Bio Notes

Modern Biology
Chapter Tests
with Answer Key
General and Advanced
Name Class Date
Assessment
Chapter Test A
The Science of Life
In the space provided, write the letter of the description that best matches the
term or phrase.
______ 1. hypothesis a. variable that is measured in an experiment

b. the maintenance of a stable level of
______ 2. resolution
internal conditions
______ 3. magnification c. a proposed explanation to a scientific
question
______ 4. base unit
d. a factor that differs in the control group
______ 5. dependent variable and the experimental group of an
experiment
______ 6. independent variable
e. the increase of an objects apparent size
______ 7. homeostasis f. critique of a scientific paper by an expert
in the field
______ 8. peer review
g. the power to show details clearly in an
image
h. fundamental SI unit
In the space provided, write the letter of the term or phrase that best completes
each statement or best answers each question.
______ 9. A theory, in the scientific sense, is

a. the same as a hypothesis.
b. an uncertain guess.
c. a set of tested and confirmed related hypotheses.
d. a prediction.
______10. The function of the eyepiece in a compound light microscope is to

a. provide light for viewing the image.
b. support the slide containing the specimen.
c. magnify the image.
d. stain the specimen.
______11. During a scientific investigation, a researcher generally forms a

hypothesis and makes predictions
a. before asking questions.
b. after drawing conclusions.
c. before collecting observations.
d. after collecting observations.
Copyright by Holt, Rinehart and Winston. All rights reserved.

Modern Biology 1 Chapter Test
Name Class Date
The Science of Life, Chapter Test A continued
______12. The presence of viruses inside a cell can best be seen using a
a. compound light microscope.
b. transmission electron microscope.
c. scanning electron microscope.
d. hand lens.
______13. All of the following are important themes in biology EXCEPT the
a. classification of living organisms.
b. diversity and unity of life.
c. interdependence of living organisms.
d. evolution of life.
Complete each statement by writing the correct term or phrase in the space
provided.
14. A(n) is the smallest unit capable of all life

functions.
15. The hierarchy of organization in a multicellular organism consists of cells,
, , and
16. All living things maintain a balance within their cells and the environment
through the process of .
17. Parents produce offspring through .
18. Organisms that are related are placed on branches

that are close together in a tree of life.
19. as a theme in biology helps biologists understand

how organisms are related to other living organisms and to organisms that
have lived in the past.
20. When an owl dilates its pupils in response to decreased light, it is responding
to a .
21. An organisms is all of the chemical reactions that
it carries out in order to run the processes of life.

Name Class Date
The Science of Life, Chapter Test A continued
Read each question, and write your answer in the space provided.
22. How does the publication of research in a scientific journal benefit scientists?
23. Explain why biology is important to a persons daily life and to human society.
24. What is the role of metabolism in life?
25. Why is reproduction an essential part of living?

Name Class Date
Assessment
Chapter Test A
Chemistry of Life
______ 1. A substance that cannot be ______ 5. Water is _______ , therefore

broken down by chemical _______ substances dissolve
means into simpler kinds of in it.
matter is a(n) a. polar, nonpolar
a. element. b. polar, polar
b. atom. c. nonpolar, polar
c. molecule. d. nonpolar, nonpolar
d. electron.
______ 6. Chemical reactions may
______ 2. The bonds between the _______ energy.
atoms that make up water a. absorb
molecules are called b. release
a. covalent bonds. c. require
b. hydrogen bonds. d. All of the above
c. ionic and covalent bonds.
d. covalent and hydrogen ______ 7. Without energy, organisms
bonds. could NOT
a. maintain homeostasis.
______ 3. An atom is called an ion b. carry out chemical
when it has reactions.
a. either lost or gained c. make their own food.
electrons. d. All of the above
b. either lost or gained
protons. ______ 8. Compounds are formed
c. more neutrons than when
protons. a. atoms of an element lose
d. lost its nucleus. an electron.
b. atoms of an element gain
______ 4. A solution is a mixture of an electron.
a. polar and nonpolar c. atoms of the same
substances. element join together.
b. protons and neutrons. d. atoms of two different
c. unevenly distributed elements join together.
substances.
d. evenly distributed sub-
stances.

Name Class Date
Chemistry of Life, Chapter Test A continued
______ 9. Enzymes
a. are usually carbohydrates.
b. can only catalyze a reaction once.
c. reduce the activation energy of chemical reactions.
d. eliminate the activation energy of chemical reactions.
______10. Water stores heat much longer than other substances do, allowing
organisms to
a. heat themselves through evaporation.
b. maintain a stable internal temperature.
c. dissolve nonpolar compounds.
d. maintain surface tension.
______11. The concentration of hydronium ions in a solution with a pH of 4

is how many times that of a solution with a pH of 2?
a. 2 c. 100
b. 10 d. 1,000
term or phrase.
______12. alkaline a. an attraction between substances of the

same kind
______13. cohesion
b. a reactant loses an electron
______14. adhesion c. bond found in a water molecule
______15. acid d. a reactant gains an electron

e. an attraction between different substances
______16. oxidation
f. having a pH above 7
______ 17. reduction g. bond found between water molecules
______18. covalent bond h. a compound that forms hydronium ions

when dissolved in water
______19. hydrogen bond

Name Class Date
Chemistry of Life, Chapter Test A continued
provided.
20. Molecules that are dissolve best in water, while
molecules do not dissolve well in water.
21. The weak chemical attraction between water molecules are
bonds, while the stronger chemical bonds between
the atoms of each water molecule are bonds.
22. Unlike most solids, solid is less dense than its
liquid form.
23. A hydrogen ion reacts with a water molecule to form a
ion.
24. When sodium chloride is dissolved in water, it dissociates to form
and
25. Enzymes are a type of , which reduces the
activation energy of a chemical reaction.

Name Class Date
Assessment
Chapter Test A
Biochemistry
______ 1. All organic compounds ______ 5. A substrate attaches to the

contain ________ of an enzyme.
a. nitrogen. a. peptide bond
b. oxygen. b. R group
c. carbon. c. active site
d. amino acids. d. activator
______ 2. Enzymes ______ 6. A model of enzyme action

a. are usually carbohydrates. is the
b. can only catalyze a a. induced fit model.
reaction once. b. lipid bilayer model.
c. reduce the activation c. activator action model.
energy of chemical d. active site model.
reactions.
d. eliminate the activation ______ 7. Monomers link to form poly-
energy of chemical mers through a chemical
reactions. reaction called a ________
reaction.
______ 3. Which of the following a. hydrolysis
groups of terms is associ- b. redox
ated with carbohydrates? c. condensation
a. monosaccharide, glyco- d. ionic
gen, cellulose
b. monosaccharide, cellu- ______ 8. All of the following are
lose, lipid functional groups EXCEPT
c. disaccharide, polysaccha- a. a hydroxyl group.
ride, steroid b. an amino group.
d. polysaccharide, amino c. a carboxyl group.
acid, collagen d. a carbonate group.
______ 4. Two polysaccharides that ______ 9. A phospholipid molecule

store glucose are contains all of the following
a. starch and waxes. EXCEPT
b. starch and glycogen. a. two fatty acids.
c. sucrose and cellulose. b. three fatty acids.
d. cellulose and glycogen. c. a phosphate group.
d. glycerol.

Name Class Date
Biochemistry, Chapter Test A continued
term or phrase.
______10. carbohydrate a. subunit of most lipids

b. molecule that stores energy
______11. functional group
c. molecule made of repeating units
______12. monomer
d. functions in protein synthesis
______13. polymer e. cluster of atoms that influence the
molecules they compose
______14. ATP
f. contains genetic information
______15. DNA g. subunit of protein
______16. RNA h. small simple molecule that makes up a

larger molecule
______ 17. amino acid i. ratio of 1 carbon: 2 hydrogen: 1 oxygen
______18. nucleotide j. contains a phosphate group, a sugar,
and a nitrogenous base
______19. fatty acid
Read each question, and write your answer in the space provided. Refer to the
diagrams below to answer questions 2022 .
CH2OH
C O Amino
H OH O H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H acids
H
C C HO C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C H
OH H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H
OH H
C C
H OH
A B C
20. Identify the class of organic compound represented by each of the molecules
shown above.

Name Class Date
Biochemistry, Chapter Test A continued
21. For each type of compound shown in the diagram, explain the role it plays
in your body.
22. How can you tell whether a compound is organic or not?
23. Explain why living things need energy and where they get it.
24. Briefly describe the function of ATP in cells.
25. Why is cholesterol needed by the body?

Name Class Date
Assessment
Chapter Test A
Cell Structure and Function
term or phrase.
______ 1. cytoplasm a. outer boundary of the cell
______ 2. ribosome b. hairlike structure that enables cell

movement
______ 3. flagellum c. interior of a cell
______ 4. plasma membrane d. internal compartment that houses a
cells DNA
______ 5. nucleus e. cellular structure on which proteins
are made
______ 6. Which scientist determined ______ 9. Which of the following
that cells come only from could be found in a
other cells? prokaryote?
a. van Leeuwenhoek a. chloroplast
b. Schleiden b. endoplasmic reticulum
c. Schwann c. flagellum
d. Virchow d. mitochondrion
______ 7. Which of the following is ______10. Which part of the plasma
NOT part of the cell theory? membrane helps cells
a. All living things are made recognize each other?
of one or more cells. a. phospholipid bilayer
b. All cells contain the b. peripheral proteins
same organelles. c. integral proteins
c. Cells are the basic units d. carbohydrates
of structure and function
______11. Which of the following
in organisms.
helps plant cells remain
d. All cells arise from
rigid?
existing cells.
a. plasma membrane
______ 8. As a cell becomes smaller, b. nucleus
its surface area-to-volume c. chloroplast
ratio d. central vacuole
a. increases.
b. decreases.
c. stays the same.
d. becomes less important.
Name Class Date
Cell Structure and Function, Chapter Test A continued
______12. Which of the following ______15. Which type of molecule

organelles enables plants to is found in the plasma
make carbohydrates from membrane?
carbon dioxide and water? a. carbohydrate
a. central vacuole b. protein
b. nucleus c. phospholipid
c. chloroplast d. All of the above
d. cell wall
______16. The lipid bilayer of the
______13. Which of the following is plasma membrane
one difference between a. provides a boundary
prokaryotes and eukaryotes? between the cell and its
a. Nucleic acids are found surroundings.
only in prokaryotes. b. forms vesicles.
b. Eukaryotes contain c. transports substances
mitochondria. into and out of the cell.
c. Organelles are found d. All of the above
only in prokaryotes.
d. Prokaryotes have a
nuclear envelope.
______14. The nucleus of a cell con-

tains all of the following
EXCEPT
a. chromosomes.
b. mitochondria.
c. DNA.
d. RNA.
provided.
17. The statement Cells arise only from existing cells is part of the
18. Cilia and are structures that enable cell movement

and sometimes move substances across a cells surface.
19. The system of microscopic protein fibers that supports the shape
of the cell is called the .
20. Ribosomes are found on the endoplasmic reticulum.
21. Newly made are transported to the smooth

endoplasmic reticulum for further processing.

Name Class Date
Cell Structure and Function, Chapter Test A continued
22. Explain the role of DNA in cells.
23. Why can small cells exchange substances more readily than large cells?
24. Why are mitochondria important to the functioning of eukaryotic cells?
25. Describe the structure and function of the cytoskeleton.

Name Class Date
Assessment
Chapter Test A
Homeostasis and Cell Transport
term or phrase.
______ 1. sodium-potassium pump a. helps a cell rid itself of wastes

b. double layer that makes up cell
______ 2. hypertonic solution
membrane
______ 3. isotonic solution c. may be open or closed
______ 4. facilitated diffusion d. shields molecule from interior of
lipid bilayer
______ 5. exocytosis e. transports potassium ions into
______ 6. phospholipids the cell
f. transport of a specific substance
______ 7. gated ion channel down its concentration gradient by
a carrier protein
______ 8. hypotonic solutions
g. may cause a cell to burst
______ 9. carrier protein h. should have no affect on a cell
i. causes a cell to shrivel
______10. In the cell membrane, ion channels serve as

a. food molecules. c. information receivers.
b. cell identifiers. d. passageways.
______11. The diffusion of water through a membrane is called

a. exocytosis. c. active transport.
b. osmosis. d. endocytosis.
______12. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of active transport?

a. It moves substances against a concentration gradient.
b. It requires energy from the cell.
c. It involves facilitated diffusion.
d. It relies on carrier proteins that often function as pumps.
______13. Diffusion is the movement of a substance

a. through only a lipid bilayer.
b. from an area of low concentration to an area of higher concentration.
c. only in liquids.
d. from an area of high concentration to an area of lower concentration.

Name Class Date
Homeostasis and Cell Transport, Chapter Test A continued
______14. An ion channel is a transport protein that

a. moves substances against a concentration gradient.
b. pumps ions only out of a cell.
c. allows ions to move across the cell membrane so that the ions do
not come in contact with the nonpolar interior of the lipid bilayer.
d. has pores that are always open.
______15. When particles move out of a cell through facilitated diffusion, the cell
a. gains energy. c. first gains and then uses energy.
b. uses energy. d. does not use energy.
______16. The sodium-potassium pump

a. helps cells maintain homeostasis.
b. carries ions across the membrane from an area of high
concentration to an area of lower concentration.
c. helps maintain a sodium ion gradient, which cells use to
conduct electrical impulses.
d. Both (a) and (c)
______ 17. Molecules that are too large to be moved through the cell membrane
can be transported into the cell by
a. osmosis. c. exocytosis.
b. endocytosis. d. diffusion.
______18. If the concentration of a sugar solution is lower outside the cell than
inside the cell, which of the following will happen by osmosis?
a. Sugar will move into the cell.
b. Water will move into the cell.
c. Sugar will move out of the cell.
d. Water will move out of the cell.
______19. Which of the following is an example of osmosis?

a. the movement of ions from an area of high concentration to an area
of lower concentration
b. the movement of ions from an area of low concentration to an area
of higher concentration
c. the movement of water molecules from an area of high
concentration to an area of lower concentration
d. the movement of water molecules from an area of low
concentration to an area of higher concentration
______20. The excretion of materials to the outside of a cell by discharging them

from vesicles is called
a. exocytosis. c. osmosis.
b. endocytosis. d. diffusion.

Name Class Date
Homeostasis and Cell Transport, Chapter Test A continued
provided.
21. The processes of endocytosis and exocytosis both require

.
22. Osmosis and diffusion are both examples of
23. When the concentration of dissolved particles is the same throughout a
solution, the system is said to be in .
24. Using energy to transport molecules through a membrane from an area
of low concentration to an area of higher concentration is called
25. In facilitated diffusion,

move substances down their concentration gradient.

Name Class Date
Assessment
Chapter Test A
Photosynthesis
term or phrase.
______ 1. organic compounds a. site of Calvin cycle

b. consume food to get energy
______ 2. light reactions
c. accessory pigment
______ 3. thylakoids
d. site of light reactions
______ 4. stroma e. relies on a concentration gradient of
protons
______ 5. chlorophyll b
f. first stage of photosynthesis
______ 6. sun g. contain chemical energy
______ 7. heterotrophs h. pigment directly involved in light

reactions
______ 8. chemiosmosis i. use energy from light or inorganic sub-
stances to make organic compounds
______ 9. autotrophs
j. source of energy for living systems
______10. chlorophyll a
k. adaptation to hot, dry climate
______11. CAM pathway
______12. When electrons of a chlorophyll molecule are excited to a higher

energy level,
a. carotenoids break down to become ions.
b. they enter the Calvin cycle.
c. they are transferred to a primary electron acceptor.
d. carotenoids are converted to chlorophyll.
______13. What is the source of oxygen produced during photosynthesis?

a. carbon dioxide c. air
b. water d. glucose
______14. When a chlorophyll molecule absorbs light,

a. some of its electrons are excited to a higher energy level.
b. some of the atoms in the molecule disintegrate.
c. it absorbs mostly green light.
d. it absorbs all wavelengths of light.

Name Class Date
Photosynthesis, Chapter Test A continued
Refer to the figures below to answer questions 15 and 16.
Effect of Light Intensity Effect of Temperature

on Photosynthesis on Photosynthesis
Rate of photosynthesis
Rate of photosynthesis
5 10 15 20 25 30 35 40 45 50
Increasing light intensity Temperature (C)
Graph A Graph B
______15. Graph A demonstrates that the rate of photosynthesis

a. decreases in response to increasing light intensity.
b. increases indefinitely in response to increasing light intensity.
c. increases in response to increasing light intensity but only to
a certain point.
d. All of the above
______16. Taken together, these graphs demonstrate that

a. photosynthesis is independent of environmental influences.
b. increases in light intensity cause increases in temperature.
c. the rate of photosynthesis increases as the temperature
eventually decreases.
d. the rate of photosynthesis is affected by changes in the
environment.
______ 17. The Calvin cycle is a common method of which of the following?
a. respiration c. carbon fixation
b. fermentation d. electron transport
______18. The production of ATP during photosynthesis requires

a. energy released when protons move down their concentration
gradient.
b. ATP synthase to catalyze the addition of a phosphate group to a
molecule of ADP.
c. energy from electrons passing through electron transport chains.
d. All of the above

Name Class Date
Photosynthesis, Chapter Test A continued
______19. The Calvin cycle can occur

a. only in the light. c. in either light or dark.
b. only in the dark. d. only in the presence of oxygen.
______20. NADPH is formed when the electron acceptor NADP combines with
a. a proton and excited electrons.
b. excited electrons and ATP.
c. hydrogen ions and glucose.
d. excited electrons and proteins.
Complete each statement by writing the correct term or phrase in the space provided.
21. In the Calvin cycle, a molecule of
is added to a five-carbon compound, and a

three-carbon sugar is produced.
22. During photosynthesis, oxygen gas is produced when water molecules are
split to provide replacement for photosystem II.
23. The less carbon dioxide that is available to a plant, the
photosynthesis proceeds.
24. Does increasing the temperature always increase the rate of photosynthesis?
Explain.
25. Where does the energy used in the Calvin cycle come from?

Name Class Date
Assessment
Chapter Test A
Cellular Respiration
term or phrase.
______ 1. organic compounds a. first stage in cellular respiration

b. citric acid is involved
______ 2. fermentation
c. produces up to 38 ATP
______ 3. ATP
d. produced by cellular respiration
______ 4. glycolysis e. electrons are transferred from molecule
to molecule
______ 5. aerobic respiration
f. regenerates NAD so cell can continue
______ 6. Krebs cycle producing ATP in the absence of oxygen
g. used by organisms to store chemical
______ 7. electron transport chain
energy
______ 8. chemiosmosis h. involved in glycolysis
i. involves a concentration gradient
______ 9. G3P
______10. For each molecule of glucose entering glycolysis, there is a net gain of
a. six ATP molecules.
b. four ATP molecules.
c. three ATP molecules.
d. two ATP molecules.
______11. During cellular respiration,

a. the complete breakdown of glucose yields only carbon dioxide
and water.
b. the complete breakdown of glucose yields ATP molecules.
c. NADPH is produced.
d. carbon dioxide is required.
______12. In the Krebs cycle, production of ATP requires

a. acetyl-CoA.
b. the gradual breakdown of a six-carbon compound.
c. the transfer of a phosphate group to ADP.
d. All of the above

Name Class Date
Cellular Respiration, Chapter Test A continued
______13. To maximize ATP production, glycolysis must be

followed by
a. fermentation. c. the Calvin cycle.
b. the Krebs cycle. d. photosynthesis.
______14. Glycolysis yields

a. two six-carbon molecules.
b. four NADH molecules.
c. a large amount of ATP and NADH.
d. two pyruvic acid molecules, two NADH molecules, and
four ATP molecules.
______15. ATP releases energy when

a. new phosphate groups are added.
b. the five-carbon sugar detaches.
c. the bonds between phosphate groups are broken.
d. the nitrogen-containing base breaks down.
______16. The final electron acceptor for the electron transport chain of aerobic
respiration is which of the following?
a. hydrogen c. ATP
b. nitrogen d. oxygen
______ 17. In glycolysis,

a. aerobic processes occur.
b. four ATP molecules are produced.
c. four ADP molecules are produced.
d. glucose is produced.
______18. Which of the following is NOT part of cellular respiration?

a. electron transport chain c. Krebs cycle
b. glycolysis d. Calvin cycle
provided.
19. During glycolysis, NADH is formed when hydrogen atoms are transferred to
an electron acceptor called .
20. The reaction that removes a(n) from ATP results
in ADP and provides energy for the cell.
21. Fermentation allows the continued production of
even though is not present.

