QDB 15 Meteorology

1. How does the height of the tropopause normally vary with latitude in the northern hemisphere?
It decreases from south to north
2. In which layer is most of the atmospheric humidity concentrated?

Troposphere
3. At FL 180, the air temperature is -35C.The air density at this level is:
Greater than the density of the ISA atmosphere at FL 180
4. The lowest assumed temperature in the International Standard Atmosphere (ISA) is:
-56.5C
5. Under what condition does pressure altitude have the same value as density altitude?
At standard temperature
6. In the troposphere the decrease of pressure per 100 m increase in height

Is smaller at higher levels than at lower levels
7. A 200 hPa pressure altitude level can vary in height. In temperate regions which of the following average
heights is applicable?
FL 390
8. What is the approximate vertical interval which is equal to a pressure change of 1 hPa at an altitude of 5500
m?
15 m (50 FT).
9. In order to calculate QFE from QNH, which of the following must be known?
Elevation of the airfield
10. Several physical processes contribute to atmospheric warming. Which of the following contribute the most?
Convection and condensation
11. A layer is conditionally unstable if the air

Is unstable for saturated air and stable for dry air
12. The temperature at FL 140 is -12C. What will the temperature be at FL 110 if the ICAO standard lapse rate is
applied?
-6C
13. If atmospheric conditions exist such that the temperature deviation is ISA +10C in the lower troposphere up
to 18000 FT, what is the actual layer thickness between FL 60 and FL 120?
6240 FT
14. Which of the following is a common cause of ground or surface temperature inversion?
Terrestrial radiation on a clear night with no or very light winds
15. At a certain position, the temperature on the 300 hPa chart is -48C; according to the tropopause chart, the
tropopause is at FL 330. What is the most likely temperature at FL 350?
-54C
16. After landing at an aerodrome (aerodrome elevation 1715 FT), the altimeter indicates an altitude of 1310 FT.
The altimeter is set to the pressure value of 1013 hPa. What is the QNH at this aerodrome?
1028 hPa
Meteorology - P a g e | 1
17. You intend to overfly a mountain range. The recommended minimum flight altitude is, according to the
aviation chart, 15000 FT/AMSL. The air mass that you will fly through is on average 15C warmer than the standard
atmosphere. The altimeter is set to QNH (1023 hPa). At what altimeter reading will you effectively be at the
recommended minimum flight altitude?
14100 FT
18. You are flying at FL 130, and your true altitude is 12000 FT. What is the temperature deviation from that of
the standard atmosphere at FL 130 (QNH 1013,2 hPa) ?
ISA -20C
19. What is the boundary layer between troposphere and stratosphere called?
Tropopause
20. An outside air temperature of -35C is measured while cruising at FL 200. What is the temperature deviation
from the ISA at this level?
10C colder than ISA
21. Convective activity over land in mid-latitudes is greatest in

Summer in the afternoon
22. Absolute instability is said to exist whenever the environmental lapse rate
Exceeds the dry adiabatic lapse rate
23. Which of the following is a common result of subsidence?

An inversion over a large area with haze, mist
24. What is the most likely temperature at the tropical tropopause?

-75C
25. Which weather condition lowers true altitude as compared to pressure altitude to a position where flight
over mountains could be dangerous?
Cold low
26. The 0 isotherm is forecast to be at FL 50. At what FL would you expect a temperature of -6 C?
FL 80
27. What positions are connected by isobars on the surface weather chart?
Positions with the same air pressure at a given level
28. A vertical spacing of 1000 FT, is the standard required separation between two FL. Under conditions of cold
air advection (ISA -15C), what would the true vertical separation be?
Less than 1000 FT
29. At which pressure and temperature conditions may you safely assume that the minimum usable flight level
at least lies at the same height, as the minimum safe altitude?
At a temperature greater than or equal to that of the ISA and where the QNH is greater than or equal to 1013 hPa
30. The QNH of an airport at sea level is 983 hPa and the temperature deviation from ISA is -15C below FL 100.
What is the true altitude of FL 100?
8590 FT
31. What information is required to calculate a lowest usable flight level from a given minimum safe altitude?
Lowest value of QNH and the highest negative temperature deviation from ISA
32. What is the relationship, if any, between QFE and QNH at an airport situated 50 FT below sea level?
QFE is greater than QNH
33. You plan a flight over a mountain range at a true altitude of 15000 FT/AMSL. The air is on an average 15C
colder than ISA, the pressure at sea level is 1003 hPa. What indication must the altimeter (setting 1013.2 hPa) read?
16170 FT
34. During a flight at FL 100 from Marseille (QNH 1012 hPa) to Palma de Mallorca (QNH 1015 hPa), an aircraft
remains at a constant true altitude. The reason for this is that:
The air at Marseille is warmer than that at Palma de Mallorca
35. An aircraft lands at an airport (airport elevation 1240 FT, QNH 1008 hPa). The altimeter is set to 1013 hPa.
The altimeter will indicate:
1375 FT
36. In an air mass with no clouds the surface temperature is 15C and 13C at 1000m. This layer of air is:
Stable
37. Half the mass of the atmosphere is found in the first

5 km
38. The thickness of the troposphere varies with

Latitude
39. In the lower part of the stratosphere the temperature

Is almost constant
40. What characteristic is associated with a temperature inversion?

Stability
41. What pressure is defined as QFE?

The pressure at field elevation
42. The isobars drawn on a surface weather chart represent lines of equal pressure
Reduced to sea level
43. What is the approximate composition of the dry air by volume in the troposphere?
21 % oxygen, 78 % nitrogen, and the rest other gases
44. How does temperature vary with increasing altitude in the ICAO standard atmosphere below the tropopause?
Decreases
45. What is the vertical temperature lapse rate, up to 11 km, in the standard ICAO atmosphere?
6.5C per 1000 m
46. Which of the following conditions would cause the altimeter to indicate a lower altitude than that actually
flown?
Air temperature higher than standard
47. Which layer of the atmosphere contains more than 90 per cent of all water vapour?
Troposphere
48. The temperature at FL 160 is -22C. What will the temperature be at FL 90 if the ICAO standard lapse rate is
applied?
-8C
49. A temperature of +15C is recorded at an altitude of 500 metres above sea level. If the vertical temperature
gradient is that of a standard atmosphere, what will the temperature be at the summit of a mountain, 2500 metres
above sea level?
+2C
50. How would you characterise an air temperature of -15C at the 700 hPa level over Western Europe?
Low
51. An air temperature of -30C at the 300 hPa level over central Europe in summer is
High
52. How would you characterise an air temperature of -55C at the 200 hPa level over Western Europe?
Within +/-5C of ISA
53. What is the technical term for an increase in temperature with altitude?
Inversion
54. The station pressure used in surface weather charts is

QFF
55. A 300 hPa pressure level can vary in height. In temperate regions which of the following average heights is
applicable?
FL 300
applicable?
FL 100
applicable?
FL 50
58. The QFF at an airfield located 400 metres above sea level is 1016 hPa. The air temperature is 10C higher
than a standard atmosphere. What is the QNH?
More than 1016 hPa
59. The QFF at an airfield located 400 metres above sea level is 1016 hPa. The air temperature is 10C lower
than a standard atmosphere. What is the QNH?
Less than 1016 hPa
60. The QNH at an airfield located 200 metres above sea level is 1009 hPa. The air temperature is 10C lower
than a standard atmosphere. What is the QFF?
More than 1009 hPa
61. The QNH at an airfield located 200 metres above sea level is 1022 hPa. The air temperature is not available.
What is the QFF?
It is not possible to give a definitive answer
62. The QNH at an airfield located 0 metres above sea level is 1022 hPa. The air temperature is not available.
What is the QFF?
1022 hPa
63. The QNH at an airfield in California located 69 metres below sea level is 1018 hPa. The air temperature is
10C higher than a standard atmosphere. What is the QFF?
More than 1018 hPa
64. The QFF at an airfield in California located 69 metres below sea level is 1030 hPa. The air temperature is 10C
lower than a standard atmosphere. What is the QNH?
More than 1030 hPa
65. If the QFE at Locarno (200 metres above sea level) is 980 hPa, what is the approximate QNH?
1005 hPa
66. If the QFE at Locarno (200 metres above sea level) is 1000 hPa, what is the approximate QNH?
1025 hPa
67. If the QNH at Locarno (200 metres above sea level) is 1015 hPa, what is the approximate QFE?
(Assume 1hPa = 8m)
990 hPa
68. If the QNH at Locarno (200 metres above sea level) is 1025 hPa, what is the approximate QFE?
1000 hPa
69. If you are flying at FL 300 in an air mass that is 15C warmer than a standard atmosphere, what is the outside
temperature likely to be?
-30C
70. If you are flying at FL 120 and the outside temperature is -2C, at what altitude will the "freezing level" be?
FL 110
71. An aircraft flying at FL 100 from Marseille (QNH 1012 hPa) to Palma de Mallorca (QNH 1006 hPa) experiences
no change to true altitude. The reason for this is that:
The air at Palma de Mallorca is warmer than that at Marseille
72. During a flight over the sea at FL 100 from Marseille (QNH 1012 hPa) to Palma de Mallorca (QNH 1012 hPa),
the true altitude is constantly increasing. What action, if any, should be taken?
None, the reason for the change is that the air around Palma is warmer than the air around Marseille
73. During a flight over the sea at FL 100 from Marseille (QNH 1016 hPa) to Palma de Mallorca (QNH 1016 hPa),
the true altitude is constantly decreasing. What is the probable reason for this?
The air at Marseille is warmer than that at Palma de Mallorca
74. During a flight over the sea at FL 135, the true altitude is 13500 feet; local QNH is 1019 hPa. What
information, if any, can be gained about the air mass in which the aircraft is flying?
It is colder than ISA
75. An aircraft is flying over the sea at FL 90; the true altitude is 9100 feet; local QNH is unknown. What
assumption, if any, can be made about the air mass in which the aircraft is flying?
There is insufficient information to make any assumption
76. An aircraft is flying over the sea at FL 120, with a true altitude of 12000 feet; local QNH is 1013 hPa. What
assumption, if any, can be made about the air mass in which the aircraft is flying?
Its average temperature is the same as ISA
77. An aircraft is flying over the sea at FL 100, with a true altitude of 10000 feet; local QNH is 1003 hPa.
What assumption, if any, can be made about the air mass in which the aircraft is flying?
It is warmer than ISA
78. An aircraft is flying through the Alps on a very cold winter's day. The regional QNH is 1013 hPa. During the
flight, you circle around a mountain at an altitude of its summit. What reading will the aneroid altimeter give,
compared to the elevation of the summit?
A higher altitude than the elevation of the summit
79. An aircraft is flying through the Alps on a warm summer's day. The weather is fine, and there is a high
pressure system in the area. During the flight, a mountain is passed at an altitude of its summit. What reading will
the aneroid altimeter give, compared to the summit's elevation?
A lower altitude than the elevation of the summit
80. An aircraft is descending to land under IFR. If the local QNH is 1009 hPa, what will happen to the altitude
reading when the altimeter is reset at the transition level?
It will decrease
81. During the climb after takeoff, the altimeter setting is adjusted at the transition altitude. If the local QNH is
966 hPa, what will happen to the altimeter reading during the resetting procedure?
It will increase
82. An aircraft is flying from Point A to Point B at the flight level corresponding to the pressure surface of the
constant pressure chart. Which of the following statements is correct?
The true altitude will be higher over A than over B
83. An aircraft is flying from Point A to Point B on the upper level contour chart. The altimeter setting is 1013,2
hPa. Which of these statements is correct?
The true altitude will be higher at A than at B
The true altitude will be higher over B than over A
The true altitude will be higher over B than over A
86. You are flying at FL 200. Outside air temperature is -40C, and the pressure at sea level is 1033 hPa. What is
the true altitude?
19340 feet
87. You are flying at FL 160. Outside air temperature is -27C, and the pressure at sea level is 1003 hPa. What is
the true altitude?
15090 feet
88. You are planning to fly across a mountain range. The chart recommends a minimum altitude of 12000 feet
above mean sea level. The air mass you will be flying through is an average 10C warmer than ISA. Your altimeter is
set to 1023 hPa (QNH of a nearby airport at nearly sea level). What altitude will the altimeter show when you have
reached the recommended minimum altitude?
11520 feet
89. An aircraft lands at an airport (airport elevation 540 FT, QNH 993 hPa) with the altimeter set to 1013 hPa.
What will it indicate?
1080 FT
90. After landing at an aerodrome (QNH 993 hPa) it is noticed that the altimeter is still set to 1013,2 hPa and
that it reads 1200 feet. What is the elevation of the aerodrome above mean sea level?
660 feet
91. An altimeter adjusted to 1013 hPa indicates an altitude of 3600 FT. Should this altimeter be adjusted to the
local QNH value of 991 hPa, the altitude indicated would be
3006 FT
92. In Geneva, the local QNH is 994 hPa. The elevation of Geneva is 1411 FT. The QFE adjustment in Geneva is
942 hPa
93. An aircraft is flying at FL 80. The local QNH is 1000 hPa. After the second altimeter has been adjusted to the
local QNH, the reading will be approximately
7650 FT
94. The subscale of an altimeter is set to 1013.2 hPa. The aircraft has to land on a point with an elevation of 290
feet where the QNH is 1023 hPa.
The reading on the altimeter on the ground will be:
20 FT
95. Going from the equator to the north pole, the altitude of the tropopause
Decreases and its temperature increases
96. The troposphere is the

Part of the atmosphere below the tropopause
97. The tropopause is a level at which

Temperature ceases to fall with increasing height
98. The tropopause is lower

Over the North Pole than over the equator
99. The temperature at 10000 FT in the International Standard Atmosphere is :

-5C
100. The rate of decrease of temperature with height per 100 m in the International Standard Atmosphere is :
0.65C
101. The height and the temperature of the tropopause are respectively in the order of
16 km and -75C over the equator
102. An inversion is a layer of air in which the temperature

Increases with height
103. An isothermal layer is a layer of air in which the temperature

Remains constant with height
104. A temperature inversion indicates a state of the atmosphere which is

Absolutely stable
105. The environmental lapse rate in an actual atmosphere

Varies with time
106. The dry adiabatic lapse rate has a value of

1C/100m
107. The dry adiabatic lapse rate

Has a constant fixed value
108. An air mass is called stable when

The vertical motion of rising air tends to become weaker and disappears
109. In the International Standard Atmosphere the decrease in temperature with height below 11 km is
0.65C per 100m
110. Which statement is correct regarding the International Standard Atmosphere?
At MSL temperature is 15C and pressure is 1013.25hPa
111. Which of the following is true concerning atmospheric pressure?

It decreases with height
112. QNH is defined as

QFE reduced to MSL using the values of the standard atmosphere
113. Which of the following statements is true?

QNH can be equal to QFE
114. Which statement is true?

QNH can be lower as well as higher than 1013.25 hPa
115. When the subscale is set to the QNH of an airfield the pressure altimeter indicates
Elevation while landing
116. Advection is:

Horizontal motion of air
117. The radiation of the sun heats

The surface of the earth, which heats the air in the troposphere
118. The diurnal variation in temperature is largest when the sky is

Clear and winds are weak
119. The following temperatures have been observed over a station at 1200 UTC. Assume the station is at MSL.
Height in feet. Temperature in degrees C.
20000.-12 18000.-11 16000.-10 14000.-10 12000.-6 10000.-2 8000. +2 6000. +6 4000. +12 2000. +15 surface+15.
Assuming that the MSL pressure is 1013.25 hPa the true altitude of an aircraft would actually be higher than the
indicated altitude.
120. An inversion is
An increase of temperature with height
121. In still air the temperature decreases at an average of 1.2C per 100 m increase in altitude. This temperature
change is called:
Environmental lapse rate
122. A layer can be

Stable for unsaturated air and unstable for saturated air
123. When in the upper part of a layer warm air is advected the
Stability increases in the layer
124. A significant inversion at low height is a characteristic of

Nocturnal radiation
125. From which of the following pieces of information can the stability of the atmosphere be derived?
126. In order to reduce QFE to QNH, which of the following item(s) must be known?
Elevation of the airfield
127. Assume that an aircraft is flying in the northern hemisphere at the 500 hPa pressure surface on a heading of
270 degrees. Which of the following statements is correct?
If in this pressure surface the wind comes from the direction 360 degrees, then true altitude is increasing
128. An aircraft is flying at FL 180 in the northern hemisphere with a crosswind from the left. Which of the
following is correct concerning its true altitude?
It decreases
129. The QNH is equal to the QFE if

The elevation = 0
130. Which of the following conditions gives the highest value of the QNH?
QFE = 995 hPa, elevation = 1600 FT (488m)
131. The pressure altitude is equal to the true altitude if

Standard atmospheric conditions occur
132. You must make an emergency landing at sea. The QNH of a field on a nearby island with an elevation of 4000
FT is 1025 hPa and the temperature is -20C. What is your pressure altimeter reading when landing if 1025 hPa is set
in the subscale?
Less than 0 FT
133. In what hPa range is an upper weather chart for FL 340 situated?
300 - 200 hPa
134. Isobars on a surface chart are lines of equal

QFF
135. For a given airfield the QFE is 980 hPa and the QNH is 1000 hPa. The approximate elevation of the airfield is
160 metres
136. Which is true of the temperature at the tropopause?

It is higher in Polar Regions than in equatorial regions
137. The value of the saturated adiabatic lapse rate is closest to that of the dry adiabatic lapse rate in
Cirrus
138. The pressure system at position "b" is a
Col
139. The pressure distribution located mainly at point B is a

Col
140. Around Paris on January 3rd at 1800 UTC, the surface temperature, under shelter, is 3C. The sky is covered
by 8 oktas of stratus. QNH is 1033 hPa. If the sky is covered all night, the minimum temperature of the night of
January 3rd to January 4th should be
Slightly below +3C.
141. On a clear sky, continental ground surface, wind calm, the minimum temperature is reached approximately
Half an hour after sunrise
142. An isohypse (contour)

Indicates the true altitude of a pressure level
143. Before landing, an altimeter set to QFE indicates

In standard atmosphere, the height of the aircraft above the official airport elevation
144. In the mid-latitudes the stratosphere extends on an average from

11 to 50 km
145. The weather is clear and the temperature decreases uniformly and rapidly as you climb (approaching 3C per
1000 ft), you have an indication of:
Unstable air
146. At sea level, the pressure of the atmosphere on a standard day will cause the mercury in the column to rise
to:
29.92 inches
147. What is dynamic pressure?

Pressure caused by movement
148. The international standard atmosphere (ISA) is defined for mean sea level as :
1013.25 hPa, 15C, a temperature lapse rate of 1.98C per 1000 ft. and a density of 1.225 kg/m3
149. The percentage concentration of gases in the atmosphere is constant from the surface of the earth to a
certain altitude with the exception of:
Water vapour
150. What altimeter reading would you expect when landing at an airfield 3000 ft above MSL, altimeter setting is
QFE for the field and local temperature is + 25C?
0 ft
151. Lines connecting points of equal pressure are called:

Isobars
152. The temperature is -15C on an airport 3000' above mean sea level.
Which of the following is true?
QFF > QNH
153. The temperature gradient in the international standard atmosphere (ISA) is:
0.65C/100m
154. Absolute instability in a layer of air is characterized by the vertical temperature gradient in the layer being:
Greater than 1/100 m
155. Define the tropopause:

That area where the temperature change does not exceed two-thirds of one degree Celsius per thousand foot
increase in altitude over a range of 6000 feet
156. An inversion is characterized by:

Increasing temperature with increasing altitude
157. Which of the following combinations contain the greatest air density?
High pressure and low temperature
158. Air density is mass of air per unity of volume, and is influenced by:
b) Pressure, temperature and the amount of water vapour.
c) Altitude
Both b) and c) are correct
159. The average change of pressure with height in the lower atmosphere is:
1 hPa/27ft
160. An aircraft, flying so that the altimeter indicates 2500ft with the current regional QNH set in the subscale, is
flying towards an area of lower pressure. If the pilot fails to revise the subscale setting as the QNH changes, then the
aircraft will:
Gradually descend
161. The isohypse 2960 m can be expected at the constant pressure chart for the following pressure level:
700 hPa
850 hPa
200 hPa
500 hPa
300 hPa
166. What is the pressure in surface weather charts called?

QFF
167. At which average height can the 700 hPa pressure level in moderate latitudes be expected?
3,0 km AMSL
5,5 km AMSL
12,0 km AMSL
9,0 km AMSL
1,5 km AMSL
172. At an airport (0 m AMSL), a QNH of 1022 hPa is observed and the temperature is unknown:
The QFF is 1022 hPa
173. FL 110, an OAT -05C is measured. What will the temperature be at FL 50, if you consider the temperature
gradient of the Standard Atmosphere?
+7C
-6C
-8C
176. An OAT of -30C at the 300 hPa pressure level:

Is high
177. An OAT of -55C at the 200 hPa pressure level:

Equals approximately (+/-5C) ISA
178. A temperature increase with increasing altitude is called

Inversion
179. An aircraft cruises at FL 300 in an airmass, which is 15C warmer than the Standard Atmosphere. The OAT is
therefore....
-30C
180. An aircraft cruises at FL 100 in an airmass, which is 10C warmer than the Standard Atmosphere. The OAT is
therefore....
+5C
181. You cruise at FL 200 and notice an OAT of -35C. The airmass has therefore an average temperature which
is....
10C colder than ISA
182. What is the ISA temperature at FL 110?

-7C
183. What is the temperature decrease in the ISA?

