Windows Basics Questions

1) ______ is used in operating system to separate mechanism from policy

A. Single level implementation

B. Two level implementation

C. Multi-level implementation

D. None

Ans: B

2) Multiprogramming systems:

A. Are easier to develop than single programming systems

B. Execute each job faster

C. Execute more jobs in the same time period

D. Are used only one large mainframe computers.

Ans: C

3) which is the first program run on a computer when the computer boots up?

A. System software

B. Operating system

C. System operations

D. None

Ans: B

4) The primary purpose of an operating system is:

A. To make the most efficient use of the computer hardware

B. To allow people to use the computer

C. To keep systems programmers employed

D. To make computers easier to use

Ans: A

5) When a computer is first turned on or restarted, a special type of absolute loader called ____ is
executed

A. Compile and Go loader

B. Boot loader

C. Bootstrap loader

D. Relating loader

Ans: C

6) Which is not the function of the Operating System?

A. Memory management

B. Disk management

C. Application management

D. Virus Protection

Ans: D

7) Which file keeps commands to execute automatically when OS is started?

A. command.com

B. any batch file

C. autoexec.bat

D. config.sys

Ans: C

8) Virtual Memory is

A) Extremely Large Main memory

B) Extremely Large Secondary memory

C) An illusion of extremely large main memory

D) An illusion of extremely large secondary memory

Ans: C

9) What should be the first step while OS upgrading?

A) Delete old Operating System

B) Backup old Operating System

C) Backup Critical Data

D) Format Hard Disks

Ans: C
10) The file system NTFS stands for

A) New Type File System

B) Never Terminated File System

C) New Technology File System

D) Non Terminated File System

Ans: C

11) What is dispatch latency?

A. The time taken by the dispatcher to stop one process and start another

B. The time taken by the processor to write a file into disk

C. The whole time taken by all processor

D. None of Above

Ans: A

12) Which of the following is the allocation method of a disk space?

A. Contiguous allocation

B. Linked allocation

C. Indexed allocation

D. All of the Above

Ans: D

13) What is Thrashing?

A. A high paging activity is called thrashing.

B. A high executing activity is called thrashing

C. A extremely long process is called thrashing

D. A extremely long virtual memory is called thrashing

Ans: A

14) What is contained in the page table?

A. Base address of each frame and corresponding page number

B. Memory address and corresponding page number

C. File name and corresponding page number

D. None of Above

Ans: A

15) The chunks of a memory are known as

A. Sector

B. Offset

C. Page

D. Frame

Ans: D

16) Command Interpreter is also known as

A. Prompt

B. Shell

C. Command

D. DOS Prompt

Ans: B

17) The operating system keeps the information of files in a table called

A. File Folder Table (FFT)

B. File Index Table (FIT)

C. File Allocation Table (FAT)

D. Directory Index Table (DIT)

Ans: C

18) Page Table length register (PTLR) indicates size of

A. Page Table

B. Paging File

C. Main Memory

D. Virtual Memory

Ans: A

19) Bring a page into memory only when it is needed is called

A. Demand Memory
B. Demand Paging

C. Page Fault

D. Page Segmentation

Ans: B

20) Dived logical memory into blocks with the same size as frames are called

A. Pages

B. Frames

C. Page Table

D. Segmentation

Ans: A

21) When a thread waits indefinitely for some resource, but other threads are actually using it is called
A. Starvation

B. Demand Paging

C. Segmentation

D. None of them

Ans: A

22) Which of the following memory unit that processor can access more rapidly

A. Main Memory

B. Virtual Memory

C. Cache memory

D. Read Only Memory

Ans: C

23) A page fault occurs when

A. the Deadlock happens

B. the Segmentation starts

C. the page is found in the memory

D. the page is not found in the memory

Ans: D
24) First-in-First-Out (FIFO) scheduling is

A. Non Preemptive Scheduling

B. Preemptive Scheduling

C. Fair Share Scheduling

D. Deadline Scheduling

Ans: A

25) Copying a process from memory to disk to allow space for other processes is Called

A. Swapping

B. Deadlock

C. Demand Paging

D. Page Fault

Ans: A

Active Directory Basic Questions

26) A ______ group is a group that contains the same users as an OU.

A. Operation

B. Administration

C. Primary

D. Shadow

Ans: D

27) ACL stands for Access Control List

A. True

B. False

Ans: A

28) How do you create a group by using Active Directory Users and Computers snap in?

A. Left click the OU in Find which you want to create a group, select New, and choose Group.

B. Right click the OU in Find which you want to create a group, select New, and choose Group.

C. This can only be done in the registry editor.

D. You can create a group by typing MSCONFIG in the Run box.

Ans: B

29) Find what option can you use to prevent deleting a group in Windows Server 2012?

A. You could prevent this by formatting the hard drive.

B. You can prevent deleting a group by restarting the computer.

C. Protect object from accidental deletion.

D. Use /noreboot to prevent deleting a group.

Ans: C

30) How many group scopes are there in Active Directory?