Name Class Date
Cellular Respiration, Chapter Test A continued
22. During anaerobic processes, NADH transfers electrons to the pyruvic acid
produced during .
23. During aerobic respiration, pyruvic acid is first converted to acetyl-CoA,
which enters the .
24. During cellular respiration, a cell produces most of its energy through
respiration.
Write your answer in the space provided.
25. In order for pyruvic acid to be used for the production of ATP, oxygen must
be present. What happens to pyruvic acid produced during glycolysis if
oxygen is not available to a cell?

Name Class Date
Assessment
Chapter Test A
Cell Reproduction
term or phrase.
______ 1. chromatids a. a cell that contains one set of chromosomes
______ 2. centromere b. preparations are made for the nucleus to

divide
______ 3. homologous c. phase of meiosis during which crossing-over
chromosomes occurs
______ 4. diploid d. misregulation of the proteins that control cell
growth and division
______ 5. haploid e. the point at which two chromatids are
______ 6. prophase I attached
f. the two copies of DNA on each chromosome
______ 7. cancer that form just before cell division
______ 8. first growth g. the cell grows and carries out routine func-
(G1) phase tions
h. chromosomes that are similar in shape and
______ 9. mitosis checkpoint size and have similar genetic information
______10. second growth i. a cell that contains two sets of chromosomes
(G2) phase j. triggers the exit from mitosis
______11. A student can study a karyotype to learn about the

a. process of binary fission.
b. genes that are present in a particular strand of DNA.
c. medical history of an individual.
d. chromosomes present in an individuals cells.
______12. Spindles are composed of which of the following?

a. microtubules and cleavage furrows
b. kinetochore fibers and polar fibers
c. chromatids and centromeres
d. the centriole
______13. Chromatids are

a. made of microtubules.
b. bacterial chromosomes.
c. strands of duplicate genetic material.
d. supercoils of protein.
Name Class Date
Cell Reproduction, Chapter Test A continued
Refer to the figure below, which shows the stages of mitosis, to answer
questions 14 and 15 .
A B C D
______14. Which of the following correctly indicates the order in which mitosis
occurs?
a. A, B, C, D c. C, B, A, D
b. B, A, C, D d. A, C, B, D
______15. Which stage shows metaphase?

a. A c. C
b. B d. D
______16. The stage of the cell cycle that these cells are in is
a. first growth (G1) phase. c. mitosis.
b. synthesis (S) phase. d. cytokinesis.
Animal Cell Plant Cell
______ 17. The structure in the center of the animal cell that pinches the cell in
half is called the
a. cleavage furrow. c. centromere.
b. Golgi apparatus. d. spindle apparatus.
______18. If an organism has 12 chromosomes in each body cell, how many

chromosomes would you expect to find in the organisms gametes?
a. 4 c. 10
b. 6 d. 12

Name Class Date
Cell Reproduction, Chapter Test A continued
19. Describe the role that the spindle fibers play in mitosis.
20. Explain why crossing-over is an important source of genetic variation.
21. What is an advantage of sexual reproduction?
22. Compare the processes of spermatogenesis with those of oogenesis.
23. Explain the difference between asexual reproduction and sexual

reproduction.
24. Describe the difference between cytokinesis in animal cells and in plant cells.
25. Describe the structure of a chromosome.

Name Class Date
Assessment
Chapter Test A
Fundamentals of Genetics
1. When two members of the F1 generation are crossed, the offspring are
referred to as the generation.
2. Parents with genotypes Pp and pp can produce offspring of genotypes
and .
3. Crossing two pea plants heterozygous for flower color should produce a
phenotypic ratio of in the offspring.
4. Mendel allowed each variety of garden pea to -
for several generations. This ensured that each plant
in the P generation was - for

a particular trait.
5. The genotypic ratio expected when two Pp plants are crossed is
______ 6. When two different alleles occur together, the one that is expressed is
called
a. dominant. c. recessive.
b. phenotypic. d. superior.
______ 7. An organism that has inherited two of the same alleles of a gene from
its parents is for that trait.
a. hereditary c. homozygous
b. heterozygous d. a mutation
______ 8. The law of segregation states that

a. alleles of a gene separate from each other during gamete formation.
b. different alleles of a gene can never be found in the same organism.
c. each gene of an organism ends up in a different gamete.
d. each gene is found on a different molecule of DNA.

Name Class Date
Fundamentals of Genetics, Chapter Test A continued
______ 9. The probability of a coin toss yielding heads is

a. 0.25 b. 0.50 c. 1.00 d. 0.00
______10. The law of independent assortment applies only to genes that are
a. codominant.
b. located on different chromosomes or are far apart on the same
chromosome.
c. located on the same chromosome.
d. dominant.
Refer to the figure below, which shows a cross between two rabbits, to answer
questions 1114. In rabbits, black fur (B) is dominant over brown fur (b).
B b
B 1 2
Bb Bb
b 3 4
______11. The device illustrated above, which is used to organize genetic

analysis, is called a
a. Mendelian box. c. genetic graph.
b. Punnett square. d. phenotypic paradox.
______12. The fur in both of the parents in the cross is

a. black. c. homozygous dominant.
b. brown. d. homozygous recessive.
______13. The phenotype of the offspring indicated by Box 3 would be

a. brown.
b. a mixture of brown and black.
c. black.
d. The phenotype cannot be determined.
______14. The genotypic ratio (BB : Bb) of the F1 generation would be

a. 1:1. b. 3:1. c. 1:3. d. None of the above
______15. The first step in Mendels garden pea experiments was to

a. remove the stamens of flowers on the plants.
b. cross-pollinate two P generation plants with contrasting traits.
c. allow each plant variety to self-pollinate for several generations.
d. allow the F1 generation to self-pollinate.
______16. Which ratio of dominant to recessive phenotypes did Mendel find in

his F2 generation?
a. 1:3 b. 3:1 c. 2:1 d. 4:1

Name Class Date
Fundamentals of Genetics, Chapter Test A continued
______ 17. When a cross between a red flower and a white flower yields pink
offspring, the trait is
a. dominant. c. incompletely dominant.
b. recessive. d. codominant.
______18. Black fur is dominant over brown fur in rabbits. White and gray fur
exhibit incomplete dominance. How can you find out the genotype
of a rabbit with black fur?
a. Mate the black rabbit with a white rabbit.
b. Mate the black rabbit with a another black rabbit.
c. Mate the black rabbit with a gray rabbit.
d. Mate the black rabbit with a brown rabbit.
term or phrase.
______19. allele a. an organisms genetic makeup

b. pollen grains are transferred to the stigma
______20. pollination
c. an organisms appearance
______21. trait
d. genetically determined variant of a characteristic
______22. genotype e. alternative form of a gene
______23. phenotype
24. What approximate ratio of plants expressing contrasting traits did Mendel
calculate in his F2 generation of garden peas? What steps did he take to
calculate this ratio?
25. Describe Mendels two laws of heredity.

Name Class Date
Assessment
Chapter Test A
DNA, RNA, and Protein Synthesis
term or phrase.
______ 1. nucleotide a. a nitrogenous base that forms hydrogen

bonds with cytosine
______ 2. deoxyribose
b. a nitrogenous base that forms hydrogen
______ 3. adenine bonds with guanine
c. a nitrogenous base that forms hydrogen
______ 4. guanine
bonds with thymine
______ 5. cytosine d. enzymes that have a proofreading role in
DNA replication
______ 6. thymine
e. a class of organic molecules, each having
______ 7. purines a double ring of carbon and nitrogen atoms
f. portions of DNA where the double helix
______ 8. pyrimidines
separates during DNA replication
______ 9. DNA polymerases g. a five-carbon sugar
______10. replication forks h. consists of a phosphate group, a

sugar molecule, and a nitrogen base
______11. codon i. a nitrogenous base that forms hydrogen
bonds with adenine
______12. genome
j. a class of organic molecules, each having
a single ring of carbon and nitrogen atoms
k. complete gene content of an organism
l. 3-nucleotide sequence of mRNA
______13. What did Griffith observe in his transformation experiments?

a. Virulent bacteria changed into harmless bacteria.
b. Heat-killed bacteria changed into S bacteria.
c. Harmless bacteria changed into S bacteria.
d. Virulent S bacteria changed into harmless bacteria.
______14. In 1944, Avery conducted a series of experiments that showed that the
material responsible for transformation is
a. RNA. b. DNA. c. protein. d. bacteriophage.
______15. The nucleotides in DNA are bonded to each other by

a. covalent bonds. c. ionic bonds.
b. hydrogen bonds. d. peptide bonds.
Name Class Date
DNA, RNA, and Protein Synthesis, Chapter Test A continued
Refer to the mRNA sequence CUC-AAG-UGC-UUC and the table below, which lists
mRNA codons, to answer questions 1416.
Codons in mRNA
First Second base Third
base U C A G base
UUU UCU UAU UGU U
Phenylalanine Tyrosine Cysteine
UUC UCC Serine UAC UGC C
U
UUA UCA UAA UGA Stop A
Leucine Stop
UUG UCG UAG UGG Tryptophan G
CUU CCU CAU CGU U
Histidine
CUC Leucine CCC CAC CGC Arginine C
C Proline
CUA CCA CAA CGA A
Glutamine
CUG CCG CAG CGG G
AUU ACU AAU AGU U

Asparagine Serine
AUC Isoleucine ACC Threonine AAC AGC C
A AUA ACA AAA AGA A
Lysine Arginine
AUG Start ACG AAG AGG G
GUU GCU GAU Aspartic GGU U

GUC Valine GCC Alanine GAC acid GGC Glycine C
G
GUA GCA GAA Glutamic GGA A
GUG GCG GAG acid GGG G
______16. Which of the following would represent the sequence of DNA from
which the mRNA sequence was made?
a. CUC-AAG-UGC-UUC c. GAG-TTC-ACG-AAG
b. GAG-UUC-ACG-AAG d. AGA-CCT-GTA-GGA
______ 17. The anticodons for the codons in the mRNA sequence above are
a. GAG-UUC-ACG-AAG. c. CUC-GAA-CGU-CUU.
b. GAG-TTC-ACG-AAG. d. CUU-CGU-GAA-CUC.
______18. Which of the following represents the portion of the protein molecule
coded for by the mRNA sequence above?
a. serine-tyrosine-arginine-glycine
b. valine-aspartic acid-proline-histidine
c. leucine-lysine-cysteine-phenylalanine
d. glutamic acid-phenylalanine-threonine-lysine
______19. The two chains of the DNA molecule are held together by
a. covalent bonds. c. ionic bonds.
b. hydrogen bonds. d. peptide bonds.
______20. At the end of the replication process, each of the two new DNA
molecules is composed of which of the following?
a. two new DNA strands
b. one new and one original DNA strand
c. one new and one mutated DNA strand
d. two original DNA strands
Name Class Date
DNA, RNA, and Protein Synthesis, Chapter Test A continued
21. What is the difference between transcription and translation?
22. Explain how RNA differs from DNA.
23. Describe the role of DNA helicases during replication.
Refer to the figure below to answer questions 24 and 25.
A
B
24. What does the figure above represent?
25. Identify the structures labeled AC.

Name Class Date
Assessment
Chapter Test A
Gene Expression
1. When a(n) mutates,
appendages may form in unusual places.
2. A(n) can be used as a
tool to determine which genes are being expressed.
3. In a(n) tumor, the uncontrolled dividing cells may
invade and destroy healthy tissues elsewhere in the body.
4. The spread of cancer cells beyond their original site is called
5. Usually more than one is needed to produce a
cancer cell, a fact that may explain why the risk of cancer increases with age.
6. When there is no lactose present in a bacterial cell, a(n)
turns the lac operon .
7. A repressor protein can physically block
from binding to a promoter site on the lac operon.
8. In , gene regulation can occur before, during, and

after transcription.
9. A(n) is any substance that can induce or promote

cancer.
10. An abnormal proliferation of cells that results from uncontrolled cell division
is called a .
______11. The piece of DNA that overlaps the promoter and serves as the on-off
switch in operons is called a(n)
a. promoter site. c. enhancer.
b. operator. d. repressor.
Name Class Date
Gene Expression, Chapter Test A continued
______12. Tumor-suppressor genes

a. code for proteins that control cell division.
b. do not occur in prokaryotes.
c. can result in cancer when they mutate.
d. All of the above
______13. In eukaryotes, gene expression is regulated by

a. operons. c. transcription factors.
b. operators. d. All of the above
______14. Which of the following occurs in eukaryotes?

a. Exons are cut out after transcription.
b. Only exons are translated.
c. Only introns are transcribed.
d. Introns are joined together and then translated.
______15. In the absence of lactose, a repressor protein binds to

a. the operator. c. the enhancer.
b. another repressor. d. an exon.
______16. Which of the following is an advantage of regulating gene expression?

a. The organism conserves energy.
b. The organism can prevent mutations.
c. Most genes are never transcribed.
d. Fewer genes have to be passed on to the next generation.
______ 17. Eukaryotic genes

a. contain operons.
b. have long, unbroken stretches of DNA called spliceosomes.
c. are long, unbroken stretches of nucleotides that all code for a single
protein.
d. are interrupted by non-coding segments called introns.
______18. After mRNA has been transcribed in eukaryotes,

a. its introns are cut out.
b. its exons are joined together.
c. it leaves the nucleus through pores in the nuclear envelope.
d. All of the above
______19. An operon is composed of which of the following?

a. a group of proteins, their promoter site, and their operator
b. a group of genes, their operator, and RNA polymerase
c. a group of genes, their promoter site, and their operator
d. an enhancer, an operator, and RNA polymerase
______20. Regulatory proteins in eukaryotes that are involved in controlling the

onset of transcription are called
a. repressors. c. operators.
b. transcription factors. d. enhancers.
Name Class Date
Gene Expression, Chapter Test A continued
21. How is RNA polymerase affected by the presence of lactose in bacterial cells?
22. What are introns?
23. Describe how eukaryotic genes are organized.
24. Summarize the role of transcription factors in regulating eukaryotic gene

expression.
25. What is the lac operon?

Name Class Date
Assessment
Chapter Test A
Inheritance Patterns and Human Genetics
______ 1. Both sickle cell anemia and hemophilia

a. are caused by genes coding for defective proteins.
b. are seen in homozygous dominant individuals.
c. provide resistance to malaria infections.
d. are sex-linked traits.
______ 2. If a characteristic is sex-linked, it

a. occurs most commonly c. can never occur in females.
in males.
b. occurs only in females. d. is always fatal.
______ 3. Which of the following is an example of gene therapy?

a. A genetic counselor studies a pedigree.
b. A student studies the colors of flowers in pea plants.
c. A geneticist explains the inheritance of albinism by using a Punnett
square.
d. A physician transfers a normal gene into the DNA of a person with
a mutated form of the gene.
Refer to the figure below, which shows the inheritance of sickle cell anemia in a
family, to answer question 4.
______ 4. Which of the following is true based on the information provided in

the pedigree?
a. Both parents have sickle cell anemia.
b. Both parents carry an allele for sickle cell anemia.
c. Sickle cell anemia is caused by a dominant allele.
d. All three children are carriers of a defective gene that causes
sickle cell anemia.

Name Class Date
Inheritance Patterns and Human Genetics, Chapter Test A continued
______ 5. Which of the following is true when analyzing a pedigree?

a. If a disorder is caused by a recessive trait, every offspring afflicted
with the disorder will have a parent with the disorder.
b. If a disorder is caused by a dominant trait, two normal parents can
produce an offspring with the disorder.
c. If a disorder is caused by a recessive trait, the normal parents of
every offspring with the disorder are carriers.
d. If a disorder is caused by a sex-linked trait, only male offspring will
have the disorder.
______ 6. Genetic disorders are caused by

a. faulty proteins. c. damaged genes.
b. genetic mutations. d. All of the above
______ 7. Which of the following human genetic disorders is caused by a dominant

allele?
a. cystic fibrosis c. Huntingtons disease
b. hemophilia d. sickle cell anemia
______ 8. What do genetic counselors do?

a. They look for cures for deadly genetic disorders.
b. They try to replace defective genes with healthy ones, using an
approach called gene therapy.
c. They inform people about genetic disorders that could affect them.
d. All of the above
9. Characteristics such as eye color, height, weight, and hair and skin color are
examples of because
several genes act together to influence a trait.
10. Mutations in genetic material may cause
, such as cystic fibrosis and muscular dystrophy.
11. In a pedigree, if two normal parents produce a child with a genetic disorder,
then the disorder is caused by a(n) allele.
12. The percentage of crossing-over for two traits is proportional to the number
of between the genes

for the traits.
13. The chromosome contains a gene that causes the

gonads of an embryo to develop as testes.

Name Class Date
Inheritance Patterns and Human Genetics, Chapter Test A continued
term or phrase.
14. linked genes a. frequency of crossing-over of 1 percent

b. chromosome segment that is inserted backwards
15. map unit
c. chromosome segment attached to nonhomologous
16. pedigree chromosome
17. polygenic d. diagram that shows how a trait is inherited
e. technique that allows analysis of fetal cells
18. multiple alleles
f. genes with more than two alleles
19. translocation g. genes that are inherited together
20. inversion h. chromosome that is not a sex chromosome

i. trait influenced by several genes
21. amniocentesis
22. autosome
23. Explain how polygenic traits occur.
24. Explain why sex-linked traits are more common in males than in females.
25. Explain the causes and symptoms of cystic fibrosis.

Name Class Date
Assessment
Chapter Test A
Gene Technology
______ 1. Recombinant DNA is formed by joining DNA molecules

a. from two different species.
b. with a carbohydrate from a different species.
c. with RNA molecules.
d. with a protein from a different species.
______ 2. Fragments of DNA that have complementary sticky ends

a. are found only in bacterial cells.
b. can join with each other.
c. can only join with complementary fragments from the same species.
d. are immediately digested by enzymes in the cytoplasm of the cell.
______ 3. Which of the following is a potential benefit of genetically modified

crops?
a. Pesticide use is reduced.
b. Tolerance of environmental stress is increased.
c. Plant diseases are reduced.
d. All of the above
______ 4. Which of the following does NOT describe a probe?

a. single strand of nucleotides
b. complementary to the gene of interest
c. short pieces of artificial DNA used to make copies of genes
d. labeled with fluorescent or radioactive substances
______ 5. What role does electrophoresis play in identifying a specific gene?

a. It cuts the gene of interest out of DNA at specific points.
b. It kills all cells that have not taken up the gene of interest.
c. It binds the gene of interest with probes.
d. It separates DNA fragments by size.
______ 6. Which of the following was a surprise to scientists working on the

Human Genome Project?
a. There were fewer genes than they had predicted.
b. There were many more exons than they had predicted.
c. There were many more base pairs than they had predicted.
d. The DNA was much longer than they had predicted.

Name Class Date
Gene Technology, Chapter Test A continued
______ 7. The Human Genome Project has brought scientists from around the
world together in order to
a. identify the base pair sequence of all human genes.
b. reduce the number of base pairs needed to code for human genes.
c. eliminate the introns in human DNA.
d. All of the above
______ 8. Genetic engineering researchers are trying to prevent

a. AIDS. c. malaria.
b. certain cancers. d. All of the above
______ 9. Which of the following is NOT a use of DNA fingerprints?

a. distinguishing whether a cell contains a plasmid
b. establishing whether two people are related to each other
c. identifying genes that cause specific genetic disorders
d. determining whether suspects could have been involved in violent
crimes
______10. Genetic engineers are developing approaches for improving agriculture

in all of the following ways EXCEPT
a. making plants resistant to insects.
b. making plants resistant to weedkillers.
c. enabling plants to produce medically useful proteins.
d. improving the nutritional value of certain plants.
11. The pattern of dark bands on X-ray film made when an individuals DNA
fragments are separated, probed, and then exposed to an X-ray film is called
a(n) .
12. Small, circular forms of bacterial DNA that can replicate independently of the
main bacterial chromosome are called .
13. Genetically identical cells grown from a single cell are called
14. Enzymes that cut DNA at specific sequences, producing fragments of DNA,
are called .
15. Radioactive or fluorescent-labeled RNA or single-stranded DNA pieces that
are complementary to the gene of interest are called .

Name Class Date
Gene Technology, Chapter Test A continued
16. When cut with restriction enzymes, DNA fragments have short single-stranded
ends that are to each other. These ends are called
ends.
term or phrase.
______ 17. telomere a. caused by the CFTR gene

b. repeated DNA sequences at the end of
______18. proteome
chromosomes
______19. primer c. has improved nutritional value
______20. cystic fibrosis d. all the proteins in an organism

e. artificial single-stranded DNA
______21. GM crop
22. Describe three ways genetic engineering has been used to improve plants.
23. Summarize two ways genetic engineering techniques have altered farm
animals for human benefit.
24. Describe two different uses for DNA fingerprints.
25. Explain how gel electrophoresis is used in genetic engineering experiments.