0,65C/100 m
184. From which of the following pieces of information can stability of the atmosphere be derived?
185. Which layer of the atmosphere contains more than 90 % of the total amount of water vapour?
Troposphere
186. You observe the altimeter in a parked aircraft while a cold front passes the airport. What does the altimeter
indicate?
It first increases and then decreases
187. You are flying at FL 100 in an airmass which is 15C colder than ISA, local QNH 983. True altitude?
8590 ft
Your true altitude is higher over A than over B
189. A temperature of 10C above ISA is observed at FL 180. What is the effective distance between FL 60 and FL
120?
6240 ft
190. While mountain flying on a cold winter day, under fair weather conditions (QNH 1013 hPa), you circle a
mountain of known height at peak elevation. Comparing to the elevation of the mountain, the aneroid altimeter of
your aircraft will therefore indicate.....
A higher altitude
191. While mountain flying on a warm summer day under high pressure conditions, you circle a mountain of
known height at peak elevation. Comparing to the indication of your altimeter, the peak elevation will therefore be....
Higher
192. You have landed on an airport (elevation 1240 ft, QNH 1008 hPa). Your altimeter subscale is erroneously set
to 1013 hPa. Therefore, the indication will be:
1375 ft
193. You intend to overfly a mountain ridge at an altitude of 15000 ft AMSL. The average air temperature is 15C
lower than ISA, the sea level pressure 1003 hPa. Which altimeter indication (standard setting) is needed?
16170 ft
194. You intend to overfly a mountain range. The recommended minimum flight altitude is, according to the
aviation chart, 12000 ft AMSL. The average air temperature is 10C higher than ISA, your altimeter is set to 1023 hPa
(QNH of a nearby airport at nearly sea level). At what altimeter reading will you effectively be at the recommended
minimum flight altitude?
11520 ft
195. You have landed at an airport, local QNH 993 hPa. After landing, you notice, that your altimeter subscale is
still set to 1013,2 hPa. Your altimeter indicates 1200 ft. What is the airport elevation?
660 ft AMSL
196. You are cruising at FL 160 at an OAT of -27C. The sea level pressure is 1003 hPa. Your true altitude therefore
is...
15090 ft
197. Continuous freezing rain is observed at an airport. Which would be the most probable vertical temperature
lapse rate?
D
198. When the barometric subscale of the altimeter is adjusted to 1013,2 hPa, what type of altitude is being
measured?
Pressure altitude
199. For a flight from the Azores to the Bermudas, the tropical tropopause is to be found at a height of
approximately
12000 metres
200. In relation to the total weight of the atmosphere, the weight of the atmosphere between mean sea level and
a height of 5500 m is:
50 %
201. At altitude, the atmospheric pressure in a column of warm air is likely to be...
Higher than at the same height in a column of cold air
202. If you have a column of air limited by two isobaric surfaces at a pressure difference of 100 hPa, the distance
between the pressure surfaces will change if mean temperature and mean pressure of the column of air change. In
which of the following alternatives will the change of temperature and pressure interact to shorten the distance as
much as possible?
Temperature decreases and pressure increases
203. The mean height of the tropical tropopause is

54000 ft
204. When flying in mountainous terrain and assuming ISA temperatures and strong winds, which of the following
is correct?
In case of venturi effect, the actual altitude of the aircraft is lower than the indicated altitude
205. On a route segment from A to B the highest terrain elevation is approximately 200 feet. For an instrument
flight the minimum obstacle clearance is 1000 feet. The subscale of the altimeter is set to the local QNH of 1013 hPa
and the temperature on the ground is -5C. Assume a standard temperature lapse rate. What is the approximate
minimum acceptable altimeter indication during the flight on this route segment?
1300 feet
206. By volume, what percentage of the air in the lower troposphere consists of water vapour?
0-5 %
207. By volume, which of the following elements makes up the largest part of the atmosphere?
Nitrogen
208. Which of the following combinations of pressure and temperature is correct in the ICAO standard
atmosphere?
500 hPa -21.1C
209. You are flying at FL 300 where the outside air temperature is -57.5C and the pressure at MSL is 1013.25 hPa.
If you assume that the difference between the actual temperature and the temperature in the ISA is valid for the
whole troposphere, then the true altitude is
28500 ft
210. Given:
Altimeter setting: 1013.2 hPa
Altimeter reading: 5000 ft
Outside air temperature at 5000 ft: +5C
QFE: 958 hPa
QNH: 983 hPa
What is the true height of the aircraft above the aerodrome?
3515 ft
211. Pressure altitude is obtained by:

Setting the altimeter to standard sea level pressure
212. In summer, when wind is calm and sky is clear, the minimum temperature over land is reached
approximately
Half an hour after sunrise
213. An aircraft maintains a constant indicated altitude of 6500 ft from A (600 ft/AMSL - QNH 1012 hPa) to B (930
ft/AMSL - QNH 977 hPa). Assuming that the altimeter subscale setting remains unchanged at 1012 hPa, the height of
the aircraft above the surface at B will be
4625 ft
214. An aircraft maintains a constant indicated altitude of 4500 ft from A (360 ft/AMSL - QNH 986 hPa) to B (690
ft/AMSL - QNH 1011 hPa). Assuming that the altimeter subscale setting remains unchanged at 986 hPa, the height of
the aircraft above the surface at B will be
4485 ft
215. Surface-based temperature inversions are common during

Cloud-free nights in winter when the ground is dry
216. With all other quantities being constant, the density of the air increases with increasing
Air pressure
217. Which statement concerning the tropopause is correct?

The layer just above the tropopause is absolutely stable
218. Convective weather phenomena include

Thunderstorms, hail, tornadoes, wind gusts, heavy showers, lightning strikes
219. You are flying at FL 340 in the northern hemisphere. The wind is geostrophic and there is a cross wind from
the right all the time. Your true altitude will
Increase
220. A surface based inversion is a characteristic of

Nocturnal radiation during clear nights
221. A pressure altimeter can indicate different altitudes depending on the setting. Regardless of setting it can
generally be said that it indicates:
Altitude corresponding to difference between reference pressure and the pressure where the instrument is
222. The ICAO Standard Atmosphere assumes that temperature will reduce at the rate of
2C per 1000 ft up to 36090 ft after which it remains constant to 65617 ft
223. Which of these statements about the tropopause are correct or incorrect?
1) In the real atmosphere the tropopause is a continuous surface
2) Above the tropopause the temperature decrease per 100 m is 0.65C
1) and 2) are not correct
224. Which of these statements about the tropopause are correct or incorrect?
1) In the real atmosphere the tropopause is a continuous surface
2) The height of the tropopause in the ISA is 11 km
1) is not correct, 2) is correct
225. Ascension of air is promoted by

The presence of cold air above warm terrain
226. An isothermal layer is a layer of air

In which the lapse rate is zero
227. What is meant by "transition altitude"?

The altitude on which a pilot is supposed to change from local QNH to standard pressure setting during climb out
from an airport
228. Considering the North Atlantic area north of 60N during winter, the mean height of the tropopause is
approximately
29000 ft
1. What name is given to the jet stream lying over Scandinavia (C)?
Polar front jet stream
2. An aircraft is flying through the west east blowing polar front jet stream from south to north, beneath the
core. How would the OAT change, in the northern hemisphere, during this portion of the flight?
It decreases
3. What characteristics will the surface winds have in an area where the isobars on the weather map are very
close together?
Strong and flowing across the isobars
4. Which forces are balanced with geostrophic winds?

Pressure gradient force, Coriolis force
5. Which degree of aircraft turbulence is determined by the following ICAO description?

"There may be moderate changes in aircraft attitude and/or altitude but the aircraft remains in positive control at all
times. Usually, small variations in air speed. Changes in accelerometer readings of 0.5 to 1.0 g at the aircraft's center
of gravity. Occupants feel strain against seat belts. Loose objects move about. Food service and walking are difficult."
Moderate
6. In a land- and sea-breeze circulation the land-breeze blows:

During the night and is weaker than the sea-breeze
7. A high pressure area (slack pressure gradient) covers an area of the Mediterranean Sea and coastal region
during the summer. What surface wind direction is likely at an airport at the coast on a sunny afternoon?
Sea to land
8. A mountain breeze (katabatic wind) blows

Down the slope during the night
9. Generally northern hemisphere winds at 5000 FT/AGL are southwesterly while most of the surface winds are
southerly. What is the primary reason of difference between these two wind directions?
Friction between the wind and the surface
10. Friction between the air and the ground results in the northern hemisphere in:
Backing of the wind and decrease of wind speed at the surface
11. Whilst flying at FL 180 on the northern hemisphere an aircraft experiences right drifts. What effect, if any,
will this have on the aircraft's true altitude?
It decreases
12. In the southern hemisphere what wind effect would you expect when flying from a high pressure area
towards a low pressure area at FL 100?
Wind from the right
13. What degree of turbulence, if any, is likely to be encountered while flying through a cold front in the
summer over Central Europe at FL 100?
Severe turbulence in CB cloud
14. You are flying at 2 500 FT/AGL, with a southerly wind, and intend to land at an airport, at sea level directly
below. From approximately which direction would you expect the surface wind (mid-latitude, northern hemisphere)?
South-southeast
15. In which zone of a jet stream is the strongest CAT to be expected?

The cold air side of the core
16. What is the minimum speed for a wind to be classified as a jet stream?
60 kt
17. A wind sounding in the region of a polar front jet stream gives the following wind profile (Northern
hemisphere).
900hPa 220/20kt
800hPa 220/25kt
700hPa 230/35kt
500hPa 260/60kt
400hPa 280/85kt
300hPa 300/100kt
250hPa 310/120kt
200hPa 310/80kt
Which system is the jet stream associated with?
With a warm front
18. What is the main cause for the formation of a polar front jet stream?
The north-south horizontal temperature gradient at the polar front
19. At approximately what altitude is the subtropical jet stream found over Europe?
FL 400
20. What name is given to the jet stream lying over North Africa (B) ?
Sub-tropical jet stream
21. What is the average height of the arctic jet stream core?
20000 FT
22. What is the approximate ratio between height and width for a jet stream cross section?
1/100
23. Which jet stream blows all year round, over the northern hemisphere?
The subtropical jet stream
24. What is the average height of the jet core within a polar front jet stream?
30000 FT
25. An aircraft is flying from south to north, above the west east blowing polar front jet stream, at FL 400 in the
southern hemisphere. What change, if any, in temperature will be experienced?
It decreases
26. A wind speed of 350 kt within a jet stream core should be world-wide regarded as:
Possible but a very rare phenomenon
27. An aircraft over Western Europe is crossing a jet stream 2500 FT below its core at right angles. While
crossing, the outside temperature is increasing. The prevailing wind is
From the right
28. What is the most significant difference between an equatorial jet stream and all the other jet streams?
Wind direction
29. Where, as a general rule, is the core of the polar front jet stream to be found?
In the warm air mass
30. You cross a jet stream in horizontal flight at approximately right angles. While crossing, in spite of a strong
wind of 120 kt, you notice the temperature barely changes.
This phenomenon is absolutely normal as you are crossing the jet core
31. What jet streams are likely to be crossed during a flight from Stockholm to Rio de Janeiro (23S) at FL 350 in
July?
A polar front jet stream followed by one or two subtropical jet streams
32. While crossing a jet stream at right angles in Western Europe (3000 FT below its core) and OAT is decreasing,
what would be the prevailing wind?
Crosswind from the left
33. Which area of a polar front jet stream in the northern hemisphere has the highest probability of turbulence?
Looking downstream, the area to the left of the core
34. At the same latitude the geostrophic wind is greater than the gradient wind around a low pressure system
with equal pressure gradient because the
Centrifugal force opposes the pressure gradient
35. The geostrophic wind is less than the gradient wind around an anticyclone because the
Centrifugal force is added to the pressure gradient
36. An aircraft is flying in the southern hemisphere at low altitude (less than 2000 feet) and going directly away
from a centre of low pressure. What direction, relative to the aircraft, does the wind come from?
From the left and slightly on the nose
37. In the lower layers of the atmosphere due to friction the wind changes direction towards the low pressure
area because:
Wind speed decreases and therefore Coriolis force decreases
38. The most frequent wind direction in a valley caused by thermal effects is toward the:
Mountain during daylight hours
39. Which cloud type may indicate the presence of severe turbulence?
Altocumulus lenticularis
40. Which of the following conditions are most favourable to the formation of mountain waves?
Stable air at mountain top altitude and a wind at least 20 knots blowing across the mountain ridge
41. The jetstream and associated clear air turbulence can sometimes be visually identified in flight by
Long streaks of cirrus clouds
42. During the winter months in mid-latitudes in the northern hemisphere, the polar front jetstream moves
toward the
South and speed increases
43. What causes surface winds to flow across the isobars at an angle rather than parallel to the isobars?
Surface friction
44. What prevents air from flowing directly from high-pressure areas to low-pressure areas?
Coriolis force
45. Select the true statement concerning isobars and wind flow patterns around high- and low-pressure systems
that are shown on a surface weather chart.
When the isobars are close together, the pressure gradient force is greater and wind velocities are stronger
46. What is the approximate speed of a 25-knot wind, expressed in kilometres per hour?
45 km/h
47. What is the approximate speed of a 90 km/h wind, expressed in knots?

50 kt
48. What is the approximate speed of a 40-knot wind, expressed in m/sec?

20 m/sec
49. Where are you likely to find the strongest winds close to the ground?
In the transition zone between two air masses
50. An aircraft flying in the southern hemisphere at 2000 feet, has to turn to the right in order to allow for drift.
In which direction, relative to the aircraft, is the centre of low pressure?
In front
51. Between which latitudes are you most likely to find the subtropical high-pressure belt?
25 - 35
52. Between which latitudes are you most likely to find the region of travelling polar front depressions during
summer?
45 - 70
53. Where, in central Europe, are the highest wind speeds to be found?
Just below the tropopause
54. If Paris reports a wind of 08010KT on the METAR, what wind velocity would you expect to encounter at a
height of 2000 feet above the ground?
11020KT
19040KT
33025KT
57. Which of the following is true of a land breeze?

It blows from land to water
58. An aircraft is approaching under visual flight rules an airfield whose runway is parallel to the coast. When
downwind over the sea, the airfield is on the left. What wind effect should be anticipated on final approach and
landing during a sunny afternoon?
Crosswind from the left
59. The equatorial easterly jet is a jetstream that occurs:

Only in the summer of the northern hemisphere at approx. 45 000 FT
60. All pilots encountering Clear Air Turbulence are requested to report it. You experience CAT which causes
passengers and crew to feel definite strain against their seat belt or shoulders straps. Unsecured objects are
dislodged. Food service and walking are difficult. This intensity of CAT should be reported as
Moderate
61. When otherwise calm and clear conditions exist a station on the shore of a large body of water will
experience wind
From the water in daytime and from the land at night
62. The greater the pressure gradient the

Closer the isobars and the stronger the wind
63. When isobars, for an area in the mid-latitudes on a weather map, are close together, the wind is most likely
to be
Strong
64. In the northern hemisphere a pilot flying at 1000 FT/AGL directly towards the centre of a low pressure area,
will find the wind blowing from
Left and behind
65. In the northern hemisphere the wind at the surface blows

Counter-clockwise around, and toward the centre of, a low pressure area
66. Wind is caused by
Horizontal pressure differences
67. The sea breeze is a wind from the sea

Occurring only in the lower layers of the atmosphere in daytime
68. In an area of converging air

Clouds can be formed
69. You are flying from east to west in the northern hemisphere at the 500 hPa pressure surface. Which of the
following statements is correct?
If the wind is from the north you are gaining altitude
70. Geostrophic wind is the wind when isobars are

Straight lines and no friction is involved
71. Fair weather cumulus often is an indication of

Turbulence at and below the cloud level
72. What relationship exists between the wind at 3000 feet and the surface wind?
The wind at 3000 feet is parallel to the isohypses and the surface wind direction is across the isobars toward the
low pressure and the surface wind is weaker
73. The wind tends to follow the contour lines (isohypses) above the friction layer because
The Coriolis force tends to balance with the horizontal pressure gradient force
74. The wind speed in a system with curved isobars compared to a system with straight isobars is (other
conditions being the same)
Higher if curvature is anticyclonic
75. The geostrophic wind depends on

Density, earth's rotation, geographic latitude
76. In a mountain-valley wind circulation, the mountain wind blows

At night down from the mountains
77. At the approach of a warm front (northern hemisphere) the wind direction changes from the surface up to
the tropopause. The effect of this change is that the wind
Veers in the friction layer and veers above the friction layer
78. The difference between geostrophic wind and gradient wind is caused by
Curvature of isobars
79. The vertical extent of the friction layer depends primarily on

Stability, wind speed, roughness of surface
80. During periods of prolonged clear skies associated with anticyclonic conditions, the
Surface wind speed tends to be highest during the early afternoon
81. The geostrophic wind speed is directly proportional to the
Horizontal pressure gradient
82. Geostrophic wind

Is perpendicular to the horizontal pressure gradient force
83. In a low pressure system the convergence at the surface is caused by

Frictional forces
84. Most strong air currents at higher levels (jet streams) have a westerly direction. There is, however, an
important easterly jet stream. When and where is it likely to be encountered?
In summer from south-east Asia extending over southern India to central Africa
85. On a clear summer day, turbulence caused by solar heating is most pronounced
During the early afternoon
86. Which of the following statements concerning jet streams is correct?

In the northern hemisphere both westerly and easterly jet streams occur
87. Under which of the following conditions is the most severe CAT likely to be experienced?
A curved jet stream near a deep trough
88. Which of the following is true concerning an aircraft that is flying at FL180 in the northern hemisphere,
where wind is geostrophic and the true altitude remains constant?
There is no cross wind
89. Which of the following statements concerning the core of a polar front jet stream is correct?
It lies at a height where there is no horizontal temperature gradient; the slope of the pressure surfaces at the
height of the core is at its maximum
90. On a particular day part of a polar front jet stream runs from north to south in the northern hemisphere.
This means that
The polar air is below and to the east of the core of the jet
91. In the central part of the Atlantic Ocean between 10N and 20N the prevailing winds are
NE trade winds
92. What values are used for the forecasted wind at higher levels?
Direction relative to true north and speed in knots
93. For a similar pressure gradient, the geostrophic wind speed will be
Greater at 30N than at 60N
94. Under anticyclone conditions in the northern hemisphere, with curved isobars the speed of the gradient
wind is
Greater than the geostrophic wind
95. Assuming a generalised zonal system of world wind circulation, the SE trade winds are applicable to zone
W
96. Assuming a generalised zonal system of world climatic and wind circulation, zone "t" is an area of
Subtropical high pressure systems
97. Assuming a generalised zonal system of world wind circulation the travelling low pressure systems are
applicable to zone
s and y
98. Assuming a generalised zonal system of world climatic and wind circulation, zone "y" is an area of
Travelling low pressure systems
99. Assuming a generalised zonal system of world wind circulation, the NE trade winds are applicable to zone
U
100. Assuming a generalised zonal system of world climatic and wind circulation, zone "u" is in area of
NE trade winds
101. Considering Melbourne (C) in July, the weather is predominantly influenced by the zone of
Subtropical high pressure, with the occasional passage of fronts originating in the adjacent zone of disturbed
temperate low pressure
102. Assuming a generalised zonal system of world climatic and wind circulation, zone "u" is in area of
NE trade winds
103. In the northern hemisphere with an anticyclonic pressure system the geostrophic wind at 2000 FT over the
sea is 060/15. At the same position the surface wind is most likely to be
045/12
104. At the top of orographic waves, in mountainous regions, the cloud most likely to be encountered is
105. What is meant by the expression "Low level windshear?

A change of wind direction and force during a limited period of time within a small area
106. Wind shear is experienced when:

There is a ground inversion and strong winds above the inversion layer
107. When flying at FL 180 in the Northern Hemisphere you experience a right drift:
Your TA decreases
108. When flying at FL 180 in the Northern Hemisphere you experience a left drift:
Your TA increases
109. How is wind measured?

8-10 m above the ground on a mast with an anemometer
110. What is the name of the low level winds between the subtropical high pressure belt and the ITCZ?
Trade winds
111. What can you expect at FL 180, when the wind is geostrophic and you fly at a constant true altitude of
18'000 ft?
No crosswind
112. Where do you encounter the strongest winds close to the ground?
In the transition zone between air masses
113. You fly from east to west at the 500 hPa level in the Northern hemisphere:
If the wind is from the North, there is a gain in altitude
114. After a sunny day, followed by a long clear night, you take-off from an airfield at mid-latitudes in the
northern hemisphere an hour before sunrise. The field is not situated close to the coast. Though the pressure
gradient is rather large, the easterly surface wind is weak and makes...
A sudden strong increase in wind speed and strong veering of the wind a short time after take-off
115. Which statement is correct for the southern hemisphere?