A. Three

B. Zero

C. Ten

D. Five

Ans: A

31) What is a forest?

A. Physical groupings independent of the domain and OU structure. Sites distinguish between locations
connected by low and high speed connections and are defined by one or more IP subnets.

B. The collection of every object, its attributes and attribute syntax in the Active Directory.

C. Containers in Find which domains can be grouped. They create a hierarchy for the domain and create
the structure of the Active Directorys company in geographical or organizational terms.

D. A collection of computers that share a common set of policies, a name and a database of their
members.

Ans: B

32) What do domain controllers do?

A. Store the database, maintain the policies and provide the authentication of domain logons.

B. Control granular settings in a domain environment.

C. Receive and relay domain commands

D. None of the Above

Ans: A
33) What are Group Policy Objects?

A. A set of folder rules that determine where Outlook will save email messages.

B. Affords the capability for secure extension of network operations to the Web

C. They determine the hierarchy of a domain; Find which can fit the operational structure of an
organization.

D. A collection of settings that define Find what a system will look like and how it will behave for a
defined group of users.

Ans: D

34) From Which version of Windows did Microsoft adopt Kerberos as an authentication policy?

A. Windows NT

B. Windows Server 2003 R2

C. Windows Server 2000

D. Windows 2008

Ans: C

35) Between Sites you can also choose to use ________ for replication, but only for changes in the
Schema or Configuration.

A. Internet Message Access Protocol

B. Post Office Protocol

C. Simple Mail Transfer Protocol

D. Email

Ans: C

36) Type of trust is Kerberos in ___________ Authentication

A. LM hash

B. NTLM

C. Samba (software)

D. Integrated Windows Authentication

Ans: B

37) Which of the following Active Directory containers can Group Policies are applied?

A. sites
B. OUs

C. domains

D. all of the above

Ans: D

38) To create a GPO for a domain or an organizational unit, you use either the Active Directory Users
and Computers console or the __________.

A. Group Policy Maintenance console

B. Domain Policy Management console

C. Group Policy Management Console

D. Active Directory Sites and Services console

Ans: C

39) Each GPT folder is identified by the ___________ for the GPO.

A. GPCID

B. GPTID

C. GPID

D. GUID

Ans: D

40) Group Policy settings are divided into two categories: Computer Configuration settings and
__________.

A. Policy Configuration settings

B. Organizational Configuration settings

C. Group Configuration settings

D. User Configuration settings

Ans: D

41) Which of the following containers contains all Registry based Group Policy settings, including
settings for Windows Components, System, and Network?

A. Administrative Templates

B. Software Templates

C. Windows Templates
D. Logon Settings

Ans: A

42) Which of the following is a function of the GPMC?

A. It can be used to link sites, search for sites, and to delegate Group Policy related features.

B. It can be used to sign and encrypt all LDAP communications.

C. It provides administrators with the ability to back up, restore, import, and copy/paste GPOs, as well as
to create, delete, and rename them.

D. It can be used to view all Group Policy management functions.

Ans: C

Hyper-v Questions
43) You administer a Windows Server 2012 R2 server that has the Hyper-V role installed. You deploy a
new virtual machine. You add two virtual network adapters to the virtual machine. You need to ensure
that the virtual machine maintains network connectivity if one virtual network adapter fails. What
should you do?

A. Run the Windows PowerShell cmdlet Enable-VMReplication.

B. Enable Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) Guard.

C. Run the Windows PowerShell cmdlet Set-VMHost.

D. Run the Windows PowerShell cmdlet Set-VMNetworkAdapter.

Ans: D

44) You administer a server that runs Windows Server 2012 R2 that has the Hyper-V role installed. You
plan to apply an update to a virtual machine (VM).

You have the following requirements:

You must be able to quickly revert back to a pre-update state.

The solution must minimize storage requirements on the server.

You need to apply the update. What should you do?

A. Run the Windows PowerShell cmdlet New-VirtualDiskClone.

B. Create a checkpoint of the VM.

C. Run the Windows PowerShell cmdlet Export-VMSnapshot.

D. Export the VM.

Ans: B
45) You need to ensure that the environment supports online virtual hard disk resizing. What should you
do?

A. Convert the virtual machines to Generation 2 virtual machines.

B. Deploy clustered storage spaces.

C. Convert the drive format of the virtual machines to the VHDX file format.

D. Deploy Serial Attached SCSI (SAS).

Ans: C

46) A company has seven Windows Server 2012 R2 virtual machines (VMs). The VMs are running and are
accessible over the network. You plan to copy a large .ISO file from the host server to each of the VMs.
The copy operations must meet the following requirements:

The VMs must remain accessible over the network during the copy operations.
The copy operations must NOT use a network connection.

You need to configure the VMs. What should you do on each VM?