Name Class Date
Assessment
Chapter Test A
History of Life
term or phrase.
______ 1. biogenesis a. atoms of an element that have different
numbers of neutrons
_____ 2. ozone b. method that organisms use to obtain
energy from inorganic substances
_____ 3. isotope c. length of time it takes one-half of a radio-
active isotope to decay to a more stable form
_____ 4. half-life d. principle which states that all living things
come from other living things
_____ 5. chemosynthesis e. absorbs ultraviolet radiation
______ 6. Cyanobacteria changed the ______ 9. Determining the age of a

early Earths atmosphere by rock by comparing relative
giving off proportions of its radio-
a. carbon dioxide. active isotopes is called
b. ammonia. a. radioactive decay.
c. hydrogen. b. radiometric dating.
d. oxygen. c. isotope dating.
d. half-lives.
______ 7. In Redis experiment, the
control group consisted of ______10. Scientists theorize that
a. jars without meat. Earth formed
b. jars covered with netting. a. from the melting of
c. covered jars in the sun. asteroids.
d. jars not covered with b. about 10 billion years ago.
netting. c. about 1 billion years ago.
d. from collisions of space
______ 8. Eukaryotes may have debris circling the sun.
evolved from
a. cyanobacteria. ______11. The forerunners of the first
b. prokaryotes and engulfed cells may have been the
small aerobic prokaryotes. gathering of protein mole-
c. prokaryotes and engulfed cules into
small anaerobic a. macromolecules.
prokaryotes. b. isotopes.
d. None of the above c. microspheres.
d. DNA molecules.

Name Class Date
History of Life, Chapter Test A continued
______12. Organisms were able to live ______16. Scientists hypothesize that

safely on dry land after Earths early atmosphere
a. cyanobacteria made contained substances such as
oxygen, and ozone a. oxygen, carbon dioxide,
began to form. hydrogen gas, and
b. the fifth mass extinction. nitrogen.
c. continental drift stopped. b. nitrogen, methane,
d. archaebacteria made ozone, and water vapor.
oxygen, and ozone began c. methane, water vapor,
to form. oxygen, and ammonia.
d. ammonia, hydrogen gas,
______13. Which of the following water vapor, and methane.
enabled the formation of
true cells? ______ 17. The Miller-Urey experiment
a. the ozone layer used gases circulating in a
b. heredity chamber and electric sparks
c. microspheres to
d. endosymbiosis a. date the age of Earth.
b. produce a variety of
______14. Scientists have estimated organic compounds.
the age of Earth to be c. produce ozone.
a. about 4.6 million years d. produce cyanobacteria.
old.
b. about 10 billion years old. ______18. An RNA molecule that can
c. about 4.6 billion years old. act as a catalyst and promote
d. about 100,000 years old. specific chemical reactions
is called
______15. Radiometric dating of a a. an enzyme.
charcoal sample from an b. DNA.
ancient human dwelling c. a ribozyme.
was done using carbon-14. d. a protein.
The site was dated as 17,195
years old. How many half- ______19. The first cells were most
lives of carbon-14 does this likely
represent? a. aerobic heterotrophic
a. one prokaryotes.
b. two b. anaerobic heterotrophic
c. three eukaryotes.
d. four c. aerobic autotrophic
eukaryotes.
d. anaerobic heterotrophic
prokaryotes.

Name Class Date
History of Life, Chapter Test A continued
______20. The oldest known fossil ______24. Oxygen began to enter the
organisms are about atmosphere of the early
3.5 billion years old Earth as a result of
and are similar to a. respiration by
a. modern plants. microspheres.
b. modern cyanobacteria. b. respiration by plants.
c. modern eukaryotic c. photosynthesis by
bacteria. cyanobacteria.
d. modern coacervates. d. endosymbiosis of
prokaryotes and
______21. Which scientist conclusively eukaryotes.
demonstrated that the
principle of spontaneous ______25. The total number of protons
generation was not correct? and neutrons in the nucleus
a. Francesco Redi is
b. Louis Pasteur a. an isotope.
c. Lazzaro Spallanzani b. the mass number.
d. Alexander Oparin c. the atomic number.
d. always the same.
______22. What theory proposes a
method for the evolution of
photosynthetic eukaryotic
organisms from prokaryotes?
a. endosymbiosis
b. chemosynthesis
c. RNA replication
d. radioactive decay
______23. A mechanism for heredity

was necessary in order to
begin
a. microspheres.
b. life.
c. RNA.
d. proteins.

Name Class Date
Assessment
Chapter Test A
Theory of Evolution
______ 1. The evolution of beak sizes in Galpagos finches is a response to

a. how finches use their beaks.
b. the types of seeds available.
c. whether the populations interbreed.
d. the particular island on which each finch lives.
______ 2. According to Darwin, evolution occurs

a. in response to use or disuse of a characteristic.
b. because of catastrophic geologic events.
c. by natural selection.
d. within an individuals lifetime.
______ 3. The inference that evolution occurs gradually over time,

a. is not supported by any fossil evidence.
b. is known as coevolution.
c. is supported by many transitional forms in the fossil record.
d. was proposed by Lyell.
______ 4. The traits of individuals best adapted to survive become more

common in each new generation because
a. offspring do not inherit those traits.
b. the adaptations responsible for those traits increase through
natural selection.
c. those individuals do not breed.
d. natural selection does not affect well-adapted individuals.
______ 5. Natural selection causes

a. changes in the environment.
b. plants and animals to produce more offspring than can survive.
c. changes in the frequency of certain adaptations in a population.
d. genetic variation within populations.
______ 6. The similarity in the body shape of a whale and of a fish is an

example of
a. divergent evolution. c. coevolution.
b. convergent evolution. d. vestigial structures.

Name Class Date
Theory of Evolution, Chapter Test A continued
______ 7. Which of the following must exist in a population in order for natural
selection to act?
a. genetic variation
b. overproduction
c. struggle for survival
d. All of the above
______ 8. Natural selection is the process by which

a. the age of Earth is calculated.
b. organisms with traits well suited to the environment survive
and reproduce at a greater rate than other organisms.
c. acquired traits are passed from one generation to the next.
d. All of the above
______ 9. Modern evolutionary theory predicts all of the following EXCEPT

a. If species have changed over time, their genes should have changed.
b. Closely related species will show similarities in nucleotide sequences.
c. If species share a common ancestor, they will share all of the
characteristics of that ancestor.
d. Closely related species will show similarities in amino acid sequences.
Refer to the figures below to answer questions 1012.
Penguin Bat
A B
Alligator
Human
D
______10. The bones labeled AD are known as

a. vestigial structures. c. homologous structures.
b. divergent structures. d. embryonic structures.
______11. The similarity of these structures suggests that the organisms

a. have a common ancestor.
b. have different ancestors.
c. no longer use these structures.
d. live in the same kind of environment.

Name Class Date
Theory of Evolution, Chapter Test A continued
______12. The scientist who proposed that individuals could pass on traits
acquired during their lifetime was
a. Jean Baptiste Lamarck. c. Georges Cuvier.
b. Charles Darwin. d. Charles Lyell.
______13. Strong evidence for evolution comes from

a. nuclear physics.
b. phylogenetic trees.
c. works of philosophy.
d. the fossil record.
______14. Structures that are reduced in size and have no function are called
a. vertebral structures.
b. vestigial structures.
c. convergent structures.
d. embryological homologies.
______15. Darwin theorized that natural selection is

a. the mechanism of evolution.
b. how modern species have come to exist.
c. the explanation for beak variation in finches.
d. All of the above
term or phrase.
______16. evolution a. the number of individuals who possess

favorable characteristics will increase in
______ 17. genetic variation a population
______18. natural selection b. two or more species evolve adaptations
to each others influence
______19. convergent evolution
c. species change over time
______20. coevolution d. the different traits that can be inherited
within a population
______21. strata
e. different species evolve similar traits
______22. artificial selection f. trace or remains of ancient life
______23. homologous structure g. rock layers

h. similar function, different origin
______24. analogous structure
i. breeding of faster horses by humans
______25. fossil j. related function, similar origin

Name Class Date
Assessment
Chapter Test A
Population Genetics and Speciation
term or phrase.
______ 1. genetic drift a. results from immigration and emigration

b. does not apply when evolutionary forces
______ 2. stabilizing selection
act on a population
______ 3. gene flow c. can result from a small group being
separated from the main population
______ 4. Hardy-Weinberg principle
d. one of the most powerful agents of genetic
______ 5. natural selection change
e. range of phenotypes becomes narrower;
more individuals in the middle range
______ 6. Not all mutations

a. result in genetic changes.
b. result in phenotypic changes.
c. result in genotypic changes.
d. cause emigration.
______ 7. Actual proportions of homozygotes and heterozygotes can differ from

Hardy-Weinberg predictions because of
a. the occurrence of mutations.
b. nonrandom mating among individuals.
c. genetic drift within the population.
d. All of the above
______ 8. The movement of alleles into or out of a population is called

a. mutation. c. nonrandom mating.
b. gene flow. d. natural selection.
______ 9. Cheetahs are in danger of extinction because of the effects of

a. mutations. c. gene flow.
b. genetic drift. d. natural selection.
______10. Natural selection shapes populations by acting on

a. genes. c. phenotypes.
b. recessive alleles. d. All of the above

Name Class Date
Population Genetics and Speciation, Chapter Test A continued
______11. Allele frequency is least affected by

a. genetic drift. c. mutations.
b. gene flow. d. nonrandom mating.
______12. The type of selection that eliminates one extreme from a range of
phenotypes is called
a. directional selection. c. natural selection.
b. disruptive selection. d. stabilizing selection.
______13. The Hardy-Weinberg principle applies to all populations as long as

evolutionary forces are not working, and
a. the population is large enough that its members are not likely to
mate with one another.
b. the ratio of genotypes and phenotypes differ significantly from
each other.
c. genotypes can be predicted using an equation.
d. frequencies of alleles are not changing.
______14. A demographer studying the adult height in males finds that more men
are of average height now than 100 years ago, and there are fewer men
who are very short or very tall. Which of the following may explain
this trend?
a. directional selection c. stabilizing selection
b. genetic drift d. gene flow
______15. When directional selection eliminates one extreme from a range of

phenotypes, the alleles promoting the extreme trait
a. increase in the population.
b. do not change from generation to generation.
c. become less common in the population.
d. None of the above
______16. Scientists studying the remains of extinct dinosaurs would use

which of the following to determine whether or not the remains
were different species?
a. geographic isolation
b. allopatric speciation
c. the biological species concept
d. the morphological concept of species
______ 17. Two closely related species of salamanders that live in the same area,
but mate at different times of the year would
a. be geographically isolated.
b. undergo allopatric speciation.
c. have prezygotic isolation.
d. have postzygotic isolation.

Name Class Date
Population Genetics and Speciation, Chapter Test A continued
18. Explain how stabilizing selection decreases genetic diversity.
19. What are the three major ways variations in genotype can occur?
Refer to the graph below to answer questions 2021.

Number of animals
Body color
20. What type of selection is shown by the graph?
21. What traits are being selected for?
22. How is the allele frequency calculated?
23. What assumptions form the basis for the HardyWeinberg genetic equilibrium?
24. What is genetic drift?
25. Explain the difference between allopatric and sympatric speciation.

Name Class Date
Assessment
Chapter Test A
Classification of Organisms
______ 1. The science of naming and classifying organisms is called

a. binomial nomenclature. c. taxonomy.
b. polynomial nomenclature. d. cladistics.
______ 2. The domain Eukarya is composed of all

a. prokaryotes.
b. archaebacteria.
c. animals.
d. eukaryotes.
______ 3. Which of the following do biologists NOT use to classify organisms?

a. homologous structures c. appearance
b. derived characters d. analogous structures
______ 4. An organisms scientific name consists of its

a. genus and species.
b. genus and family.
c. species and family.
d. common name and Latin name.
______ 5. The two kingdoms that are made up of prokaryotes are

a. Protista and Archaebacteria.
b. Archaebacteria and Eubacteria.
c. Eubacteria and Fungi.
d. Fungi and Protista.
______ 6. Honeybees, as members of the kingdom Animalia, are related to

a. wasps. c. spiders.
b. birds. d. All of the above
______ 7. Linnaeuss classification system was based on which of the following

characteristics?
a. form and structure c. behavior
b. DNA d. phylogenetic relationships
______ 8. Fungi obtain their nutrition by

a. carrying out photosynthesis.
b. secreting digestive enzymes onto whatever they grow on.
c. ingesting primary producers.
d. ingesting primary or secondary consumers.

Name Class Date
Classification of Organisms, Chapter Test A continued
______ 9. Classes with similar characteristics are grouped into the same
a. kingdom.
b. phylum.
c. species.
d. order.
______10. Analogous characters are derived from

a. a recent common ancestor.
b. inferred relationships.
c. a distant common ancestor.
d. independent sources.
______11. Biologists use cladograms to

a. evaluate the importance of characters.
b. estimate the degree of difference between organisms.
c. hypothesize the sequence in which different groups evolved.
d. analyze evolutionary relationships subjectively.
______12. Which of the following is a characteristic of plants but NOT of animals?

a. eukaryotic cell type
b. multicellularity
c. cell walls made of cellulose
d. heterotrophic nutrition
Refer to the table below to answer questions 13 and 14.
Classification of Three Different Organisms

Organism Class A Family Genus
Bacterium Scotobacteria Spirochaetales Spirochaetaceae Cristispira
Box elder Dicotyledones Sapindales Aceraceae Acer
Human Mammalia Primates Hominidae B
______13. Which level of classification is represented by the box labeled A?

a. kingdom c. division
b. phylum d. order
______14. Which of the following best fits the box labeled B?

a. sapiens c. Homo
b. Canis d. Animalia

Name Class Date
Classification of Organisms, Chapter Test A continued
term or phrase.
______15. taxonomy a. the most inclusive classification

of organisms
______16. binomial nomenclature
b. an organisms evolutionary
______ 17. domain history
c. family tree
______18. phylogeny
d. the science of naming and
______19. cladistics classifying organisms
e. two-word system for naming
______20. phylogenetic diagram
organisms
f. uses shared and derived characters
provided.
21. The only kingdom that consists of organisms without cell walls is
22. Prokaryotes that inhabit harsh environments belong to the kingdom
23. Kingdom contains both unicellular and multicellular
organisms, has cell walls made of chitin, and are all heterotrophic.
24. Plants, animals, fungi, and protists are all classified in the domain
25. The domain Bacteria consists of the kingdom .

Name Class Date
Assessment
Chapter Test A
Introduction to Ecology
______ 1. A typical ecosystem might include which of the following?

a. large and small mammals
b. microscopic eukaryotes
c. birds, trees, and flowers
d. All of the above
______ 2. All the organisms that live in a particular place and the physical
aspects of that place make up a(n)
a. ecosystem. c. population.
b. habitat. d. food chain.
______ 3. The number of trophic levels in an ecological pyramid

a. is limitless.
b. is limited by the amount of energy that is lost at each trophic level.
c. never exceeds two.
d. never exceeds three.
______ 4. In a meadow food chain, which is the correct sequence of the path
of energy flow?
a. hawksnake mouse grass
b. mouse grass hawk snake
c. grass mouse snake hawk
d. snake mouse hawk grass
______ 5. In a marine food web, there is far more total biomass in algae than
in all the killer whales. Why is this so?
a. Whales are bigger than algae.
b. An alga has more mass than a killer whale.
c. Whales dont eat algae.
d. It takes a massive amount of algae to support a food web with
a killer whale at the top.
______ 6. The ultimate source of energy for most producers and consumers is
a. plants. c. algae.
b. the sun. d. the ocean.
______ 7. The production of ammonia by bacteria during the decay of nitrogen-

containing urine is called
a. assimilation. c. nitrification.
b. ammonification. d. denitrification.

Name Class Date
Introduction to Ecology, Chapter Test A continued
______ 8. In a living portion of the water cycle, water passes through plants and
evaporates into the atmosphere through the process of
a. photosynthesis. c. transpiration.
b. respiration. d. nitrification.
______ 9. The carbon in the remains of organisms that lived long ago is released
in the burning of
a. wood. c. calcium carbonate.
b. limestone. d. fossil fuels.
______10. Most nitrogen-fixing bacteria live in

a. the human intestine.
b. soil and plant roots.
c. rotting logs.
d. the atmosphere.
______11. Grizzly bears, snakes, and worms are most likely to be members
of the same
a. species.
b. trophic level.
c. community.
d. population.
______12. An example of an abiotic factor is

a. a tree.
b. sunlight.
c. a bird.
d. grass.
______13. Which material is required in the greatest quantity in all ecosystems?

a. manganese
b. sodium
c. water
d. iron
______14. Organisms that obtain their energy from the organic wastes and dead
bodies that result from all the energy levels in an ecosystem are called
a. omnivores.
b. detritivores.
c. herbivores.
d. All of the above
______15. Which type of bacteria plays a significant role in the nitrogen cycle?
a. nitrogen-fixing bacteria
b. decomposers
c. denitrifying bacteria
d. All of the above

Name Class Date
Introduction to Ecology, Chapter Test A continued
term or phrase.
______16. habitat a. complicated, interconnected group of food

chains
______ 17. decomposers
b. indicates an organisms position in a sequence
______18. net primary of energy transfers.
productivity c. of abiotic factors, this has the greatest
influence on an ecosystems inhabitants
______19. food web
d. the rate at which biomass accumulates
______20. trophic level e. cycled throughout the living world
primarily by bacteria
______21. water
f. the place where an organism or population
______22. nitrogen of organisms lives
g. release nutrients back to the environment to be
recycled by other organisms.
23. Why are both bacteria and fungi important organisms in an ecosystem?
24. Why are energy pyramids always larger at the bottom than at the top?
25. Why are producers an essential component of an ecosystem?

Name Class Date
Assessment
Chapter Test A
Populations
term or phrase.
______ 1. exponential growth a. pattern of increase in number due

to a steady growth rate
______ 2. demographic transition
b. how crowded a population is
______ 3. population c. model showing how human
population trends have changed
______ 4. uniform dispersal
d. group of individuals of the same
______ 5. population density species in a place at the same time
e. located at regular intervals
______ 6. Which of the following does NOT represent a population?

a. all the robins in Austin, Texas
b. all the grass frogs in a pond in Central Park, New York City
c. all the birds in Chicago, Illinois
d. all the black bears in Yosemite National Park
______ 7. Weather and climate are environmental conditions that affect

populations, and are often categorized as
a. density-dependent factors. c. logistical factors.
b. density-independent factors. d. dispersion factors.
______ 8. In a population study, if the rate of growth of the population is found

to have a negative value, the population size is
a. increasing. c. decreasing.
b. staying the same. d. extinct.
______ 9. Carrying capacity is

a. the population size an environment can sustain over time.
b. the maximum number of offspring a female can support at one time.
c. the amount a population grows in a given time.
d. a density-independent factor.
______10. Barnacles crowded together on a rock exhibit a type of dispersion

called
a. random dispersion. c. clumped dispersion.
b. uniform dispersion. d. negative dispersion.

Name Class Date
Populations, Chapter Test A continued
______11. Cheetahs are in danger of extinction because of

a. a large population.
b. an evenly distributed population.
c. a small population.
d. lack of food.

Population Growth
Number of individuals
A B C D
Time
______12. Which time period shows exponential growth of the population?

a. A c. C
b. B d. D
______13. The rate of growth of a population is represented by r. During which

time period will r equal zero?
a. A c. C
b. B d. D
______14. Which of the following countries has the least population density?
a. China
b. Russia
c. Japan
d. Mexico
15. If you were a scientist who wanted to describe a population of birds in a
forest, what four basic features of the population would you examine first?

Name Class Date
Populations, Chapter Test A continued
16. A population that increases by a greater number in each time interval has
what type of population growth?
17. Two populations have very different age structures. In population A, there are
a high percentage of people over 60 years of age. In population B, there are a
high percentage of people between the ages of 18 to 25 years. Which popula-
tion has the greater potential for rapid population growth? Explain.
18. - factors are limiting

factors for population growth that are based on population size.
19. is how long on average

an individual is expected to live.
20. The movement of individuals out of a population is .
21. Amount of food is an example of a
22. In very small populations, can reduce the

populations genetic variability.
23. Small population are vulnerable to extinction than

large populations.
24. Canada and Japan are both countries.
25. The model shows how

human populations have changed.