In the friction layer the wind backs with increasing height
116. According to the extract of the surface isobar map, the surface wind direction over the sea is approximately
170
117. What wind direction will occur over the land (surface) at point E?
West
118. Strongest clear air turbulence is to be expected

On the cold air side of the jet stream core
119. What kind of turbulence is caused by the friction of air flowing over the earth's surface?
Mechanical turbulence
120. What kind of turbulence is dependent on the sun's radiation and therefore follows a pronounced diurnal
pattern?
Convective turbulence
121. On which latitudes can the Coriolis force in practice be neglected for meteorological purposes?
From 0 to about 10 degrees north and south
122. Where is the wind speed of a polar front jet stream normally at its strongest?
In the area between a trough and a ridge
123. Which of the following is correct regarding the wind speed in a jet stream in the northern hemisphere?
With colder air to the left when looking downwind, the wind speed increases with height, while with the colder air
to the right the wind speed decreases with height
124. Katabatic wind is

A flow of cold air down the slope of a mountain
125. In relation to the wind speed and direction at the top of the friction layer, which change in wind will a pilot
normally experience during descent to the surface over land in the northern hemisphere?
Backing ca. 30 degrees, speed is reduced by ca. 50%
126. Which of the following statements is correct concerning the geostrophic wind?
It is present at latitudes higher than about 15 degrees north/south
127. In the tropopause the position of so called "tropopause breaks" is important for aviation because
The cores of jet streams can be located near these breaks
128. Moderate to severe CAT is encountered especially in

An area with strongly curved, closely packed isohypses
129. In this question the wind speed with straight isobars (vst), the wind speed around a high-pressure system
(vhigh) and the wind speed around a low-pressure system (vlow) in the southern hemisphere are being compared
while pressure gradient and latitude are constant. Which statement is correct?
vst < vhigh and vst > vlow
130. When flying at 5000 feet in the northern hemisphere over plains (flat country) with an anticyclone on the
left and a depression on the right, the wind will be
A head wind
131. Mountain waves should be expected

On the downwind side of the mountain chain
132. In addition to a stable layer of air over a substantial mountain range, the conditions most favourable to the
development of standing waves are
Wind speed excess of 20 kt at the surface and increasing with height, wind direction perpendicular to the general
direction of the range
133. Where is the projection of the polar front jet stream on the surface most likely to be found in relation to the
cold and warm fronts of a depression?
50 to 200 NM behind the cold front and 300 to 450 NM ahead of the warm front
134. Sea breezes are most likely to occur when

Slack pressure gradient and clear skies result in relatively high land temperatures
135. For the same horizontal distance between adjacent isobars the gradient wind speed will be least at:
50N with a cyclonic circulation
136. In summer in the northern hemisphere the maximum wind speeds associated with subtropical jet streams
are usually located
Below the tropopause at about 200 hPa
137. Which of the following statements concerning the variation in wind speed between summer and winter on
the North Atlantic between FL 300 and FL 400 is most correct?
The average westerly component is greater in the winter than in the summer. The latitude of the axis of greatest
seasonal wind speed is further south in winter than in summer
138. At which time, if any, are polar front jet streams over the South Pacific usually strongest?
July
139. The core of the polar front jet stream is usually located in the
Tropical air below the tropopause
140. During summer, a weak pressure gradient covers a coastal airfield in Eastern England resulting in mainly
clear skies. The surface wind at dawn was calm.
If the alignment of the coastline in the vicinity of the airfield is predominantly north/south, the surface wind is likely
to become
Easterly to south-easterly and increase in velocity by afternoon
141. In the northern hemisphere, during periods of prolonged clear skies associated with anticyclonic conditions,
the
Surface wind speed tends to be highest during the early afternoon
142. The length, width and vertical extent of a typical mid-latitude jet stream are respectively
1000 nautical miles, 150 nautical miles, 18000 feet
143. Which of the following statements is correct?

At the equator horizontal motions do not induce any horizontal Coriolis force
144. At the same latitude the geostrophic wind is less than the gradient wind around an anticyclone with equal
pressure gradient because the
Centrifugal force is added to the pressure gradient
145. Check the correctness of the following statements:

1) Surface winds are usually closer to geostrophic balance over oceanic areas than over land
2) Above the friction layer the wind is always geostrophic
1) is correct, 2) is not correct
146. Which of these statements about mountain waves are correct or incorrect?
1) For the development of strong down- and updrafts in mountain waves the atmosphere must be unstable
2) If a rotor occurs in a mountain wave it is always visible
147. Which of these statements about turbulence are correct or incorrect?

1) Severe CAT may be expected in the core of a jet stream
2) At 500 ft/AGL mechanical turbulence does occur more often than at 5000 ft/AGL
148. In which geographical region of the earth achieves the polar front jet stream the highest velocity?
Japan
149. When flying in the northern hemisphere under tailwind conditions (cross wind component zero), which
statement is correct regarding the location of pressure systems in relation to your flight path?
A low pressure area is on your left
150. In the proximity of the polar jet stream, wind shears and clear air turbulence (CAT) occur. Which statement
about these phenomena is true?
Most CAT areas are found on the cyclonic side of the jet stream
151. In a large area covered by an air mass of uniform density and situated in the northern hemisphere, isobars
on the weather map are equidistant. In this case, geostrophic wind speed
Increases when travelling south
152. Wind speed in case of gradient wind is

Depending on curvature of the isobars
153. Convergence over a uniform surface is caused by

Frictional force together which cyclonic curvature of the isobars
154. Divergence over a uniform surface is caused by
Frictional force together with anti-cyclonic curvature of the isobars
155. What is the dry adiabatic lapse rate per 100 metres?
1.0C
156. A parcel of unsaturated air is lifted to just below the condensation level and then returned to its original
level. What is the final temperature of the parcel of air?
The same as the starting temperature
157. Which of the following changes of state is known as sublimation?

Solid direct to vapour
158. Clouds, fog or dew will always be formed when:

Water vapour condenses
159. What does dewpoint mean?

The temperature to which a mass of air must be cooled in order to reach saturation
160. Which of the following is the definition of relative humidity?

Ratio between the actual mixing ratio and the saturation mixing ratio X 100
161. The relative humidity of a sample air mass is 50%. How is the relative humidity of this air mass influenced by
changes of the amount of water vapour in it?
It increases with increasing water vapour
162. Relative humidity

Changes when water vapour is added, even though the temperature remains constant
163. How, if at all, is the relative humidity of an unsaturated airmass influenced by temperature changes?
It decreases with increasing temperature
164. How does relative humidity and the dewpoint in an unsaturated airmass change with varying temperature?
When temperature increases, the relative humidity decreases, and the dewpoint remains constant
165. When a given mass of air descends, what effect will it have on relative humidity?
It decreases
166. During the late afternoon an air temperature of +12C and a dew point of +5C were measured. What
temperature change must occur during the night in order to induce saturation?
It must decrease to +5C
167. A parcel of moist but not saturated air rises due to adiabatic effects. Which of the following changes?
Relative humidity
168. In which of the following changes of state is latent heat released?

Gas to liquid
169. How are high level condensation trails formed that are to be found occasionally behind jet aircraft?
Through water vapour released during fuel combustion
170. If a saturated air mass descends down a slope its temperature increases at
A lower rate than in dry air, as evaporation absorbs heat
171. Which of the following statements is true of the dew point of an air mass?
It can only be equal to, or lower, than the temperature of the air mass
172. What of the following is the most important constituent in the atmosphere from a weather stand-point?
Water vapour
173. Supercooled droplets are always

At a temperature below freezing
174. Supercooled droplets can be encountered

At any time of the year
175. During an adiabatic process heat is

Neither added nor lost
176. The decrease in temperature, per 100 metres, in an unsaturated rising parcel of air is
1C
177. The decrease in temperature, per 100 metres, in a saturated rising parcel of air at lower level of the
atmosphere is approximately
0.6C
178. The rate of cooling of ascending saturated air is less than the rate of cooling of ascending unsaturated air
because:
Heat is released during the condensation process
179. If the surface temperature is 15C , then the temperature at 10000 FT in a current of ascending unsaturated
air is:
-15C
180. In a layer of air the decrease in temperature per 100 metres increase in height is more than 1C. This layer
can be described as being
Absolutely unstable
181. The stability in a layer is increasing if

Warm air is advected in the upper part and cold air in the lower part
182. Which of the following statements concerning the lifting of a parcel of air is correct?
Unsaturated parcels cool more rapidly than saturated parcels
183. Relative humidity
Increases if the air is cooled whilst maintaining the vapour pressure constant
184. The difference between temperature and dewpoint is greater in

Dry air
185. The dewpoint temperature
Can be equal to the air temperature
186. Relative humidity depends on

Moisture content and temperature of the air
187. The dewpoint temperature

Can be reached by cooling the air whilst keeping pressure constant
188. When water evaporates into unsaturated air

Heat is absorbed
189. A sample of moist but unsaturated air may become saturated by

Expanding it adiabatically
190. A supercooled droplet is

A droplet still in liquid state at a temperature below freezing
191. The maximum amount of water vapour that the air can contain depends on the
Air temperature
192. The height of the lifting condensation level is determined by

Temperature and dewpoint at the surface
193. Supercooled droplets can occur in

Clouds, fog and precipitation
194. A super-cooled droplet is one that

Remains liquid at a below freezing temperature
195. A layer is absolutely unstable if the temperature decrease with height is

More than 1C per 100m
196. A layer in which the temperature remains constant with height is

Absolutely stable
197. A layer in which the temperature increases with height is

Absolutely stable
198. A layer in which the temperature decreases with 1C per 100m is

Neutral for dry air
199. An inversion is
An absolutely stable layer
200. Dew point is defined as

The temperature to which moist air must be cooled to become saturated at a given pressure
201. The process by which water vapour is transformed directly into ice is known as
Sublimation
202. Relative humidity at a given temperature is the relation between

Actual water vapour content and saturated water vapour content
203. The amount of water vapor which air can hold largely depends on:
Air temperature
204. With decreasing temperature and unchanged dew point:

The relative humidity will increase
205. As a parcel of air cools, its ability to hold water vapour:

Decreases
206. As a parcel of air warms, its ability to hold water vapour:

Increases
207. Moist air is:
Less dense than dry air
Refer to a unit mass of air, e.g. 1 kg of air. The volume V in the equation P V = const. T then indicates how much
room is needed for 1 kg of air. This is called the specific volume [v] (i.e. the volume of a specified amount).
We have defined density as weight per unit of volume. Together this means that density (r) can be written as r = 1/v,
where v = specific volume. Moreover, if we make certain assumptions as to the composition of the air, we can work
out a new gas constant = R, sufficiently exact for meteorological applications. R = 287 for dry air, while Rv = 462 for
water vapour.
There is thus a difference in value between the constants for dry air and for water vapour. The explanation for this is,
that dry air is heavier than water vapour, i.e. the density is greater in dry air.
The density of the water vapour is only 5/8 of that of the air, and this is of some importance for the takeoff and
landing run, which will be extended if the air is very humid.
208. A parcel of air is said to be saturated if it has a relative humidity of:

100 %
209. The temperature at which a parcel of air becomes saturated if it cools is called:
Dew point temperature
210. Which statement is true for the lifting of an air parcel?

Unsaturated parcels cool more rapidly than saturated
211. What is relative humidity?

The ratio of the actual water vapour content in the air to the saturated water vapour content of the air at a given
temperature
212. Rising air cools because

It expands
213. A parcel of unsaturated air is forced to rise through an isothermal layer. So long as it remains unsaturated,
the temperature of the parcel...
Decreases 1C per 100 m
214. For both saturated and unsaturated air instability will occur when the...
Environmental lapse rate is greater than both the DALR and SALR
215. A given mass of air is saturated with water vapour (no condensed water). If temperature increases
The amount of water vapour remains constant
216. Which of the following changes of state is known as condensation?

Gas to liquid
217. In which of the following changes of state is latent heat released?

Liquid to solid
218. Consider a parcel of air being forced upwards in the atmosphere. The lapse rate of the surrounding air is less
than the saturated adiabatic lapse rate. After the initial force is no longer effective, the parcel of air
Will tend to descend to its original altitude
219. What is "mixing ratio"?

The number of grammes of water vapours per kilogramme of dry air
220. Consider a parcel of air which is moved upwards in the surrounding air by an external force. Which one of
the following situations describes instability?
The parcel tends to gain altitude after being released
221. Which of the following processes will increase the stability of an air mass?
Cooling by the underlying surface
222. In an unsaturated layer in the friction layer the air is well mixed by turbulence. The layer remains
unsaturated. After some time the vertical temperature profile will
Correspond to the dry adiabatic lapse rate
223. Absolute instability in the atmosphere will occur when the environmental lapse rate is
Greater than both saturated adiabatic lapse rate and dry adiabatic lapse rate
224. Check these statements for correctness:

1) Advection of warm air over a cold surface is an adiabatic process
2) A temperature change induced through rising or sinking air is an adiabatic process
1) is incorrect, 2) is correct
225. A parcel of rising air stays unsaturated. Which of the following statements is correct?
Relative humidity increases, temperature decreases

1) The transfer of heat by radiation and advection is non-adiabatic
2) The ascent and descent of air cause adiabatic changes of temperature
1) is correct, 2) is correct
1) The cooling of air by advection over a cooler surface is the result of an adiabatic process
2) The change of temperature in rising and sinking air is the result of an adiabatic process
1) is incorrect, 2) is correct
228. The temperature at the surface is given as + 15C and at 4000 ft above the surface it is + 9C, the state of this
layer is said to be
Stable
229. A given volume of 1 m3 of air is saturated with water vapour. With decreasing air temperature the
Relative humidity will remain the same
230. A given volume of 1 m3 of air is saturated with water vapour. With increasing air temperature the
Relative humidity will decrease
231. A given volume of 1 m3 of air is saturated with water vapour. With decreasing air temperature the
Vapour pressure will decrease
232. Which of the following is a cause of stratus forming over flat land?
Radiation during the night from the earth surface in moderate wind
233. Which of the following processes within a layer of air may lead to the building of CU and CB clouds?
Convection
234. What are the characteristics of cumuliform clouds?

Large water droplets, instability, turbulence, showers and mainly clear ice
235. Which of the following types of clouds are evidence of unstable air conditions?
CU, CB
236. Which of the following clouds are classified as medium level clouds in temperate regions?
AS, AC
237. A plain in Western Europe with an average elevation of 500 m (1600 FT) above sea level is covered with a
uniform AC layer of cloud during the summer months. At what height above the ground is the base of this cloud to
be expected?
7000 - 15000 FT above the terrain
238. Which of the following clouds may extend into more than one layer?
Nimbostratus
239. At what time of day, or night, is radiation fog most likely to occur?
Shortly after sunrise
240. What is the average vertical extent of radiation fog?

500 FT
241. When does frontal fog, also known as mixing fog, occur?
When very humid warm air meets with very humid cold air
242. What wind conditions, occurring just before dawn, favour the formation of fog at an airport where the
temperature is 15C and the dew point is 14C?
Calm
243. Which of the following weather conditions favour the formation of radiation fog?
Light wind, little or no cloud, moist air
244. What process in an air mass leads to the creation of wide spread NS, AS and ST cloud coverage?
Lifting
245. Which of the following cloud is classified as low level cloud?

ST
246. What flying conditions may be encountered when flying in cirrus clouds?
Average horizontal visibility more than 1000 m; nil icing
247. Which of the following is most likely to lead to the dissipation of radiation fog?
A marked increase in wind velocity near the ground
248. Which of the following conditions is most likely to lead to the formation of advection fog?
Moist warm air moving over a cold surface
249. Which of the following conditions is most likely to lead to the formation of steam fog (arctic smoke)?
Cold air moving over warm water
250. The most likely reason for radiation fog to dissipate or become low stratus is:
Increasing surface wind speed
251. What are the differences between radiation fog and advection fog?
Radiation fog forms due to surface cooling at night in a light wind. Advection fog forms when warm humid air
flows over a cold surface
252. What conditions are most likely to lead to the formation of hill fog?
Humid stable air mass, wind blowing towards the hills
253. Which type of fog is likely to form when air is having temperature of 15C and dew point of 12C blows at 10
knots over a sea surface having temperatures of 5C?
Advection fog
254. What type of fog is most likely to form over flat land during a clear night, with calm or light wind conditions?
Radiation
255. Which types of clouds are typical evidence of stable air conditions?
ST, AS
256. Which one of the displayed cloud forms is representative of altocumulus lenticularis?
b
257. Which one of the displayed cloud forms is representative of a cumulonimbus capillatus?
d
258. Which of the following types of cloud can extend over the low, medium and high cloud levels?
CB
259. A plain in Western Europe with an average height of 500 m (1600 FT) above sea level is covered with a
uniform SC layer of cloud during the summer months. At what height above the ground is the base of this cloud to
be expected?
1500 - 7000 FT above ground
260. A plain in Western Europe with an average height of 500 m (1600 FT) above sea level is covered with a
uniform CC layer of cloud during the summer months. At what height above the ground is the base of this cloud to
be expected?
15000 - 35000 FT above the terrain
261. Which of the following cloud types is found at high levels?

CI
262. Which of the following cloud types is a medium level cloud?

AS
263. Which of the following is most likely to lead to the formation of radiation fog?
Heat loss from the ground on clear nights
264. Rising air cools because

It expands
265. The presence of altocumulus lenticularis is an indication of the

Presence of mountain waves
266. Freezing fog consists of

Supercooled water droplets
267. Convective clouds are formed

In unstable atmosphere
268. A cumulonimbus cloud at mid-latitudes in summer contains

A combination of ice crystals, water droplets and supercooled water droplets
269. Strongly developed cumulus clouds are an indication of

Instability in the atmosphere
270. Clouds, classified as being low level are considered to have bases from
The surface to 6500 FT
271. In an unstable layer there are cumuliform clouds. The vertical extent of these clouds depends on the
Thickness of the unstable layer
272. Cumulus clouds are an indication for
Up and downdrafts
273. What type of cloud is being described?

A generally grey cloud layer with fairly uniform base and uniform appearance, which may give drizzle or snow grains.
When the sun is visible through the cloud, the outline is clearly discernible. Sometimes it appears in the form of
ragged patches.
Stratus
274. The presence of altocumulus castellanus indicates

Instability in the middle troposphere
275. When the temperature and dew point are less than one degree apart the weather conditions are most likely
to be
Fog or low cloud
276. The morning following a clear, calm night when the temperature has dropped to the dewpoint, is likely to
produce
Radiation fog
277. Advection fog can be formed when

Warm moist air flows over a colder surface
278. Steaming fog (arctic sea smoke) occurs in air

With cold mass properties
279. Frontal fog is most likely to occur

In advance of a warm front
280. Which of the following statements is true concerning advection fog?

It can be formed suddenly by day or night
281. Which of the following circumstances most favour the development of radiation fog?
Moist air over land during clear night with little wind
282. Fallstreaks or virga are

Water or ice particles falling out of a cloud that evaporate before reaching the ground
283. The family of medium clouds include altostratus, altocumulus and nimbostratus. In moderate latitudes their
height of base ranges from:
6500 to 23000 feet
284. High clouds are normally composed of

Ice crystals
285. State the four families of clouds:

High, medium and low clouds and clouds with extensive vertical development
286. The type of cloud formed when warm, light air rises rapidly into cooler air is a:
Cumulus-type
287. Given a surface temperature of +10C, and a dew point of +5C, at what height might you expect cumulus
clouds to form?
2000ft
288. What will be the classification of high level clouds and where will the base be?
Above 16500ft, Cirri form
289. Which of the following types of cloud is most likely to be associated with prolonged and continuous
moderate rain?
NS
290. The presence of standing lenticular AC clouds is a good indication of:

Updrafts and downdrafts
291. Which clouds, normally found in the medium level, can extend to the other levels?
NS
292. What does a CB contain at moderate latitudes in summer?

A combination of ice crystals, water droplets and supercooled water droplets
293. What do you expect with fair weather Cumulus clouds?

Turbulence at and below the cloud level
294. Which of the following are medium level clouds? State the most complete answer:
AS, AC
295. Which of the following are low level clouds? State the most complete answer:
ST, NS
296. Which of the following are high level clouds? State the most complete answer:
CI, CC
297. Which cloud, normally found in the medium level, may extend to the low and high levels?
NS
298. Which of the four radio soundings corresponds with "OVC015"?
C
299. Which process in an air mass lead to NS-AS-ST clouds?

Lifting
300. In a stratus type cloud you find:

Little convective currents and the temperature is similar to the temperature of the surrounding air at the same
altitude
301. Which occurrences are least for CB development?

Ground radiation
302. Which cloud species is described by the following definition?

"Clouds which present, in at least some portion of their upper part, cumuliform protuberances in the form of turrets
which generally give the clouds a crenellated appearance. The turrets, some of which are taller than they are wide,
are connected by a common base and seem to be arranged in lines. The typical character is especially evident when
the clouds are seen from the side."
Castellanus
303. Which cloud type (genus) is described by the following definition?

"Greyish or bluish cloud sheet or layer of striated, fibrous or uniform appearance, totally or partly covering the sky,
and having parts thin enough to reveal the sun at least vaguely, as through ground glass. This genus does not show
halo phenomena."
Altostratus

"Grey cloud layer, often dark, the appearance of which is rendered diffuse by more or less continuously falling rain
or snow, which in most cases reaches the ground. It is thick enough throughout to blot out the sun. Low, ragged
clouds frequently occur below the layer, with which they may or may not merge."
Nimbostratus

"Detached clouds in the form of white, delicate filaments or white or mostly white patches or narrow bands. These
clouds have fibrous (hair-like) appearance, or a silky sheen, or both."
Cirrus
306. Which of the following circumstances most favours the development of orographic fog?
High relative humidity
307. Which of the following statements is true concerning frontal fog?
It may be formed by day as well as by night
308. The main components of an altostratus are

Ice crystals and water droplets
309. In wintertime stratus is often formed when warm maritime air moves over cold land. How can such clouds
be classified?
Turbulence clouds
Above particular wind speeds, especially over a rough surface, turbulent mixing will occur causing the fog layer to
form into a low Stratus layer. > Refer to Hack > Advection fog
310. In stratiform clouds

Weak vertical currents occur and the temperature is nearly equal to the temperature of the surrounding air at the
same height
311. What kind of fog is often observed in the coastal region of Newfoundland in spring time?
Advection fog
312. Radiation fog most frequently occurs in:

High pressure systems over land
313. Which statement is correct?

Fog can be supercooled and can also contain ice crystals
314. After a clear night cumuliform clouds are formed in the morning. Why can the base of these clouds become
higher during the day?
Because the surface temperature increases
315. What is a characteristic phenomenon for a stable atmosphere?