A. Enable the Guest services integration service.

B. Enable the Data Exchange integration service.

C. Add a network adapter, and then enable the virtual machine queue (VMQ) option on the adapters.

D. Set the value of the Smart Paging File Location property to %SYSTEMROOT%\temp.

Ans: A

47) You administer a Windows Server 2012 R2 Hyper-V host server that contains production and test
virtual machines (VMs). You plan to optimize the performance of the VMs. The following settings must
be applied to the VMs: You must set a maximum value for the input/output operations per second
(IOPS) on the test VMs. You must set a minimum value for the IOPS on the production VMs. You need to
configure the environment. What should you do?

A. On all VMs, enable Network Quality of Service (QoS).

B. Create a shared virtual hard disk (VHD).

C. On the Hyper-V host server, enable Resource Metering.

D. On all VMs, enable Storage Quality of Service (QoS).

Ans: D

48) You administer two Windows 2012 R2 servers that have the Hyper-V role installed. You plan to
deploy a new Hyper-V cluster. The cluster instance must NOT be added to Active Directory. You need to
deploy the cluster. What should you do?

A. Use Hyper-V Manager to deploy the cluster.

B. Use Failover Cluster Manager to deploy the cluster.

C. Run the Windows PowerShell cmdlet New-Cluster. Specify ActiveDirectoryAndDNS for the
AdministrativeAccessPoint parameter.

D. Run the Windows PowerShell cmdlet New-Cluster. Specify DNS for the AdministrativeAccessPoint
parameter.

Ans: D

49) You are the virtualization administrator for an organization that manages private and public cloud-
based resources. The organization uses Windows Server 2008 R2 SP1 Hyper-V. All Hyper-V host servers
are configured as nodes in a four-node cluster. The organization also uses System Center 2012 R2.
Operating system updates to each host server require a system reboot. You need to ensure that the
virtual machines remain online during any reboots required by the updates. What should you do?

A. Apply updates by using the Virtual Machine Servicing Tool (VMST).

B. Configure orchestrated updates of Hyper-V host clusters in System Center 2012 R2 Virtual Machine
Manager (VMM).

C. Implement cluster-aware updating with the Cluster-Aware Updating (CAU) wizard.

D. In System Center 2012 R2 Configuration Manager, add all of the servers to a collection. Deploy
updates to the collection.

Ans: B

50) A company has Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain controllers that run Windows
Server 2012 R2. You prepare a disaster recovery plan for Active Directory. You have the following
requirements: The domain controller restore process must complete as quickly as possible. After the
restore process completes, the Active Directory database on the domain controller must be brought up
to date by using replication. You need to implement the disaster recovery plan. What should you do?

A. Authoritatively restore the domain controllers by using the ntdsutil.exe tool.

B. Restore the domain controllers by using the Active Directory Recycle Bin.

C. Back up and restore the domain controllers by using the wbadmin.exe tool.

D. Back up and restore the domain controllers by using the Idp.exe tool.

Ans: C

51) A company has a network that contains one Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain. The
domain and forest functional levels are set to Windows Server 2008. All domain controllers run
Windows Server 2012. You need to enable the Active Directory Recycle Bin for the forest. What should
you do?

A. Raise the domain and forest functional levels to Windows Server 2012 R2.

B. Deploy new domain controllers that have Windows Server 2012 R2 installed.
C. Raise the domain and forest functional levels to Windows Server 2008 R2.

D. Upgrade the domain controllers to Windows Server 2012 R2.

Ans: C

52) You administer the virtual machines and the Hyper-V host server for a large organization. All Hyper-
V virtual machines must start even when the host server does not have enough physical memory
available. You need to ensure that all Hyper-V virtual machines start. What should you do?

A. Configure the Hyper-V host server to use smart paging.

B. Configure the virtual machines to run at high priority.

C. Configure the Hyper-V host server to run at high priority.

D. Configure the virtual machines to use dynamic memory.

E. Configure the virtual machines as members of availability set.

F. Configure the Hyper-V host server as a member of an availability set.

Ans: A

53) You administer two Windows Server 2012 R2 servers that have the Hyper-V role installed. You need
to create a server lab environment. The lab servers have the following requirements: All of the lab
servers must be virtual zed. All of the lab servers must be on an isolated network. All of the lab servers
must be able to communicate with each other. You need to configure networking for the lab
environment. What should you do?

A. Create a logical switch.

B. Create a media access control (MAC) pool.

C. Add a load balancer.

D. Create a private virtual LAN (PVLAN) logical network.

Ans: D

54) You are the virtualization administrator for an organization that manages private and public cloud
resources. You need to create a virtual machine template that allows virtual machines to be moved from
Hyper-V to Windows Azure. What should you do?

A. Create a new virtual machine that uses a .vhd file. Run the Sysprep tool on the virtual machine.

B. Create a new Generation 2 virtual machine that uses a .vhdx file that is attached to a SCSI controller.
Run the Sysprep tool on the virtual machine.