Name Class Date
Assessment
Chapter Test A
Community Ecology
______ 1. Mutualism and commensalism are two types of

a. symbiosis. c. parasitism.
b. competition. d. predation.
______ 2. A tick feeding on a human is an example of

a. parasitism. c. symbiosis.
b. mutualism. d. predation.
______ 3. Over time, selection pressure from predators will cause prey species
to evolve
a. into parasites. c. secondary compounds.
b. into a new niche. d. ways to avoid predation.
______ 4. The sequential replacement of species in a community after a forest

fire is
a. a disturbance. c. primary succession.
b. secondary succession. d. pioneer succession.
______ 5. A dandelion that grows in a newly plowed field is an example of a(n)

a. pioneer species. c. disturbance.
b. climax species. d. extinct species.
______ 6. Which of the following is NOT related to species richness?

a. interactions of species
b. size of ecosystems
c. proximity to the tropics
d. species evenness
______ 7. Primary succession would occur

a. in a desert.
b. on an island just formed by a volcanic eruption.
c. in an area after a forest fire.
d. in an abandoned farm field.
______ 8. Which of the following is an example of parasitism?

a. a lion hunting a zebra
b. a horse grazing on grass
c. a tick sucking blood from a cat
d. a fungus that grows on rotting wood

Name Class Date
Community Ecology, Chapter Test A continued
Refer to the figures below to answer questions 911.
A. The barnacle Chthamalus B. The barnacle Semibalanus balanoides C. When the two barnacles live
stellatus can live in both shallow lives mostly in deep water together, Chthamalus is restricted
and deep water on a rocky coast. to shallow water.
______ 9. Figure B indicates that Semibalanus balanoides lives mostly in deep

water. Deep water is this barnacles
a. competitive niche.
b. realized niche.
c. fundamental niche.
d. exclusive niche.
______10. Figure C indicates that when the two barnacles live together,
Chthamalus is restricted to shallow water. Shallow water is its
a. competitive niche.
b. realized niche.
c. fundamental niche.
d. exclusive niche.
______11. Because the two species of barnacles attempt to use the same
resources, they
a. are parasites on each other.
b. are in competition with each other.
c. have a mutualistic relationship.
d. have a symbiotic relationship.
______12. A lion that eats an antelope is an example of a(n)

a. herbivore.
b. prey species.
c. parasite.
d. carnivore.

Name Class Date
Community Ecology, Chapter Test A continued
term or phrase.
______13. predation a. first weeds, then grasses and shrubs,

then trees
______14. commensalism
b. a symbiotic relationship in which both
______15. pioneer species participating species benefit
c. predator that eats plants and animals
______16. ecological succession
d. chemicals from plants that are poisonous,
______ 17. niche irritating, or bad-tasting
e. a relationship in which one species
______18. mutualism
benefits and the other is neither harmed
______19. omnivore nor helped
f. species that predominate early in
______20. secondary compounds succession
______21. species-area effect g. when species avoid competition by using
part of the available resources
______22. resource partitioning
h. when one species eats another species
for food
i. role a species plays in its environment
j. pattern where larger areas contain more
species than the smaller areas
23. An interaction where two or more species use the same limited resources is
called .
24. A symbiotic relationship in which one individual that lives in or on another
benefits while the other is harmed is known as .
25. An earthquake is an example of a .

Name Class Date
Assessment
Chapter Test A
Ecosystems
______ 1. Caribou, musk oxen, snowy owls, and snowshoe hares are common
animals in the
a. desert.
b. tropical rain forest.
c. tundra.
d. taiga.
______ 2. What biome once covered large portions of the interior of North
America, supporting huge herds of bison?
a. temperate grasslands
b. chaparral
c. temperate deciduous forests
d. taiga
______ 3. The neritic zone in the oceans

a. occurs between high and low tides.
b. extends over the continental shelf.
c. extends beyond the continental shelf.
d. occurs along the ocean bottom.
______ 4. Estuaries are characterized by

a. chemosynthetic bacteria.
b. sphagnum mosses.
c. large variations in salinity.
d. coral reefs.
______ 5. Which terrestrial biome is characterized by tall grasses and

scattered trees?
a. taiga
b. desert
c. savanna
d. chaparral
______ 6. About one-half of the worlds species are found in

a. tropical dry forests.
b. tropical rain forests.
c. estuaries.
d. temperate forests.

Name Class Date
Ecosystems, Chapter Test A continued
______ 7. The most productive zone in the oceans is the

a. neritic zone.
b. intertidal zone.
c. pelagic zone.
d. benthic zone.
______ 8. Marshes, swamps, and bogs are types of

a. freshwater wetlands.
b. eutrophic lakes.
c. oligotrophic lakes.
d. rivers.
______ 9. Streams in mountainous areas have rocky bottoms, clear water, and
a. low oxygen levels.
b. steep gradients.
c. low gradients.
d. no gradients.
______10. Temperate deciduous forests are characterized by

a. trees that lose their leaves in the fall.
b. warmer winters and longer summers than taiga.
c. mammals such as bears, white-tailed deer, foxes, raccoons, and
squirrels.
d. All of the above
______11. Deserts commonly receive

a. less than 25 cm of rainfall per year.
b. between 25 and 100 cm of rainfall per year.
c. more than 100 cm of rainfall per year.
d. more than 25 cm of rainfall per year.
______12. Which of the following is NOT an example of a freshwater ecosystem?

a. oligotrophic lake
b. estuary
c. river
d. All of the above

Name Class Date
Ecosystems, Chapter Test A continued
term or phrase.
______13. tundra a. boreal forest

b. low rainfall with cactus and succulent
______14. benthic zone
plants
______15. taiga c. freshwater lake rich in organic matter
______16. pelagic zone d. northernmost biome
e. freshwater lake with little organic
______ 17. deciduous trees matter
______18. eutrophic lake f. ocean bottom
g. open ocean
______19. coniferous trees
h. trees that lose their leave each year
______20. oligotrophic lake i. trees that bear seeds in cones
______21. desert j. zone in ocean where photosynthesis
occurs
______22. photic zone
23. The tundras layer of soil in which the water is always ice is called the
24. An aquatic ecosystem where organisms must be adapted to withstand
dehydration and crashing waves is known as the
25. are distinguished by the presence of particular

plants and animals.

Name Class Date
Assessment
Chapter Test A
Humans and the Environment
______ 1. The heat-absorbing ability of some gases in the atmosphere is

responsible for
a. acid precipitation.
b. the greenhouse effect.
c. the creation of CFCs.
d. increased levels of ultraviolet radiation.
______ 2. Molecules of chemical pollutants become increasingly concentrated in

higher trophic levels in a process called
a. species magnification. c. biological magnification.
b. the toxic effect. d. the greenhouse effect.
______ 3. Ozone depletion in the upper atmosphere can lead to increased

incidences of which of the following?
a. skin cancer
b. smog
c. air pollution
d. acid precipitation
______ 4. What measure of biodiversity is most likely to enable the survival of a

species in the face of environmental change?
a. species evenness
b. species richness
c. genetic distribution
d. genetic variation
______ 5. Although pesticides with DDT are banned in the United States, they
still pose an ecological threat because
a. they break down quickly in the environment.
b. they are still used in the U.S.
c. they become increasingly concentrated at the top of the food chain.
d. they cause acid precipitation.
______ 6. What group of organisms has the highest known biodiversity on Earth?
a. plants
b. insects
c. mammals
d. crustaceans

Name Class Date
Humans and the Environment, Chapter Test A continued

Amount of Carbon Dioxide in the Atmosphere and
Average Global Temperature Change
Temperature change (C)

340 0.4
Concentration of CO2
(parts per million) 320 CO2 0.2
0.0
300
0.2
280 Temperature 0.4
260 0.6
1860 1890 1920 1950 1980
Year
______ 7. The graph above shows

a. that there is probably no relationship between temperature and
carbon dioxide concentration.
b. that both the average global temperature and the carbon dioxide
concentration were higher in 1980 than in 1860.
c. that the concentration of oxygen in the atmosphere has increased
since 1860.
d. that the concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere has
decreased since 1860.
______ 8. According to the graph above,

a. the average global temperature remained constant from
1900 to 1950.
b. the concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere is too high.
c. the concentration of carbon dioxide remained constant from
1890 to 1940.
d. the average global temperature has increased since 1890.
term or phrase.
______ 9. ecotourism a. portion of Earth that is water

b. tourism that supports conservation
______10. CFCs
c. species that is very sensitive to
______11. hydrosphere ecological disturbance
______12. smog d. chemicals used as coolants that
break down and destroy ozone
______13. atmosphere e. gaseous envelope around Earth
______14. bioindicator f. visible pollution which is a mix of
water vapor and chemicals
Name Class Date
Humans and the Environment, Chapter Test A continued
15. The is made up of all the water on Earth.
16. The variety of organisms in an area is known as .
17. When habitats are disrupted, some organisms may face
18. In cities, air pollution can result in visible .
19. A is one species that affects many other species
in a community.
20. What kinds of action can individuals take to help solve environmental problems?
21. Explain what sustainability is.
22. Explain why acid precipitation was not an environmental issue 200 years ago.
23. Why is it important to prevent the extinction of species?
24. What do scientists know about the relationship between the greenhouse
effect and global warming?
25. How does the presence of the ozone layer affect life on Earth?

Name Class Date
Assessment
Chapter Test A
Bacteria
______ 1. Many bacteria have long appendages for movement that are called
a. pili. c. plasmids.
b. flagella. d. ribosomes.
______ 2. Many Gram-negative bacteria have pili, which are used to

a. aid in the process of binary fission.
b. propel the bacteria through their environment.
c. enclose the genetic material of the bacteria.
d. adhere to surfaces and to join bacterial cells prior to conjugation.
______ 3. An example of a bacterial disease carried from animals to humans is

a. tuberculosis. c. cholera.
b. botulism. d. Lyme disease.
______ 4. Groups of staphylococci look like

a. chains. c. clusters of grapes.
b. spirals. d. filaments.
______ 5. You would expect the bacterial genus Bacillus to have the shape of
a. cocci. c. spirilla.
b. rods. d. None of the above
______ 6. One difference between bacteria and eukaryotes is that

a. bacterial flagella are more complex than eukaryotic flagella.
b. bacterial chromosomes are circular, while eukaryotic chromosomes
are linear.
c. bacterial cells are much larger than eukaryotic cells.
d. many bacteria are multicellular, while all eukaryotes are unicellular.
______ 7. Bacterial cells lack

a. chromosomes. c. flagella.
b. reproductive capability. d. a cell nucleus.
______ 8. Which of the following does NOT characterize the structure of E. coli?
a. a rigid cell wall c. organelles
b. flagella d. pili
______ 9. In a process called nitrification, chemoautotrophic bacteria that live in

the soil play an important role in oxidizing ammonia, forming
a. nitrite, NO2. c. nitrous oxide.
b. nitrogen gas. d. sulfur.

Name Class Date
Bacteria, Chapter Test A continued
______10. Cholera is a disease of the

a. brain. c. liver.
b. heart. d. intestines.
______11. One way that bacteria cause disease is

a. by destroying body tissues.
b. by producing antibiotics.
c. by producing R-plasmids.
______12. Bacteria are used in industry to

a. make cheese. c. kill plant pests.
b. mine minerals. d. All of the above
______13. One habitat of archaea is

a. drinking water. c. food.
b. air. d. hot springs.
term or phrase.
______14. capsule a. a thick-coated structure formed by some

bacteria in times of environmental stress
______15. heterotrophs
b. a process in which two organisms exchange
______16. chemotrophs genetic material
c. the polysaccharide layer outside of the cell
______ 17. conjugation wall of many bacteria
______18. endospore d. found in bacterial cell walls but not in archaeal
cell walls
______19. photosynthesis
e. carry resistance genes to antibiotics
______20. peptidoglycan f. the method of obtaining energy used
by cyanobacteria
______21. R-plasmids
g. bacteria that obtain energy from chemicals
______22. yogurt in the environment
h. bacteria that obtain carbon from other
organisms
i. useful product made by Lactobacillus species

Name Class Date
Bacteria, Chapter Test A continued
23. List four diseases caused by bacteria.
24. Describe the common methods used to identify and classify bacteria.
25. Explain how bacterial toxins cause disease.

Name Class Date
Assessment
Chapter Test A
Viruses
______ 1. The tobacco mosaic virus

a. becomes a crystal when purified.
b. causes disease in tobacco plants.
c. is smaller than a bacterium.
d. All of the above
______ 2. Biologists now know that viruses

a. are the smallest organisms.
b. consist of a protein surrounded by a nucleic acid coat.
c. contain RNA or DNA in a protein coat.
d. all form the same crystalline shape.
______ 3. Viruses must rely on host cells for replication because

a. they need the DNA of the host to replicate.
b. they lack the enzymes necessary for metabolism and have no
structures to make protein.
c. all viruses are really fragments of host genes and must therefore
recombine with a host cell to replicate.
______ 4. Once inside a cell, HIV is able to produce thousands of new viruses
with the help of
a. specialized prions.
b. glycoproteins specific to the host cell.
c. the enzyme reverse transcriptase.
d. the repeated division of proviruses over time.
______ 5. In biologist Wendell Stanleys 1935 investigation of the tobacco mosaic

virus, he found that the purified virus
a. consisted of living organisms that did not retain the ability to infect
healthy tobacco plants.
b. was a crystal that could infect healthy tobacco plants.
c. was a crystal that could not infect healthy tobacco plants.
d. consisted of bacteria that could infect healthy tobacco plants.
______ 6. Each particle of TMV is

a. helical.
b. polyhedral.
c. enveloped.
d. spherical.

Name Class Date
Viruses, Chapter Test A continued
______ 7. Viruses are not considered to be living because they do not

a. maintain homeostasis. c. metabolize.
b. grow. d. All of the above
______ 8. Polyhedral virus refers to the structure of a viruss

a. nucleic acid. c. capsid.
b. phage. d. lipid layer.
______ 9. How can HIV be transmitted?

a. through casual contact
b. through contact with infected body fluids
c. in food products
d. All of the above
term or phrase.
______10. capsid a. a host chromosome with a viral gene

inserted into it
______11. envelope
b. specific site where a virus attaches to a
______12. receptor host cell
c. a viruss protein coat
______13. bacteriophage
d. a cycle in which the viral genome replicates
______14. pathogen without destroying the host cell
e. a bacteria-infecting virus
______15. lytic cycle
f. a cycle of viral infection, replication, and
______16. provirus cell destruction
______ 17. lysogenic cycle g. an agent that causes disease
h. surrounds the capsid of many viruses and
helps them enter cells
provided.
18. A(n) is a segment of nucleic acids contained in

a protein coat.
19. Viruses must rely on for

replication.
20. The capsid of viruses may enclose either the nucleic acid
or the nucleic acid .

Name Class Date
Viruses, Chapter Test A continued
21. Infectious particles called are composed of

proteins and have no nucleic acid.
22. HIV gradually infects and destroys so many cells

that people with AIDS often die of infections that a healthy immune system
would normally resist.
23. List four viral diseases that are transmitted through person-to-person contact.
24. Viruses are not considered to be living, yet they still have a major impact on
the living world. Explain how this is so.
25. How may have the first viruses originated?

Name Class Date
Assessment
Chapter Test A
Protists
______ 1. The process of sexual ______ 5. In Chlamydomonas, the

reproduction that involves mature zoospores grow to
the side by side alignment become
of two filaments to a. mature diploid cells.
exchange genetic material b. mature haploid cells.
is called c. a pair of zygospores.
a. mitosis. d. a pair of diploid cells.
b. conjugation.
c. alternation of ______ 6. Protists get energy by
generations. a. ingesting food.
d. meiosis. b. absorbing food.
c. photosynthesis
______ 2. The kingdom Protista d. All of the above
includes
a. most of the single-celled ______ 7. Green algae contain the
eukaryotes. same pigments found in
b. slime and water molds. a. sporozoans.
c. multicellular algae. b. amoebas.
d. All of the above c. plants.
d. paramecia.
______ 3. Protists thrive
a. on rocks. ______ 8. A protist that can surround
b. only in damp soil. and engulf food particles is
c. in water and moist most likely a(n)
environments. a. sporozoan.
d. only in marine b. water mold.
environments. c. plasmodial slime mold.
d. alga.
______ 4. Zoospores can be
a. produced as a result of ______ 9. During conjugation, two
meiosis. paramecia come together to
b. diploid. exchange
c. produced as a result of a. enzymes.
mitosis. b. undigested food.
d. Both (a) and (c) c. excess water.
d. haploid micronuclei.

Name Class Date
Protists, Chapter Test A continued
______10. The species of Plasmodium that cause malaria are found in

a. contaminated water. c. certain mosquitoes.
b. infected tsetse flies. d. contaminated food.
11. Protists probably originated when ancient prokaryotes lived inside larger
prokaryotes and eventually became organelles, a process called
.
12. have two shells that fit together like a box and lid.
13. forms the base of nearly all marine and freshwater

food chains.
14. Brown algae resemble plants because they have a rootlike
, a stemlike , and a
leaflike .
15. The stage of the Plasmodium life cycle that infects the liver is the
. The stage that infects red blood cells is the
Refer to the figures below, which show three single-celled organisms, to answer
questions 1621.
Organism A Organism B Organism C
16. Organism A moves by means of .
17. Organism A is a type of protist called a(n) .
18. Organism B moves by means of a(n) .
19. Organism B is a type of protist called a(n) .
20. Organism C moves by means of .
21. Organism C is a type of protist called a(n) .

Name Class Date
Protists, Chapter Test A continued
22. Why is the kingdom Protista considered the most diverse kingdom?
23. List three diseases, other than malaria, that are caused by protists, and
explain how they are transmitted.
24. After a vacation in the tropics, you become seriously ill. Your symptoms
include cycles of chills and fever every 48 hours. Why does your doctor
suspect malaria?
25. Explain how protists can be both beneficial and harmful to humans.

Name Class Date
Assessment
Chapter Test A
Fungi
______ 1. Fungi play an important role in the biosphere because they

a. break down organic molecules. c. are decomposers.
b. help recycle nutrients. d. All of the above
______ 2. The individual filaments that make up the body of a fungus are called
a. vascular tissue. b. hyphae. c. rhizoids. d. stems.
______ 3. Fungi
a. do not contain chloroplasts.
b. have cell walls made of chitin.
c. do not produce their own food.
d. All of the above
______ 4. In both phylum Ascomycota and phylum Basidiomycota,

a. sexual spores form in basidia. c. sexual spores form in asci.
b. hyphae are divided by walls. d. the mycelia are called stolons.
______ 5. Amanita muscaria has which of the following?

a. cell walls made of chitin
b. club-shaped reproductive cells called asci
c. the polysaccharide cellulose
d. All of the above
______ 6. Fungi are used to

a. produce antibiotics. c. flavor cheese.
b. ferment soy sauce. d. All of the above
______ 7. Mycorrhizae
a. aid in the transfer of minerals from the soil to a plant.
b. cause a variety of plant diseases.
c. aid in the transfer of minerals to fungi.
d. are found only on aquatic fungi.
______ 8. Sexual reproduction does not occur among the

a. zygomycetes. c. basidiomycetes.
b. ascomycetes. d. deuteromycetes.
______ 9. The classification of organisms in the three phyla of the kingdom

Fungi is based on
a. food. c. cellular structure.
b. digestive structures. d. sexual reproductive structures.

Name Class Date
Fungi, Chapter Test A continued
Refer to the figure below, which shows the life cycle of a mold, to answer
questions 1012.
A
+

B
______10. The structure labeled A produces

a. asci. b. haploid spores. c. rhizoids. d. stolons.
______11. The structure labeled B is

a. a rhizoid. c. a stolon.
b. vascular tissue. d. a stem.
______11. The process that takes place at stage C is known as

a. meiosis. b. budding. c. mitosis. d. fusion.
13. Most fungi obtain food by decomposing
in dead or living organisms.
14. A fungal is a haploid reproductive cell that is

capable of developing into a new organism.
15. A(n) is a saclike structure in which haploid spores

are formed.
16. Fungi secrete that break

down organic matter so they can then absorb the decomposed molecules.

Name Class Date
Fungi, Chapter Test A continued
17. A(n) of a fungus, made of a tangled mass of
, is usually hidden within the substrate on which
the fungus is growing.
18. The three kinds of sexual structures formed by fungi are ,
, and .
19. Fungi that absorb nutrients in a persons body can cause life-threatening
20. The underside of a mushroom cap is lined with rows of
, which contain thousands of club-shaped
structures called .
21. The unicellular fungi used in the production of baked goods and the produc-
tion of alcoholic beverages are called .
22. Sexual reproduction in fungi is initiated when two
of opposite mating types fuse and form a reproductive structure.
23. lichens grow as a layer on the surface of rocks

and trees.
24. Both mycorrhizae and lichens have symbiotic relationships. Describe how
they differ from each other.
25. Describe a hypothesis about the origin of fungi.