Stratified clouds
316. Advection of very cold air over a warm sea current can cause:
Steam fog
317. If radiation fog forms on a clear night with light winds, the increase in wind speed from 5 kt to 13 kt will most
likely
Cause the fog to lift and become low stratus
318. Clouds in patches, sheets or grey or whitish layers made up of elements resembling large pebbles or rollers,
together or not, and always clear of the ground are:
Stratocumulus
319. About ten identical clouds are in the sky, well isolated from one another, dense, with well defined contours,
developing vertically in a cauliflower shape. The side of these clouds lit by the sun is bright white. Their base,
relatively dark, is essentially horizontal and at FL 30, and their tops at FL 150. These clouds are
Towering Cumulus
320. Which of the following phenomena is least likely to lead to the formation of a Cumulonimbus with
thunderstorm?
Ground radiation
321. In mid-latitudes, the tops of Cumulus are often limited by

A temperature inversion
322. Which of the following sets of conditions are most likely to lead to the formation of advection fog?
A mild moist airstream flowing over colder surfaces with the wind speed less than 15 kt
323. Advection fog is most likely to form when

A mild moist airstream flows over snow covered ground and the wind speed is less than 10 kt
324. A layer of stratus is most likely to be dispersed by

Insolation resulting in the lifting of the condensation level
325. Frontal fog can be formed

When the air becomes saturated due to evaporation of precipitation and water vapour condenses
326. Which type of fog can NOT be formed over water?

Radiation fog
327. Stratus formed by turbulence will occur when

In the friction layer mixing occurs by turbulence and the condensation level is situated below the top of the
turbulent layer
328. A cumulus congestus is

A cumulus that is of great vertical extent

FG is reported only when visibility is reduced by water droplets or ice crystals to less than 1000 m
330. Which of these statements about steam fog are correct or incorrect?
1) Steam fog is formed in air with cold air mass properties
2) Steam fog is formed only in windless conditions
1) Fog only occurs in air with cold air mass properties
2) Both mist and haze are formed by water droplets and/or ice crystals in the atmosphere
332. Which of the following are favourable conditions for the formation of freezing rain?
Warm air aloft from which rain is falling into air with a temperature below 0C
333. Which form of precipitation from clouds containing only water is most likely to fall in mid-latitudes?
Drizzle
334. Which one of the following types of cloud is most likely to produce heavy precipitation?
NS
335. With what type of clouds are showers most likely associated?
Cumulonimbus
336. How does freezing rain develop?

Rain falls through a layer where temperatures are below 0C
337. What type of cloud can produce hail showers?

CB
338. The presence of ice pellets at the surface is evidence that

Freezing rain occurs at a higher altitude
339. With which of the following types of cloud is "+RA" precipitation most commonly associated?
NS
340. With what type of cloud is "GR" precipitation most commonly associated?
CB
341. With what type of cloud is "DZ" precipitation most commonly associated?
ST
342. Which of the following cloud types is least likely to produce precipitation?
CI
343. With what type of cloud is heavy precipitation unlikely during the summer months?
SC, AS
344. With what type of cloud is "+TSRA" precipitation most commonly associated?
CB
345. Freezing precipitation occurs

Mainly in the form of freezing rain or freezing drizzle
346. Precipitation in the form of showers occurs mainly from

Convective clouds
347. Steady precipitation, in contrast to showery precipitation falls from

Stratiform clouds with little or no turbulence
348. Large hail stones
Are typically associated with severe thunderstorms
349. Freezing rain occurs when

Rain falls into a layer of air with temperatures below 0C
350. The following statements deal with precipitation, turbulence and icing. Select the list containing the most
likely alternatives for NS cloud:
Precipitation may be snow, sleet or rain. Icing is probable and may range between light and severe. Turbulence is
rarely more than moderate
351. From what type of cloud does drizzle fall?

Stratus
352. What types of clouds are associated with rain showers?

Towering cumulus and cumulonimbus
353. For an aircraft at FL 80, ahead of the front in square 2D, the expected flight conditions are
Below AS type cloud, generally smooth air with light precipitation

The Bergeron-Findeisen process is mainly based on the difference of maximum vapour pressure over water and
over ice of the same temperature
355. The Bergeron Theory:

Presumes that at high levels in a cloud, some water droplets turn to ice and grow by sublimation
356. Hazardous hailstones, reaching the ground, are most likely to be experienced below CB clouds situated:
In continental interiors in middle latitudes
357. Which of the following statements is true concerning the coalescence process?
In the mid-latitudes this process produces only drizzle or very light rain
358. Snow grains

Fall from stratus or supercooled fog
359. "Solid precipitation which is transparent or translucent and has a diameter of 5mm or less formed by the
freezing of raindrops or refreezing of melted snow, and usually bounces off hard surfaces", is a description of
Ice pellets
360. The maximum vapour pressure over a flat supercooled water surface and the maximum vapour pressure
over a flat ice surface of the same temperature are compared. The maximum vapour pressure is
Greater over the water surface

1) The maximum water vapour pressure is higher over ice than over water with the same temperature
2) For unsaturated air the dew-point temperature is lower than the temperature

1) In a mixed cloud the ice crystals grow at the expense of supercooled water droplets
2) In the mid latitudes heavy rain showers are formed by the coalescence process
363. What types of clouds are associated with snow showers?

Cumulus and cumulonimbus
364. The polar front is the boundary between:
Polar air and tropical air
365. What are the typical differences between the temperature and humidity between an air mass with its origin
in the Azores and an air mass with its origin over northern Russia?
The air of the Azores is warmer and more humid than the North-Russian air
366. Where is the source of tropical continental air that affects Europe in summer?
The southern Balkan region and the Near East
367. Where does polar continental air originate?

Siberian landmass
368. In which air mass are extremely low temperatures encountered?

Polar continental air
369. What type of fronts are most likely to be present during the winter in Central Europe when temperatures
close to the ground are below 0C, and freezing rain starts to fall?
Warm fronts, warm occlusions
370. Which of the following conditions are you most likely to encounter when approaching an active warm front
at medium to low level?
Low cloud base and poor visibility
371. During a cross-country flight at FL 50, you observe the following sequence of clouds:
Nimbostratus, Altostratus, Cirrostratus, Cirrus.
Which of the following are you most likely to encounter?
Decreasing temperatures
372. What cloud formation is most likely to occur at low levels when a warm air mass overrides a cold air mass?
Nimbostratus
373. The approximate inclined plane of a warm front is:

1/150
374. What type of low pressure area is associated with a surface front?
Polar front low
375. In which approximate direction does the centre of a frontal depression move?
In the direction of the warm sector isobars
376. Where is the coldest air to be found, in an occlusion with cold front characteristics?
Behind the front
377. What type of front / occlusion usually moves the fastest?

Cold front
378. Over Central Europe what type of cloud cover is typical of the warm sector of a depression during winter?
ST with drizzle
379. What weather conditions are prevalent during the summer, over the North Sea, approximately 300 km
behind a quickly moving cold front?
Cloud cover mostly scattered, isolated showers
380. What is the surface visibility most likely to be, in a warm sector of tropical maritime air, during the summer?
Moderate (several km)
381. After passing at right angles through a very active cold front in the direction of the cold air, what will you
encounter, in the northern hemisphere immediately after a marked change in temperature?
A veering in the wind direction
382. At what time of the year, are the paths of north Atlantic lows moving from west to east generally, at their
most southerly position?
Winter
383. In which of the following regions does polar maritime air originate?
East of Greenland
384. In which of the following situations can freezing rain be encountered?

Ahead of a warm front in the winter
385. How do air masses move at a warm front?

Warm air overrides a cold air mass
386. What type of precipitation would you expect at an active unstable cold front?
Showers associated with thunderstorms
387. What is the relative movement of the two air masses along a cold front?
Cold air pushes under a warm air mass
388. What cloud cover is typical for a wide warm sector of a polar front depression over Central Europe in the
summer?
Fair weather CU
389. This chart shows the weather conditions on the ground at 0600 UTC on May 23. Which of the following
reports reflects weather development at Geneva Airport?
TAF LSGG 230716 23016KT 8000 -RA BKN030 OVC070 BECMG 0810 5000 RA BKN020 OVC050 TEMPO 3000 +RA
BKN010 OVC030 BECMG 1215 25014KT 8000 SCT030 BKN090 =
390. In Zurich during a summer day the following weather observations were taken:
160450Z 23015KT 3000 +RA SCT008 SCT020 OVC030 13/12 Q1010 NOSIG =
160650Z 25008KT 6000 SCT040 BKN090 18/14 Q1010 RERA NOSIG =
160850Z 25006KT 8000 SCT040 SCT100 19/15 Q1009 NOSIG =
161250Z 23012KT CAVOK 23/16 Q1005 NOSIG =
161450Z 23016KT 9999 SCT040 BKN090 24/17 Q1003 BECMG 25020G40KT TS =
161650Z 24018G35KT 3000 +TSRA SCT006 BKN015CB 18/16 Q1002 NOSIG =
What do you conclude based on these observations?
A warm front passed the station early in the morning and a cold front during late afternoon
391. Which one of the tracks (dashed lines) is represented by the cross-section shown on the left?
Track D-A
392. Which cross-section of air mass and cloud presentation is applicable to the straight line A-B?
c
393. What is the classification of the airmass affecting position "Q" at 0600 UTC?
Tropical maritime
394. Which of the following describes a warm occlusion?

The coldest air mass is ahead of the original warm front
395. When do cold occlusions occur most frequently in Europe?

Summer
396. In which main direction does a polar front depression move?

Along the front towards the east
397. What change in pressure, will occur at point A, during the next hour?
A rise in pressure
398. Thunderstorms in exceptional circumstances can occur in a warm front if

The warm air is convectively unstable
399. On an aerodrome, when a warm front is approaching

QFE and QNH decrease
400. How are the air masses distributed in a cold occlusion?

The coldest air mass behind and the less cold air in front of the occlusion; the warm air mass is above ground level
401. What characterizes a stationary front?

The surface wind usually has its direction parallel to the front
402. Depressions associated with developing frontal waves can be assumed to move in the direction of the 3000
feet wind
In the warm sector
403. What types of cloud will you see flying at FL 50 towards a warm front?
At some 800 km CS, later AS, and at some 300 km NS until the front
404. A non-occluded frontal wave passes through the airport. What form of precipitation do you expect?
Continuous rain or snow during several hours until the warm front arrives. The precipitation stops for several
hours within the warm sector. On the arrival of the cold front, showers within a couple of hours
405. If you have to fly through a warm front when freezing level is at 10000 feet in the warm air and at 2000 feet
in the cold air, at which altitude is the probability of freezing rain the lowest?
12000 feet
406. Read this description: "After such a fine day, the ring around the moon was a bad sign yesterday evening for
the weather today. And, sure enough, it is pouring down outside. The clouds are making an oppressively low ceiling
of uniform grey; but at least it has become a little bit warmer." Which of these weather phenomena is being
described?
A warm front
407. What will be the effect on the reading of an altimeter of an aircraft parked on the ground during the period
following the passage of an active cold front?
It will have decreased
408. What will be the effect on the reading of an altimeter of an aircraft parked on the ground shortly before an
active cold front passes?
It will be increasing
409. What will be the effect on the reading of an altimeter of an aircraft parked on the ground as an active cold
front is passing?
It will first increase then decrease
410. Which of the following is typical for the passage of a cold front in the summer?
Mainly towering clouds
411. Examining the pictures, on which one of the tracks (dashed lines) is this cross-section to be expected?
Track B-D
412. Refer to the diagram. Assuming the usual direction of movement, to which position will the polar frontal
wave have moved?
Position C
413. In a polar front depression, an occlusion is called a warm occlusion when the cold air
Behind is less cold than the cold air in front, with the warm air at a high altitude
414. The main factor which contributes to the formation of very low clouds ahead of a warm front is the
Saturation of the cold air by rain falling into it and evaporating
415. An observer on the northern hemisphere is under influence of the wind system of a depression, which is
moving from West to East. The centre of the depression passes to the South of the observer. For this observer the
wind direction is
Continuously backing
416. In a warm occlusion

The warm air is lifted
417. An airmass is unstable when

An ascending parcel of air continues to rise to a considerable height
418. An airmass is stable when

The vertical motion of a rising parcel of air tends to become weaker and disappears
419. An air mass is a body of air that

Covers an extensive area and has fairly uniform properties of temperature and moisture
420. Which are characteristics of an unstable cold air mass moving over a warm surface?
Cumuliform clouds, turbulence, and good visibility
421. What are the most common characteristics of a cold air mass moving over a warm surface?
Cumuliform clouds, turbulence, and good visibility
422. What are the most common characteristics of a warm airmass, moving over a cold surface?
Stratiform clouds, smooth air, and poor visibility
423. If a cold front moves at 30 knots, you could expect the warm front to be moving at:
20 knots
424. What pressure does an observer at point A encounter in the next hour?
Rising pressure
425. What pressure does an observer at point B encounter in the next hour?
No substantial pressure change
426. What pressure does an observer at point C encounter in the next hour?
Falling pressure
427. What temperature does an observer at point C encounter in the next hour?
The temperature increases
428. What temperature does an observer at point B encounter in the next hour?
No substantial temperature change
429. What temperature does an observer at point A encounter in the next hour?
The temperature decreases
430. Which air mass and cloud depiction matches the routing A-B?
C
431. On a summer day, the following observations are made in Zurich:

0450Z 23015KT 3000 +RA SCT008 SCT020 0VC030 13/12 Q1010 NOSIG=
0650Z 25008KT 6000 SCT040 BKN090 18/14 Q1010 RERA NOSIG=
0850Z 25006KT 8000 SCT040 SCT100 19/15 Q1009 NOSIG=
1250Z 23012KT CAVOK 23/16 Q1005 NOSIG=
1450Z 23016KT 9999 SCT040 BKN090 24/17 Q1003 BECMG 25020G40KT TS=
1650Z 24018G35KT 3000 +TSRA SCT006 BKN015CB 18/16 Q1002 NOSIG=
You conclude that.......
A warm front early in the morning and a cold front late in the afternoon have passed the station
432. On which route do you expect the cross section below?

B-D
433. On which route do you expect the cross section below?
D-A
434. On a summer day, the following observations are made in Zurich:

0450Z 24009 KT 7000 SCT040 SCT120 15/12 Q1014 NOSIG =
0850Z 23014KT 8000 BKN100 19/13 Q1009 BECMG 26020G35KT TS =
1050Z 28022G33KT 4000 TSRA SCT015 SCT050CB OVC080 16/14 Q1006 BECMG NSW =
1250Z 31016KT 9999 SCT025TCU BKN030 13/09 Q1009 NOSIG =
1450Z 30012KT 9999 SHRA BKN020TCU 14/10 Q1011 NOSIG =
1650Z 30009KT SCT025 BKN035 13/10 Q1013 RESHRA NOSIG =
1850Z 28006KT 9999 SCT040 11/09 Q1014 NOSIG =
2050Z 26004KT CAVOK 10/08 Q1015 NOSIG =
You conclude that...
A cold front has passed the station in the morning, and rear side weather prevailed in the afternoon
435. Which air masses do most often contribute to the weather situation in Western Europe?
Maritime tropical air, maritime polar air
436. Refer to the chart:
Which airport has the biggest probability for rain at 12.00 UTC?
LFPO
437. Refer to the chart: Which weather situation do you expect for EGLL at 1150 UTC?
17016G28KT 2500 +RA BKN009 OVC 018 12/10 Q0994 BECMG 8000 =
438. Refer to the chart: Which weather situation do you expect for LGAT at 1450 UTC?
21002KT 6000 BR SCT040 29/16 NOSIG =
439. Refer to the chart: On which airport do you expect the development of the following weather situation?
TAF 231200Z 231322 24014G32KT 4000 +TSRA SCT005 BKN015 BKN020CB BECMG 1416 29012KT 9999 BKN030TCU
SCT100 TEMPO 8000 SHRA BKN025TCU BECMG 1922 27012KT 9999 SCT030 OVC220 =
EINN
440. Refer to the chart: Which airport has the biggest probability for the formation of fog the following night?
LFPO
441. Where does the frontal depression move in the direction of the 2000 ft wind?
In the warm sector
442. Refer to the cross section below:
The cloud type most applicable to most of square 3B is
SC
443. Examining the picture: The weather you will observe at point S is most likely:
Snow showers, mostly scattered CU clouds
444. The occurrence of freezing rain at FL 60 is most likely in square
3C
445. By the time the front "Z" has passed point "Q", the surface wind will have:
Veered and increased
446. The cloud type most applicable to square 1E is
CS
447. The cloud type most applicable to square 2C is

AS
448. The cloud type most applicable to square 2B is
CB
449. For an aircraft making an approach to an airfield located in square 3B, the most likely weather conditions in
winter time are
Low cloud, mist
450. The cloud type most applicable to square 3C is
NS
451. The cloud type most applicable to square 2D is

AS
452. In which squares are conditions most likely to cause the occurrence of low level wind shear?
3 A and 3 C
453. What conditions are most likely to prevail in winter at an aerodrome located in square 3B?
6 - 8 oktas SC and ST, visibility moderate to poor in drizzle
454. The diagram of the system represents
Warm occlusion
455. The air mass type advected from a direction indicated by arrow number 6 is designated
Maritime polar
456. What change in temperature will occur at point B during the next hour?
Approximately constant temperature
457. In the North Atlantic, you can often see a series of depressions located in a row and travelling from west to
east. These depressions
Are normally generated at the polar front
458. An air mass which originates over the North Atlantic between 50 and 70 degrees north and is moving in over
Scandinavia is called
Maritime polar air
459. Which of the following combinations is most characteristic of unstable air behind a cold front?
Good visibility between showers, showery precipitation, cumuliform clouds
460. Which statement concerning the cold front and warm front of a frontal depression in the northern
hemisphere is correct?
The risk of fog is greater ahead of and behind the warm front than ahead of and behind the cold front
461. The widest precipitation zone occurs usually:

Ahead of a warm front
462. Which statement is correct for a warm occlusion?

The cold front becomes a front aloft
463. During the passage of a front in the northern hemisphere the wind veers.
This statement is:
True
464. A stationary front is a front in which:

There is no horizontal motion perpendicular to the front
465. At a station at the surface the significant weather with a warm front will come:
Mostly before the front passes
466. At a cold front:

Warm air is lifted as cooler air pushes under it
467. An air mass is:

An extensive body of air within which the temperature and humidity in horizontal planes are practically uniform
468. Good visibility in the lower levels may be expected when

Cool dry air is moving over a warmer surface
469. An air mass acquires its basic properties

By stagnation of the air for a long period of time over areas having particular characteristics
470. The lowest cloud type observed is Stratus fractus, and there is moderate continuous rain. The area in which
you are at this moment is most likely situated
In the main body of a warm or cold front
471. For an airfield located in the British Isles, the passage of a warm front will usually be indicated by
A rise in temperature, a rise in dew point temperature, wind veers and decreases
472. Considering the North Atlantic region between 30N and 65N, the mean position of the polar front during
summer extends from
Newfoundland to N Scotland
473. Which type of air mass never occurs over Central Europe?
Equatorial air
474. The passage of a warm front can be associated with areas of fog. The types of fog just in advance and just
after the passage are respectively
Frontal fog and advection fog
475. Which statement is correct for an absolutely unstable atmosphere?

Visibility is good between showers
476. What is the classification of the air mass affecting Brest airport (LFRB)?
Maritime tropical
477. The air mass at position A is most likely to be:

Maritime tropical
478. The air mass affecting position B is most likely to be:

Maritime polar
479. Within a depression, two air masses meet so that a warm front is formed. In relation to a typical warm front:
Cold air will be replaced by warm air and the frontal slope will be around 1:150
480. Which of these statements about air masses are correct or incorrect?
1) The polar ice caps are source regions of polar air
2) Tropical air may have cold air mass properties
481. The weather most likely to be experienced at position "S" is

Frequent heavy showers of rain or snow
482. The weather most likely to be experienced at position "A" is
Snow showers - gale force wind

Mainly overcast with stratus or stratocumulus and drizzle, moderate to strong winds
484. The weather most likely to be experienced at position "S" is
Overcast with drizzle and orographic fog
485. For an aircraft making an approach to an airfield located in square 3B, away from the vicinity of the fronts,
the most likely weather conditions in winter are
Poor visibility in mist and drizzle
Frequent showers of rain and snow, good visibility outside precipitation
487. The weather most likely to be experienced at position "B" is

Frequent showers of rain or snow
488. The weather most likely to be experienced at position "B" is
Frequent showers of rain or snow, good visibility outside showers
489. The weather most likely to be experienced at position "Q" is

Showery with generally good visibility
490. What is signified if an occlusion is described as "cold"?

The air ahead of the associated warm front is less cold than the air behind the associated cold front
491. The air mass type advected from a direction indicated by arrow number 4 is designated
Maritime tropical
492. From indications shown on the chart, when front "S" passes position "V" the surface wind should
Veer and remain more or less at the same speed
493. What change in the height of the cloud base will be observed when flying in VMC from the cold air side
towards a warm front?
The cloud base descends gradually
494. Which part of a frontal system corresponds to the following description, and is the air within this part stable
or unstable?
Wind: abrupt change in direction from SW to NW
Atmospheric pressure: decreasing first, followed by a rapid increase
Clouds: nimbostratus, stratocumulus in precipitation areas
Precipitation: heavy, extensive
Visibility: significant improvement behind the precipitation area
Cold front in stable atmosphere
495. Which part of a frontal system corresponds to the following description, and is the air within this part stable
or unstable?
Wind: abrupt change in direction from SW to NW, gusty
Clouds: cumulonimbus with great vertical extent, stratocumulus in precipitation areas
Precipitation: heavy showers or thunderstorms in relative small areas
Visibility: significant improvement behind the precipitation area
Cold front in unstable atmosphere
496. Which part of a frontal system corresponds to the following description?

Wind: NW, gusty
Clouds: cumulus, cumulonimbus
Precipitation: showers, occasional thunderstorms
Visibility: very good apart from precipitation areas
Weather behind the cold front
497. What is the likely track for a hurricane in the Caribbean area?
West in the earlier stages and later turning north east
498. During which seasons are hurricanes most likely to appear in the northern hemisphere?
Summer and autumn
499. What is encountered during the summer, over land, in the centre of a cold air pool?
Showers and thunderstorms
500. What type of air movement is associated with the centre line of a trough?
Convergence with lifting
501. What is the correct term for the descending air flow in a large high pressure area?
Subsidence
502. What surface weather is associated with a stationary high pressure region over land in the winter?
A tendency for fog and low ST
503. In temperate latitudes what weather conditions may be expected over land during the summer in the centre
of a stationary high pressure zone?
Calm winds, haze
504. Where is the most dangerous zone in a tropical revolving storm?

