has got b. geometrical progression
a. internal threads b. external threads c. harmonical progression
c. taper threads d. no threads d. logarithmic progression
e. none of the above e. random number theory

1303. Quick return mechanism is used in 1310. Flank wear occurs mainly on
a. milling machine b. broaching a. nose part, front relief face and side
machine relief face
c. grinding machine d. slotter b. nose part and top face
c. cutting edges
e. welding machine d. all of the above
e. front face
1304. Which of the following machines
does not require quick return 1311. In a capstan lathe, the turret is
mechanism mounted on
a. slotter b. planer a. a short side of ram sliding on the
c. shaper d. broaching saddle
e. none of the above b. the saddle sliding on the bed
c. compound rest
d. back tool post

73
 MECH. ENGG / CDC

e. head stock a. ring gauge b. snap gauge

c. plug gauge d. dial gauge
1312. Galvanising is e. micrometer screw gauge
a. a zinc diffusion process
b. an oxidizing process used for 1319. The included angle of lathe centres
aluminmium and magnesium is
articles a. 30 b. 45
c. a process used for making thin c. 60 d. 90
phosphate coatings on steel to act e. 120
as a base or primer for enamels and 1320. The taper min lathe spindle
paints a. 1 : 10 b. 1 : 12
d. is the process of coating of zinc by c. 1 : 15 d. 1 :20
hot dipping e. 1 : 30
e. none of the above
1321. In electro-discharge machining, the
1313. The C.L.A. valve is used for tool is made of
measurement of a. tungsten carbide
a. metal hardness b. properly heat treated alloy steel
b. surface roughness c. diamond
c. surface dimensions d. brass or copper
d. sharpness of tool edge e. stainless steel
e. machinability
1322. Which is false statement about
1314. The front rake required to machine electro-discharge machining
brass by H.S.S tool is a. it can machine very hard materials
a. 15 b. 10 b. very good surface finish is obtained
c. 5 d. 0 c. section to be machined should be
e. -5 thick
d. metal removal rate is very slow
1315. The best all-round coolant for e. even heat treated metals can be
carbide tools is machined
a. soluble oil b. kerosene
c. terpentine oil d. compressed air 1323. In electro-chemical milling
operation, the gap between tool and
e. soap water work is kept of the order of
a. no gap, two are in contact with each
1316. Undersutting is the operation of other
cutting b. 0.25 mm c. 0.75 mm
a. below the specified size d. 1.25 mm e. 5 mm
b. a deep groove
c. a spital 1324. A big advantage of electro-
d. a groove next to shoulder chemical machining over electro-
e. with high depth of cut discharge machining is that
a. it can cut harder materials
1317. Which of the following taper turning b. it is more accurate and precise
methods can be used only for turning c. it consumes less power
external taper d. its cost is low
a. form tool b. tailstock offset e. tool wear is negligible
c. taper attachment d. compound
rest 1325. The size of abrasive grains in
e. all of the above abrasive jet machining varies between
a. 1 to 10 microns
1318. The following gauge is used to b. 10 to 50 microns
check holes c. 50 to 100 microns