Name Class Date
Assessment
Chapter Test A
The Importance of Plants
______ 1. Plants are used by humans to provide which of the following?

a. food crops c. clothing
b. medicine d. all of the above
______ 2. The plant most widely used as a source of clothing is

a. leather. c. cotton.
b. wheat. d. the flax plant.
______ 3. What food crop provides about half of the calories in the average
human diet?
a. root crops c. legumes
b. fruits d. cereals
______ 4. What plants are fermented into alcohol and mixed with gasoline to
make gasohol?
a. fruits c. potatoes
b. grains d. nuts
______ 5. The foods from the leaves, stems, seeds, and roots of nonwoody plants
are called
a. vegetables. c. legumes.
b. fruits. d. herbs.
______ 6. Plant ecologists study

a. plants.
b. plant diseases.
c. the interaction between plants and the environment.
d. the interaction between plants and fungi.
______ 7. Photosynthetic plants are considered to be

a. mycorrhizae. c. parasites.
b. consumers. d. producers.
______ 8. Invasive plants, such as water hyacinths and kudzu, are considered
to be
a. food crops. c. mycorrhizae.
b. weeds. d. poisonous.
______ 9. Substances that supply essential mineral nutrients to plants are called
a. pesticides. c. fertilizers.
b. cultivars. d. fuels.

Name Class Date
The Importance of Plants, Chapter Test A continued
______10. Grasses that contain grains are called

a. root crops. c. forages.
b. cereals. d. vegetables.
______11. What high protein plants are considered to be nuts, but are actually
classified as legumes?
a. soybeans. c. clover.
b. peanuts. d. cassavas.
______12. What is the worlds most widely used medicine which comes from a
plant?
a. quinine c. aspirin
b. tannin d. cortisone
term or phrase.
______13. botany a. grasses that contain grains

b. undesirable plants
______14. spice
c. allergic reaction
______15. pesticides
d. study of plants
______16. cereal e. study of interaction between plants and
the environment
______ 17. legume
f. flavoring from plant parts other than the
______18. aspirin leaf
g. member of the pea family
______19. plant ecology
h. roots or underground stems
______20. weed i. medicine from white willow
______21. root crop j. chemicals that kill undesirable organisms
______22. hay fever
23. comes from the bark of the cinchona tree and is

used to treat malaria.
24. A food crop that is a hard, dry fruit that does not split open to release its seed
is called a .
25. Beets, carrots, cassava, and turnips are examples of

Name Class Date
Assessment
Chapter Test A
Plant Evolution and Classification
______ 1. Which organisms do botanists think may have helped early land plants
obtain nutrients from Earths rocky surface?
a. earthworms c. bacteria
b. viruses d. fungi
______ 2. The sperm of which organisms do NOT swim through water to reach
and fertilize eggs?
a. gymnosperms c. mosses
b. ferns d. liverworts
______ 3. To reduce water loss, plants have a waxy layer, which covers the non-
woody aboveground parts, called the
a. guard layer. c. stoma.
b. cuticle. d. rhizoid.
______ 4. In vascular plants, the dominant generation is the

a. sporophyte. c. bryophyte.
b. gametophyte. d. sporangium.
______ 5. Seeds provide the offspring of plants with all of the following
advantages EXCEPT
a. nourishment of the embryo.
b. dispersal of the plant.
c. attraction of a pollinator.
d. protection of the embryo.
______ 6. The phylum containing the most successful gymnosperms is

a. Hepatophyta. c. Pterophyta.
b. Coniferophyta. d. Ginkophyta.
______ 7. Plants in phylum Sphenophyta that have joint vertical stems and
whorls of scalelike leaves are commonly called
a. ferns. c. hornworts.
b. horsetails. d. club mosses.
______ 8. Fiddleheads are characteristic of

a. horsetails. c. club mosses.
b. liverworts. d. ferns.

Name Class Date
Plant Evolution and Classification, Chapter Test A continued
Refer to the figure below, which shows the life cycle of a plant, to answer
questions 911.
Fertilization Meiosis
Gametes Sporophyte
(1n) (2n)
1
Gametophyte
(1n)
______ 9. The gametophytes can be found growing

a. on the undersides of fronds.
b. on moist soil.
c. inside spore capsules.
d. within clusters of nongreen, spore-bearing leaves.
______10. The structures produced at stage 1 are

a. spore capsules. c. haploid spores.
b. diploid spores. d. zygotes.
______11. What process occurs at stage 2 to produce the gametes?

a. fertilization b. pollination c. meiosis d. mitosis
______12. The primary function of a fruit is

a. to provide nutrition for the seed. c. seed dispersal.
b. photosynthesis. d. to permit cross-fertilization.
______13. The xylem in a plant transports

a. food from the leaves.
b. water and minerals in one direction from the roots.
c. organic nutrients in any direction.
d. All of the above
14. All plants exhibit of , in
which a diploid generation, or , alternates with a
haploid generation, or .
Name Class Date
Plant Evolution and Classification, Chapter Test A continued
15. Vascular plants contain vascular tissue, which enables
and to reach all parts of the plant.
16. Seeds and the plant

embryo.
17. carries water and nutrients from the roots to the

stems and leaves.
18. Mosses are plants.
19. Plants with flowers and fruits are known as .
20. The three phyla of nonvascular plants are called .
21. Ferns are classified in the phylum .
22. Explain why mosses need a film of water for fertilization to occur, but rose
plants do not.
23. List four advantages of seeds and describe how each advantage has helped
seed plants become successful.
24. Some species of flowering plants produce fruit that smells sweet when ripe.
Explain how sweet-smelling fruit might benefit a particular plant species.
25. Describe how certain characteristics of flowers promote pollination.

Name Class Date
Assessment
Chapter Test A
Plant Structure and Function
______ 1. Depending on the type of plant or plant part, the dermal tissue is
a. xylem or phloem. c. cork or epidermis.
b. heartwood or sapwood. d. mesophyll or xylem.
______ 2. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of nonwoody stems?

a. They are covered by cork.
b. They are flexible.
c. The vascular tissue is arranged in bundles.
d. They are usually green.
______ 3. The primary function of root hairs is

a. support.
b. transport of food.
c. absorption of water and minerals.
d. water storage.
______ 4. Transpiration is the process by which

a. plants reproduce. c. seeds are produced.
b. food is transported. d. water is lost by a plant.
______ 5. Leaves can be referred to as being either

a. woody or nonwoody. c. vascular or nonvascular.
b. fibrous or adventitious. d. simple or compound.
______ 6. The spines of a cactus are examples of modified

a. leaves. c. roots.
b. stems. d. shoots.
______ 7. Which of the following is NOT a type of tissue in the roots of

vascular plants?
a. ground tissue c. dermal tissue
b. xylem d. cuticle
______ 8. The cork of a woody stem

a. conducts water. c. aids in transpiration.
b. prevents physical damage d. aids in photosynthesis.
and water loss.

Name Class Date
Plant Structure and Function, Chapter Test A continued
______ 9. In translocation, organic compounds move

a. through phloem. c. from leaves and roots.
b. through living cells. d. All of the above
Questions 1015 refer to the figure below, which shows the structure of a leaf.
Upper epidermis
Spongy mesophyll
Lower epidermis
______10. The structure labeled B is

a. epidermal tissue. c. a vascular bundle.
b. ground tissue. d. a strand of heartwood.
______11. Which of the following events is likely to occur in the structure

labeled B?
a. gas exchange
b. manufacture of starch
c. absorption of sunlight
d. transport of water, minerals, and sugars
______12. Most of the photosynthesis in a leaf occurs in

a. the upper epidermis. c. structure B.
b. structure A. d. the spongy mesophyll.
______13. Stomata are found in

a. structure A. c. the spongy mesophyll.
b. structure B. d. the lower epidermis.
______14. Xylem and phloem are located in

b. structure A. d. the lower epidermis.
______15. During translocation, organic compounds move through

b. structure A. d. the lower epidermis.

Name Class Date
Plant Structure and Function, Chapter Test A continued
provided.
16. Garden-pea tendrils are modified specialized for

climbing.
17. cell walls are thicker and irregular in shape, which

helps provide support for the plant.
18. A potato stem is modified for of nutrients.
19. Photosynthesis takes place in the cells, which
make up a leafs tissue.
20. The diffusion of water vapor through the of a leaf
is called .
21. In nonwoody dicot stems, cells of and
, called vascular bundles, are arranged in the
shape of a(n) .
22. The spongy layer of a leaf contains large
through which gases can travel.
23. Describe how stomata open and close.
24. Define the terms source and sink in relation to the translocation of organic
compounds in the phloem of plants. Give examples of each.
25. Summarize the pressure-flow model of translocation.

Name Class Date
Assessment
Chapter Test A
Plant Reproduction
______ 1. In the life cycle of a fern, fertilization occurs within the

a. antheridium. c. sorus.
b. archegonium. d. sporangium.
______ 2. Mosses and ferns are alike in that they can reproduce sexually only
when
a. a film of water covers the gametophyte.
b. a film of water covers the sporophyte.
c. the gametophytes germinate.
d. the sporophytes are small.
______ 3. The seed part that protects the embryo from mechanical injury and
keeps out water and oxygen is called the
a. sorus. c. seed coat.
b. cotyledon. d. ovule.
______ 4. In gymnosperms, gametophytes form on

a. flowers. c. stamens.
b. the scales of cones. d. the scales of sepals.
______ 5. In the life cycle of a pine tree,

a. both male and female cones are produced.
b. seeds with wings travel away from the parent tree.
c. microscopic gametophytes develop from spores.
d. All of the above
______ 6. A zygote and endosperm are produced in the process called

a. alternation of generations. c. double fertilization.
b. meiosis. d. vegetative propagation.
______ 7. Which of the following represent stems modified for vegetative

reproduction?
a. runners c. tubers
b. bulbs d. All of the above
______ 8. The female reproductive parts of a flower are called

a. petals. c. sepals.
b. stamens. d. pistils.

Name Class Date
Plant Reproduction, Chapter Test A continued
______ 9. Which of the following is NOT a method of vegetative plant propagation?

a. grafting c. cuttings
b. seeds d. tissue culture
Refer to the figure at right, Stigma

which shows the structure Style D
of a flower, to answer B C
questions 1013. A
Filament
______10. The structure labeled B produces

a. male gametophytes. c. female gametophytes.
b. seeds. d. antheridia.
______11. Which of the following occurs during pollination?

a. Pollen grains from B are transferred to C.
b. Eggs from C are transferred to B.
c. Eggs from B are transferred to D.
d. Pollen grains from A are transferred to D.
______12. The pollen-producing sac is labeled

a. A. c. C.
b. B. d. D.
______13. In angiosperms, ovules are produced in the structure labeled

a. A. c. C.
b. B. d. D.
provided.
14. In a flower, female develop in ovules within the
ovary, which is the lower portion of the .
15. In seed plants, sperm that develop within grains
travel through a(n) to
the egg, which develops within a multicellular structure called
a(n) .

Name Class Date
Plant Reproduction, Chapter Test A continued
16. A leaflike structure of a seed that transfers nutrients to the embryo is called
a(n) .
17. Most angiosperm flowers have four basic types of parts, which are the
, the , the
, and the .
18. In angiosperm reproduction, the zygote and the tissues of the ovule develop
into seed, which grows into a new .
19. The union of haploid gametes resulting in a diploid zygote is called
20. Plant propagation is the process of growing new plants from seeds or
21. Beginning with the sporophyte stage, describe the life cycle of a fern.
22. Describe how sperm reach eggs in the life cycle of a conifer.
23. In angiosperms, what happens after a pollen tube is formed?
24. List five examples of structures by which plants reproduce asexually.
25. Describe how the stolons of strawberry plants are involved in vegetative
reproduction.

Name Class Date
Assessment
Chapter Test A
Plant Responses
______ 1. Cells on the dark side of a stem elongate more than the cells on the
light side because the hormone
a. ethylene inhibits the cells on the light side.
b. ethylene stimulates cell growth on the dark side.
c. auxin accumulates on the dark side and causes the cell walls
to become more flexible.
d. auxin accumulates on the light side and causes the cell walls
to become less flexible.
______ 2. When vines grow, their tendrils coil around objects for support.
This action is called a
a. phototropism. c. thigmotropism.
b. gravitropism. d. photoperiodism.
______ 3. When commercial growers artificially control the lengths of days and
nights, they are relying on a response called a
a. photoperiodism. c. thigmotropism.
b. phototropism. d. gravitropism.
______ 4. The bending of plants toward light is caused by a chemical called

a. auxin. c. abscisic acid.
b. Agent Orange. d. ethylene.
______ 5. A tropism is a growth response

a. toward light. c. toward or away from a stimulus.
b. to touch. d. toward gravity.
______ 6. A plant hormone that is used to make plants grow larger is

a. ethylene. c. abscisic acid.
b. gibberellin. d. cytokinin.
______ 7. A thigmotropism is a response to

a. gravity. c. temperature.
b. light. d. touch.
______ 8. The orange and red colors of leaves in the fall is caused by the
a. pigment chlorophyll.
b. pigment gibberellin.
c. formation of carotenoids pigments.
d. degradation of chlorophyll causing the carotenoid pigments
to become visible.

Name Class Date
Plant Responses, Chapter Test A continued
Refer to the figure below, which shows a seedling, to answer questions 9 and 10.
A
C
______ 9. Which part of the plant exhibits a positive phototropism?

a. A c. C
b. B d. D
______10. Which part of the plant exhibits a positive gravitropism?

a. A c. C
b. B d. D
term or phrase.
______11. apical dominance a. condition in which a plant or seed remains

inactive
______12. dormancy
b. plant growth in response to a chemical
______13. hormone c. growth-promoting chemical that causes
stems to bend
______14. Agent Orange
d. plant response to length of days and nights
______15. photoperiodism e. flowers move to follow the sun
______16. auxin f. chemical produced within an organism and
transported to another part to cause a
______ 17. solar tracking response
______18. chemotropism g. inhibition of buds along a plant stem
h. chemical used to defoliate
Name Class Date
Plant Responses, Chapter Test A continued
19. Auxins sprayed on fruit trees can cause the fruit to drop off the trees or prevent
the fruit from dropping. How can the same hormone have opposite effects?
20. What causes roots that are placed in a horizontal position to grow in a particular
direction?
21. What is heliotropism?
22. How can plants be categorized based on their response to the length of days
and nights?
23. What are the major actions of cytokinins?
24. What are nastic movements in plants? Give two examples.
25. What causes the leaves of deciduous plants to turn red, orange, and yellow in
the fall?

Name Class Date
Assessment
Chapter Test A
Introduction to Animals
______ 1. A unique characteristic of animals that distinguishes them from

the members of the other kingdoms is that in general animals
a. are capable of more complex and rapid movements than are
members of the other kingdoms.
b. have cells with rigid cell walls.
c. have organs but no tissues.
d. include both aquatic and terrestrial species.
______ 2. In an open circulatory system, the route of the blood is

a. heart, blood vessels, tissues, heart.
b. heart, open spaces, body cavity, tissues, heart.
c. heart, blood vessels, heart.
d. heart, blood vessels, body cavity, tissues, vessels, heart.
______ 3. A true coelom

a. becomes the cavity within the digestive tract.
b. develops between the mesoderm and the endoderm.
c. is located between the ectoderm and the mesoderm.
d. develops completely within the mesoderm.
______ 4. The cells of all animals are organized into structural and functional
units called tissues EXCEPT for the cells of
a. sponges. c. flatworms.
b. cnidarians. d. roundworms.
______ 5. Scientists studying the evolutionary relationships of living animals

might compare the animals
a. DNA and embryonic development.
b. anatomy, and they might study fossils of the species.
c. physiology.
d. All of the above
______ 6. Asexual reproduction

a. involves the mass release of gametes.
b. does not require an egg and sperm.
c. requires internal fertilization.
d. is used by fish and amphibians.

Name Class Date
Introduction to Animals, Chapter Test A bcontinued
______ 7. All animals except sponges and single-celled organisms digest their
food
a. in the coelom. c. extracellularly.
b. in a one-way gut. d. intracellularly.
______ 8. In acoelomates, the gut is formed by

a. cells from the mesoderm.
b. fluid.
c. cells from the endoderm.
d. skin from the ectoderm.
______ 9. An animal in which the space between the body wall and gut is
completely filled with tissues and organs is called a(n)
a. acoelomate. c. coelomate.
b. pseudocoelomate. d. vertebrate.
______10. Specialized areas for food storage and chemical digestion are found
in a(n)
a. excretory system. c. central chamber of cnidarian.
b. one-way digestive system. d. coelom.
Organism A Organism B
______11. The position of the arrow next to organism A can be referred to as

a. posterior. c. dorsal.
b. anterior. d. ventral.
______12. Organism B is
a. radially symmetrical. c. unilaterally symmetrical.
b. bilaterally symmetrical. d. asymmetrical.

Name Class Date
Introduction to Animals, Chapter Test A continued
term or phrase.
______13. heterotrophs a. body parts arranged around

a central axis
______14. one-way digestive tract
b. having two copies of
______15. radial symmetry each chromosome
c. fluid containing oxygen is
______16. cephalization
pumped into the body cavity
______ 17. tissue d. having similar halves on either
side of a central plane
______18. open circulatory system
e. cannot make their own food
______19. closed circulatory system f. having a definite head end
______20. bilateral symmetry g. having a mouth and an anus

h. group of cells working together
______21. diploid to perform a function
i. blood pumped through a system
of vessels in a loop
22. Muscles, most of the skeleton, the circulatory system, and the inner layer of
skin arise from the .
23. A sea anemones body plan is an example of
because its body parts are arranged around a
central axis.
24. An animal that is a(n) has both ovaries and testes.
25. The ectoderm, endoderm, and mesoderm undergo
to give rise to all the tissues and organs of an adult body.

Name Class Date
Assessment
Chapter Test A
Sponges, Cnidarians, and Ctenophores
each statement.
______ 1. Choanocytes draw water through the sponges many pores and into
the internal cavity of the sponge by beating their
a. osculum. c. flagella.
b. cilia. d. tentacles.
______ 2. Sessile animals are defined as

a. living in marine environments.
b. being made of cells.
c. remaining attached to a fixed surface during their lives.
d. having a large internal cavity.
______ 3. Hydras attach themselves to rocks or water plants by means of

a sticky secretion produced by the
a. spicules. c. tentacles.
b. colloblast. d. base.
______ 4. Sponges exhibit

a. radial symmetry. c. bilateral symmetry.
b. no symmetry. d. a predatory lifestyle.
______ 5. Water leaves the internal cavity of a sponge through the

a. food vacuoles. c. oscula.
b. spicules. d. mesohyl.
______ 6. Skeletal support in sponges may be provided by

a. spicules of calcium carbonate.
b. spicules of silica.
c. spongin fibers.
d. All of the above
______ 7. Anthozoans include organisms known as

a. sea anemones and corals.
b. hydras.
c. the Portuguese man-of-war.
d. jellyfish.

Name Class Date
Sponges, Cnidarians, and Ctenophores, Chapter Test A continued
term or phrase.
______ 8. spongin a. formed during asexual reproduction in

hydrozoans
______ 9. spicules
b. tough, flexible protein fibers that make up the
______10. Hydrozoa skeleton of most sponges
c. releases forcefully when triggered
______11. Scyphozoa
d. could describe the lifestyle of sponges
______12. Anthozoa or cnidarians
e. has an alternating life cycle of medusa and polyp
______13. bud
stages in which the polyp is dominant
______14. Obelia f. class that includes Portuguese man-of-war
______15. sponges g. tiny needles of silica or calcium carbonate that
make up the skeletons of some sponges
______16. nematocyst h. fertilize their eggs in the mesohyl
______ 17. sessile i. the largest class of cnidarians, which includes
sea anemones and corals
j. class of cnidarians that includes jellyfish
18. Facing into the internal cavity of a sponge are flagellated collar cells called
19. Freshwater sponges protect themselves during harsh weather by forming
a(n) , a structure that encloses amoebocytes in a
protective covering until conditions are more favorable.
20. An organism that produces both eggs and sperm is called a(n)
21. A is mobile and has tentacles that generally point

downward.
22. A is usually sessile and has tentacles that point

upward.

Name Class Date
Sponges, Cnidarians, and Ctenophores, Chapter Test A continued
23. The of a ctenophore

enables the animal to detect orientation.
24. The of a cnidarian

enables the animal to respond to touch.
25. A has rows of comblike cilia.