In the wall of clouds around the eye
505. What is the most likely cause of a lack of clouds at higher levels in a stationary high?
Sinking air
506. On which coast of North America, is the danger of tropical revolving storms the greatest?
SE coast
507. What type of clouds, visible even at a long distance, could indicate the presence of a tropical revolving storm?
Dense CI
508. At what time of the year are typhoons most likely to occur over the southern islands of Japan?
July to November
509. Tropical revolving storms do not occur in the southeast Pacific and the south Atlantic because
Of the low water temperature
510. What is the main energy source of a tropical revolving storm?

Latent heat released from condensing water vapour
511. During which months is the Hurricane season in the Caribbean?

July until November
512. With an intense trough of low pressure over Iceland during wintertime the weather likely to be experienced
is :
Strong wind shear, convection and snow showers
513. The region of the globe where the greatest numbers of tropical revolving storms occur is
The north-west Pacific, affecting Japan, Formosa, Korea and the Chinese coastline
514. Extensive cloud and precipitation is often associated with a non frontal thermal depression because of:
Surface convergence and upper level divergence causing widespread ascent of air in the depression
515. Subsidence is:

Vertically downwards motion of air
516. The most effective way to dissipate cloud is by

Subsidence
517. Areas of sinking air are generally cloudless because as air sinks it
Is heated by compression
518. If the pressure surfaces bulge upwards in all levels then the pressure system is a
Warm high
519. The stable layer at some height in the low troposphere of an older high pressure area in the mid-latitudes is
called
Subsidence inversion
520. A blocking anticyclone in the northern hemisphere is

A warm anticyclone/quasi stationary/situated between 50N and 70N
521. What is the track most likely to be taken by a hurricane in the Caribbean area?
West in the earlier stages and later north east
522. Which statement is true for hurricanes in the North Atlantic?

From the earth's surface up to the tropopause the core is warmer than its surroundings
523. In which of the following areas do surface high pressure systems usually predominate over the North
Atlantic region between 30N and 65N and the adjoining land areas during the northern summer?
Azores, SE USA, SW Europe
524. Select the answer which you consider will complete correctly the following statement in relation to the main
pressure systems affecting the North Atlantic region between 30N and 65N. During winter the predominant mean
low pressure system at the surface is usually centred over
Iceland / Greenland
525. Considering the North Atlantic region between 30N and 65N and the adjacent land areas during mid-
summer, the predominant pressure systems are
Azores high and weak low over NE Canada
526. Considering the North Atlantic region between 30N and 65N together with the adjacent land areas during
winter, the normal disposition of the main anticyclones at the surface is
Azores, Siberia
527. The arrows labeled "r" represents the mean tracks of tropical revolving storms which occur mainly from
December to April and are called cyclones
528. Which is true of a secondary depression in the northern hemisphere?

It tends to move round the primary in a cyclonic sense
529. Why do tropical revolving storms tend to develop mostly in the western parts of the tropical oceans?
Because there is a maximum of humidity as a result of the trade winds long sea passage
530. The arrows labeled "s" represents the mean tracks of tropical revolving storms which occur mainly from
May to November and are called cyclones
531. The arrows labeled "u" represents the tracks of tropical revolving storms which occur mainly from
July to October and are called typhoons
532. When, if at all, is a tropical revolving storm most likely to affect Darwin, on the central north coast of
Australia?
December to April
533. A trough of low pressure on a surface synoptic chart is an area of

Convergence and widespread ascent
534. Which is true of a typical thermal depression?

It forms over land in summer
The outflow of air from the Siberian high over northern China and Japan is initially northwesterly
536. A tropical revolving storm at point G would be called a.... and occur in the months of ....
Tropical cyclone; October - May
537. A thermal depression is likely to form

Over the Iberian peninsula during summer
538. Jet streams may be found in
A3 and A8
539. Select two aviation hazards you would find at E4:

Windshear, +RA
540. What aviation hazards would you find at A2 or A3?

CAT
541. In January an extended high pressure area is normally observed over

Siberia
542. Which of the following is correct regarding a warm anticyclone?

It increases in intensity with increasing altitude
543. Which of the following is correct regarding a cold high pressure area?
It will decrease in intensity with increasing altitude
544. Troughs are extensions of

Low pressure areas and generally have large amounts of cloud
545. Where does one normally find the highest cloud tops?
In a tropical cyclone
546. The eye of a hurricane

Extends from the surface to the top of the hurricane
547. In the middle of the eye of a hurricane the wind speed is

Lower than 63 knots and the air is descending
548. Over the Indian Ocean and the Bay of Bengal tropical cyclones are
Occasionally observed, in the average 12 per year
549. Which statement about hurricanes is correct?

Their eye can be well observed by weather satellites
550. Over which areas can tropical revolving storms occur?
Caribbean Sea, Gulf of Bengal, Indian Ocean east of Madagascar
551. If the pressure surfaces bulge upwards in all levels then the pressure system is a
Warm high
552. Which of these statements about depressions are correct or incorrect?

1) Polar lows are formed over water only
2) Thermal lows are formed over land only

1) A blocking high must be a warm high
2) Sea-breeze fronts only occur at mid-latitudes
554. Which of the following zones is most likely to encounter little or no precipitation?
The north side of the Alps with a prevailing Foehn from the south
555. For an aircraft what are the meteorological dangers associated with a Harmattan wind?
Dust and poor visibility
556. What is the strong relatively cold katabatic wind, blowing down the northern Adriatic coast, mainly during
the winter and spring called?
Bora
557. Which one of the following statements regarding the intertropical convergence zone (ITCZ) is correct?
Frequent and widespread thunderstorms are to be expected within the area of the ITCZ
558. In which of the following bands of latitude is the intertropical convergence zone most likely to be
encountered in January, between Dakar and Rio de Janeiro?
0 - 7N
559. What weather conditions are indications of the summer monsoon in India?
Thunderstorms, showers of heavy rain
560. When are the rainy seasons in equatorial Africa?

March to May and October to November
561. Which of the following best describes the intertropical convergence zone?
The zone where the trade winds of the northern hemisphere meet those of the southern hemisphere
562. Which weather phenomena are typical for the northern side of the Alps with stormy winds from the south
(Foehn)?
Good visibility, turbulence
563. What weather is prevalent in the zone of easterly waves?

Thunderstorms and rain
564. What winds are mainly associated with the winter monsoon in the monsoon regions of the Indian sub-
continent?
Northeasterly winds bringing dry and hazy air
565. Which typical weather condition is shown by the design for the area of Central Europe?
Westerly waves
566. What name is given to the low level wind system between the subtropical high pressure belt and the
equatorial trough of low pressure (ITCZ) ?
Trade winds
567. Which typical weather situation over Central Europe is shown on the weather chart? (Spacing of the isobars:
5 hPa)
Flat pressure pattern
568. What is characteristic of the pamperos?

A marked advance of cold air in South America
569. Where, during a flight from Marseille to Dakar, in July, may the ITCZ be encountered?
In the vicinity of Dakar
570. Which wind systems converge on the ITCZ, when it lies at the equator?
SE trade winds and NE trade winds
571. From which direction do the trade winds blow, in the southern hemisphere?
SE
572. What weather conditions in the region of the Alps would you expect with Foehn from south?
Clouds, on the southern sides of passes in the Alps
573. Which typical weather condition is shown by the design for northern Italy?
High pressure
574. The attached chart shows the weather conditions on the ground at 1200 UTC on October 10. Which of the
following reports reflects weather development at Zurich Airport?
TAF LSZH 101601 VRB02KT 8000 SCT280 BECMG 1618 00000KT 3500 MIFG BECMG 1820 1500 BCFG BECMG 2022
0100 FG VV001 =
575. In which month does the humid monsoon in India start?

In June
576. At about what geographical latitude as average is assumed for the zone of prevailing westerlies?
50N
577. During July flights from Bangkok (13N - 100E) to Karachi (25N - 67E) experience an average tailwind
component of 22 kt. In January the same flights, also operating at FL 370, have an average headwind of 50 kt. What
is the reason for this difference?
The wind components correspond to the seasonal change of the regional wind system
578. With a uniform pressure pattern and no thunderstorms around, what will the indication of the aneroid
altimeter of an aircraft parked on the ground do over a period of about ten minutes?
Apparently nothing, because any changes would be small
579. Under the weather conditions depicted, which of the following statements is likely to apply?
Thunderstorms may occur in the summer months over Central Europe
580. In which of the areas below does the intertropical convergence zone (ITCZ) have a significant impact?
Western Africa between 10 and 20N and the northern coasts of the Arabian sea in July
581. Considering the route indicated from Lisbon to Freetown, the Harmattan is a
NE wind affecting north-west Africa during November to April reducing visibility in rising dust
582. The Foehn wind is a

Warm fall wind
583. The Chinook is a

Warm and dry wind that forms as air descends on the leeward side of the Rocky Mountains
584. What is the name of the northerly, cold and strong wind that sometimes blows over a certain part of Europe?
Mistral
585. What are the characteristics of the Bora?

It is a cold and very strong wind that blows mainly in winter from a tableland downwards to the Adriatic
586. The reason for the fact, that the Icelandic low is normally deeper in winter than in summer is that
The temperature contrasts between arctic and equatorial areas are much greater in winter
587. Which one of the following statements is correct concerning the movement of the ITCZ in the region of West
Africa?
It reaches its maximum northerly position of 15 - 20 N in July
588. What is the name of the wind or airmass which gives to the main part of India its greatest proportion of
precipitation?
South-west monsoon
589. What is the type, intensity and seasonal variation of precipitation in the equatorial region?
Rainshowers, hail showers and thunderstorms occur the whole year, but frequency is highest during two periods:
April-May and October-November
590. What weather conditions are most likely to affect an approach to Dakar during July?
Wet and thundery due to the proximity of intertropical convergence zone (ITCZ)
591. Weather conditions at Mumbai during early July are mainly influenced by the
SW monsoon
592. Weather conditions at Mumbai during January are mainly influenced by the
NE monsoon
593. The weather most likely to be experienced at position "R" is

Fine and warm with little or no cloud
594. Which one of the following local winds is a Foehn wind?

Chinook
595. A cold air pool

Is usually most evident in the circulation and temperature fields of the middle troposphere and may show little or
no sign on a surface chart
596. The transition from SW to NE monsoon in India occurs in

September, October, November
597. Which of the following statements concerning the intertropical convergence zone is true?
There are frequent occurrences of CB
598. An easterly wave is a
Wave in a trade wind belt, moving from east to west, with severe convective activity in rear of its trough
599. The prevailing surface wind in the area of the west coast of Africa north of the equator (gulf of Guinea) is a
SW monsoon in summer and NE tradewind in winter
600. Which of the following statements concerning trade winds is correct?

They occur only in the lower part of the troposphere and more pronounced over the oceans
601. Along the West coast of India the prevailing winds are the
SW monsoon in July and a NE monsoon in January
602. The Bora is a

Cold katabatic wind with the possibility of violent gusts
603. The line labeled "Y" represents the

Mean position of the intertropical convergence zone (ITCZ) during January
604. A Foehn wind occurs on the

Leeward side of a mountain range and is caused by significant moisture loss by precipitation from cloud
605. To build a hurricane, the following conditions, among others, must be fulfilled:
The surface temperature at least +27C, and the building area 8 - 15 away from the equator
606. What kind of weather conditions do you encounter in a cold air pool centre?
Showers and thunderstorms
607. What does this picture depict?
South Foehn
608. What does this picture depict?

North Foehn
609. The ITCZ affects

West Africa between 10 and 30 N, and the north coasts of the Arabian Sea
610. At area C in January, the..... blowing over the.... current will give....
Harmattan; canaries; sea fog
611. Tropical maritime air moving into area B in spring will probably give:
Advection fog
612. What is a characteristic weather pattern at F?

The double rains
613. In July the weather at D is probably:

CU and CB, SW monsoon
614. The area H, in January, would be under the influence of the

NE monsoon
615. In July in the northern hemisphere, the relationship between surface type, surface temperature and surface
pressure is best described as:
Land - high temperature - low pressure
616. Which of the following statements about the ITCZ is correct?

Is normally fed with converging northern and southern trade winds
617. The weather zones E and G would be...
Dry during winter of the hemisphere, wet during summer
618. The zones, where surface pressure remains relatively high throughout the year are
A and H
619. Local winds may affect the Mediterranean during the winter. Which of the following listing of three is correct?
Bora, Mistral, Scirocco
620. The Scirocco occurs:

Ahead of a frontal depression, moving east along the coast
621. What winds are mainly associated with the winter monsoon regions of the Indian sub-continent?
Northeasterly winds bringing dry and hazy air
622. How do you recognize a cold air pool?

As a low pressure area aloft (e.g. on the 500 hPa chart)
623. Considering the sector Rome to 25N on the route indicated, what mean upper winds may be expected at FL
300 during winter?
Westerly jet streams in excess of 70 kt
624. Considering the route indicated from Recife to Dakar the mean height of the tropopause during January is
approximately
56000 FT
625. Considering that portion of the route indicated from 30 E to 50 E, the upper winds in January above FL 300
are most likely to be:
A subtropical jet stream, maximum speed exceeding 90 kt
626. What is a favourable synoptic situation for the development of a Scirocco?

Low pressure area in the western part of the Mediterranean Sea
627. During the approach to Mumbai (19N 73E) on the west coast of India, you are listening to the ATIS on 15
July at 0700 LT. Which of the following reports is most likely?
25014KT 4500 SHRA SCT015 BKN025CB 25/24 Q1006 NOSIG=
628. A cold air pool can be best identified by means of

The isohypses on an upper air chart
629. The weather activity within a cold air pool is usually greatest
In the afternoon
630. What are the typical weather conditions in a warm anticyclone over land?
Fine weather dominates in summer
631. In a westerly situation, the mean time interval between polar frontal waves in Western Europe is
One to two days
632. What are the typical weather conditions in a westerly situation?

Very changeable
633. On which side of an easterly wave are thunderstorms most likely to develop?
On the east side of the wave
634. How is an easterly wave identifiable on a surface weather chart?

As a weak trough
635. The position of the intertropical convergence zone

Shows more variation over the continents than over the oceans
636. The mean height of the tropical zero degree isotherms is

16000 ft
637. Which climatic type is to be expected between 10N and 10S?

Tropical rain climate
638. Which of the following statements is correct concerning the savannah climate?
There are significant yearly variations in rainfall with a wet and a dry period
639. Central Europe is situated in the zone of

Mid-latitude climate
640. Which of the following is typical for the snow (tundra) climate?
High pressure weather dominates in winter, with the sub-soil being frozen
641. How is the Mediterranean climate best described?

Anticyclonic and hot in summer, frontal depressions in winter
642. With regard to temperature, which of the following is correct for the polar climates?
The mean temperature of all months is below plus 10C
643. The intertropical convergence zone

Is characterized by different wind directions on both sides of the zone
644. The SW monsoon starts in the month of

June in Southern India to reach Pakistan in July
645. Where do the trade winds blow?
Between the "horse latitudes" and the doldrums
The Doldrums, also called the "equatorial calms", is a nautical term for the equatorial trough, with special reference
to the light and variable nature of the winds. It affects areas of the Atlantic Ocean, the Pacific Ocean and the Indian
Ocean that are within the Intertropical Convergence Zone, a low-pressure area around the equator, where the
prevailing winds are calm.
646. Which statement concerning the Scirocco is correct?

It blows from southerly directions and can carry dust and sand which may reach Europe
647. For the west coast of India it can be said in general that the wind blows
For six months from the NE and for six months from the SW
648. Which of these statements about winds are correct or incorrect?

1) Foehn is a warm downslope wind
2) Mountain wind is a cold upslope wind

1) The summer monsoon in India is a SW monsoon
2) Hurricanes occur usually in winter

1) Trade winds reach up to the tropopause
2) The air advected by the SW monsoon over West Africa has its source region in the southern hemisphere

1) The summer monsoon in the southern part of India is a NE monsoon
2) The prevailing climatic zone in Australia is the dry climate

1) The summer monsoon in India is a NE monsoon
2) Hurricanes usually occur in winter
653. The typical weather conditions affecting the Darwin area during July are
Dry season - mainly SE winds - visibility reduced by dust and haze
654. The main icing zone in the ITCZ is located between:

FL 160 - FL 260
655. What is the effect of a strong low level inversion?
It promotes vertical windshear
656. Rime ice forms through the freezing onto aircraft surfaces of
Small supercooled water drops
657. How does a pilot react to heavy freezing rain at 2000 FT/AGL, when he is unable to deice, nor land?
He turns back before the aircraft loses manoeuvrability
658. How does moderate turbulence affect an aircraft?

Changes in altitude or attitude occur but the aircraft remains in positive control at all times
659. You are flying with an outside air temperature of -12C and a TAS of 250 kt at FL 150 through 8 octas NS.
What type and degree of icing is most probable?
In clouds pushed up against the mountains, moderate to severe mixed ice
660. You intend to carry out a VFR flight over the Alps, on a hot summer day, when the weather is unstable. What
is the best time of day to conduct this flight?
Morning
661. At what time of the year are tornadoes most likely to occur in North America?
Spring, summer
662. In Central Europe when is the greatest likelihood for thunderstorms due to warm updrafts?
Mid - afternoon
663. During which stage of thunderstorm development are rotor winds characterized by roll clouds most likely to
occur?
Mature stage
664. What are the meteorological prerequisites, at low level, for thunderstorms formed by lifting processes, over
land?
High temperatures, high humidity
665. Where is a squall line to be expected?

In front of an active cold front
666. What are squall lines?

Bands of intensive thunderstorms
667. In which of the following conditions is moderate to severe airframe icing most likely to be encountered?
In Nimbostratus cloud
668. Under which conditions would you expect the heaviest clear ice accretion to occur in a CB?
Between -2C and -15C
669. Clear ice forms on an aircraft by the freezing of:
Large supercooled water drops
670. What weather condition would you expect at a squall line?

Thunderstorms
671. What is the approximate maximum diameter of the area affected by damaging winds at the surface caused
by a microburst?
4 km
672. In general, the meteorological visibility during rainfall compared to during drizzle is
Greater
673. You have been flying for some time in dense layered cloud. The outside air temperature is -25C. Which of
the following statements is true?
Severe airframe icing is unlikely under these conditions
674. Low level wind shear is likely to be greatest

At the top of a marked surface-based inversion
675. Which of the following meteorological phenomenon indicates upper level instability which may lead to
thunderstorm development?
AC castellanus
676. Isolated thunderstorms of a local nature are generally caused by

Thermal triggering
677. Which thunderstorms move forward the fastest?

Frontal thunderstorms
678. A zone of strong convection currents is encountered during a flight. In spite of moderate gust you decide to
continue the flight. What are your precautionary measures?
Decrease the speed / try to climb above the zone of convective currents if aircraft performance parameters allow
679. At which altitude, at temperate latitudes, may hail be expected in connection with a CB?
From the ground up to a maximum of FL 450
680. What is a microburst?

A concentrated downdraft with high speeds and a lower temperature than the surrounding air
681. How long does a typical microburst last?

1 to 5 minutes
682. What is normally the most effective measure to reduce or avoid CAT effects?
Change of flight level
683. Atmospheric soundings give the following temperature profile:
3000 FT +15C
6000 FT +8C
10000 FT +1C
14000 FT -6C
18000 FT -14C
24000 FT -26C
At which of the following flight levels is the risk for aircraft icing, in cloud, greatest?
FL 150
684. On the approach, the surface temperature is given as -5C. The freezing level is at 3000 FT/AGL. At 4000
FT/AGL, there is a solid cloud layer from which rain is falling.
According to the weather briefing, the clouds are due to an inversion caused by warm air sliding up and over an
inclined front. Would you expect icing?
Yes, between ground level and 3000 FT/AGL
685. The initial phase of a thunderstorm is characterized by

Continuous updrafts
686. An aircraft is approaching a cold front from the warm air mass side at FL 270 and experiencing moderate to
severe turbulence. A jet stream is forecast to be at FL 310. The shortest way to get out of this turbulence is by :
Descending
687. In addition to a lifting action, what are two other conditions necessary for thunderstorm formation?
Unstable conditions and high moisture content
688. In which environment is aircraft structural ice most likely to have the highest rate of accretion?
Freezing rain
689. Continuous updraughts occur in a thunderstorm during the

Cumulus stage
690. Thunderstorm cells reach their greatest intensity during the

Mature stage
691. The most dangerous form of airframe icing is

Clear ice
692. The degree of clear air turbulence experienced by an aircraft is proportional to the
Intensity of vertical and horizontal windshear
693. In which of these temperature bands is ice most likely to form on the aircraft's surface?
0C to -10C
694. Which of the following statements is true regarding moderate-to-severe airframe icing?
It is likely to occur in nimbostratus cloud
695. Which of the following statements is true regarding moderate-to-severe airframe icing?
It will not occur in clear-sky conditions
696. In which of these cloud types can icing be virtually ruled out?
CI
697. In which of these cloud types can icing be virtually ruled out?
CS
698. Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause airframe icing?
+FZRA
699. Continuous freezing rain is observed at an airfield. Which of the four diagrams (a to d from left to right) is
most likely to reflect temperatures above the airfield concerned?
Diagram d)
700. At what degree of icing should ICAO's "Change of course and/or altitude desirable" recommendation be
followed?
Moderate
701. At what degree of icing should ICAO's "Change course and/or altitude immediately" instruction be followed?
Severe
702. At what degree of icing can ICAO's "No change of course and altitude necessary" recommendation be
followed?
Light
703. A microburst phenomenon can arise in the

Downdraught of a cumulonimbus at the mature stage
704. In which of the following situations is an aircraft most susceptible to icing?