74
 MECH. ENGG / CDC

d. 100 to 500 microns a.production of tapped holes and

e. 500 to 1000 microns threads in brittle materials
b. die casting
1326. Which is correct statement about c. machining sintered carbides,
electro-chemical grinding operations diamonds etc.
a. grinding pressure is high d. all of the above
b. very hard materials can be ground e. none of the above
precisely
c. defects like grinding cracks, 1332. Ultrasonic machining method is
tempering of work take place bed suited for
d. dimensional control is little problem a. brittle materials
e. none of the above b. stainless steel
c. plastics d. lead
1327. LASER stands for e. non-ferrous alloys
a. light amplification by stimulated
emission of radiation 1333. The following non-conventional
b. light amplification by strong method of machining essentially
emission of radiation requires electrolyte
c. light amplification by stimulated a. EDM b. ECM
energy of radiation C. LBM d. UTM
d. light amplificant by stimulated e. IBM
emission of radioactivity
e. none of the above 1334. Electro-discharge machining uses
the following dielectric fluid
1328. Laser beam machining process is a. water b. aqueous salt
used for machining solution
a. very thick materials c. sodium hydroxide
b. thin materials e. lard oil
c. heavy sections
d. is not used for machining 1335. Crater wear occurs mainly due to
e. there is no such limitation following phenomena
a. abrasion b. diffusion
1329. In abrasive jet machining process, c. oxidation d. adhesion
the abrasive particles should be e. all of the above
a. perfectly round
b. made of diamond powder 1336. Chips with built up edge can be
c. around 1 mm in size expected when machining
d. of irregular shape a. hard material
e. none of the above c. tough material
e. none of the above
1330. Ultrasonic machining removes
material by 1337. Crater wear takes place in a single
a. direction vibration of tool with point cutting tool at
workpiece a. flank b. side rake
b. using abrasive slurry between tool c. face d. tip
and work e. none of the above
c. vibrating air in vicinity of tool and
workpiece and making no contact 1338. 18-4-1 high speed steel contains
d. all of the above following elements in the ratio of 18-4-
e. none of the above 1
a. tungsten (W), Chromium (Cr) and
1331. Ultrasonic machining finds Vanadium (V)
application for b. Cr, V, W c. W, Mn, Cr
d. W, V, Cr d. W, Cr, Mn

75
 MECH. ENGG / CDC

d. any one of the above

1339. The main function the cutting fluid e. Leonard mechanism
is to
a. provide lubrication 1347. Size of planer is specified by
b. cool the tool and work-piece a. size of table
c. wash away the chips b. stroke length
d. improve surface finish c. size of table and height
e. all of the above d. number of tools which
e. h.p. of motor operate at a time
1340. Which of the following is used as
cutting fluid for the turning and milling 1348. The difference between planer and
operation on alloy steels shaper is that is former case
a. CO2 b. kerosene a. tool moves over stationary work
c. soluble oil d. heavy water b. tool moves over reciprocating work
e. sulphurised mineral oil c. tool can machine internal as well as
external details
1341. Continuous chips will be formed d. both tool and job reciprocate
when machining speed is e. tool is stationary and job
a. high b. low reciprocates
c. medium d. irrespective of cutting
e. away from the design value 1349. The binding material used in
cemented carbide tools is
1342. Which of the following is the chip a. graphite b. lead
removal process c. cobalt d. carbon
a. rolling b. extruding e. nickel
c. die casting d. broaching
e. forging 1350. The angle between the face of tool,
and the line tangent to the machined
1343. Ceramic tools are made from surface at the cutting point is known
a. tungsten oxide b. silicon as
carbide a. take angle b. lip angle
c. cobalt d. aluminium oxide c. clearance angle
e. diamond sand d. cutting angle
e. nose angle
1344. Discontinuous chips will be formed
when machining speed is 1351. The angle between the tool face
a. high and the ground end surface of flank is
b. low known as
c. medium a. lip angle b. rake angle
d. irrespective of cutting c. clearance angle
e. away from the design value speed d. cutting angle
e. nose angle
1345. Size of shaper is specified by
a. length of table 1352. Tool signature is
b. size of table a. there is nothing like tool signature
c. maximum size of tool b. a numerical method of identification
d. ratio of forward to return of tool
e. h.p of motor stroke c. the plan of tool
d. the complete specification of tool
1346. A shaper employs following for e. none of the above
quick return motion
a. whitworth mechanism 1353. Tool signature comprise
b. crank and slotted link mechanism a. 4 elements b. 5 elements
c. hydraulic mechanism c. 6 elements d. 7 elements