Name Class Date
Assessment
Chapter Test A
Flatworms, Roundworms, and Rotifers
______ 1. Flatworms have no need for circulatory and respiratory systems

because
a. their cells are close to the animals exterior surface.
b. the digestive system performs these functions.
c. the spherical body shape allows diffusion of materials into tissues.
d. the coelom is bathed in blood and oxygen.
______ 2. Which of the following statements about tapeworms is NOT true?

a. They can infect a person who eats improperly cooked beef.
b. They belong to the genus Schistosoma.
c. They can grow large in human intestines.
d. They do not have a digestive system.
______ 3. Which of the following has a snail as an intermediate host and

humans as a final host?
a. blood flukes c. Planaria
b. Ascaris d. Obelia
______ 4. The eggs of Ascaris

a. are carried by human waste.
b. can survive for years in the soil.
c. develop into larvae in the intestine.
d. All of the above
______ 5. A type of roundworm that lives a parasitic life is

a. Ascaris. c. Trichinella.
b. Enterobius. d. All of the above
______ 6. The simplest animal that has a one-way digestive system is the
a. fluke. c. roundworm.
b. flatworm. d. trematode.
______ 7. Which of the following holds excess water, eggs, and

digestive wastes?
a. mastax c. anus
b. cloaca d. proglottid

Name Class Date
Flatworms, Roundworms, and Rotifers, Chapter Test A continued
term or phrase.
______ 8. flukes a. in planarians, specialized cells with beating

tufts of cilia that draw water through pores
______ 9. proglottids to the outside of the worms body
______10. pseudocoelom b. protective covering of fused cells
c. the rectangular body sections of the
______11. flame cells
tapeworm
______12. tegument d. type of body cavity found in roundworms
e. protective noncellular covering
______13. hookworm
f. parasitic roundworm with cutting plates
______14. rotifer for attaching to hosts intestine
______15. cuticle g. has flame cells for excretion
h. parasitic flatworms of the class Trematoda
16. The is a thick, protective covering of the bodies of

endoparasitic flukes and prevents them from being digested by their hosts.
17. Tapeworms grow by producing a string of rectangular body segments called
. Each segment is a complete reproductive unit.
18. Schistosoma, sometimes called a blood fluke, must live in a(n)
before it can infect humans.
19. The of a planarian is a light-sensitive structure and

helps the planarian seek out favorable environments.
20. A tapeworms contains hooks and suckers that

enable the worm to attach to its host.
21. Roundworms are characterized by a pseudocoelom. Explain how a pseudo-
coelom functions.

Name Class Date
Flatworms, Roundworms, and Rotifers, Chapter Test A continued
22. What are three things that people can do to protect themselves from
parasites.
23. How do planarians reproduce?
24. How do tapeworms obtain nutrients without a mouth or a digestive system?
25. How do rotifers obtain nutrients?

Name Class Date
Assessment
Chapter Test A
Mollusks and Annelids
______ 1. All of the following are ______ 4. Polychaetes have parapodia,

characteristics of mollusks which
EXCEPT a. are fleshy, paddlelike
a. a pseudocoelomate body structures.
plan. b. are used in gas exchange.
b. bilateral symmetry. c. usually have setae and
c. a complete digestive are used in movement.
tract. d. All of the above
d. an open circulatory
system. ______ 5. Earthworms must stay
moist because they
______ 2. In annelids, a significant a. absorb nutrients through
evolutionary change in skin.
body plan is b. lose moisture through
a. the ability to burrow. skin.
b. the existence of a coelom. c. respire through skin.
c. segmentation. d. None of the above
d. bilateral symmetry.
______ 6. Bivalves open and close
______ 3. To digest the nutrients in their valves by
soil, earthworms must a. relaxing and contracting
a. have nephridia to filter the adductor muscles.
out nutrients. b. drawing sea water in
b. grind the soil in their through a siphon.
gizzard. c. expelling water from
c. coordinate muscular their shell.
activity in each body d. means of sensory cells
segment. along the edge of their
d. alternately contract valves.
circular and longitudinal
muscles.

Name Class Date
Mollusks and Annelids, Chapter Test A continued
______ 7. Which characteristic ______ 9. In an annelid, sensory

distinguishes mollusks and information is delivered
annelids from all simpler from the segments to the
invertebrates? brain by the
a. one-way digestion a. setae.
b. organs b. nerve cord.
c. bilateral symmetry c. nephridia.
d. a coelom d. mesoderm.
______ 8. Which of the following ______10. Which of the following

pairings is correct? animals has setae but
a. clamsclosed circulatory lacks parapodia?
system a. earthworm
b. slugsclosed circulatory b. polychaete
system c. leech
c. snailsopen circulatory d. octopus
system
d. squidsopen circulatory ______11. A segment of an earthworm
system increases in diameter
because the
a. skin absorbs water.
b. adductor muscles relax.
c. circular muscles contract.
d. longitudinal muscles
contract.
term or phrase.
______12. visceral mass a. a snail or slug

b. the part of an earthworms digestive tract
______13. circular muscle
where soil particles are crushed
______14. foot c. the central section of a mollusk that contains
the organs
______15. crop
d. a cephalopod that builds a chambered shell
______16. gastropod e. a storage chamber in an annelids digestive
tract
______ 17. mantle cavity
f. the structure that encloses the gills of many
______18. valve mollusks
______19. nautilus g. a structure that enables movement in an
earthworm
______20. gizzard h. one of the shells of a mollusk such as a mussel
i. a muscular structure in mollusks used mainly
for locomotion
Name Class Date
Mollusks and Annelids, Chapter Test A continued
21. All mollusks except bivalves have a tonguelike organ called a(n)
22. Leeches differ from other annelids because leeches lack both
and .
23. The larva is a distinguishing characteristic of

mollusks and annelids.
24. Aquatic snails respire by means of in the mantle

cavity.
25. Water is drawn into the body of bivalves through tubes called

Name Class Date
Assessment
Chapter Test A
Arthropods
term or phrase.
______ 1. nauplius a. part of a decapods tail

b. a type of crustacean that includes pill bugs
______ 2. cephalothorax
and sow bugs
______ 3. millipede c. aquatic crustacean that is part of the plankton
______ 4. carapace d. the larval form of crustaceans

e. a characteristic shared by arthropods and
______ 5. telson annelids
______ 6. isopod f. legs modified into large pincers
g. a living member of the subphylum Crustacea
______ 7. segmentation
h. a member of the subphylum Myriapoda that
______ 8. mite has two pairs of legs on most segments
i. terrestrial crustacean
______ 9. shrimp
j. the shield that covers a decapods
______10. centipede cephalothorax
______11. green gland k. a member of the subphylum Myriapoda that
has one pair of legs per segment
______12. chelipeds l. excretory structure
______13. pill bug m. a body section in some arthropods formed by
the fusion of the head with the thorax
______14. copepod
n. an arthropod in which the head, thorax, and
______15. book lung abdomen are fused
o. respiratory structure
______16. The appendages that scorpions and spiders use to capture and handle
their prey are called
a. chelipeds. c. pedipalps.
b. walking legs. d. uropods.
______ 17. Malpighian tubules

a. remove wastes. c. function in digestion.
b. carry blood. d. are important in respiration.

Name Class Date
Arthropods, Chapter Test A continued
______18. The structures on a spiders abdomen that secrete silk are called
a. spiracles. c. chelicerates.
b. pedipalps. d. spinnerets.
______19. Which of the following is a characteristic of the brown recluse spider?

a. book lungs
b. poison glands connected to fanged chelicerae
c. a violin-shaped mark on its cephalothorax
d. All of the above
______20. Arthropods periodically shed and discard their exoskeletons as they

grow in a process called
a. molting.
b. cephalization.
c. reproduction.
d. segmentation.
______21. Members of the arthropod subphylum Chelicerata include

a. crabs and lobsters. c. insects.
b. spiders and scorpions. d. millipedes and centipedes.
______22. What are the three main body segments of arthropods?

a. cephalothorax, abdomen, and appendages
b. head, cephalothorax, and appendages
c. thorax, appendages, and spiracles
d. head, thorax, and abdomen
23. Mites, including chiggers and ticks, have bodies in which the
, , and
are fused into a single body.
24. The only arthropods with two pairs of antennae are
25. Arachnids have pairs of legs.

Name Class Date
Assessment
Chapter Test A
Insects
term or phrase.
______ 1. insect antennae a. a characteristic shared by insects and

spiders
______ 2. innate
b. a harmless viceroy that looks like a
______ 3. insect wings foul-tasting monarch butterfly
c. causes African sleeping sickness
______ 4. mandible
d. chewing mouthpart
______ 5. trachea e. communicates a willingness to mate
______ 6. tsetse fly f. communicates distance to a food source
g. consist of only one pair
______ 7. termite
h. describes certain altruistic behaviors in
______ 8. Batesian mimicry honeybees
i. forest nutrient recycler
______ 9. pheromone
j. may be leathery or membranous
______10. waggle dance
______11. The tagma that bears the first pair of walking legs is the
a. abdomen. c. head.
b. thorax. d. metathorax.
______12. A honeybee giving up its opportunity to reproduce by helping to raise

the offspring of a relative is an example of
a. altruistic behavior.
b. territorial behavior.
c. scouting behavior.
d. Batesian mimicry.
______13. The ovipositors of a grasshopper

a. are used to deposit ovaries.
b. incubate eggs.
c. contain developing ovaries.
d. are used to dig holes.

Name Class Date
Insects, Chapter Test A continued
______14. In complete metamorphosis, the larva develops into an adult during the
a. nymph stage.
b. pupa stage.
c. growth stage.
d. molt stage.
______15. Insect wings are an outgrowth of

a. a network of chitin.
b. the body wall of the thorax.
c. the body wall of the abdomen.
d. the cephalothorax.
______16. The correct sequence of stages during complete metamorphosis is

a. egg, chrysalis, larva, and adult.
b. egg, larva, nymph, and adult.
c. egg, nymph, larva, and adult.
d. egg, larva, pupa, and adult.
17. An insect has three tagmata: the ,
, and .
18. Circulatory fluid, called , circulates throughout
an insects circulatory system.
19. The shreds food as it passes through a
grasshoppers digestive tract into the .
20. In a grasshopper, the antennae contain sensory structures that respond
to and .

Name Class Date
Insects, Chapter Test A continued
Refer to the figure below, which shows the internal structure of a grasshopper, to
answer questions 21-23.
21. What is the function of the structure labeled a?
22. What is the function of the structure labeled b?
23. What is the function of the structure labeled c?
24. What is the importance of complete metamorphosis in insects?
25. List three ways in which the mouthparts of insects are adapted to different
functions.

Name Class Date
Assessment
Chapter Test A
Echinoderms and Invertebrate Chordates
term or phrase.
______ 1. skin gill a. a plate in the endoskeleton of

echinoderms
______ 2. pedicellaria
b. extends through the mouth during
______ 3. bipinnaria feeding
c. connects to digestive glands in each
______ 4. ossicle
arm
______ 5. water-vascular system d. pincerlike structure
e. sea star larva
______ 6. pyloric stomach
f. aids respiration and waste removal
______ 7. cardiac stomach
g. found in lancelets
______ 8. atriopore h. a network of interconnected canals
in an echinoderm
______ 9. Echinoderms share all of the following characteristics EXCEPT

a. an endoskeleton composed of ossicles.
b. a radially symmetrical body plan in adulthood.
c. a water-vascular system.
d. a notochord.
______10. Although the tube feet of echinoderms serve to move them across the
seafloor, tube feet also
a. aid in gas exchange and waste excretion.
b. serve as reproductive organs.
c. serve as the primary circulatory system.
d. All of the above
______11. Chordates are characterized by all of the following EXCEPT

a. radial symmetry.
b. pharyngeal pouches.
c. a tail that extends beyond the anus.
d. a dorsal, hollow nerve cord.

Name Class Date
Echinoderms and Invertebrate Chordates, Chapter Test A continued
______12. Pedicellaria
a. prevent small organisms from attaching to a sea star.
b. are pincerlike structures.
c. are found in sea urchins.
d. All of the above
______13. Chordate characteristics can be observed in

a. annelids and echinoderms.
b. arthropods and annelids.
c. echinoderms and vertebrates.
d. lancelets and tunicates.
______14. Chordates tend to grow larger and move more quickly than other
animals because they
a. reproduce more often.
b. have an endoskeleton with muscles attached to it.
c. have a tail that provides added balance.
d. All of the above
______15. Invertebrate chordates are so named because they have

a. a notochord but no backbone.
b. no notochord and no backbone.
c. a notochord and a backbone.
d. no notochord but do have a backbone.
______16. An adult tunicate develops a tough sac around its body called a(n)
a. tunic.
b. scale.
c. endoskeleton.
d. ossicle.
______ 17. Each tube foot of a sea star is connected to a(n)

a. skin gill.
b. ossicle.
c. ampulla.
d. pedicellaria.
______18. Which of the following characteristics is retained by an adult tunicate?

a. nerve cord
b. notochord
c. pharyngeal slits
d. postanal tail

Name Class Date
Echinoderms and Invertebrate Chordates, Chapter Test A continued
______19. The structure labeled X is a

a. pharyngeal slit. c. pharynx.
b. dorsal nerve cord. d. tail.
______20. The organism in the figure above is a(n)

a. invertebrate chordate. c. hermaphrodite as an adult.
b. freshwater organism. d. vertebrate chordate.
provided.
21. Many echinoderms crawl across the seafloor by means of a(n)
- system.
22. Because echinoderms and chordates develop similarly as embryos, it is likely
that they are derived from a(n)
23. Echinoderms have no head or brain, but they do have a central
with branches that
extend into each of the arms.
24. Unlike other echinoderms,
have ossicles that are small and not fused together.
25. Of all the chordate characteristics, only
are retained by adult tunicates.

Name Class Date
Assessment
Chapter Test A
Fishes
term or phrase.
______ 1. shark a. method of reproduction in

lampreys
______ 2. hagfish
b. method of reproduction in
______ 3. coelacanth sharks
c. class Myxini
______ 4. bass
d. fleshy fins
______ 5. internal fertilization e. class Chondrichthyes
______ 6. external fertilization f. rayed fins
______ 7. Early vertebrates

a. were jawless and had paired fins.
b. had jaws and unpaired fins.
c. were jawless and lacked paired fins.
d. had jaws and paired fins.
______ 8. Jaws and paired fins

a. appeared about one million years ago.
b. increase maneuverability and the ability to capture prey.
c. first appeared in sharks and bony fish.
d. All of the above
______ 9. Gills and a vertebral column are found in

a. bony fishes. c. jawless fishes.
b. cartilaginous fishes. d. All of the above
______10. The living jawless fishes are

a. lampreys and sharks. c. hagfishes and coelacanths.
b. sharks and rays. d. lampreys and hagfishes.
______11. Cartilaginous fishes have all of the following EXCEPT

a. kidneys. c. a swim bladder.
b. internal fertilization. d. gill slits.

Name Class Date
Fishes, Chapter Test A continued
______12. Freshwater fishes tend to take in water through osmosis and

therefore excrete which of the following?
a. small amounts of concentrated urine
b. large amounts of concentrated urine
c. small amounts of dilute urine
d. large amounts of dilute urine
______13. A fish absorbs oxygen through its

a. gill slits. c. gill filaments.
b. swim bladder. d. mouth.
______14. A yellow perch propels itself forward with its

a. caudal fin. c. pectoral fins.
b. pelvic fins. d. dorsal fins.
______15. Bony fishes regulate their buoyancy with their

a. pectoral fins. c. gills.
b. swim bladder. d. lateral line.
______16. The lateral line system enables a fish to

a. detect vibrations in the water.
b. see objects at a distance.
c. smell.
d. swim rapidly.
______ 17. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of ray-finned fish?

a. highly mobile fins
b. very thin scales
c. an operculum
d. skeleton made of cartilage
______18. Marine fishes maintain salt and water balance by

a. excreting large amounts of dilute urine.
b. pumping excess ions into their body.
c. drinking sea water.
d. All of the above
______19. In a fish heart, the thick-walled chamber that contracts strongly is the
a. sinus venosus.
b. atrium.
c. ventricle.
d. conus arteriosus.
______20. All modern fishes have a vertebral column that

a. surrounds the spinal cord.
b. is made of cartilage.
c. is made of bone.
d. is part of an external skeleton.
Name Class Date
Fishes, Chapter Test A continued
provided.
21. By moving the , bony fishes can move water over

their gills while remaining stationary.
22. The only jawless fishes that survive today are
and .
23. The of a yellow perch grow throughout its life and
can be used to estimate the of the fish.
24. In a perch, visual, auditory, and lateral-line information are processed by the
25. In fish, allows for

efficient respiration.

Name Class Date
Assessment
Chapter Test A
Amphibians
term or phrase.
______ 1. pulmonary vein a. chamber through which urine, gametes,

and undigested material pass
______ 2. cloaca
b. eardrum of a leopard frog
______ 3. tympanic membrane c. structure made of fused vertebrae in
a leopard frog
______ 4. urostyle
d. transfers body weight to the limbs
______ 5. pelvic girdle e. structure that carries blood from the
lungs to the heart
______ 6. Preadaptations in the transition from aquatic to terrestrial life included

which of the following?
a. well-developed lungs
b. internal nostrils for breathing air
c. a pelvic girdle that supported legs
d. All of the above
______ 7. Amphibians and lobe-finned fish have similar

a. patterns of metamorphosis.
b. nervous systems.
c. skeletal features.
d. diets.
______ 8. Living amphibians

a. exhibit metamorphosis.
b. have moist, scaleless skin.
c. lay their eggs in moist places.
d. All of the above
______ 9. Male frogs attract females by

a. grasping them firmly during amplexus.
b. pheromones.
c. displaying bright skin colors.
d. vocalizing.

Name Class Date
Amphibians, Chapter Test A continued
______10. Reproduction in frogs involves

a. internal fertilization and eggs coated with a jellylike material.
b. external fertilization and shelled eggs.
c. external fertilization and eggs that are coated with a jellylike material.
d. internal fertilization and shelled eggs.
______11. Which of the following represents the sequence of metamorphosis in a

leopard frog?
a. fertilized egg, tadpole, hind legs appear, front legs appear, tail and
gills disappear, young frog
b. fertilized egg, tadpole, front legs appear, hind legs appear, tail
disappears, young frog
c. fertilized egg, hind legs appear, front legs appear, tadpole, young
frog
d. fertilized egg, tadpole, hind legs appear, tail and gills disappear,
front legs appear, young frog
______12. The hormone that controls metamorphosis in amphibians is

a. urostyle hormone. c. axolotl.
b. thyroxine. d. amphioxus.
______13. Members of the order Anura

a. retain gills as adults.
b. have neither jaws nor legs.
c. undergo metamorphosis.
d. have small, bony scales embedded in their skin.
______14. Most salamanders have

a. gills as adults. c. unpaired fins.
b. rough, dry skin. d. an elongated body.
______15. Members of the order Gymnophiona do NOT

a. use cutaneous respiration. c. have legs.
b. lay eggs. d. bear live young.
16. Besides breathing with their lungs, amphibians also engage in
respiration.
17. Urine, undigested food, and gametes all exit the body of a leopard frog
through the opening, called a

Name Class Date
Amphibians, Chapter Test A continued
18. The changes that transform a tadpole into an adult frog are called
19. In an amphibian, the pumps blood out of the heart.
20. In amphibians, one circulatory loop carries blood from the heart to the
, while a second loop carries blood to the rest

of the body.
21. Salamanders are members of the order .
22. How is a caecilian adapted to its lifestyle?
23. What enables a leopard frog to keep its skin moist? Why is moist skin
important for this animal?
24. Trace the circulation of blood through the amphibian heart.
25. Describe one example of parental care in amphibians.

Name Class Date
Assessment
Chapter Test A
Reptiles
term or phrase.
______ 1. pit organs a. retaining fertilized eggs within the females

body until the eggs hatch
______ 2. Jacobsons
b. structures on a rattlesnake that can detect the
organs
odor of chemicals
______ 3. ovoviviparity c. structures on a rattlesnake that can detect heat
______ 4. oviparity d. producing offspring that hatch from eggs

outside the females body
______ 5. Which of the following is NOT a method that reptiles use to regulate
their body temperature?
a. basking in the sunshine to warm themselves
b. resting in the shade to cool themselves
c. generating large amounts of heat through metabolism
d. absorbing heat from their surroundings
______ 6. Crocodilians are distinguished from other reptiles by having

a. air sacs. c. a partially divided ventricle.
b. a fully divided ventricle. d. shelled eggs.
______ 7. Unlike other reptiles, crocodilians

a. care for their young after the young hatch.
b. use internal fertilization.
c. are oviparous.
d. are ectothermic.
______ 8. One adaptation that helps reptiles succeed on land is

a. gills. c. external fertilization.
b. watertight skin. d. endothermic metabolism.
______ 9. The geographical range of reptiles is limited mainly because reptiles

a. cannot move easily on land.
b. cannot swim or survive in water.
c. live in a very limited variety of habitats.
d. generally cannot function in cold environments.