C. Create a new virtual machine that uses a .vhdx file. Run the Sysprep tool on the virtual machine.

D. Create a virtual machine by using a differencing disk. Use the Clone a virtual machine option to create
new virtual machines.
Ans: A

55) A company has a visualization infrastructure that consists of two Hyper-V host servers. The host
servers and all of the virtual machines (VMs) run Windows Server 2012 R2. The company plans to deploy
VMs by using file shares that use the Server Message Block (SMB) protocol. You need to store the
maximum amount of VM data on the SMB file shares. Which three file types should you store on the
SMB file shares? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.

A. VM logical unit numbers (LUNs)

B. VM configuration files

C. Hyper-V host server logical unit numbers (LUNs)

D. VM snapshots

E. VM virtual hard disks (VHDs)

Ans: BDE

56) You have three Windows Server 2012 R2 servers that are set up as a Hyper-V cluster. You use
System Center 2012 R2 Virtual Machine Manager to manage the Hyper-V environment. Users report
that when a Hyper-V host server becomes overloaded, the performance of the virtual machines is
unacceptable. You need to analyze workloads and automatically migrate virtual machines from
overloaded host servers to host clusters that have available capacity. What should you configure?

A. Performance and Resource Optimization (PRO)

B. Placement Rules

C. shared .vhdx file

D. Dynamic Optimization

Ans: D

57) A company has Hyper-V host servers and virtual machines (VMs). All host servers and VMs run
Windows Server 2012 R2. You need to ensure that new VMs can boot from a SCSI virtual hard disk.
What should you create?

A. virtual disks that use the virtual hard disk (VHD) format

B. virtual disks that use the VHDX format

C. Generation 1 VMs

D. Generation 2 VMs

Ans: D

58) You administer an environment that contains a Windows Server 2012 R2 server that has the Hyper-V
role installed and a server that has System Center 2012 R2 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM). You plan to
deploy two virtual machines (VMs).
You have the following requirements:

You must minimize the likelihood that the VMs will be offline at the same time.
You must minimize the likelihood that the VMs will reside on the same Hyper-V host server in
the Hyper-V cluster.

You need to configure the two VMs. What should you do?

A. Configure the two VMs to include a value for the preferred owners setting.

B. Configure only one VM as highly available.

C. Configure the VMs to reside on different storage area networks (SANs).

D. Configure the VMs to use a custom property that contains the same value. Then, configure the VMs
as members of the same availability set.

Ans: B

59) A company has a highly-secure network infrastructure environment. All servers in the environment
run Windows Server 2012 R2. You must create a new virtual machine (VM) that meets the following
requirements:

The VM must minimize the risk that unauthorized firmware will run when the VM starts.
The VM must load the operating system only if all operating system files have a valid signature.

You need to create the new VM. What should you do?

A. Create a Generation 2 VM and disable Secure Boot.

B. Create a Generation 1 VM and use a synthetic network adapter.

C. Create a Generation 1 VM and enable Secure Boot.

D. Create a Generation 2 VM with the default settings.

Ans: D

60) You administer a Windows Server 2012 R2 server that has the Hyper-V role installed. You plan to
test an update to a virtual machine (VM) in a production environment. You must meet the following
requirements: migrate the VM to another Hyper-V host as quickly as possible ensure that the VM
configuration is preserved after the migration is complete

You need to migrate the virtual machine. What should you do first?

A. Create a checkpoint of the VM.

B. Run the Windows PowerShell cmdlet Export-VMSnapshot.

C. Run the Windows PowerShell cmdlet New-VirtualDiskClone.

D. Export the VM.

Ans: D

61) You plan to use a Hyper-v host server to host virtual desktops for external customers. You have the
following requirements:

Individual virtual machines (VMs) must be isolated from one another.

VMs must have access to the Internet. IP addresses should be used in the most efficient manner
possible.
The configuration must minimize administrative effort and management complexity.

You need to configure the virtual environment. What should you do?

A. Configure a port virtual local area network (PVLAN). Connect all new VMs to the PVLAN.

B. Configure virtual networking with network isolation. Create a unique VM network for each VM.

C. Deploy VMs to the same VM network. Enable DHCP Guard and Router Guard network extensions.

D. Configure a virtual network with no isolation. Deploy VMs to the same VM network. Configure
Windows firewall on each VM to prevent the VM from communicating with other VMs on the same VM
network.

Ans: A

62) A company has Hyper-v host servers that run Windows Server 2012. The company also has virtual
machines that run Windows Server 2008 R2 or Windows Server 2012.

You upgrade the Hyper-V host servers to Windows Server 2012 R2.

You need to ensure that all virtual machines can PXE boot by using a standard network adapter. What
should you do?

A. Create Generation 2 virtual machines.

B. Upgrade all existing virtual machines to Windows Server 2012 R2.

C. Upgrade the existing virtual machines that run Windows Server 2008 R2 to Windows Server 2012 R2.
D. Create Generation 1 virtual machines.

Ans: A

63) You administer a Windows Server 2012 R2 server that has the Hyper-V role installed. The server
hosts three virtual machines (VMs).