76
 MECH. ENGG / CDC

e. 8 elements b. cutting forces

c. type of chip
1354. No cutting fluid is normally used d. tool life e. profile of workpiece
while machining
a. mild steel b. carbon steel 1361. Chip breakers are provided on
c. stainless steeld. aluminium cutting tools
e. cast iron a. for safety of operator
b. to minimize heat generation
1355. Chips are broken effectively due to c. to permit easy access of coolant at
following property tool point
a. stress b. elasticity d. to permit short segmented chips
c. toughness d. work hardening of e. to increase tool life
work
e. ductility material 1362. A cutting tool having tool signature
as 10,10,6,6,8,8,2 will have back angle
1356. The arbor of the milling machine is as
used to hold a. 10 b. 6
a. cutting tool b. spindle c. 8 d. 2
c. over arm d. mandrel e. none of the above
e. work piece
1363. The last element in the tool
1357. One of the important parameters of signature is
lathe specification a. back rake angle
a. swing over the bed b. side rake angle
b. swing over tool post c. nose radius d. end cutting edge
c. distance between centres angle
d. horse power e. side relief angle
e. bed length
1364. Pick up the correct statement for
1358. Centering can be done most up-milling
accurately on a. cutter is rotated is the opposite
a. four jaw chuckb. 3 jaw chuck direction of travel of job
b. thickness of chip is maximum at the
c. collect chuck d. magnetic chuck beginning of cut
c. cutting force is directed downwards
e. all of the above d. coolant can be easily poured on the
cutting edge
1359. In gang milling e. all of the above
a. several jobs can be performed in
one set up 1365. In grinding operation, for grinding
b. one job is completed on several softer materials
milling machines located together a. coarser grain size is used
c. two or more cutters are mounted on b. fine grain size is used
the arbor and all of them remove c. medium grain size is used
the metal simultaneously d. any grain size may be used
d. all of the above e. none of the above
e. none of the above
1366. Which abrasive particle would you
choose for grinding bronze valve
1360. Machinability depends on bodies?
a. microstructure, physical and a. silicon carbide
mechanical properties and chemical b. aluminium oxide
composition of workpiece material c. diamond d. cubic boron nitride
e. none of the above

77
 MECH. ENGG / CDC

b. a number specifying hole size

1367. Which of the following is the c. the size of hole it can drill
natural abrasive d. any one of the above
a. Al2O3 b. SiC e. none of the above
c. Boron carbide d. Corundam
e. Borolon 1375. The flutes of a drill perform the
following function
1368. Which of the following is the a. help from the cutting edge of the
manufactured abrasive drill point
a. corundam b. quartz b. curb the chip tightly for easier
c. emergy d. SiC removal
e. diamond c. form channels through which the
chips can escape from the hole
1369. Aluminium oxide wheel would be being drilled
selected for grinding d. allow the coolant and lubricant to
a. cast iron b. cemented carbide get down to the cutting edge
c. ceramic materials d. HSS e. all of the above
e. all of the above
1376. Buffing process is used
1370. The first symbol in a grinding a. to achieve flatness
wheel code is the b. to achieve roundness
a. bond type b. abrasive type c. to improve surface finish
c. grain size d. structure d. to obtain very smooth
e. bondgrade e. not used in workshops reflective
surfaces
1371.A grinding wheel is completely
specified by the following elements 1377. Surface plate is usually made of
taken in order grey cast iron because it provides
a. type of abrasive, grain size, grade, a. non-wearing plate
structure, bond b. very hard plate
b. grain size, grade, structure, type of c. easy to cast plate
abrasive, bond d. lubrication due to graphite
c. structure, bond, grain size, type of e. stable plate flakes
abrasive, grade
d.bond, structure, grain size, type of 1378. Expressive a dimension as 25.3
abrasive,grade, bond 0.05 mm is the case of
e. none of the above a. unilateral tolerance
b. bilateral tolerance
1372. Tolerances are specified c. limiting dimensions
a. to obtain desired fits d. all of the above
b. because it is not possible to e. none of the above
manufacture a size exactly
c. to obtain higher accuracy 1379. Annealing is done by cooling in
a. air b. furnace
1373. The most suitable machine for c. water d. bring
drilling holes in rifle barrels is e. none of the above
a. ultrasonic machining
b. laser machining 1380. Gear cutting with a hob does not
c. radial drilling machine involve the following motions
d. deep hole drilling machine a. indexing of the work
e. plasma arc drilling b. rotation of hob
c. rotation of blank d. radial feed of
1374. A twist drill is specified by hob
a. an alphabet specifying hole size e. all of the above