Level flight below a rain producing cloud when OAT is below zero degrees C
705. Which of the following cloud types are most likely to produce light to moderate icing when they are not
subject to orographic lifting and consist of supercooled cloud droplets?
Altocumulus and altostratus
706. A winter day in northern Europe with a thick layer of stratocumulus clouds and temperature close to zero
degrees C at ground level, you can expect:
A high probability for icing in clouds. Severe icing in the upper part due to accumulation of large droplets
707. Which one of the following statements concerning the formation of aircraft icing is most correct?
A cloud consisting of both supercooled cloud droplets and ice crystals produces aircraft icing
708. Low level vertical wind shear can be expected during the night
In association with radiation inversions
709. Which of the following factors have the greatest effect on the formation of the various types of ice on an
aircraft?
Cloud temperature and droplet size
710. Hoar frost is most likely to form when

Taking off from an airfield with a significant ground inversion
711. Two aircraft, one with a sharp wing profile (S), and the other with a thick profile (T), are flying through the
same cloud with the same true airspeed. The cloud consists of small supercooled droplets. Which of the following
statements is most correct concerning ice accretion?
Aircraft S experiences more icing than T
712. While descending through a cloud cover at high level, a small amount of a white, opaque deposit with a light
porous texture and a rough surface is detected along the leading edge of the wing. This deposit is called:
Rime ice
713. A small supercooled cloud droplet that collides with an airfoil will most likely
Freeze immediately and create rime ice
714. A flight is to depart from an airport with runways 09 and 27. Surface wind is 270/05; an inversion is reported
at 300 feet with turbulence and wind shear. The wind just above the inversion is 090/30. What is the safest
departure procedure?
Depart on runway 09 with a tailwind
715. The turbulence which occurs at high flight levels (above FL 250) is mainly of the type Clear Air Turbulence. In
what way can moderate to severe clear air turbulence affect an aircraft, the flight and the passengers?
The turbulence is a small scale one and can cause damage of worn out type. The manoeuvring of the aircraft will
be made more difficult or even impossible. For the passengers the flight will be unpleasant
716. Which statement regarding aircraft and lightning is correct?

Aircraft made by composite material may get severe damage, the crew may be blinded and temporarily lose the
hearing
717. Glaze or clear ice is formed when supercooled droplets are

Large and at a temperature just below freezing
718. In unstable air, surface visibility is most likely to be restricted by
Showers of rain or snow
719. A vertical temperature profile indicates the possibility of severe icing when the temperature profile
Intersects the 0C isotherm twice
720. In the vicinity of industrial areas, smoke is most likely to affect surface visibility when
There is a low level inversion
721. Clear ice is dangerous because it

Is heavy and is difficult to remove from the aircraft surfaces
722. A moist, stable layer of air is forced to rise against a mountain range and the stability does not change.
Which of the following phenomena may develop?
Stratified clouds
723. Visibility is reduced by haze when

Dust particles are trapped below an inversion
724. Freezing fog exists if fog droplets

Are supercooled
725. A squall line usually is most likely to be encountered

Ahead of a cold front
726. Vertical wind shear is

Vertical variation in the horizontal wind
727. The most hazardous type of cloud that may be encountered on a cross country flight is
Cumulonimbus
728. During the life cycle of a thunderstorm, which stage is characterized predominantly by downdrafts?
Dissipating stage
729. A gustfront is
Formed by the cold air outflow from a thunderstorm
730. What are the requirements for the formation of a thunderstorm?

An adequate supply of moisture, conditional instability and a lifting action
731. Which thunderstorms generally develop in the afternoon in summer over land in moderate latitudes?
Airmass thunderstorms
732. In which of the following areas is the highest frequency of thunderstorms encountered?
Tropical
733. A microburst
Has a diameter up to 4 km
734. Thunderstorms can occur on a warm front if the

Warm air is moist and the environmental lapse rate exceeds the saturated adiabatic lapse rate
735. With which type of cloud are tornadoes normally associated?

Cumulonimbus
736. The diameter of a typical tornado is

100 to 150 metres
737. In which stage of the life cycle of a single thunderstorm cell occur both up- and downdrafts simultaneously?
Mature stage
738. Which of the following statements describes a microburst?

A high speed downburst of air with a generally lower temperature than its surroundings
739. During the formation of rime ice in flight, water droplets freeze
Rapidly and do not spread out
740. Hoar frost forms on an aircraft as a result of

Water vapour turning directly into ice crystals on the aircraft surface
741. Clear ice forms as a result of

Supercooled water droplets spreading during the freezing process
742. Large supercooled water drops, which freeze on impact on an airplane, form
Clear ice
743. The type of icing that occurs in dense clouds with large supercooled drops that have a temperature of -5C is
most likely to be
Clear ice
744. Below a low level inversion visibility is often

Moderate or poor because there is no vertical exchange
745. Above and below a low level inversion the wind is likely to
Change significantly in speed and direction
746. A wide body takes off on a clear night in Dhahran, Saudi Arabia. Shortly after takeoff the aircraft's rate of
climb drops to zero. This can be due to
A very strong temperature inversion
747. Flight visibility from the cockpit during approach in a tropical downpour can decrease to minimal
Tens of metres
748. In which cloud type does moderate to severe airframe icing most probably occur?
NS
749. Ice accretion to the airframe is likely to be most hazardous at temperatures

Between 0C and -23C in large CU
750. For an aircraft making an approach to an airfield which is not situated near high ground, in the vicinity of the
active front in square 3B, a potential hazard exists in the form of...
Low level wind shear
751. Most tornadoes have a speed of movement that usually ranges from
20 to 40 knots
752. With which meteorological phenomena are wind shear conditions mostly associated?
Gust fronts; low level temperature inversions; frontal surfaces
753. Imagine an aircraft during approach to an airfield which is located in a basin within mountainous area under
the influence of a blocking anticyclone in winter.
Mark the most reasonable statement given below.
While approaching the airfield in the early morning, after a short period of bumpiness the engines of the aircraft
will deliver more thrust after breaking through the inversion layer if the pilot does not intervene
754. Mark the statement most reasonable regarding a valley inversion.

Overnight, cool dense air as a result of radiation cooling will descend along the mountain slopes into the basin and
lead to the development of a valley inversion
755. Which of the following statements regarding the development of valley inversions is correct?
Valley inversions often are a result of radiation cooling in combination with gravity, both affecting the air at the
surface of a mountain slope
756. In winter, after breaking through a low level inversion during descent and assuming the pilot does not
intervene,
Thrust most likely will increase and visibility is likely to deteriorate
757. Mark the correct statement concerning the flight through an inversion caused by subsidence.
During climb, the reduced air density above the inversion layer will cause a certain decrease in the aircraft
performance (i.e. lift and thrust) and the pilot will experience a sudden improvement of visibility
758. A night in January has been cold and clear. In the forenoon of the next day an airfield is in IMC due to fog
which extends to a height of 700 ft. A heavily laden aircraft departs and, when breaking through the top of the fog,
experiences temporary bumpiness and a sudden decrease in climb rate.
Mark the answer that states the most probable reason for the altered aircraft performance.
The aircraft suffers reduced lift and thrust due to a temperature inversion at the top of the fog
759. Most tornadoes have a life span that lasts for

A few minutes up to 30minutes
760. Mark the correct statement concerning lightning discharge.

While flying through air that is electrically charged the aircraft is likely to become a charge carrier itself and can
initiate a lightning discharge
761. Which of the following statements regarding an aircraft being struck by lightning is true?
The flight crew might have temporary difficulties in determining the current attitude of flight
762. What is a stormscope?

An instrument on board an aircraft to detect electrical discharges
763. While using the airborne weather radar in order to circumnavigate thunderstorms, the radar scope is clear
between heavy echoes.
Which of the following interpretations of the scope is correct?
The clear area indicates an area from which no echoes are received. However, this radar scope provides no
assurance of being in VMC while flying in this area
764. What is the best way in dealing with thunderstorms associated with a cold front?
Avoidance of embedded CBs by using airborne weather radar
765. During an ILS approach on RWY 33, a northwesterly wind is blowing parallel to the runway. Its speed is
decreasing rapidly with height while its change in direction is negligible. What has the pilot to be aware of with
respect to wind shear and glide path (no autopilot engaged)?
Without the pilot's intervention, the aircraft is likely to fly above the designated glide path with increasing
deviation from it
766. Imagine an airfield during summer with sunny days and clear nights and with a runway parallel to the
shoreline of a large inland lake 5 nautical miles away from the field.
A small aircraft heading for the airfield in the afternoon experiences wind shear during approach and a cross wind
component which makes landing difficult.
The origin of the wind shear and cross wind is most likely to be seen in
A strong sea breeze blowing more or less perpendicular to the runway
767. Two aircraft are flying simultaneously in level flight at different flight levels on opposite tracks overhead a
given position.
Aircraft A flying at FL 070 experiences a 30 kt headwind.
Aircraft B flying at FL 060 experiences a 20 kt headwind.
None of the aircraft experiences cross wind. This wind condition will be referred to as
Vertical wind shear only
768. What is the ICAO qualifying term for the described intensity of turbulence?
Conditions in which abrupt changes in aircraft attitude and/or altitude occur; aircraft may be out of control for
short periods"?
Severe
769. If a thunderstorm (CB) 10 miles ahead is assessed as still being in the mature phase, what should a pilot of a
light aircraft do?
He should change heading to circumnavigate the storm
770. Orographic thunderstorms may occur:

At any time during day and night
771. What are the conditions required for the formation of hoar frost?
The temperature of the surface is lower than the dew point of the air and this dew point is lower than 0C
772. Which of the following statements is correct concerning rotors below the crest of a mountain wave?
The wind direction at the lower side of the rotors is opposite to the prevailing wind direction
773. A conditionally unstable air mass is forced to ascend a mountain slope. What type of clouds can be expected?
Clouds with considerable vertical development and associated turbulence
774. Which of the following thunderstorms produce the most severe conditions, such as heavy hail and
destructive winds?
Squall line thunderstorms
775. In which conditions would you most likely encounter clear icing, and how would it normally appear?
Cumuliform clouds, large water droplets, temperatures between 0C and -15C.
Appears smooth and tends to spread back over an aircraft wing
776. Clouds will mainly consist of supercooled water droplets when the temperature is:
Between 0 C and -15 C
777. Which of the following situations favours the formation of heavy thunderstorms?
A cold front approaching a mountain range in the evening
778. What intensity and type of aircraft icing is likely to occur at FL 100 in a thunderstorm, with the freezing level
at 7000 ft?
Moderate to severe icing due to clear ice
779. CB with thunderstorm has reached the mature stage. Which statement is correct?
In temperatures lower than -23C icing is still possible
780. After a prolonged VMC descent in very cold air, you penetrate a humid air mass. What type of icing will you
encounter?
Hoar frost
781. When a front crosses a mountain range, its activity

Strengthens "upwind" of the mountains
782. What intensity and which type of airframe icing is most likely to occur when an aircraft descends rapidly
from FL 320 (temp. -45C) to FL 60 in warm, moist clear air?
Light or moderate hoar frost
783. In a mountainous area, the most hazardous flying conditions associated with standing waves are likely to be
experienced
In the vicinity of the "roll" cloud or rotor zone beneath the first wave on the leeward side
784. Which of the following statements is true with regard to mountain waves?
Flight with headwind toward high ground is likely to be more hazardous than flight with tailwind toward high
ground
785. Which of the following phenomena can provide the initial lifting leading to air mass thunderstorms?
Advection of cold air over a warm sea
786. Assuming that an initial "trigger" force is present, the conditions most likely to result in the formation of
thunderstorms are
Advection of cold air over a warm sea
787. The formation of clear ice on the leading edges of an aircraft is most likely to be caused by the
Relatively slow freezing of large supercooled water droplets
788. Which statement is correct concerning a mountain ridge where a marked mountain wave has been reported?
Ragged altocumulus lenticularis are an indication for the presence of moderate/severe turbulence at the level of
these clouds
789. Which of the following statements about lightnings and lightning strikes is correct?
The aircraft is temporarily part of the lightning trajectory
790. In the vicinity of industrial areas, smoke is most likely to affect ground visibility when
There is a low level inversion
791. A microburst with its damaging winds at the surface

Has a diameter up to 4 km
792. A gust front is

Formed by the cold air outflow from a thunderstorm
793. According to ICAO, haze (HZ) or smoke (FU) is reduced visibility due to the presence of solid particles
(lithometeors) in the atmosphere to a value of:
5000 m or less
794. Fog (FG) is defined as being a:

Visibility < 1000 m due to liquid particles or ice crystals suspended in the atmosphere
795. The mean top of a thunderstorm cluster in the tropics is up to

50000 ft

1) Outside clouds no severe aircraft icing can occur
2) Hoar frost consists of ice crystals formed on a surface by sublimation
797. Which of these statements about icing are correct or incorrect?

1) In a CB icing can only occur between 0C and -15C
2) In relation with a warm front icing can only occur inside clouds
798. Which of these statements about thunderstorms are correct or incorrect?

1) If a trough is situated behind a cold front thunderstorms may occur in it
2) Prefrontal thunderstorms can occur ahead of cold fronts
1) and 2) are correct
799. What do you know about the correctness of the following statements?
1) Prefrontal thunderstorms can occur ahead of cold fronts
2) A warm front passing a mountain range may become a front aloft
1) and 2) are correct
800. What is the relationship between meteorological visibility (met.vis.) and RVR in homogeneous fog?
The met. vis. is generally less than the RVR
801. The wind indicator for a weather observation receives the measured value from an anemometer. Where is
this instrument placed?
On a mast 8-10 m above the ground
802. What is the meaning of the abbreviation "BKN"?

5 - 7 octas
803. When is the RVR reported at most airports?

When the meteorological visibility decreases below 1500 m
804. Of the four radio soundings, select the one that indicates ground fog:
b)
805. When will the surface wind in a METAR record a gust factor?
When gusts are at least 10 knots above the mean wind speed
806. Of the four radio soundings, select the one that indicates low stratus:
3
807. What are the images of satellites provided daily by the Weather Service used for?
To locate fronts in areas with few observation stations
808. Which of the following causes echoes on meteorological radar screens?

Hail
809. While approaching your target aerodrome you receive the following message:
RVR runway 23: 400m
This information indicates the
Length of runway which a pilot in an aircraft on the ground would see, on the threshold of runway 23
810. An airborne weather radar installation makes it possible to detect the location of
Zones of precipitation, particularly liquid-state precipitation, and also their intensity
811. Runway Visual Range (RVR) is

Usually better than meteorological visibility
812. The wind direction in a METAR is measured relative to

True north
813. The cloud base, reported in the METAR, is the height above
Airfield level
814. RVR is measured when meteorological visibility falls below:

1500 m
815. When last 10 minutes wind velocity deviates more than 10 kts from mean value during the same period of
time, this will be indicated as:
A gust
816. The horizontal visibility given for VFR flight planning by a MET Office is:
Meteorological visibility on ground
817. Among the ten groups of clouds, the following two are mentioned specifically in MET-reports and forecasts
intended for aviation:
Cumulonimbus and towering cumulus
818. For an aircraft at FL 40, approaching the front (square 3C) from the direction of square 3D, a potentional
hazard exists before reaching the front in the form of...
Clear ice accretion to the airframe
819. What flight conditions are most likely to be experienced in square 2B by an aircraft at FL 120?
VMC above layers of ST and SC, generally stable conditions
820. Runway visual range is calculated from values derived from

Forward-scatter meters
821. During flight in clouds, which of the following means is the best one to identify the position of embedded
CBs?
Weather radar
822. What is the meaning of the different coloured areas on a plan position indicator of an airborne weather
radar?
Different ranges of intensities of precipitation
823. What is a radiosonde?

Instrument intended to be carried by a balloon up through the atmosphere, equipped with devices to measure
meteorological variables and provided with a radio transmitter for sending this information to the observing
station
824. A special air-report

May trigger a SIGMET message
825. Which pilots are obliged to transmit a special air-report if they encounter severe aircraft icing?
All categories of pilots
826. Which of the following groups of conditions requires a crew to transmit a special air-report (subsonic air
transport)?
Severe turbulence; widespread thunderstorms; severe mountain waves
827. A flight with a jet aeroplane from Munich to London is planned with a departure time of 2250 local time.
Which type of satellite imagery available with observation time close to ETD is best to locate the clouds and the
exact position of a cold front forecast for this night over Western Europe?
Infrared (IR), polar orbiting
828. Which of the following statements concerning the use of airborne weather radar in the vicinity of
thunderstorms is true?
Accurate assessment of the weather ahead of the aircraft might be hampered due to the attenuation of the radar
echoes by heavy rain
829. What is determined by a transmissometer?

Visibility, runway visual range
830. How is a ceiling defined?

Height above ground or water of the lowest layer of cloud below 20000 ft covering more than half of the sky
831. The radiosonde can directly measure:

Atmospheric pressure, air temperature, humidity
832. Which of these statements about weather satellites are correct or incorrect?
1) The pictures from geostationary weather satellites are generally of higher resolution than the pictures from
satellites in a polar orbit
2) Satellites in a polar orbit are closer to the earth than geostationary satellites
833. Which constant pressure altitude chart is standard for a 4781 FT pressure level (FL50)?
850 hPa
834. How is the direction and speed of upper winds described in forecasts?
The direction is relative to true north and the speed is in knots
835. What positions are connected with contour lines on the weather chart?
Positions with the same height in a chart of constant pressure
836. In which meteorological forecast chart is information about CAT regions found?
Significant Weather Chart
837. On which of the following aviation weather charts can a pilot most easily find a jetstream?
Significant weather chart
838. How are well separated CB clouds described on the Significant Weather Chart?
OCNL CB
839. The cold front is indicated with a number at position:
2
840. What does the symbol indicate on a significant weather chart?

The center of a tropopause "high", where the tropopause is at FL 400
841. Which weather chart gives information about icing and the height of the freezing level?
Significant weather chart
842. Which of the following symbols represents a squall line?

Symbol a)
843. The front labelled "Z" is a:
Warm front
844. Which constant pressure altitude chart is standard for a 9882 FT pressure level (FL 100)?
700 hPa
500 hPa
300 hPa
200 hPa
848. If you are planning a flight at FL 170, which of these upper wind and temperature charts would be nearest
your flight level?
500 hPa
849. If you are planning a flight at FL 290, which of these upper wind and temperature charts would be nearest
your flight level?
300 hPa
850. When planning a flight at FL 60, which upper wind and temperature chart would be nearest your flight level?
850 hPa
851. When planning a flight at FL 110, which upper wind and temperature chart would be nearest your flight
level ?
700 hPa
852. A trough is indicated by letter:

A
853. The warm sector is indicated by letter:

C
854. Which of the following best describes Zone A?
Trough of low pressure
855. Which of the following best describes Zone B?

Col
856. Which of the following best describes Zone C?

Ridge of high pressure
857. Which of the following best describes Zone D?

Depression
858. According to ICAO, which symbol indicates severe icing?

Symbol a)
859. According to ICAO, which symbol indicates a tropical revolving storm?
Symbol d)
860. According to ICAO, which symbol indicates danger to an aircraft in flight?

Symbol b)
861. According to ICAO, which symbol indicates danger to an aircraft in flight?

Symbols c) and d)
862. The upper wind and temperature chart of 250 hPa corresponds, in a standard atmosphere, to about
34 000 FT
863. What information is given on a Significant Weather Chart?

The significant weather forecast for the time given on the chart
864. An isohypse of the 500 hPa pressure surface is labelled with the number 552. This means that for all points
on the isohypse the
Topography is 552 decameters above MSL
865. Which of the following symbols show a hazard for IFR flights, according to ICAO?
D
866. On a Significant Weather Chart the thunderstorm symbol signifies:

Moderate/severe turbulence and moderate/severe icing
867. The mean wind that may be expected to affect the route segment from the coast of SE England to Geneva at
FL 270 is:
220/70
868. At FL 300 between Geneva and Tunis, what mean wind would be most likely?
245/50
869. The picture shows four sections of the 700 hPa wind chart. The diagram representing most accurately wind
direction and speed is
030/30 (diagram A)
870. What is the greatest intensity of turbulence (i) and icing (ii) that can be expected on the route from Valencia
to Charleston at FL 330?
(i) severe; (ii) severe
871. A convergence line is indicated by

Sector 1
872. What is the lowest flight level that is forecast to be subject to clear air turbulence on the route from Valencia
to Charleston?
FL 250
873. On a significant weather chart, hail is represented by symbol

4
874. Which of the following symbols represents a quasi-stationary front?
Symbol 3
875. What are the colours with which a stationary front is shown on a surface chart?
Red and blue
876. Which constant pressure chart is standard for FL 450?

150 hPa
877. Which of the following constant pressure charts would be most relevant for planning a flight at FL 260?
400 hPa
878. Which FL corresponds with the 400 hPa pressure level?

FL 240
879. Which FL corresponds with the 150 hPa pressure level?