One of the VMs is managed by a security engineer. The security engineer must capture traffic on
another VM that is running on the same server.

You need to ensure that the security engineer can access the network traffic information from the target
VM. Which networking feature should you enable?

A. port mirroring

B. NIC teaming
C. protected network

D. MAC address spoofing

Ans: A

64) A company has one Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) forest that contains two domains. All
servers run Windows Server 2012 R2. The company uses iSCSI storage and Fibre Channel storage. You
plan to deploy a single Hyper-V failover cluster that uses Cluster Shared Volumes (CSV).

The cluster must include virtual machines from both domains.

You need to ensure that you can deploy a failover cluster. What should you do?

A. Join each Hyper-V host server to the same AD DS domain.

B. Deploy clustered storage spaces.

C. Deploy Serial Attached SCSI (SAS).

D. Join each Hyper-V host server to different AD DS domains.

Ans: A

65) You administer a server that runs Windows Server 2012 R2 with the Hyper-V role installed. You plan
to deploy a new virtual machine (VM to the server. The data stored by the VM doubles each month. You
have the following requirements:

The virtual hard disk (VHD) must minimize the storage space requirements.
Changes to the VHD must NOT require user intervention.

You need to create the VHD. What should you create?

A. a dynamically expanding file that uses the VHD file format

B. a file that uses the VSV file format for the data LUN

C. a differencing file that uses the VHD file format

D. a differencing file that uses the VHDX file format

Ans: C

66) A company has an Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) environment. All domain controllers run
Windows Server 2012 R2. The company also has a virtualization infrastructure that consists of two
Hyper-V host servers. The host servers and all of the virtual machine (VMs) run Windows Server 2012
R2. The company must deploy VMs by using file shares that use the Server Message Block (SMB)
protocol. You create a file share. You must follow the principle of least privilege.

You need to implement the NTFS and share permissions required to use the file share. Which objects
should you grant permissions to?

A. Hyper-V service accounts and the LocalSystem account

B. LocalSystem and all Hyper-V administrators

C. computer objects for the VMs, the SYSTEM account, and all Hyper-V administrators

D. computer objects for the Hyper-V host servers, the SYSTEM account, and all Hyper-V administrators

Ans: D

67) A company has a server that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. The Hyper-V role is installed on the
server. The server has virtual machines (VMs) that run Windows Server 2012 R2. You create two VMs.
You also create four virtual hard disks. Two of the virtual hard disks use the VHD file format and two use
the VHDX file format.

You plan to create a failover cluster by using the two VMs on the Hyper-V host server.

You need to prepare the storage for the VMs. What should you do?

A. Enable virtual hard disk sharing for one of the VHDX-based hard disks.

B. Run the Windows PowerShell cmdlet Optimize-VHD against the VHD-based hard disks.

C. Enable virtual hard disk sharing for one of the VHD-based hard disks.

D. Run the Windows PowerShell cmdlet Optimize-VHD against the VHDX-based hard disks.

Ans: A

DNS Questions
68) The entire hostname has a maximum of
A. 255 characters
B. 127 characters
C. 63 characters
D. 31 characters

Ans: A

69) DNS database contains

A. name server records
B. hostname-to-address records
C. hostname aliases
D. all of the above

Ans: D

70) If a server has no clue about where to find the address for a hostname then
A. server asks to the root server
B. server asks to its adjacent server
C. request is not processed
D. none of the mentioned

Ans: A
71) Which one of the following allows client to update their DNS entry as their IP address change?
A. Dynamic DNS
B. mail transfer agent
C. authoritative name server
D. none of the mentioned

Ans: A

72) Wildcard domain names start with label

A. @
B. *
C. &
D. #

Ans: B

73) The right to use a domain name is delegated by domain name registers which are accredited by
A. internet architecture board
B. internet society
C. internet research task force
D. internet corporation for assigned names and numbers

Ans: D

74) Which one of the following is not true?

A. multiple hostnames may correspond to a single IP address
B. a single hostname may correspond to many IP addresses
C. a single hostname may correspond to a single IP address
D. none of the above

Ans: C

75) Which of the following devices translates hostnames into IP addresses?

A. DNS Server

B. Hub

C. DHCP Server

D. Firewall

Ans: A

76) What does a DNS client called?

A. DNS handler

B. DNS resolver

C. DNS updater
D. None of the above

Ans: B

77) To have a hierarchical name space, a ______________ was designed.

A. domain space

B. main name

C. domain name space

D. none of the above

Ans: C

78) In the DNS, the names are defined in ___________ structure.

A. a linear list

B. an inverted-tree

C. a graph

D. none of the above

Ans: B

79) A full domain name is a sequence of labels separated by ________.

A. semicolons

B. dots

C. colons

D. none of the above

Ans: B

80) What a server is responsible for or has authority over is called a _________.