78
 MECH. ENGG / CDC

FLUID MECHANICS

1381. A fluid is a substance that c. FLT-2 d. FL2T

a. always expands until it fills any e. FTL-2
container
b. is practically impressible 1387. Shear forces in a fluid
c. cant be subjected to shear forces a. can never occur when the fluid is at
d. cant remain at rest under action of rest
any shear force b. may occur due to cohesion when
e. has the same shear stress at a point the liquid is at rest
regardless of its motion c. depend upon molecular interchange
of momentum
1382. Newtons law of viscosity relates d. depend upon cohesive forces
a. pressure, velocity & viscosity e. can never occur in a frinctionless
b. shear stress and rate of angular fluid, regardless of its motion
deformation, in a fluid
c. shear stress, temperature, viscosity 1388. The unit of dynamic viscosity is
& velocity a. m.s/kg b. N.m/s
d. pressure. viscosity & rate of angular c. kg.s/N d. N.s/m2
deformation
e. yield shear stress, rate of angular 1389. The dimensions of kinematic
deformation & viscosity viscosity are
a. FL-2T b. ML-1T-1
2 2
1383. An object has a mass of 2 kg & c. L T d. L2T-2
2 -2
gravity force of 19 N on a spring e. L T
balance. The value of gravity in m/s is
a. 0.105 b. 2 1390. For = 3 x 10-8 m/s = 800 kg/m3,
c. 9.5 d. 19 equals
e. none of the above a. 3.75 x 10-11 b. 2.4 x 10-5
c. 2.4 x 105 d. 2.4 x 1012
1384. An unbalanced force of 10 N e. none of the above
exarted on 2 kg mass on a planet
where g = 10 m/s 1391. A perfect gas
a 0.2 b. 2 a. has zero viscosity
c. 5 d. 20 b. has constant viscosity
e. none of the above c. is incompressible
d. satisfies P = RT
1385. The gravity force in Newtons of 3 e. fits none of these
kg mass on a planet where g = 10 m/s
is 1392. The bulk modulus of elasticity for a
a. 0.3 b. 3.33 gas at constant temperature to is
c. 29.42 d. 30 given by
e. none of the above a. P b.RTo
c. PT d. PRTo
1386. Viscosity has the dimensions e. none of the above
a. FL-2 b. FL-1T-1

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 MECH. ENGG / CDC

1393. The bulk modulus of elasticity d. varies inversely as the elevation

a. is independent of temperature along any vertical line
b. increases with pressure e. varies as the square of the radial
c. has the dimensions of l/p distance
d. is larger when the fluid is more
compressible 1399. A forced vortex
e. is independent of pressure & a. turns in an opposite direction to a
viscosity free vortex
b. always occurs in conjunction with a
1394. The pressure centre is free vortex
a. at the centroid of the submerged c. has the velocity decreasing with
b. the centroid of the pressure prism radius
c. independent of the orientation of d. occurs when fluid rotates as a solid
the area e. has the velocity decreasing
d. a point on the line of action of the inversely with the radius
resultant force
e. always above the centroid of the 1400. Select the correct practical
area example of steady non-uniform flow
a. motion of water around a ship in a
1395. A vertical Tri-angular area has one lake
side in a free surface, with vortex b. motion of a river around bridge piers
downward. Its altitude is h. The c. steadily increasing flow through a
pressure centre is below the free piers
surface d. steadily reducing flow through a
decreasing cross section
a. h/4 b. h/3
c. h/2 d. 2h/3 1401. The assumptions made in deriving
e. 3h/4 the equation gz + v 2/2 + dp/p constant
are
1396. A vertical gate 4m x 4m holds a. steady, frictionless, incompressible,
water with free surface at its top. The along a stream line
moment about the bottom of the gare b. uniform, frictionless, along a
is streamline, p-a function of P
a. 42.7r b. 57r c. steady, uniform, incompressible
c. 64r d. 85.3r alonga streamline
e. none of the above d. steady, frictionless, p-a function of
p, along a streamline
1397. A body floats in stable equilibrium
a. when its meta-centric height is zero 1401. The work that a liquid is capable of
b. only when its centre of gravity is doing by virtue of its sustained
below the centre of buoyancy pressure is
c. when the meta-centre is above the a. Z b. P
centre of gravity c. P/W d. V2/2g
e. 2gh
1398. When a liquid rotates at a constant
angular velocity about a vertical axis 1402. The velocity head is
as a rigid body, the pressure a. V2/2g b. Z
a. decreases as the square of the c. V d. 2gh
radial distance e. none of the above
b. increases linearly as the radial
distance 1403. The kinetic energy correction
c. decreases as the square of increase factor
in elevation along any vertical line a. applies to the continuity equation
b. has the units of velocity head