FL 450
880. On an upper wind and temperature chart:

The pressure is constant all over the chart
881. On a significant weather chart, we see the information according to the graph for the area where a VFR flight
will take place.
If the flight is planned at FL 85, we can estimate that
We will probably have to divert around some cumulus tops
882. Flight from Bordeaux to Amsterdam, ETA 2100 UTC. What lowest cloud base is forecast for arrival at
Amsterdam?
TAF EHAM 281500Z 281601 14010KT 6000 -RA SCT025 BECMG 1618 12015G25KT SCT008 BKN013 TEMPO 1823 3000
RA BKN005 OVC010 BECMG 2301 25020KT 8000 NSW BKN020 =
500 FT
883. In the TAF for Delhi, during the summer, for the time of your landing you note: TEMPO TS. What is the
maximum time this deterioration in weather can last in anyone instance?
60 minutes
884. In the weather briefing room during the pre-flight phase of a passenger flight from Zurich to Rome, you
examine the following weather reports of pressing importance at the time:
EINN SHANNON 2808 sigmet 2 valid 0800/1100 loc sev turb fcst einn fir blw fl 050 south of 53n wkn =
LIMM MILANO 2809 sigmet 2 valid 0900/1500 mod sev cat btn fl 250 and fl 430 fcst limm fir stnr nc =
EGLL LONDON 2808 sigmet nr01 valid 0800/1200 for london fir isol cb embd in lyr cloud fcst tops fl 300 btn 52n and
54n east of 002e sev ice sev turb ts also fcst mov e wkn =
Which decision is correct?
Because of the expected turbulence you select a flight level below FL 250
885. What is a trend forecast?

A landing forecast appended to METAR/SPECI, valid for 2 hours
886. What does the expression "Broken (BKN)" mean?

5-7 Eights of the sky is cloud covered
887. What does the abbreviation "nosig" mean?

No significant changes
888. In which weather report would you expect to find information about icing conditions on the runway?
METAR
889. In which of the following 1850 UTC METAR reports, is the probability of fog formation, in the coming night,
the highest?
VRB01KT 8000 SCT250 11/10 Q1028 BECMG 3000 =
890. Which of the following weather reports could be, in accordance with the regulations, abbreviated to
"CAVOK"? (MSA minus airport elevation equals: LSZB 10000 FT, LSZH 8000 FT, LSGG 12000 FT, LFSB 6000 FT)
LSZB 28012KT 9999 OVC100 16/12 Q1012 BECMG 5000 -RA =
891. Within a short interval, several flight crews report that they have experienced strong clear air turbulence in a
certain airspace. What is the consequence of these reports?
The competent aviation weather office will issue a SIGMET
892. Flight Lisbon to Bordeaux, ETA 1800 UTC. What type of precipitation is forecast on the approach to
Bordeaux ?
TAF LFBD 281400Z 281524 26015KT 9999 SHRA BKN020 TEMPO 1620 26020G30KT 8000 +SHRA BKN015CB PROB30
TSRA =
Heavy rain showers
893. Flight from Bordeaux to Amsterdam, ETA 2100 UTC. At ETA Amsterdam what surface wind is forecast?
RA BKN005 OVC010 BECMG 2301 25020KT 8000 NSW BKN020=
120 / 15 kt gusts 25 kt
894. Flight from Bordeaux to Amsterdam, ETA 2100 UTC. What is the minimum visibility forecast for ETA
Amsterdam?
RA BKN005 OVC010 BECMG 2301 25020KT 8000 NSW BKN020=
3 km
895. Does the following report make sense?

LSZH VRB02KT 5000 MIFG 02/02 Q1015 NOSIG
The report is possible, because shallow fog is defined as a thin layer of fog below eye level
896. You receive the following METAR:

LSGG 0750Z 00000KT 0300 R05/0700N FG VV001 M02/M02 Q1014 NOSIG =
What will be the RVR at 0900 UTC?
The RVR is unknown, because the "NOSIG" does not refer to RVR
897. Refer to the following TAF extract:

BECMG 1821 2000 BKN004 PROB30 BECMG 2124 0500 FG VV001
What visibility is forecast for 2400 UTC?
500 m

What does the abbreviation "VV001" mean?
Vertical visibility 100 FT
899. What does the term METAR signify?

A METAR signifies the actual weather report at an aerodrome and is generally issued in half-hourly intervals
900. How long from the time of observation is a TREND in a METAR valid?
2 hours
901. What is a SPECI?

A selected special aerodrome weather report, issued when a significant change of the weather conditions have
been observed
902. Appended to a METAR you get the following runway report: 01650428
What must you consider when making performance calculations?
The friction coefficient is 0.28
What does the "BECMG" data indicate for the 18 to 21 hour time frame?
The new conditions are achieved between 1800 and 2100 UTC

What does the abbreviation "BKN004" mean?
5 - 7 oktas, ceiling 400 FT
905. Refer to the following TAF extract;

What does the abbreviation "PROB30" mean?
Probability of 30%
906. From the TAF above you can assume that visibility at 2055Z in Birmingham (EGBB) will be:
EGBB 261000Z 261812 28015G25KT 9999 SCT025 TEMPO 1822 29018G35KT 5000 SHRASN BKN010CB PROB30
TEMPO 1821 1500 TSGR BKN008CB BECMG 2224 26010 KT=
Not less than 1,5 km but could be in excess of 10 km
907. What is the wind speed given in a METAR report based on?
The average speed of the previous 10 minutes
908. What does the term SIGMET signify?

A SIGMET is a warning of dangerous meteorological conditions
909. What does the term TREND signify?

It is a brief landing forecast added to the actual weather report
910. Which of the following phenomena should be described as precipitation at the time they are observed?
SN
+SHSN
DZ
913. Which of the following meteorological phenomena can rapidly change the braking action of a runway?
+FZRA
914. Which of the following phenomena can produce a risk of aquaplaning?

+RA
915. Which of these four METAR reports suggests that rain is most likely in the next few hours?
23015KT 8000 BKN030 OVC070 17/14 Q1009 BECMG 4000 =
916. Which of these four METAR reports suggests that a thunderstorm is likely in the next few hours?
201350Z 21005KT 9999 SCT040CB SCT100 26/18 Q1016 TEMPO 24018G30KT TS=
917. In which of the following METAR reports is the probability of fog formation in the coming night the highest?
201850Z 15003KT 6000 SCT120 05/04 Q1032 BECMG 1600 BR=
918. Which of these statements best describes the weather most likely to be experienced at 1500 UTC?
TAF LSZH 211200Z 211322 22018G35KT 9999 SCT012 BKN030 BECMG 1315 25025G45KT TEMPO 1720 4000 +SHRA
BKN025TCU BECMG 2022 25015KT TX18/15Z TN14/21Z=
Visibility 10 kilometres or more, ceiling 3000 feet, wind 250, temperature 18C
919. In which of the following weather reports could, in accordance with the regulations, the abbreviation
"CAVOK" be used?
15003KT 9999 BKN100 17/11 Q1024 NOSIG=
920. In which of the following weather reports could, in accordance with the regulations, the abbreviation
"CAVOK" be used?
27019G37KT 9999 BKN050 18/14 Q1016 NOSIG=
921. Which of the following statements is an interpretation of the METAR ?

25020G38KT 1200 +TSGR BKN006 BKN015CB 23/18 Q1016 BECMG NSW=
Gusts of 38 knots, thunderstorm with heavy hail, dew point 18C
922. Which of the following statements is an interpretation of the METAR?

00000KT 0200 R14/0800U R16/P1500U FZFG VV001 M03/M03 Q1022 BECMG 0800 =
RVR for runway 14 800 metres, vertical visibility 100 feet, calm, meteorological visibility improving to 800 metres
in the next 2 hours
923. Which of the following statements is an interpretation of the SIGMET?

LSAS SIGMET 2 VALID 030700/031100 LSZH-
SWITZERLAND FIR/UIR MOD TO SEV CAT FCST N OF ALPS BTN FL 260/380 STNR INTSF
Moderate to severe clear air turbulence to be expected north of the Alps. Intensity increasing. Danger zone
between FL 260 and FL 380
924. Which of the following statements is an interpretation of the SIGMET?

LSGG SIGMET 3 VALID 121420/121820 LGAT-
ATHINAI FIR EMBD TS FCST IN W PART MOV E NC
Thunderstorms must be expected in the western part of the Athens FIR. The thunderstorm zone is moving east.
Intensity is constant
925. What is the lowest visibility forecast at ETA Zurich 1430 UTC?
LSZH 260900Z 261019 20018G30KT 9999 -RA SCT050 BKN080 TEMPO 23012KT 6000 -DZ BKN015 BKN030 BECMG
1518 23020G35KT 4000 RA OVC010=
6 km
926. What is the lowest cloud base forecast at ETA Zurich 1200 UTC?
LSZH 060900Z 061019 20018G30KT 9999 -RA SCT050 BKN080 TEMPO 23012KT 6000 -DZ BKN015 BKN030 BECMG
1518 23020G35KT 4000 RA OVC010=
1500 FT
927. The following weather message

EDDM 241200Z 241322 VRB03KT 1500 HZ OVC004 BECMG 1517 00000KT 0500 FG VV002 TEMPO 2022 0400 FG
VV001=
is a :
9 hour TAF
928. In METAR messages, the pressure group represents the

QNH rounded down to the nearest hPa
929. What is the meaning of the abbreviation "SCT?

3 - 4 oktas
930. Which of the statements is true concerning squall lines?

For severe squall lines a SIGMET is issued
931. The validity of a TAF is

Stated in the TAF
932. If CAVOK is reported then

No low drifting snow is present
933. Runway visual range can be reported in

A METAR
934. SIGMET information is issued as a warning for significant weather to

All aircraft
935. A SPECI is
An aviation selected special weather report
936. On the European continent METARs of main airports are compiled and distributed with intervals of
0.5 hour
937. The RVR, as reported in a METAR, is always the
Value representative of the touchdown zone
938. Given the following METAR:

EDDM 250850Z 33005KT 2000 R26R/P1500N R26L/1500N BR SCT002 OVC003 05/05 Q1025 NOSIG=
Which of the following statements is correct?
Visibility is reduced by water droplets
939. At a weather station, at 0600 UTC, the air temperature and dew point are respectively: T = - 0,5C,Td = -1,5C.
In the METAR message transmitted by this station, the "temperature group" will be:
M00/M01
940. TAF LSZH 1322 22018G35KT 9999 SCT012 BKN030 BECMG 1315 25025G45KT BECMG 1820 4000 RA BKN025
BECMG 2022 25015KT T1815Z T1618Z =
Which statement is true at 15 UTC?
Met. vis. 10 km or more, ceiling 3000 ft, wind from 250 degrees, temperature 18C
941. Refer to the surface chart:

Which weather situation can be expected during the day at Geneva airport?
TAF LSGG 0716 23016KT 8000 -RA BKN030 OVC070 BECMG 0810 5000 RA BKN020 OVC050 TEMPO 3000 +RA BKN
010 OVC030 BECMG 1215 25014KT 8000 SCT 030 BKN090=
942. In which of the following METARs is the probability the biggest for the formation of fog the following night?
1850Z 15003KT 6000 SCT120 05/04 Q1032 BECMG 1600 =
943. For your flight from Zurich to Rome you consult, amongst other information, the following SIGMET:
SIGMET VALID121420/121820 MOD TO SEV CAT OBS AND FCST S OF ALPS BTN FL 260 AND FL 380 / STNR / INTSF =
You select a flight level below FL 260 due to turbulence
944. For subsonic cruising levels, a SIGMET is NOT issued in case of

Isolated CB
945. What is a VOLMET broadcast?
Provision, as appropriate, of current METAR, SPECI, TAF and SIGMET by means of continuous and repetitive voice
broadcast
946. How would the term "vertical visibility is missing or not measurable" be indicated in a METAR?
VV///
947. What is the meaning of "RERA" in a METAR?

There has been moderate or heavy rain since the last issue of METAR
948. What are the meanings of the meteorological abbreviations SQ, BR, MIFG and SG respectively?
Sudden increase in wind speed lasting for at least one minute / mist / shallow fog / snowgrains
949. Which of the following phenomena has to be mentioned in a SIGMET?

Volcanic ash
950. What does the code R24R/P1500 mean?

RVR RWY 24 right above 1500 metres
951. The term CAVOK is used when weather conditions are:

9999, NSC, NSW
952. Which of the following layers of fog above land is coded as MIFG?
A layer of 5 feet deep
953. A METAR message is valid

At the time of observation
954. What is the lowest cloud base forecast for arrival at Geneva (ETA 1200 UTC)?
TAF LSGG 020900Z 021019 18007KT 9999 SCT020 BKN100 BECMG 1114 8000 RA SCT010 OVC020 PROB30 TEMPO
1018 VRB10G25KT TSRA SCT005 BKN015CB=
500 ft
955. What surface wind is forecast for ETA 1700 UTC at Kingston?
MKJP 160430Z 160606 36010KT 9999 FEW025CB BECMG1315 14020G34KT FEW015CB SCT025 PROB30 TEMPO 1720
2500 +SHRA SCT010 BKN015CB BECMG 2301 34010KT FEW025=
140 / 20 kt gusts 34 kt
956. What is the height of the lowest cloud forecast for Bangkok at ETA 1400 UTC?
TAF VTBD 271800Z 280024 VRB05KT 1200 BR TEMPO 0002 4000 BECMG 0205 9999 NSW SCT015 BKN100 TEMPO
1118 04010G20KT 5000 TSRA SCT009 BKN014 BKN018CB BECMG 2024 6000=
900 ft
957. What is the lowest forecast visibility that may be expected during an approach into Dhahran at ETA 0600
UTC?
TAF OEDR 280000Z 280110 VRB08KT CAVOK BECMG 0103 7000 TEMPO 0410 28014G24KT 4000 SA=
4 km
958. What visibility is most likely to be experienced during an approach into Madrid at 2300 UTC?
TAF LEMD 281200Z 281812 13005KT CAVOK TEMPO 1821 8000 SCT020 SCT030 BECMG 2123 21005KT 9999 SCT015
BKN080 PROB40 TEMPO 2306 6000 SCT008=
10 kilometres or more
959. What visibility is most likely to be experienced at 1400 UTC ?

EDDF 272200Z 280624 VRB05KT 4000 BR SCT005 OVC013 BECMG 1314 9000 SHRA OVC015 PROB40 TEMPO 1416
VRB15G25KT 1600 TSRA OVC010CB BECMG 1618 26010KT BKN030 BECMG 2122 CAVOK=
9000 metres
960. Which of the statements is true concerning squall lines?

For severe squall lines a SIGMET is issued
961. Refer to the TAF:

FT LSZH 151425Z 1515/1621 VRB03KT 4000 BR SCT007 BKN028 TX05/1515Z TN02/1606Z TX11/1613Z TEMPO
1515/1524 BKN008 BECMG 1515/1518 RA BECMG 1521/1524 NSW SCT008 BKN015 BECMG 1609/1612 7000
SCT015=
Which is correct?
The forecasted maximum temperature is 11 C at 13 UTC on the 16th of the month
962. The term "TN11/2106Z TX21/2113Z" in a TAF means:

The forecasted maximum temperature is 21 C at 13 UTC on the 21th of the month
963. Which of the following METARs reflect the weather conditions expected at Brussels airport (EBBR) at 1200
UTC?
21014KT 5000 RA BKN015 OVC030 15/12 Q1011 NOSIG=
964. For 1300 UTC select a METAR which you consider to be most appropriate to position 'T':
19010KT 6000 RA BKN016 OVC090 08/06 Q1004=
965. Read the following METAR for station XXXX:

XXXX 301230Z VRB02KT 0900 R36/1100VP1500D FZFG OVC001 M02/M02 Q1029 BECMG 1500 BR OVC002=
Which statement about visibility and RVR is correct?
Prevailing visibility is 900 m, RVR has detoriated in the last 10 minutes
966. In the METAR code the abbreviation VC indicates:

Present weather within a range of between approximately 8 and 16 km of the aerodrome reference point
967. Read the following SIGMET:

EGJJ SIGMET 03 VALID 2291130/291530 EGJJ-
LOC SEV TURB AND WS FCST BLW 3000FT OVER THE CHANNEL ISLANDS AREA INTSF=
Which statement about this SIGMET is best?
Over the Channel Islands area severe turbulence and wind shear are forecasted which will increase during the
forecast period
968. Compare the following TAF and VOLMET reports for Nice:
TAF 240716 VRB02KT CAVOK =
0920Z 13012KT 8000 SCT040CB BKN100 20/18 Q1015 TEMPO TS =
What can be concluded from the differences between the two reports?
That the weather at Nice is clearly more volatile than the TAF could have predicted earlier in the morning
969. Marseille Information gives you the following meteorological information for Ajaccio and Calvi for 16:00 UTC :
Ajaccio: wind 360/2 kt, visibility 2000 m, rain, BKN stratocumulus at 1000 FT, OVC altostratus at 8000 FT, QNH 1023
hPa.
Calvi: wind 040/2 kt, visibility 3000 m, mist, FEW stratus at 500 FT, SCT stratocumulus at 2000 FT, OVC altostratus at
9000 FT, QNH 1023 hPa.
The ceilings (more than 4 oktas) are therefore:
1000 FT at Ajaccio and 9000 FT at Calvi
970. ATIS information contains

Meteorological and operational information
971. Which kind of meteorological messages are normally transmitted in a VHF-VOLMET broadcast within Europe?
METAR / SPECI
972. Which airport, at 1200 UTC, has the lowest probability of precipitation?
LSZH
973. Over Paris at what height would you expect to find the tropopause according to the map?
Approx.30000 FT
974. What is the optimum flight level between Rome and Paris according to the significant weather chart?
FL 200
975. Flight Zurich to Rome, ETD 1600 UTC, ETA 1800 UTC. At what flight level would you first expect to encounter
clear air turbulence on the climb out from Zurich?
FL 220
976. What is the approximate height of the tropopause between Munich and Helsinki?
FL 340
977. You are flying from Munich to Amsterdam. Which of the following flight levels would you choose in order to
avoid turbulence and icing?
FL 260
978. In what height range and at what intensity could you encounter turbulence in CAT area n2?
From FL 220 to FL 400, moderate
979. At what flight level is the jet stream core that is situated over Germany?
FL 330
980. How may the correct wind speed be found, for a level, which is between two upper air chart levels? (e.g.
wind at FL 250, when the 500 hPa and the 300 hPa chart are available).
By interpolation of the wind information available from the two charts, while also considering the maximum wind
information found on the Significant Weather Chart
981. Why are indications about the height of the tropopause not essential for flight documentation in the tropics?
The tropopause is generally well above the flight level actually flown
982. If you are flying from Zurich to Shannon at FL 340, where will your cruising altitude be?
Constantly in the stratosphere
983. Which of these statements is true?
Scattered thunderstorms can be expected over France
984. On which of these routes would you not need to worry about icing at FL 220?
Hamburg - Stockholm
985. What is the wind direction and speed at 3 000 FT overhead position "Q" at 0600 UTC?
270 30 kt
986. At which airport, is the following weather development taking place? (Chart 0600 UTC)
TAF 060716 25006KT 8000 BKN240 BECMG 0710 OVC200 BECMG 1013 23010KT 8000 OVC100 BECMG 1316
23014KT 6000 RA SCT030 OVC050 =
EDDL
987. What weather conditions are expected at Paris airport (LFPO) around 1300 UTC?
23014KT 3000 +RA SCT008 OVC025 15/13 Q1004 NOSIG =
988. Over Madrid, what intensity of turbulence and icing is forecast at FL 200?
Moderate turbulence and icing
989. At what approximate flight level is the tropopause over Frankfurt?
FL 330
990. Select from the map the wind for the route Zurich - London at FL 280.
220 / 50
991. What is the average wind at FL 160 between Zurich and Rome?
020/50
992. The temperature at FL 330 overhead London will be
-42C
Observe the tropopause height overhead London!
993. What wind is forecast at FL 390 over Paris?
210/40
994. What is the average temperature at FL 160 between Oslo and Paris?
-19C
995. What is the temperature deviation in degrees Celsius, from the International Standard Atmosphere
overhead Frankfurt?
ISA -13C
996. What is the speed of the front located over France?
15 kt
997. Flight Munich to London. What is the direction and maximum speed of the jet stream affecting the route
between Munich and London?
230 / 120 kt
998. Flight Shannon to London. What is forecast for the eastern sector of the route between Shannon and London
at FL 220?
Moderate or severe turbulence and icing
999. Over Amsterdam, what amount and general type of cloud would you expect at FL 160?
Mainly 5 to 8 oktas
1000. To what extent is Munich covered by clouds?
5 to 8 oktas
1001. What OAT would you expect at FL 200 over Geneva?
-24C
1002. Assuming a normal vertical temperature gradient, at what altitude will the freezing level above Tunis be
found?
FL 100
1003. What is the mean temperature deviation from ISA for the Frankfurt - Roma route?
4C colder than ISA
1004. Select from the map the average wind for the route Athens - Geneva at FL 160.
240/40
1005. Select from the map the average temperature for the route Athens - Geneva at FL 150.
-14C
1006. What is the deviation of the temperature at FL 140 above Copenhagen compared to ISA?
9C colder than ISA
1007. Select from the map the average wind for the route Zurich - Hamburg at FL 240.
230/15
1008. Select from the map the average temperature for the route Zurich - Lisboa at FL 200.
-33C
1009. Select from the map the average wind for the route Shannon - Lisboa at FL 290.
360/80
1010. Select from the map the average temperature for the route Geneva -Stockholm at FL 260.
-47C
1011. On which of the following routes can you expect icing to occur, on the basis of the chart?
Rome - Frankfurt
1012. Looking at the chart, at what altitude above Frankfurt would you expect the tropopause to be located?
FL 350
1013. If you are flying from Zurich to London at FL 220, what conditions can you expect at cruising altitude?
Scattered thunderstorms
The front to the north of Frankfurt is moving north-east at about 5 kt
1015. On which of these routes would you not have to worry about turbulence at FL 340?
Shannon - Hamburg
1016. If you are flying from Zurich to Stockholm at FL 240, what conditions can you expect at cruising altitude?
Largely free of cloud; moderate icing half way along the route
1017. Judging by the chart, what windspeeds can you expect at FL 340 above Rome?
145 kt
1018. Judging by the chart, on which of these routes can you expect to encounter moderate and locally severe CAT
at FL 300?
Zurich - Rome
1019. To which aerodrome is the following TAF most applicable?