A. domain

B. label

C. zone

D. none of the above

Ans: C

81) A _______ is a server whose zone consists of the whole tree.

A. domain server
B. zone server

C. root server

D. none of the above

Ans: C

82) A ________ server loads all information from the disk file.

A. primary

B. secondary

C. zone

D. none of the above

Ans: A

83) When the secondary downloads information from the primary, it is called ______ transfer.

A. domain

B. zone

C. label

D. none of the above

Ans: B

84) A pointer query involves the _______ domain.

A. inverse

B. reverse

C. root

D. none of the above

Ans: A

85) DNS can use the services of ________ using the well-known port 53.

A. UDP

B. TCP

C. either (a) or (b)

D. none of the above

Ans: C
 SMTP and Network Basic Questions
86) Simple mail transfer protocol (SMTP) utilizes _________ as the transport layer protocol for
electronic mail transfer.
a) TCP
b) UDP
c) DCCP
d) SCTP

Ans: A

87) SMTP connections secured by SSL are known as

a) SMTPS
b) SSMTP
c) SNMP
d) none of the above

Ans: A

88) SMTP uses the TCP port

a) 22
b) 23
c) 24
d) 25

Ans: D

89) SMTP defines

a) message transport
b) message encryption
c) message content
d) none of the mentioned

Ans: A

90) Which one of the following is an SMTP server configured in such a way that anyone on the internet
can send e-mail through it?
a) open mail relay
b) wide mail reception
c) open mail reception
d) none of the mentioned

Ans: A

91) If you have to send multimedia data over SMTP it has to be encoded into
a) Binary
b) Signal
c) ASCII
d) None of the mentioned

Ans: C
92) Expansion of SMTP is
a) Simple Mail Transfer Protocol
b) Simple Message Transfer Protocol
c) Simple Mail Transmission Protocol
d) Simple Message Transmission Protocol

Ans: A

93) Choose the statement which is wrong incase of SMTP

a) It requires message to be in 7bit ASCII format
b) It is a pull protocol
c) It transfers files from one mail server to another mail server
d) None of the mentioned

Ans: B

94) Which of the following services use TCP?

DHCP

SMTP

HTTP

TFTP

FTP

A. 1 and 2

B. 2, 3 and 5

C. 1, 2 and 4

D. 1, 3 and 4

Ans: B

95) You want to implement a mechanism that automates the IP configuration, including IP address,
subnet mask, default gateway, and DNS information. Which protocol will you use to accomplish this?

A. SMTP

B. SNMP

C. DHCP

D. ARP

Ans: C

96) Which of the following is private IP address?

A. 12.0.0.1

B. 168.172.19.39

C. 172.15.14.36

D. 192.168.24.43

Ans: D

97) Which of the following allows a router to respond to an ARP request that is intended for a remote
host?

A. Gateway DP

B. Reverse ARP (RARP)

C. Proxy ARP

D. Inverse ARP (IARP)

Ans: C

98) Which class of IP address provides a maximum of only 254 host addresses per network ID?

A. Class A

B. Class B

C. Class C

D. Class D

Ans: C

99) Which statements are true regarding ICMP packets?

They acknowledge receipt of a TCP segment.

They guarantee datagram delivery.

They can provide hosts with information about network problems.

They are encapsulated within IP datagrams.

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3

C. 3 and 4

D. 2, 3 and 4

Ans: C
100) what protocol is used to find the hardware address of a local device?

A. RARP

B. ARP

C. IP

D. ICMP

Ans: B

SSH & Linux Basic Questions

101) Secure shell (SSH) network protocol is used for

A. secure data communication

B. remote command-line login

C. remote command execution

D. all of the mentioned

Ans: D

102) SSH can be used in only

A. Unix-like operating systems

B. windows

C. both (a) and (b)

D. none of the mentioned

Ans: D

103) SSH uses ___________ to authenticate the remote computer.

A. public-key cryptography

B. private-key cryptography

C. both (a) and (b)

D. none of the mentioned

Ans: A

104) which standard TCP port is assigned for contacting SSH servers?
A. port 21

B. port 22

C. port 23

D. port 24

Ans: B

105) which one of the following is a file transfer protocol using SSH?

A. SCP

B. SFTP

C. Rsync

D. All of the mentioned

Ans: D

106) SCP protocol is evolved from __________ over SSH.

A. RCP protocol

B. DHCP protocol

C. MGCP protocol

D. none of the mentioned

Ans: A

107) Which one of the following authentication method is used by SSH?

A. public-key

B. host based

C. password

D. all of the mentioned

Ans: D

108) Which file is used to change the default ssh port in Linux?

A. /etc/ssh/sshc_config

B. /etc/sshd/ssh_config

C. /etc/ssh/sshd_config

D. /etc/ssh/sshserver_config
Ans: C

109) Expansion of SCP

A. Simple Copy Protocol

B. Secure Copy

C. Simple Copy

D. Sequential Copy

Ans: B

110) __________ which allows you to establish a secure SSH session and then tunnel arbitrary TCP
connections through it.