Name Class Date
Reptiles, Chapter Test A continued
______10. For a reptile that lives on land, internal fertilization is an important

adaptation because it
a. protects the gametes from predators.
b. protects the gametes from drying out.
c. ensures that both parents are of the same species.
d. ensures that both parents will care for the offspring.
______11. In the heart of most reptiles, oxygen-rich and oxygen-poor blood

a. mix completely in the atria.
b. mix completely in the ventricle.
c. mix somewhat in the ventricle.
d. remain completely separate in the ventricle.
______12. Which of the following is NOT true of a turtles shell?

a. Vertebrae are fused to the inside of the carapace.
b. The shell provides support for muscle attachment.
c. The carapace is always dome shaped.
d. The shell is made of fused plates of bone.
______13. Dinosaurs out-competed thecodonts because they

a. were herbivorous.
b. had legs positioned for faster running.
c. were able to survive the asteroid that fell on the Yucatan.
______14. Crocodiles can feed underwater because they

a. have a valve at the back of the throat.
b. have a Jacobsens organ.
c. exhibit autotomy.
d. are ectoterms.
______15. Tuataras are

a. members of the order Chelonia.
b. herbivorous lizards.
c. active at lower temperatures.
d. abundant in New Zealand.
16. Reptiles are , which are animals that warm their

bodies by absorbing heat from their environment.
17. Numerous greatly increase the respiratory surface

area of a reptiles lungs.
18. The lower (ventral) portion of a tortoises shell is called the
.
Name Class Date
Reptiles, Chapter Test A continued
19. Reptiles, birds, and mammals reproduce by means of
eggs, which is evidence that they share a common .
20. The , is often called
the Age of Reptiles.
21. The
suggests that the mass extinction of dinosaurs
was due to severe climatic changes resulting from a celestial phenomenon.
22. Lizards can elude predators by detaching their tail, an ability that is called
23. Explain how the unique jaw structure of snakes help snakes feed.
24. List the four orders of present-day reptiles, and give an example of each.
25. Describe the structure and function of a turtles shell.

Name Class Date
Assessment
Chapter Test A
Birds
term or phrase.
______ 1. preen gland a. able to walk, swim, and feed at hatching

b. chamber of a birds stomach where food is
______ 2. barbule
crushed
______ 3. wishbone c. structure that secretes oil to be spread over
a birds feathers
______ 4. gizzard
d. geese and ducks
______ 5. altricial e. hummingbirds and swifts
______ 6. precocial f. fused collarbones of a bird
g. one of the projections on the branches of a
______ 7. Apodiformes
contour feather
______ 8. Anseriformes h. blind, naked, and helpless at hatching
______ 9. A birds skeleton is

a. composed of thin, hollow bones.
b. more rigid than a reptiles skeleton.
c. composed of many fused bones.
d. All of the above
______10. A birds crop

a. temporarily stores food.
b. is the first chamber of its stomach.
c. is critical for flight.
d. excretes uric acid.
______11. In flying birds, large flight muscles are directly attached to

a. leg muscles. c. the keeled breastbone.
b. feathers. d. air sacs.
______12. What characteristics are required for a beak that is used to tear apart
prey or vegetation?
a. long, spear-shaped
b. hooked, curved, and pointed
c. chisel-shaped
d. thin, slightly curved

Name Class Date
Birds, Chapter Test A continued
______13. What is the function of a birds air sacs?

a. to allow one-way air flow through the lungs
b. to help provide lift during flight
c. to increase the buoyancy of diving birds
d. to provide additional area for gas exchange
______14. A short, thick, strong beak is usually found on birds that

a. sip nectar.
b. spear fish.
c. crack seeds.
d. probe for insects.
______15. The second chamber in the stomach of a bald eagle is known as the
a. crop.
b. gizzard.
c. esophagus.
d. cloaca.
______16. Which of the following characteristics are shared by birds and

dinosaurs?
a. dense, fused bones
b. feathers
c. flexible S-shaped neck
d. fused collarbone
______ 17. To produce song, birds regulate air flow through which of the
following structures?
a. posterior air sacs
b. syrinx
c. lungs
d. anterior air sacs
18. Like reptiles, birds lay eggs and have
on their legs and feet.
19. The body of an adult bird is covered by
, which give the birds their shape.
20. In birds, the have been modified into wings.
21. A long, flattened, rounded bill, as found in , is

adapted for sieving.
22. Feathers are modified reptilian .

Name Class Date
Birds, Chapter Test A continued
23. Name two types of feathers, and describe their functions.
24. Which is more efficienta bird lung or a reptile lung? Explain.
25. Briefly summarize the two main hypotheses for the evolution of flight.

Name Class Date
Assessment
Chapter Test A
Mammals
______ 1. All ungulates are able to ______ 5. Monotremes and marsupials

digest cellulose with the are limited to the Australian
help of region because of
a. rumens. a. limited food supply.
b. microorganisms. b. heavy predation in other
c. premolars. parts of the world.
d. flat molars. c. loss of habitat.
d. isolation caused by
______ 2. Dugongs and manatees are continental drift.
a. toothless mammals.
b. hoofed mammals. ______ 6. Which part of the brain is
c. sirenians. responsible for higher
d. marine hunters. mental functioning?
a. cerebellum
______ 3. In the development of cats, b. thalamus
gorillas, and whales, nour- c. cerebrum
ishment and oxygen are d. medulla oblongata
provided by the mother to
the fetus through the ______ 7. Premolars and molars are
a. placenta. specialized for
b. excretory system. a. biting and cutting.
c. pouch. b. stabbing and holding.
d. Both (a) and (c) c. crushing and grinding.
d. nipping and grasping.
______ 4. Mammals achieve a high
metabolic rate in order to ______ 8. Which group reproduces
maintain internal body by laying eggs?
temperatures higher than a. all mammals
ectotherms by b. monotremes
a. staying active. c. marsupials
b. finding sources of d. placental mammals
warmth.
c. eating more food. ______ 9. The only mammals capable
d. hibernating. of flight belong to
a. Order Insectivora.
b. Order Chiroptera.
c. Order Perissodactyla.
d. Order Cetacea.

Name Class Date
Mammals, Chapter Test A continued
______10. Mammals that chew cud ______11. Because DNA sequences in

belong to humans and chimpanzees
a. Order Artiodactyla. are very similar,
b. Order Perissodactyla. a. humans must have
c. Order Proboscidea. evolved from chim-
d. Order Lagomorpha. panzees.
b. chimpanzees must have
single-stranded DNA.
c. humans and chimpanzees
must have a common
ancestor.
d. humans and chimpanzees
are the same species.
term or phrase.
______12. endotherm a. grape-shaped chambers within the lungs

of mammals, which aid in respiration
______13. echolocation
b. lemurs, tarsiers, and lorises
______14. mammals c. a member of the group that includes humans,
apes, monkeys, and prosimians
______15. alveoli
d. the only animal group with hair
______16. Homo habilis e. the oldest hominids found with stone tools
______ 17. prosimians f. sensory tool used by both bats and
whales to navigate using high-frequency
______18. primate sound waves
g. an animal that generates heat internally
provided.
19. The direct ancestor of modern humans was probably
20. Analysis of DNA indicates that Homo sapiens evolved in
21. All vertebrates have a(n)
heart.

Name Class Date
Mammals, Chapter Test A continued
22. Mammals likely evolved from , terrestrial
vertebrates that were probably .
23. A has a single opening in the skull.
24. The extinction of allowed for the adaptive

radiation of mammals into new habitats.
25. An ungulate with an even number of toes is a(n) ,
while a(n) has an odd number of toes.

Name Class Date
Assessment
Chapter Test A
Animal Behavior
______ 1. Traits that increase an individuals ability to attract a mate appear with
increased frequency as a result of
a. a fixed action pattern behavior.
b. behavioral selection.
c. sexual selection.
d. communication.
______ 2. The ability to perform a behavior is often innate, but the final shape of
the inherited behavior is often the result of
a. learning. c. operant conditioning.
b. habituation. d. imprinting.
______ 3. A scientist asks questions about a behavior to understand the

a. role of genetics in the behavior.
b. evolution of the behavior.
c. affect it has on survival.
d. All of the above
______ 4. Extreme traitssuch as antlers, horns, and lion manesthat are

found in male animals but not in female animals are the result of
a. evolution. c. natural selection.
b. sexual selection. d. All of the above
______ 5. In the figure at right, the bird

providing food to its young is
engaging in
a. foraging behavior.
b. parental care.
c. imprinting.
d. territorial behavior.
______ 6. When imprinting, young birds

will follow
a. only their mother.
b. only members of other species.
c. the first moving object they see.
d. only members of their species.

Name Class Date
Animal Behavior, Chapter Test A continued
______ 7. Animal signals are used to

a. influence an animals behavior. c. attract a mate.
b. solicit play. d. All of the above
______ 8. Sexual selection is a(n)

a. innate behavior. c. behavioral signal.
b. evolutionary mechanism. d. genetic trait.
______ 9. Which of the following is NOT a signal?

a. feeding c. color
b. sound d. scent
______10. Fiddler crabs emerging from their burrows at specified intervals is an

example of a
a. lunar cycle. c. annual rhythm.
b. circadian rhythm. d. weekly cycle.
______11. A benefit of living in a social group is

a. sharing of mates. c. protection from predators.
b. reduced risk of disease. d. All of the above
______12. A cost of living in a social group is

a. reduced success in foraging. c. increased predation.
b. competition for mates. d. All of the above
term or phrase.
______13. habituation a. ability to analyze a problem and use

past experience to develop insight
______14. competition
b. a male animal establishing boundaries
______15. territorial behavior during mating season by not allowing
another male to go near females
______16. mate choice
c. strategy for locating, obtaining, and
______ 17. reasoning consuming food
d. occurs only during a specific period
______18. imprinting early in an animals life
______19. optimality hypothesis e. birds that ignore a scarecrow in the
garden every day
f. female evaluation of male for
reproduction
g. results when resources are limited

Name Class Date
Animal Behavior, Chapter Test A continued
provided.
20. When new male lions in a pride kill cubs of other males, they are
demonstrating an innate behavior influenced by
21. When rats locked in a box learned to depress a lever to get food, they
demonstrated in a
famous study conducted by B. F. Skinner.
22. Birds flying south for the winter are demonstrating
23. When Pavlovs dogs learned to a ringing bell with
meat and salivated in response, they demonstrated
24. Explain how imprinting in ducks and geese is influenced by both heredity
and learning.
25. List five types of communication animals can use to send and receive signals.

Name Class Date
Assessment
Chapter Test A
Skeletal, Muscular, and Integumentary Systems
______ 1. The main components of the epidermis are

a. epithelial tissue and nervous tissue.
b. connective tissue and muscle tissue.
c. connective tissue and epithelial tissue.
d. nervous tissue and muscle tissue.
______ 2. Which of the following is NOT a hinge joint?

a. elbow c. finger knuckle
b. wrist d. toe knuckle
______ 3. Smooth muscle is also called

a. rhythmic muscle. c. interconnected muscle.
b. voluntary muscle. d. involuntary muscle.
______ 4. Which of the following sets of bones are part of the axial skeleton?
a. skull, legs, hips
b. vertebrae, skull, arms
c. skull, vertebrae, sternum
d. ribs, legs, arms
______ 5. Hair and nails are derived from cells of the

a. dermis.
b. subcutaneous tissue.
c. oil glands.
d. epidermis.
______ 6. When a sarcomere is fully contracted,

a. myosin and actin completely overlap each other.
b. the sarcomere is at its longest length.
c. myosin and actin are not connected at all.
d. ATP is not being used.
______ 7. Which of the following is the correct order of structures that compose
a bone from the outermost structure to the innermost structure?
a. periosteum, bone marrow, compact bone, spongy bone
b. periosteum, compact bone, spongy bone, bone marrow
c. compact bone, spongy bone, bone marrow, periosteum
d. spongy bone, periosteum, compact bone, bone marrow

Name Class Date
Skeletal, Muscular, and Integumentary Systems, Chapter Test A continued
______ 8. The structures in the dermis that help regulate body temperature are
a. hair follicles and blood vessels.
b. blood vessels and sweat glands.
c. oil glands and sweat glands.
d. nerve cells and blood vessels.
______ 9. The functions of the skin include all of the following EXCEPT
a. protecting the body from injury.
b. preventing the body from drying out.
c. protecting the body from infection.
d. absorbing nutrients from food.
______10. Energy for muscle contraction can be supplied by

a. glycogen. c. ATP.
b. glucose. d. All of the above
______11. Which of the following is NOT part of the immune system?

a. heart c. skin
b. lymph nodes d. white blood cells
______12. In early development, bone tissue is made mostly of

a. groups of osteocytes. c. periosteum.
b. bone marrow. d. cartilage.
______13. The nervous system consists of which of the following organs?

a. stomach, liver, pancreas
b. lungs, nose, trachea
c. kidneys, ureters, urinary bladder
d. brain, spinal cord, sense organs
______14. Cell is to tissue as

a. cell is to organ system. c. organ system is to tissue.
b. tissue is to organ. d. organ system is to organ.
15. In the degenerative joint disease , the cartilage

covering the bone surface becomes thin and rough, while
is a result of the
immune system attacking body tissues.
16. The contains the heart,
esophagus, and lungs, while the
contains the digestive system.

Name Class Date
Skeletal, Muscular, and Integumentary Systems, Chapter Test A continued
17.The bones of the skull, spine, and rib cage make up the
18. Muscles that cause a joint to bend are called .
19. leads to an accumulation
of lactic acid in muscle fibers and may result in
20. Hair is produced by .
Refer to the figure below, which shows three different joint, to answer questions
2125. In the space provided, write the letter of each joint that best matches the
term or phrase. Some choices may be used more than once.
C
A B
______21. ball and socket joint
______22. gliding joint
______23. hinge joint
______24. joint also found in the ankles
______25. joint also found in the hip

Name Class Date
Assessment
Chapter Test A
Circulatory and Respiratory Systems
______ 1. Excess fluids and proteins in the body are returned to the
bloodstream by
a. the heart. c. the respiratory system.
b. arteries. d. the lymphatic system.
______ 2. If a blood vessel has valves, it probably is

a. a vein. c. a capillary.
b. an artery. d. mutated.
______ 3. A person with type B blood can receive type

a. AB blood. c. O or B blood.
b. AB or B blood. d. A blood.
______ 4. The pulmonary circulation loop carries blood to the

a. kidneys. c. intestines.
b. liver. d. lungs.
______ 5. The respiratory control center in the brain is most sensitive to the
concentration of
a. oxygen.
b. carbon dioxide in the lungs.
c. carbon dioxide in the blood.
d. carbon dioxide in the cells.
______ 6. The cardiovascular system transports

a. oxygen. c. hormones.
b. nutrients. d. All of the above
______ 7. The natural pacemaker of the heart is the

a. aorta. c. left atrium.
b. sinoatrial node. d. superior vena cava.
______ 8. The structure that prevents food and liquid from entering the trachea
is called the
a. pharynx. c. alveolus.
b. larynx. d. epiglottis.

Name Class Date
Circulatory and Respiratory Systems, Chapter Test A continued
Refer to the figure at right, which shows the human heart,

to answer questions 8 and 9.
______ 9. Blood in the chamber labeled A

a. is full of oxygen.
b. is returning from the lungs. B
c. is oxygen-poor.
d. has very little plasma.
______10. The vessel labeled B, which A

carries deoxygenated blood, is
a. a pulmonary artery.
b. a pulmonary vein.
c. part of the aorta.
d. part of the atria.
______11. What happens during inhalation?

a. The diaphragm contracts and moves downward, and the rib cage
moves upward and outward.
b. The diaphragm relaxes and moves upward, and the rib cage
moves upward and outward.
c. The diaphragm contracts and moves downward, and the rib cage
moves downward and inward.
d. The diaphragm and the rib cage return to their normal resting
positions.
______12. Hemoglobin contains four atoms of iron that bind reversibly with
a. carbonic acid.
b. oxygen.
c. bicarbonate atoms.
d. water.
term or phrase.
______13. erythrocytes a. the largest blood cells; also known as

leukocytes
______14. white blood cells
b. the portion of blood containing metabo-
______15. plasma lites, wastes, salts, proteins, and water
c. red blood cells
______16. platelets
d. the sticky protein threads that function in
______ 17. fibrin blood clotting
e. cell fragments needed to form blood clots

Name Class Date
Circulatory and Respiratory Systems, Chapter Test A continued
provided.
18. The large veins called
carry oxygen-poor blood from the body into the
of the heart.
19. Breathing occurs because of differences between the
inside the lungs and outside the body.
20. Oxygen molecules diffuse from the air into the ,
air sacs within the lungs.
21. The loop transports
blood from the left side of the heart to body tissues and then to the right side
of the heart.
22. The presence of carbon dioxide in the blood makes the blood more
23. The contractions of the heart, initiated by the sinoatrial node, cause the right
and left to contract first.
24. The first step in clotting is the congregation of at
the damaged site.
25. During inhalation, the at the base of the ribs

Name Class Date
Assessment
Chapter Test A
The Bodys Defense Systems
______ 1. HIV can be transmitted in which of the following ways?

a. through the air c. by mosquitoes
b. through sexual contact d. None of the above
______ 2. In an immune response, helper T cells

a. activate cytotoxic T cells and B cells.
b. release antibodies into the blood.
c. develop into plasma cells.
d. release interleukin-1.
______ 3. cytotoxic T cells : infected cells ::

a. antigens : antibodies c. macrophages : pathogens
b. B cells : plasma cells d. helper T cells : B cells
______ 4. Robert Koch developed a procedure for

a. producing vaccines. c. treating allergic reactions.
b. identifying specific pathogens. d. reducing the spread of pathogens.
______ 5. After an immune response, some B cells and T cells develop into cells
that continue to patrol the bodys tissues. These cells are called
a. neutrophils. c. helper T cells.
b. macrophages. d. memory cells.
______ 6. HIV causes AIDS by attacking and destroying

a. red blood cells. c. helper T cells.
b. neutrophils. d. B cells.
______ 7. White blood cells are covered with receptor proteins that recognize
and bind to
a. antibodies. c. B cells.
b. T cells. d. antigens.
______ 8. Severe pain and inflammation of the joints is a symptom of

a. psoriasis. c. type I diabetes.
b. rheumatoid arthritis. d. Crohns disease.
______ 9. During which phase of an HIV infection do symptoms first appear?

a. phase I c. phase III
b. phase II d. phase IV

Name Class Date
The Bodys Defense Systems, Chapter Test A continued
______10. Mucus is produced by cells lining the walls of the bronchi and
bronchioles
a. only when a person has a severe respiratory infection.
b. to allow oxygen to diffuse into the blood more efficiently.
c. to protect against pathogens that might be inhaled.
d. as a lubricant for the expulsion of food that might go down the
wrong pipe.
______11. The stomach is involved in defense against infection because it

a. contains acid that destroys pathogens that are swallowed.
b. regurgitates any pathogen that might be swallowed.
c. secretes mucus, which is carried away by cilia.
d. sends potential pathogens to the liver for destruction.
______12. Which of the following pairs is NOT correctly associated?

a. cytotoxic T cellsattack and kill infected cells
b. helper T cellsactivate cytotoxic T cells and B cells
c. B cellsengulf cells that are infected with pathogens
d. macrophagesconsume pathogens and infected cells
______13. Vaccines are effective in preventing disease because they

a. trigger an immune response without causing disease.
b. contain antibodies directed against specific pathogens.
c. contain specific B cells and T cells.
d. contain pathogens to which the person is already immune.
term or phrase.
______14. complement system a. layers of epithelial tissues that produce

mucus to trap pathogens
______15. natural killer cell
b. series of events that suppress infection
______16. pathogen c. protein that helps the body resist viral
infection
______ 17. inflammatory response
d. white blood cells that ingest and kill
______18. mucous membranes pathogens
e. disease-causing agent
______19. macrophages
f. white blood cells that destroy infected
______20. interferon cells by puncturing their cell membranes
______21. interleukin 2 g. produced by T cells
h. proteins that become active when they
encounter certain pathogens

Name Class Date
The Bodys Defense Systems, Chapter Test A continued
Read the question, and write your answer in the space provided.
22. The chemical that is released during an allergic reaction is
23. Any substance that can trigger an immune response is an
24. and
are barriers in the first line of defense.