TAF 231019 24014KT 6000 SCT030 BKN100 TEMPO 1113 25020G38KT 2500 +TSRA SCT008 BKN025CB BECMG 1315
28012KT 9999 SCT025 TEMPO 5000 SHRA BKN020 BECMG 1719 27008KT 9999 SCT030
LOWW
1020. At which airport is the following weather development taking place?
TAF 231322 24014G32KT 4000 +TSRA SCT005 BKN015 BKN020CB BECMG 1416 29012KT 9999 BKN030TCU SCT100
TEMPO 8000 SHRA BKN025TCU BECMG 1922 27012KT 9999 SCT030 OVC220 = (chart 1200 UTC)
EINN
1021. Which of the following weather conditions would be expected at Athens Airport (LGAT) at around 1450 UTC?
(Chart 1200 UTC)
21002KT 6000 BR SCT040 29/16 Q1026 NOSIG =
1022. Which airport is most likely to have radiation fog in the coming night?
LSZH
1023. Select from the map the average wind for the route Zurich - Rome at FL110.
230/10
1024. Select from the map the average temperature for the route Zurich - Rome at FL 110.
-9C
1025. Look at the chart. Assuming a normal vertical temperature gradient, at what altitude will the freezing level
above Shannon be found?
FL 60
1026. Select from the map the average wind for the route Frankfurt - Roma at FL 170.
230/40
1027. 8/8 stratus base 200 FT/AGL is observed at sunrise at an aerodrome in the north of France; the QNH is 1028
hPa and there is a variable wind of 3 kt.
What change in these clouds is likely at 12:00 UTC in summer and winter?
Winter: OVC base 500 FT/AGL; summer SCT base 3000 FT/AGL
1028. A pilot is warned of severe icing at certain flight levels by information supplied in
SWC and SIGMET
1029. Refer to the chart: On which route of flight would you expect no icing at FL 180?
Hamburg-Stockholm
1030. Refer to the chart: State the average wind for the route Zurich-Hamburg, FL 260:
23020KT
1031. Refer to the chart: State the average temperature for the route Zurich-Lissabon, FL 200:
-33C
1032. Refer to the chart: State the height of the -40C isotherm over Stockholm:
FL 230
1033. Refer to the chart: State the average wind for the route Athens-Geneva, FL 160:
23040KT
1034. Refer to the chart: State the average temperature for the route Athens-Geneva, FL 150:
-14C
1035. Refer to the chart: State the average wind for the route Zurich-Rome, FL 110:
23015KT
1036. Refer to the chart: State the average air temperature for the route Zurich-Rome, FL 110:
-09C
1037. Refer to the chart: State the height of the freezing level over Shannon by applying the common vertical
temperature gradient:
FL 60
1038. Refer to the chart: State the average wind for the route Frankfurt-Rome, FL 170:
23040KT
1039. Refer to the chart: State the height of the freezing level over Tunis, considering the common vertical
temperature gradient:
FL 100
1040. Refer to the chart: What is the average temperature for the route Geneva-Stockholm, FL 260?
-47C
1041. Refer to the chart: What is the average wind for the route Shannon-Lisbon, FL 290:
36080KT
1042. Refer to the chart: For which route of flight do you expect icing?
Rome-Frankfurt
1043. Refer to the chart: What are the weather conditions for a flight from Zurich to London at your cruising
altitude of FL 220?
Occasional thunderstorms
1044. Refer to the chart: Which statements are true?

CBs have formed over the Iberian peninsula, with tops at about 25'000 ft
1045. Refer to the chart: Which route is free of turbulence at Fl 340?

Shannon-Hamburg
1046. Refer to the chart: What wind speed do you expect over Rome at FL 340?
145KT
1047. At Lyon (LFLY, N4545 E00500), at 12 UTC, the sky is overcast with Stratocumulus and Altostratus and it is
raining. Using the SWC below, valid at 1200 UTC, we can estimate a weather improvement for Lyon at:
2100 UTC
1048. When front "G" passes position "T", the surface wind should:
Veer and increase
1049. What is the best approximation for the wind speed at flight level 250?
By interpolation of the wind information available from the 500 and 300 hPa charts, while also considering the
maximum wind information found on the Significant Weather Chart
1050. What are the normal and official sources of meteorological information for an aircraft in flight?
VOLMET broadcast; ATIS; all ATS-units
1051. Flight Rome to Zurich:
What is the direction and speed of the jet stream affecting the route between Rome and Zurich at FL 310?
220/100 kt
1052. Flight from Vienna (LOWW) to Cologne (EDDK):
What amount and type of cloud is forecast at FL 180?
Locally broken altocumulus
1053. Over London (EGLL), what amount and general type of cloud would you expect at FL 60?
Locally 5-7 oktas cumulus and stratocumulus
1054. To what extent is Zagreb (LDZA) covered by clouds?
3 to 7 oktas
1055. At what flight level above Ankara would you expect the tropopause to be located?
FL 370
1056. Judging by the chart, what wind speeds can you expect at FL 230 over Amsterdam?
80 kt
1057. Judging by the chart, on which of these routes can you expect to encounter moderate CAT at FL 210?
Oslo - Paris
1058. If you are flying from Rome to Amsterdam at FL 200, what conditions can you expect at cruising altitude?
Moderate or severe turbulence and icing
1059. If you are flying from Zurich to Oslo at FL 310, where will your cruising altitude be?
Constantly in the stratosphere
1060. Which of these statements is true?
Local snow and severe aircraft icing can be expected over Germany
1061. On which of these routes would you not need to worry about icing at FL 180?
Bordeaux - Zurich
1062. The front at the bottom of the diagram, south of position C, is

An occlusion on the surface
1063. The temperature deviation from ISA (to the nearest C) overhead Charleston at FL 340 is
+5
1064. At 40N 70W, the forecast wind is

270/95 kt
1065. Considering the route between Valencia and Charleston at FL 340, the forecast mean temperature is
-50C
1066. At 40N 20W, the forecast wind at FL 390 is
090/45 kt
1067. The front located from 10W to 10E is most likely to be

A quasi-stationary front
1068. What is the average wind forecast for FL 300 between Edinburgh and Madrid?
280/30
1069. The average forecast wind for the leg from Madrid to Dhahran at FL 390 is
270/50
1070. What is the average temperature difference from ISA at FL 390 between Madrid and Dhahran?
-1C
1071. Flight from Lisbon (LPPT) to Kingston (MKJP):
At 40N 20W, the temperature deviation from ISA at FL 390 is
0C
1072. Flight from Lisbon (LPPT) to Kingston (MKJP):

Considering the route segment between 60W and 70W, at FL 390 the forecast mean temperature is
-55C
The wind speed in the core of the jet stream west of Rome is about 80 kt
1074. On which of the following routes would you not have to worry about moderate and/or severe turbulence on
the cruising level?
Rome to Vienna at FL 220
1075. The temperature at FL 340 overhead Copenhagen will be
-48C
1076. Which of the following messages should be cancelled when the conditions are no longer occurring or no
longer expected to occur?
Aerodrome warning
1077. Which interpretation of the following message is correct?

LFLD AD WRNG 1 VALID 050430/050900
FROST FCST=
It is forecast that some parts of the surface, vehicles, and aircraft parked outside will be contaminated by hoar
frost between 0430 and 0900 on the 5th of that month
1078. During the preparation for approach to Zurich airport (1416 ft/AMSL) a pilot hears the following message on
the ATIS: "Inversion warning. Inversion of 12C between 1900 ft and 2300 ft altitude."
This message indicates that the pilot should be prepared
For wind shear just above the inversion
1079. The wind at 500ft above ground is 290/15kt and at the same position at 600ft above ground 300/22kt. How
is this wind situation called?
Moderate vertical wind shear
1080. What is the meaning of the following weather message?

CNL WS WRNG 1 211130/211330=
The first wind shear warning on the 21st of that month, issued at 1130 UTC has been cancelled at the same day at
1330 UTC
1081. To which type of message does the following text belong?

MBST APCH RWY26 REP AT 1510 B747 30KT ASPEEDL 2NM FNA=
Wind shear warning
1082. What is an aerodrome warning?

A message issued by a meteorological office concerning the meteorological conditions which could adversely
affect aircraft on ground, including parked aircraft, and the aerodrome facilities and services
1083. An aerodrome warning message gives information, among other things, about
TS; SN including the expected or observed snow accumulation; hoar frost
1084. What is the defined upper level of the WS activity in the following message?
... MOD WS APCH RWY18 FCST=
1600 ft above runway level
1085. What units are used to report vertical wind shear?

Kt/100 FT
1086. Which of the following weather reports is a warning of conditions that could be potentially hazardous to
aircraft in flight?
SIGMET
1087. In which of the following circumstances is a SIGMET issued?
Marked mountain waves
1088. Under which of these conditions is radiation fog most likely to form?
Little or no cloud
1089. Which of the following processes contributes to the formation of frontal fog?
Rain falls from the warm air into the cold air
1090. In which of the following situations is the probability for severe thunderstorms the highest?
Advection of maritime cold air over a warm sea surface.
1091. The presence of ice pellets at the surface is the evidence that:
Temperatures are above freezing at some higher altitudes
1092. Which of the following statements is true concerning the Bergeron-Findeisen process?
It only takes place in clouds with supercooled water droplets and ice crystals
1093. The presence of ice pellets at a height of 8000 ft indicates

Freezing rain at heights above 8000 ft
1094. Refer to the chart: On which airport do you expect the development of the following weather situation:
TAF 1019 21010KT 8000 SCT120 OVC180 BECMG 1013 OVC090 TEMPO -RA BECMG 1417 22016KT 5000 RA BKN020
OVC030 TEMPO 3000 +RA BKN012 OVC020 =
LSZH
1095. An occlusion has the characteristics of a warm front when:

The cold air behind is warmer than the cold air ahead
1096. The first clouds are thin, wispy cirrus, followed by sheets of cirrus and cirrostratus, and altostratus. The sun is
obscured as the altostratus thickens and rain begins to fall. The cloud base is lowering as Nimbostratus arrives. These
phenomena describe the approach of a
Warm front
1097. A stationary observer in the northern hemisphere is situated in front of a depression. The centre of the
depression passes from west to east and north of the observer. For this observer the wind direction is:
Veering
1098. The air masses that are observed most frequently over Western Europe are:
Polar air and tropical air
1099. The pressure system indicated in a vertical cross section by pressure surfaces at lower heights bulging
upward and pressure surfaces at greater heights bulging downward, is a
Cold high pressure area
1100. What are the typical weather conditions in a cold air pool in summer?
Precipitation is predominant
1101. Where are the westerlies to be expected?

In the mid-latitudes
1102. An aircraft descends in layered clouds; the freezing level is situated at FL 60.
At what levels is the probability for airframe icing the highest?
Between FL 120 and FL 60
1103. In what height range and at what intensity could you encounter turbulence in CAT area n2?
From FL 220 to FL 400, moderate
1104. Which constant pressure chart is standard for FL 140?
600 hPa
1105. TAF EHAM 142300Z 150009 33005KT 9999 SCT025 BKN100 BECMG 0002 27015KT 4500 -SN SCT008 OVC015
TEMPO 0206 0400 +SN VV002 BECMG 0406 01008KT 9999 NSW SCT030 TEMPO 0709 03015G25KT 1200 SHSN
SCT006 SCT015CB=
What is the expected visibility at 0300 UTC?
Between 4500 m and 400 m
1106. During a descent in the northern hemisphere from 2000 FT above the surface to the surface (no frontal
passage) the wind normally
Backs and decreases
1107. Runway visual range is calculated from values derived from

Transmissometers
1108. What is meant by QFF?

The present atmospheric pressure at an aerodrome converted to mean sea level in accordance with the actual
conditions.
1109. As a result of diurnal variation radiation fog is lifted and a cloud cover is formed. Which statement is true?
Low stratus will develop caused by increasing wind speed.
1110. A wind of 20 knots corresponds to an approximate speed of

10 m/s
1111. Of what does lenticular cloud provide evidence?

Mountain waves
1112. Air masses which are being cooled from below are often characterized by:
Fog, poor visibility and layered clouds
1113. The following sequence of clouds is observed at an airport: cirrus, cirrostratus, altostratus, nimbostratus.
This is typical for:
The passage of a warm front
1114. What degree of aircraft icing is determined by the following ICAO description?
"Conditions in which immediate change of heading and/or altitude is considered essential"
Severe
1115. Which statement is correct for microburst?

The diameter of the affected area on the surface does not exceed 4 km
1116. Which of the following constant pressure charts would be most relevant for planning a flight at FL 330?
250 hPa
1117. When compared to the geostrophic wind in the northern hemisphere, surface friction will cause the surface
wind to
Back and decrease
1118. On which of the following routes can you expect icing to occur, on the basis of the chart?
Moscow - Berlin, FL 220
1119. In the ICAO standard atmosphere, which of the following alternatives indicates the correct vertical
temperature distribution in the lowest 11 km?
15C at mean sea level, decreasing at 0.65C per 100 metres
1120. The conditions most favourable to the formation of mountain waves are
Wind direction approximately at right angles to the mountain range - wind speed 30 kt and steadily increasing
with height - an inversion just above the crest level with less stable air above and below
1121. Which of the following changes of state is known as freezing?

Liquid to solid
1122. Which statement is true for a conditionally unstable layer?

The environmental lapse rate is between the dry and the saturated adiabatic lapse rate
1123. Which of the following clouds represents the most stable air mass?
1124. When fog is reported, the visibility is below

1 km
1125. Which of the following types of jet streams can be observed all year round?
Subtropical jet stream / polar front jet stream
1126. What is the name of the hot, local wind that blows downwards from mountain chains? In the Alps, for
instance, it may exist both as a southerly or northerly wind depending on the weather situation.
Foehn
1127. Which one of the following statements applies to the tropopause?

It separates the troposphere from the stratosphere
1128. Flight Lisbon to Bordeaux, ETA 1800 UTC. At ETA Bordeaux what is the lowest quoted visibility forecast ?
TAF LFBD 281400Z 281524 26015KT 9999 SHRA BKN020 TEMPO 1620 26020G30KT 8000 +SHRA BKN015CB PROB30
TSRA =
8 km
applicable ?
FL 180
1130. For the same pressure gradient at 60N, 50N and 40N the speed of the geostrophic wind will be
Greatest at 40N
1131. Which of the following situations will be typical for the intertropical convergence zone?
Low pressure and instability.
1132. What cloud type can produce freezing rain?

NS
1133. In the troposphere the decrease in pressure per 100 m increase in height is
Larger in the lower layers than in the higher layers
1134. What does the code TAF AMD mean?

Revised TAF
1135. The formation of morning fog before sunrise is possible if

Air temperature and dew point are equal or close to one another
1136. In unstable air, ground visibility is most likely to be restricted by

Showers of rain or snow
1137. During an ILS approach on RWY 33, a northwesterly wind is blowing parallel to the runway. Its speed is
increasing rapidly with height while its change in direction is negligible. What has the pilot to be aware of with
respect to wind shear and glide path (no autopilot engaged)?
Without the pilot's intervention, the aircraft is likely to fly below the designated glide path with increasing
deviation from it.
1138. The arrows labelled "t" represent the mean tracks of tropical revolving storms which occur mainly from
June to October and are called cyclones
1139. Why are polar regions colder than equatorial regions?

Because the angle of incidence of the solar radiation is very small in polar regions
1140. Which process is mainly responsible for the warming of layers of air in the medium levels of the troposphere?
Convection
1141. Which best describes the significant cloud forecast for the area east of Tunis (36N 010E)?
5 to 7 oktas CU and AC, base below FL 100, tops FL 180
1142. Which describes the maximum intensity of turbulence, if any, forecast for FL 260 over Toulouse (44N 001E)?
Severe
1143. Which best describes the maximum intensity of CAT, if any, forecast for FL 330 over Benghazi(32N 020E) ?
Nil
1144. Which describes the maximum intensity of turbulence, if any, at FL 210 in the vicinity of the Canary Islands
(29N 015W)?
Severe
1145. Which best describes the maximum intensity of CAT, if any, forecast for FL330 over TUNIS?
Nil
1146. The W/V (/kt) at 50N 015W is:

290/45
1147. The strongest wind and its level associated with any jetstream on the chart is:
160 kt at FL 320
1148. The approximate mean wind component (kt) along true course 180 from 50N to 40N at 015 W is
Tail wind 20 kt
1149. Over Prague (50N014E), the lowest FL listed which is unaffected by CAT is:
260
1150. What is the temperature deviation (C) from ISA over 50 N 010E ?
+2
1151. In an ascending unsaturated parcel of air:
The relative humidity increases
1152. Which statement concerning volume and temperature of a descending parcel of air is correct?
The volume decreases while the temperature increases
1153. Which statement concerning volume and temperature of an ascending parcel of air is correct?
The volume increases while the temperature decreases
1154. With other variables remaining constant, the base of free convective cloud will:
Rise with increasing temperature at the earth's surface
1155. Amongst others, what has to be expected when a warm air mass covers a cold surface?
Development of strati form clouds
1156. Which one of the displayed cloud forms is representative of a cumulus?

1
1157. In maritime tropical air in mid-latitudes:

Showers may develop over land areas during the summer
1158. The air mass at position X is most likely to be:

Maritime tropical
1159. The arrows labelled "v" represent the mean tracks of tropical revolving storms which occur mainly from
December to April and are called cyclones
1160. The arrows labelled "u" represent the mean tracks of tropical revolving storms which occur mainly from
July to October and are called typhoons
1161. The arrows labelled "t" represent the mean tracks of tropical revolving storms which occur mainly from
June to October and are called cyclones
1162. The arrows labelled "s" represent the mean tracks of tropical revolving storms which occur mainly from
May to November and are called cyclones
1163. Foehn effects in mountainous areas occur:

On the lee side of the mountain range when precipitation is falling on the upwind side of the mountain range
1164. During foehn from the south the air temperature is generally:
Higher north of the Alps than south of the Alps at the same altitude
1165. When compared to icing in stratiform clouds, icing in cumuliform clouds is generally:
More severe due to the higher supercooled water content of cumuliform cloud
1166. What type of thunderstorm is solely caused by convective currents coming off of the earth's surface?
Air mass thunderstorms
1167. Which of the following thunderstorms can be referred to as stationary thunderstorms?

Orographic thunderstorms
1168. Which of the following thunderstorms can be referred to as stationary thunderstorms?
Air mass thunderstorms
1169. Under which of the following conditions is carburettor icing most likely to occur?
Outside air temperature +2C, relative humidity 90%
1170. Amongst others, what method is used by meteorological services in order to perform periodical
measurements of temperature and humidity aloft?
Measurements using radiosondes
1171. When the sky is overcast, what means are used by meteorological services for measuring wind in any height
between earth's surface and 10000 m?
Radiosondes
1172. Which of the following instruments is used for measuring atmospheric pressure?
Aneroid barometer
1173. Which of the following instruments is used for measuring atmospheric pressure?
Mercury barometer
1174. Which instrument is used for measuring atmospheric humidity?

Hygrometer
1175. Which instrument is used for measuring atmospheric humidity?

Psychrometer
1176. Which of the following instruments is used for measuring the velocity of the surface wind?
Anemometer


1179. Which process is mainly responsible for the warming of layers of air in the medium levels of the troposphere?
Convection

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1. How does the height of the tropopause normally vary with latitude in the northern hemisphere?

It decreases from south to north

2. In which layer is most of the atmospheric humidity concentrated?

6. In the troposphere the decrease of pressure per 100 m increase in height

11. A layer is conditionally unstable if the air

21. Convective activity over land in mid-latitudes is greatest in

23. Which of the following is a common result of subsidence?

24. What is the most likely temperature at the tropical tropopause?

37. Half the mass of the atmosphere is found in the first

38. The thickness of the troposphere varies with

39. In the lower part of the stratosphere the temperature

40. What characteristic is associated with a temperature inversion?

41. What pressure is defined as QFE?

54. The station pressure used in surface weather charts is

96. The troposphere is the

97. The tropopause is a level at which

98. The tropopause is lower

99. The temperature at 10000 FT in the International Standard Atmosphere is :

102. An inversion is a layer of air in which the temperature

103. An isothermal layer is a layer of air in which the temperature

104. A temperature inversion indicates a state of the atmosphere which is

105. The environmental lapse rate in an actual atmosphere

106. The dry adiabatic lapse rate has a value of

107. The dry adiabatic lapse rate

108. An air mass is called stable when

111. Which of the following is true concerning atmospheric pressure?

112. QNH is defined as

113. Which of the following statements is true?

114. Which statement is true?

116. Advection is:

117. The radiation of the sun heats

118. The diurnal variation in temperature is largest when the sky is

122. A layer can be

124. A significant inversion at low height is a characteristic of

129. The QNH is equal to the QFE if

131. The pressure altitude is equal to the true altitude if

134. Isobars on a surface chart are lines of equal

136. Which is true of the temperature at the tropopause?

139. The pressure distribution located mainly at point B is a

142. An isohypse (contour)

143. Before landing, an altimeter set to QFE indicates

144. In the mid-latitudes the stratosphere extends on an average from

147. What is dynamic pressure?

151. Lines connecting points of equal pressure are called:

155. Define the tropopause:

156. An inversion is characterized by:

166. What is the pressure in surface weather charts called?

176. An OAT of -30C at the 300 hPa pressure level:

177. An OAT of -55C at the 200 hPa pressure level:

178. A temperature increase with increasing altitude is called

182. What is the ISA temperature at FL 110?

183. What is the temperature decrease in the ISA?

203. The mean height of the tropical tropopause is

211. Pressure altitude is obtained by:

215. Surface-based temperature inversions are common during

217. Which statement concerning the tropopause is correct?

218. Convective weather phenomena include

220. A surface based inversion is a characteristic of

225. Ascension of air is promoted by

226. An isothermal layer is a layer of air

227. What is meant by "transition altitude"?

4. Which forces are balanced with geostrophic winds?