A. SSH Tunneling

B. SSH Masking

C. SSH Translation

D. SSH NAT

Ans: A

111) _______ is a command which allows us to automatically supply password to the command prompt
so that automated scripts can be run.

A. SSH Password

B. sshpass

C. SecurePass

D. SCP

Ans: B

112) How to check SSH servers Version?

A. ssh V

B. ssh S

C. ssh T

D. ssh H

Ans: A
113) Default Port for Telnet

A. 21

B. 23

C. 27

D. 26

Ans: B

114) How To disable SSH root login, by changing configuration file

A. Change the parameter PermitRootLogin to no

B. Change the parameter PermitRootLogin to yes

C. Change the parameter DisableRootLogin to no

D. Change the parameter AllowRootLogin to no

Ans: A

115) What command is used to remove files?

A. dm

B. rm

C. delete

D. erase

E. None of the above

Ans: B

116) What hardware architectures are not supported by Red Hat?

A. SPARC

B. IBM-compatible

C. Alpha

D. Macintosh

E. None of the above

Ans: D

117) How can you add Amit, a new user, to your system?

A. Using useradd
B. Using adduser

C. Using linuxconf

D. All of the above

E. None of the above

Ans: D

118) What file specifies the order in which to use specified name services?

A. /etc/services

B. /etc/nsorder

C. /etc/nsswitch.conf

D. /etc/hosts

E. None of the above

Ans: C

119) How many primary partitions can exist on one drive?

A. 16

B. 4

C. 2

D. 1

E. None of the above

Ans: B

120) What does FSF stand for?

A. Free Software File

B. File Server First

C. First Serve First

D. Free Software Foundation

E. None of the above

Ans: D

121) What command do you use to create Linux file systems?

A. fdisk
B. mkfs

C. fsck

D. mount

E. None of the above

Ans: B

122) Which of the following command can you execute to count the number of lines in a file?

A. lc

B. wc - l

C. cl

D. count

E. None of the above

Ans: B

123) Which of the following is not a communication command?

A. grep

B. mail

C. mesg

D. write

E. None of the above

Ans: A

124) What command is used to display the characteristics of a process?

A. au

B. ps

C. du

D. pid

E. None of the above

Ans: B

125) Which of the following command is used to access an SMB share on a Linux system?

A. NFS
B. SMD

C. smbclient

D. smbserver

E. None of the above

Ans: C

126) What command is used to list contents of directories?

A. tar

B. dir

C. lp

D. ls

E. None of the above

Ans: D

127) Which command is used to check filesystem usage in a system?

A. mount

B. df

C. du

D. dd

Ans: B

128) Filesystem for CDROM is:

A. Ext2

B. Ext3

C. Isofs

D. Procfs

Ans:C

129) Which file contains the filesystems to be automatically mounted during boot?

A. /etc/mount

B. /etc/fstab

C. /etc/inittab
D. /etc/boot

Ans: B

130) In Linux, The directory file contains:

A. File names & File Sizes

B. File names & Inode Numbers

C. File names & Address

D. File names & Permissions

Ans: B

131) Pid of init process

A. 0

B. 1

C. 32767

D. none of the above

Ans: B

132) How do you get parent process identification number?

A. waitpid

B. getpid()

C. getppid()

D. parentid()

Ans: C

133) The terminal used by a Daemon process is:

A. any terminal

B. no terminal

C. root terminal

D. system console

Ans: B

134) shared memory can be used for?

A. read only operations

B. append

C. read or read write operations

D. write only

Ans: C

135) The encrypted password of a user is stored in

A. /etc/shadow

B. /etc/enpasswwd

C. /etc/.passwd

D. /etc/passwd

Ans: A

VMWare Basic Questions

136) To control the vCenter Server services on the Windows host that it is installed on, which of the
following is used?

A: services.chm

B: services.exe

C: services.msc

D: services.cpl

Ans: C

137) A virtual infrastructure administrator has been asked to restore a virtual machine to its previous
configuration from a snapshot. Which of the following actions should take?

A: Delete all

B: Revert

C: Consolidate

D: Delete

Ans: B

138) To migrate to a new host and datastore in a single operation, what is most likely the reason if the
option is grayed out in the Migrate Virtual Machine Wizard?

A: The virtual machine is powered off

B: The virutal machine is powered on

C: vCenter Server is not licensed for this operation

D: The virtual machine is virutal hardware version 7

Ans: B

139) Which NICs are paravirtualized?

A: VMXNET 2

B: vlance

C: VMXNET 3

D: VMXNET

Ans: C

140) Which disk mode results in a disk that loses all changes at virtual machine power off or reset?

A: Dependent Persistent

B: Dependent NonPersistent

C: Independent Persistent

D: Dependent NonPersistent

Ans: D

141) When the virtual machine has been converted to a template, what is the file extension
configuration?