80
 MECH. ENGG / CDC

c. is expressed by 1/A + v/V dA c. (V22-V12)/g d. (V1-V2)2/g

d. is expressed by 1/A + (v/V) 2 dA e. (V1-V2)2/2g
e. is expressed by 1/A + (v/V) 3 dA
1410. Reynolds number may be defined
1405. A pitot tube is used to measure as the ratio of
velocity of flow of fluid of specific a. viscous to inertia forces
gravity 0.90. The fluid level inside the b. viscous to gravity forces
tube is 50 mm higher than the surface c. gravity to inertia forces
of flowing fluid. The velocity is(m/s) d. elastic to pressure forces
a. 0.89 b. 0.99 e. none of the above
c. 1.10 d. 1.40
e. none of the above 1411. The shear stress in a fluid flowing
between two fixed parallel plates
1406. The theoritical velocity of oil a. is constant over the cross-section
S=0.75 flowing from an orifice in a b. is O at the plates and increases
reservoir under a head of 4 ms is (in linearly to mid point
m/s) c. varies parabolically across the
a. 6.7 b. 8.86 section
c. 111.8 d. data insufficient d. isO at the midplane and is linear
e. none of the above variant from mid plane
e. none of the above
1407. If all losses are neglected, the
pressure at the summit of a siphon 1412. The velocity distribution for flow
a. is a minimum for the siphon between two fixed parallel plates is
b. depends on height of summit above a. uniform over the C.S
upstream reservoir b. Oat the plates and increases
c. is independent of downstream linearly to mid plane
length c. varies parabolically over the C.S
d. is independent of discharge and
density 1413. The relation between pressure and
shear stress in laminar flow in x
1408. Select from the following list the direction is
correct assumptions for analyzing the a. .p/.x = c/y
flow of a jet that is deflected by a b. OP/OY = 1/x
fixed/moving vane c. p/y = 1/x
1. The momentum of the jet is d. p/x = 1/y
unchanged
2. The abs. speed doesnt change 1414. The shear stress in a fluid flowing
along the vane in a round pipe
3. The fluid flows on the vane without a. is constant over the C.S
shock b. is zero at the wall and increases
4. The flow from the nozzle is steady linearly to the centre
5. Friction between jet and vane is c. varies parabolically across the
neglected section
6. The jet leaves without velocity d. is zero at the centre and varies
7. The velocity is uniform over the C.S linearly with radius
of the jet
a. 1,3,4,5 b. 2,3,5,6 1415. In laminar flow through round tube
c. 3,4,5,6 d.3,4,5,7 the discharge varies
e. 3,5,6,7 a. linearly as viscosity
b. as square of radius
1409. The losses due to sudden c. inversely as pressure drop
expansion is d. inversely as viscosity
a. (V12-V22)/2g b. (V1 V2 )/2g e. as cube of diameter

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1416. The upper critical Reynolds No. is

a. important from design view point
b. the number at which turbulent flow
changes to laminar flow
c. about 2000
d. not more than 2000
e. none of the above

1417. Reynolds No. for pipe flow is given

by
a. VD/C
b. VD/P
c. VDP/T
d. VD/K
e. none of the above

1418. The lower critical Reynolds No. has

the value
a. 200
b. 1200
c. 12000
d. 40000
e. none of the above

1419. The hydraulic radius is given by

a. wetted perimeter divided by area
b. area perimeter divided square of
wetted
c. square root of area
d. area divided by wetted perimeter
e. none of the above

1420. The hydraulic radius of a 60 mm

wide by 120 mm deep open channel is
in mm
a. 20
b. 24
c. 40
d. 60
e. none of the above

1421. The friction factor in turbulent flow

in smooth pipes depends on
a. V,D,P,L
b. Q,L,P
c. V,D,P,P
d. V,D,P
e. P,L,D,Q,V

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