A: .vmxf

B: .vmx

C: .vmsd

D: .vmtx

Ans: D

142) VMware device drivers loaded by the VMware tools are?

A: VMCI

B: Mouse

C: Memory Control

D: VMXNet

E. All of the Above

Ans: E

143) What is the largest VMDK file that can be created on a new VMFS-5 datastore for your ESXi host?

A: 1TB

B: 2TB minus 512 bytes

C: 64TB

D: 2TB

Ans: B

144) While the virtual machine is powered on, which of the following options can be modified in the
virtual machine properties?

A: CPUID Mask

B: Power Management

C: Force BIOS Setup

D: Guest Operating System

Ans: C

145) Which file is a database that stores information and metadata about snapshots for a virtual
machine?

A: .vmsd

B: .vswp

C: .vmsn

D: .vmss

Ans: A

146) Choose two. Which file types can be moved outside the working location of a virtual machine?

A: VMDK

B: VMX

C: LOG

D: VSWP

Ans: A,D

147) It is possible to Storage vMotion virtual machines that have snapshots?

A. True
B. False
Ans: A

148) A memory reservation defines:

A. the amount of virtual machine memory that can be paged to the VMkernel swapfile
B. the amount of physical memory that is guaranteed to the VM
C. the maximum amount of physical memory that will be used by a VM
D. the amount of host memory reserved for the VMkernel
Ans: D

149) When is vNUMA enable by default on a virtual machines?

A. When a virtual machine has more than 8 vCPUs
B. When the guestOS is configured using an SMP HAL
C. All the time
D. vNUMA is never enabled by default
Ans: A

150) VMware vSphere can be evaluated prior to purchase. What is the maximum number of days the
evaluation can be used before a license must be purchased?
A. 30 Days
B. 60 Days
C. 90 Days
D. 120 Days
Ans: B

151) What protocol is used by an ESXi host to communicate with NAS devices?
A. NFS
B. iSCSI
C. CIFS
D. SMB
Ans: B

152) What the packaging format used by the VMware ESXi Image Builder?
A. .rar
B. .zip
C. .iso
D. VIB
Ans: C

153) What are the three default roles provided on an ESXi host?
A. No Access, Read Only and Administrator
B. Read only, Operator Access and Administrator
C. Virtual Machine User, Virtual Machine Power User and Administrator
D. Network Consumer, Datastore Consumer and Resource Pool Administrator
Ans: A

154) Distributed Power Management (DPM) requires which technology to be available on the NIC?
A. Wake On LAN (WOL)
B. DNS
C. BMC
D. NetBIOS
Ans: A

ITIL Basic Questions

155) Single-statement positive question, such as "Which of these is a problem?"

A. The effect of a disruption to the network

B. The cost of the disruption to the network

C. The cause of the disruption to the network

D. The length of the disruption to the network

Ans: C

156) Which of these is a type of change as defined in ITIL?"

1 - standard change

2 - normal change

3 - urgent change

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 2 only

D. All of the above

Ans: C

157) A customer-based Service Level Agreement structure includes:

A. An SLA covering all Customer groups and all the services they use

B. SLAs for each service that are Customer-focused and written in business language

C. An SLA for each service type, covering all those Customer groups that use that Service

D. An SLA with each individual Customer group, covering all of the services they use

Ans: D
158) Which of the following is not an element of Availability Management?

A. Verification

B. Security

C. Reliability

D. Maintainability

Ans: A

159) Possible problems with Change Management include:

A. Lack of ownership of impacted services

B. Increased visibility and communication of changes

C. Better alignment of IT services to actual business needs

D. The ability to absorb a larger volume of change

Ans: A

160) The activity that aims to identify the potential damage or loss to an Organisation resulting from
disruption to critical business processes is:

A. Root Cause Analysis

B. Business Impact Analysis

C. Service Outage Analysis

D. Component Failure Impact Analysis

Ans: B

161) Intermediate Recovery is initially concerned with which of the following time periods?

A. 4 to 24 hours

B. More than 72 hours

C. 24 to 72 hours

D. 4 to 8 hours
Ans: C

162) At what point does an Incident turn into a Problem?

A. When it is urgent

B. When it is a Major Incident

C. If the person reporting the incident is very senior

D. Never

Ans: D

163) The wording of SLAs and OLAs should be:

A. Technically focused, so that they may be understood by IT professionals

B. A mixture of business, technical and legal language, so that they can be understood by everyone

C. Clear and concise, leaving no room for ambiguity.

D. Legally worded as they must be contractually binding

Ans: C

164) A remote site has recently had its network upgraded. The users are now complaining of slow
responses and have heard that this is due to problems with capacity. Who should they contact for
assistance?

A. Network Management

B. The Service Desk

C. Capacity Management

D. Problem Management

Ans: B

165) Which of the following metrics is most relevant in determining the value added by Problem
Management to the Service Desk?

A The number of Problems raised

B The number of Known Errors identified

C The number of Problems correctly categorized

D The number of RFCs raised

Ans: B