25. In the figure below, which period of time would involve the most rapid
division of B cells? Explain.
Immune Responses
A B C
Antibody concentration in blood
Time

Name Class Date
Assessment
Chapter Test A
Digestive and Excretory Systems
______ 1. Most of the absorption of nutrients into the blood and lymph occurs in
a. the stomach. c. the large intestine.
b. the small intestine. d. the liver.
______ 2. The digestive enzyme released by the stomach that breaks down
proteins is
a. amylase. c. chyme.
b. pepsin. d. bile.
______ 3. Which of the following wastes is produced as a result of the

metabolism of proteins and nucleic acids?
a. carbon dioxide c. ammonia
b. urea d. salt
______ 4. The base of the USDA food guide pyramid consists of

a. vegetables. c. meat, beans, and nuts.
b. fats, oils, and sweets. d. grains.
______ 5. Vitamins are compounds that

a. are coenzymes. c. form cell membranes.
b. provide energy. d. are inorganic.
______ 6. Food passes from the stomach into the

a. colon. c. small intestine.
b. esophagus. d. liver.
______ 7. Which of the following is true about bile?

a. It breaks globules of fat into tiny droplets.
b. It is stored in the gallbladder.
c. It is produced by the liver.
d. All of the above
______ 8. Urine is formed when molecules are reabsorbed and

secreted as the filtrate passes through the
a. Bowmans capsules. c. ureters.
b. renal tubules. d. urethra.

Name Class Date
Digestive and Excretory Systems, Chapter Test A continued
Refer to the figure at right to answer questions 911.
______ 9. The structure labeled B is a

a. villus. A B C
b. nephron.
c. ureter.
d. urethra.
______10. Structure B is found in the

a. kidneys.
b. esophagus.
c. small intestine.
d. tongue.
______11. Structure B allows for an

increase in
a. absorption area.
b. mechanical digestion.
c. acid production.
d. bile production.
provided.
12. In the small intestine, sugars and amino acids enter
in the villi, where as fatty acids and glycerol enter
in the villi.
13. The secretes digestive enzymes that travel to the

small intestine to help complete the digestion of carbohydrates, proteins, and
lipids.
14. The distal convoluted tubule empties into a tubule called a(n)
that moves urine
towards the ureter.
15. Filtration of the blood occurs in the within the
kidneys.
16. The outer region of the kidney is called the
, and the inner region is called the

Name Class Date
Digestive and Excretory Systems, Chapter Test A continued
17. Insufficient vitamin D in the diet can result in a condition known as
, in which the bones soften and the teeth
do not develop properly.
18. Insufficient in the diet can affect the production
of thyroid hormone.
19. The surface area of food particles is increased through
, and enzymes are
involved in the
of food into molecules the body can use.
Study the following steps of urine formation and expulsion from the body.
Determine the order in which the steps are carried out. Write the number of
each step in the space provided.
______20. Collecting ducts receive fluid from the nephrons and empty urine
into areas of the kidneys that lead to ureters.
______21. Blood is filtered as it passes through the glomerulus.
______22. Filtrate passes through the renal tubules where reabsorption and
secretion of molecules occurs.
______23. Ureters carry urine from the kidney to the urinary bladder.
______24. Filtrate collects in the Bowmans capsule.
______25. Urine exits the body through the urethra.

Name Class Date
Assessment
Chapter Test A
Nervous System and Sense Organs
______ 1. The brain and spinal cord ______ 5. Myelin sheaths

make up the a. are found on all neurons.
a. central nervous system. b. increase the speed of
b. peripheral nervous nerve impulses.
system. c. decrease the speed of
c. autonomic nervous nerve impulses.
system. d. All of the above
______ 6. Which part of the brain
______ 2. In times of stress, the smoothes and coordinates
division of the autonomic movements such as walking?
nervous system that a. cerebrum
dominates is the b. cerebellum
a. sympathetic nervous c. brain stem
system. d. hypothalamus
b. parasympathetic nervous
system. ______ 7. Addiction to a drug occurs
c. motor division. because
d. sensory division. a. increasing amounts of
the drug are needed to
______ 3. Alcohol consumption can achieve the desired
a. alter neurons throughout sensation.
the nervous system. b. the drug is removed from
b. affect normal brain the body.
function. c. the drug alters the normal
c. cause abnormalities in functioning of neurons
the circulatory system. and synapses so that
d. All of the above they cannot function
normally unless the
______ 4. The peripheral nervous drug is present.
system connects the body d. drugs stimulate the
to the central nervous system.
a. upper brain stem.
b. hypothalamus. ______ 8. Visual information is
c. brain and spinal cord. processed by which lobe
d. autonomic nervous of the cerebrum?
system. a. occipital
b. parietal
c. temporal
d. frontal
Name Class Date
Nervous System and Sense Organs, Chapter Test A continued
______ 9. semicircular canals : ______14. Motor neurons that stimu-

balance :: late skeletal muscles are
a. retina : hearing part of the
b. cochlea : hearing a. somatic nervous system.
c. cochlea : sight b. autonomic nervous
d. taste cells : smell system.
c. parasympathetic nervous
______10. The photoreceptors of the system.
retina d. corpus callosum.
a. convert light energy into
electrical signals. ______15. Nicotine mimics the action
b. convert sound waves of the neurotransmitter
into electrical signals. a. dopamine.
c. convert light energy into b. acetylcholine.
chemical signals. c. glutamate.
d. convert chemical signals d. None of the above
into electrical signals.
______16. Nitrous oxide, ether, paint
______11. Which of the following thinner, and glue belong to
connects the cerebral a class of psychoactive
hemispheres with the drugs called
cerebellum? a. stimulants.
a. thalamus b. inhalants.
b. hypothalamus c. depressants.
c. brain stem d. hallucinogens.
d. spinal cord
______ 17. When a neuron is at rest,
______12. The myelin sheath a. sodium ions are more
a. transmits impulses. concentrated outside
b. insulates synapses. the cell.
c. insulates axons. b. potassium ions are more
d. None of the above concentrated inside the
cell.
______13. The two principal compo-
c. the inside of the cell is
nents of the peripheral
negatively charged.
nervous system are the
d. All of the above
a. somatic and the auto-
nomic nervous systems. ______18. During a nerve impulse,
b. sensory and motor a. sodium ions first rush
divisions. out of the cell.
c. autonomic and central b. there is a reversal of
nervous systems. polarity in the axon.
d. sympathetic and the c. the membrane potential
parasympathetic of the cell does not
divisions. change.
d. potassium ions are
pumped into the axon.
Name Class Date
Nervous System and Sense Organs, Chapter Test A continued
provided.
19. are found between

papillae, in the throat, and on the roof of the mouth.
20. Sensory receptors that respond to physical stimuli that cause distortion or
bending of tissue are .
21. Chemoreceptors that detect odors and are located in the roof of the nasal
passage are called receptors.

22. Sensory information about hearing is processed in the
lobe of the brain.
23. How is a signal from a presynaptic neuron transmitted to a postsynaptic cell?
24. Explain how drug use can lead to drug addiction.
25. Describe the action of cocaine at a synapse.

Name Class Date
Assessment
Chapter Test A
Endocrine System
______ 1. The part of the brain that ______ 5. All of the following are
issues instructions to the functions of hormones
pituitary gland is the EXCEPT
a. hypothalamus. a. maintaining homeostasis.
b. cerebellum. b. regulating growth, devel-
c. cerebrum. opment, and behavior.
d. brain stem. c. exchanging oxygen and
carbon dioxide between
______ 2. Steroid and thyroid the air and the lungs.
hormones form hormone- d. responding to stimuli
receptor complexes from outside the body.
a. inside the cell.
b. that bind to DNA. ______ 6. The endocrine system and
c. that activate protein nervous system are similar
synthesis. in that
d. All of the above a. both are involved in
coordinating the bodys
______ 3. If iodide salts are lacking in activities.
the diet, the thyroid gland b. both use chemical
a. becomes totally inactive. messengers.
b. becomes greatly enlarged c. the effects of both sys-
as it attempts to make tems are fast-acting and
more thyroid hormones. short-lived.
c. shrinks from lack of d. Both (a) and (b)
thyroid hormones.
d. uses calcium to produce ______ 7. Prostaglandins
thyroid hormones. a. regulate emotions, influ-
ence pain, and affect
______ 4. In a negative feedback reproduction.
mechanism, high levels b. can cause pain, fever,
of a hormone and changes in blood
a. inhibit production of pressure.
more hormone. c. inhibit pain messages
b. stimulate production of traveling toward the
more hormone. brain.
c. increase nerve impulses. d. regulate blood glucose
d. decrease nerve impulses. levels.

Name Class Date
Endocrine System, Chapter Test A continued
______ 8. A specific cell that a ______12. Insulin and glucagon are

hormone binds to and involved in regulating
acts on is called a a. blood calcium levels.
a. blood cell. b. blood glucose levels.
b. liver cell. c. the amount of oxytocin
c. target cell. in the blood.
d. bone cell. d. the release of prolactin
by the pituitary gland.
______ 9. The hormones estrogen (in
females) and testosterone ______13. The instructions that
(in males) hormones carry are
a. stimulate the develop- determined by
ment of secondary sex a. the hormone itself.
characteristics. b. both the hormone itself
b. affect the formation of and the cell it binds.
gametes. c. the target cell.
c. establish daily d. the messenger cell.
biorhythms.
d. Both (a) and (b) ______14. Compared with a neuro-
transmitter, the life span
______10. Which of the following of a hormone is
hormones does NOT need a. shorter.
to bind to a cell membrane b. longer.
receptor to pass though the c. unpredictable.
membrane of a target cell? d. the same.
a. thyroid hormones
b. amino-acid-based ______15. Which of the following are
hormones endocrine glands?
c. steroid hormones a. pancreas
d. Both (a) and (c) b. testes
c. pituitary gland
______11. Parathyroid hormone is d. All of the above
released in response to
a. increasing blood calcium
levels.
b. increasing blood glucose
levels.
c. decreasing blood calcium
levels.
d. decreasing blood glucose
levels.

Name Class Date
Endocrine System, Chapter Test A continued
Refer to the figure at right, which shows the glands of the human endocrine
system, to answer questions 1620.
______16. The pituitary gland is labeled A

a. A. c. C.
b. B. d. D. B
______ 17. Development of secondary sex C

characteristics and gamete
formation in females are D
stimulated by secretions of
E
the gland labeled
a. C. c. E. F
b. D. d. F.
______18. The gland that produces the hormones

insulin and glucagon is labeled
a. A. c. C.
b. B. d. D.
______19. The gland that produces the hormones

cortisol and aldosterone is labeled
a. A. c. C.
b. B. d. E.
______20. Thyroid-stimulating hormone is secreted by the gland labeled

a. A. c. C.
b. B. d. D.
21. After hormones are released, they bind and act only on specific
22. When a(n)
hormone binds to a receptor protein, the result
is the activation of a second messenger.
23. The controls many body functions by issuing

instructions to the pituitary gland.
24. Hormones that can pass through target cell membranes are called
hormones and hormones .
25. The hormone is secreted by the pineal gland and is

thought to be involved in establishing daily sleep patterns.
Name Class Date
Assessment
Chapter Test A
Reproductive System
______ 1. As sperm move through the urethra, they mix with fluid secreted
by the
a. seminal vesicles. c. bulbourethral glands.
b. prostate gland. d. All of the above
______ 2. The fallopian tubes

a. secrete estrogen.
b. produce eggs.
c. are passageways through which an ovum travels.
d. All of the above
______ 3. In an embryo, major internal organs are evident

a. during the sixth month.
b. by the end of the third trimester.
c. during the second month.
d. just before birth.
______ 4. A leading cause of birth defects is

a. alcohol and drug use by pregnant women.
b. exercise during pregnancy.
c. poor diet during the second trimester of pregnancy.
d. improper implantation.
______ 5. Luteinizing hormone and follicle-stimulating hormone are involved in

a. sperm production. c. implantation.
b. the ovarian cycle. d. Both (a) and (b)
______ 6. Eggs do not mature until

a. the production of sex hormones increases.
b. meiosis resumes.
c. a female reaches puberty.
d. All of the above
______ 7. In the first week after fertilization, the zygote undergoes a series of
divisions called
a. ultrasound. c. cleavage.
b. implantation. d. gestation.

Name Class Date
Reproductive System, Chapter Test A continued
______ 8. When sperm exit the body, they pass through the
a. epididymis, vas deferens, and then the urethra.
b. vas deferens, epididymis, and then the urethra.
c. seminal vesicles, vas deferens, and then the urethra.
d. vas deferens, seminiferous tubules, and then the urethra.
______ 9. During fertilization, enzymes at the tip of the head of a sperm cell help
the cell
a. swim to an egg.
b. penetrate an egg.
c. find an egg.
d. obtain energy for movement.
______10. Sperm mature and become mobile in the

a. epididymis.
b. vas deferens.
c. seminal vesicles.
d. prostate gland.
______11. Sperm are deposited in the female reproductive system by the

a. vas deferens.
b. seminal vesicles.
c. scrotum.
d. penis.
______12. After a female reaches puberty, one immature egg cell completes its
development about every
a. day.
b. week.
c. month.
d. trimester.
______13. On average, both the ovarian and menstrual cycles last

a. 14 days.
b. 28 days.
c. 35 days.
d. 45 days.
______14. From 8 weeks until birth, a developing human is called a(n)

a. fetus.
b. embryo.
c. zygote.
d. blastocyst.

Name Class Date
Reproductive System, Chapter Test A continued
term or phrase.
______15. umbilical cord a. external skin sac that holds the testes
b. contractions of uterine muscles
______16. scrotum
c. the forceful expulsion of semen
______ 17. ejaculation
d. blood vessel connection between
______18. urethra mother and embryo
e. the entrance to the uterus
______19. ovary
f. used to transport both urine and semen
______20. vas deferens g. where eggs are produced
______21. cervix h. sperm move from the epididymis to the
urethra through this tube
______22. labor
23. Describe the structures of a sperm cell and their roles in cell function.
24. Describe the development that occurs in a fetus from the end of the first
trimester to the end of the third trimester.
25. Explain how hormone levels regulate the menstrual cycle.

TEACHER RESOURCE PAGE
Answer Key
The Science of Life The Science of Life
Chapter Test A (General) Chapter Test B (Advanced)
1. c 8. f 1. f
2. g 9. c 2. c
3. e 10. c 3. h
4. h 11. d 4. d
5. a 12. b 5. g
6. d 13. a 6. e
7. b 7. a
14. cell 8. b
15. tissues, organs, organ systems 9. hypothesis
16. homeostasis 10. division, enlargement
17. reproduction 11. electron
18. closely 12. Magnification, resolution
19. evolution 13. Derived units
20. stimulus 14. d
21. metabolism 15. b
22. Scientists can use information in an 16. a
article in a scientific publication to 17. a
develop or modify their own hypothe- 18. d
ses. They can also use the information 19. b
to repeat the experiments and confirm 20. d
the authors results. Science journals 21. b
provide a means of communication for 22. d
scientists all over the world. 23. c
23. A knowledge of biology is important 24. diversity and unity of life; interdepend-
so that you can make informed personal ence of organisms; evolution of life
decisions about your health, your 25. organization and cells; response to
environment, and the way you live. stimuli; homeostasis; metabolism;
Pollution, new technologies, the growth and development; reproduction;
worlds food supplies, and curing change through time
diseases are all problems that affect 26. No; scientists use scientific methods in
human society. It is important to be a way that is best suited to answer the
scientifically informed about these questions they ask.
issues. 27. Communication allows scientists to
24. Because all living things need energy build on the work of other scientists.
to grow, move, and interpret informa- Scientists publish their findings in
tion, there must be a mechanism by journals or present them at
which organisms obtain this energy conferences.
and use it. Metabolism is the sum of 28. The SI is a universal, standardized
all the chemical reactions an organism form of measurement that allows
uses to carry out life. scientists to compare results.
25. Because no organism lives forever, 29. organizing and analyzing collected
reproduction ensures the continuation data
of a species. If organisms did not
reproduce, their species would soon
disappear.

Holt Biology 405 Answer Key
30. (a) about 24 hours (b) Medium B is dissolved. The concentration is the
(c) Medium A (d) The descending part amount of solute in a fixed amount of
of the curves represents a decline in the solution.
the growth rate over time because of 27. Acids have a sour taste and are highly
the depletion of nutrient media. corrosive in concentrated forms.
(e) The growth rate should eventually Bases have a bitter taste and tend
reach zero for the bacteria in both to feel slippery.
media. 28. The pH scale is a system of comparing
the relative concentrations of hydro-
Chemistry of Life nium ions and hydroxide ions in a
solution. Its values range from 0 to 14,
Chapter Test A (General)
1. a 12. f with values less than 7 denoting acid-
2. a 13. a ity and those greater than 7 denoting
3. a 14. e alkalinity.
4. d 15. h 29. atomic mass: 14; atomic number: 6
5. b 16. b 30. (a) pepsin (b) trypsin (c) The liquid
6. d 17. d must become alkaline. (d) According
7. d 18. c to the graph, enzymes function best at
8. d 19. g certain pH levels. (e) No; according to
9. c the graph, a low pH is required for
10. b pepsin to function, and a high pH
11. c is required for trypsin to function.
20. polar, nonpolar
21. hydrogen, covalent Biochemistry
22. water Chapter Test A (General)
23. hydronium
24. sodium ions, chloride ions 1. c 11. e
25. catalyst 2. c 12. h
3. a 13. c
4. b 14. b
Chemistry of Life 5. c 15. f
Chapter Test B (Advanced) 6. a 16. d
1. d 12. a 7. c 17. g
2. g 13. a 8. d 18. j
3. f 14. b 9. b 19. a
4. e 15. b 10. i
5. h 16. a 20. Acarbohydrate; Blipid; Cprotein
6. a 17. d 21. Carbohydrates such as the monosac-
7. b 18. b charide glucose shown here are found
8. c 19. a in cells as a source of energy (glu-
9. a 20. d cose), as energy storage molecules
10. c 21. d (glycogen and starch), or as structural
11. d 22. a molecules (cellulose). Lipids such as
23. c the fatty acid shown here are found in
24. In redox reactions, electrons are trans- cells as energy storage molecules
ferred between atoms, so the reactions (fats) or in cell membranes as struc-
always occur together. tural molecules (phospholipids).
25. In living things, enzymes act as catalysts Proteins are found in cells as enzymes
to speed up chemical reactions. and structural proteins in the body
26. A solute is the substance that is (hair, muscles).
dissolved in a solution. A solvent
is the substance in which the solute

Modern Biology 406 Answer Key
22. Organic compounds are composed 28. The polar, hydrophilic heads of phos-
primarily of carbon atoms (have a pholipids comprise the interior and
carbon backbone) covalently bonded exterior surfaces of the cell mem-
to other elementstypically hydrogen brane, and the nonpolar, hydrophobic
and oxygen. tails of phospholipids form the middle
23. Living things require energy for all of the cell membrane.
of the processes of life. Energy is 29. (from left to right) alternating double
required for the chemical reactions bonds between carbons; CH2 CH2;
that make up an organisms metabo- CH2 C(CH3) CH CH2
lism. Organisms also use a great deal 30. a. disaccharide; b. fatty acid; c. water;
of energy to maintain homeostasis. d. dipeptide; e. nucleotide
24. ATP is the main energy currency of
cells. Cell Structure and Function
25. Cholesterol is needed by the body for Chapter Test A (General)
nerve and other cells to function. It is
also a component of cell membranes. 1. c 9. c
2. e 10. d
Biochemistry 3. b 11. d
4. a 12. c
Chapter Test B (Advanced) 5. d 13. b
1. e 13. b 6. d 14. b
2. h 14. c 7. b 15. d
3. f 15. a 8. a 16. d
4. g 16. c 17. cell theory
5. a 17. b 18. flagella
6. c 18. c 19. cytoskeleton
7. b 19. a 20. rough
8. d 20. d 21. proteins
9. i 21. b 22. DNA contains information about
10. d 22. c heredity. DNA determines the charac-
11. a 23. a teristics of a cell, and it directs the
12. b 24. c cells activities.
25. Monomers link to form polymers 23. Small cells can exchange substances
through a condensation reaction. more readily than large cells can
Hydrolysis is a reversed condensation because small objects have a higher
reaction and causes the breakdown of surface area-to-volume ratio. As a
complex molecules. result, substances do not need to
26. A monosaccharide is a simple sugar travel as far to reach the center of
that is a monomer of carbohydrates. A a smaller cell.
disaccharide consists of two monosac- 24. Mitochondria harvest energy from
charides bonded together. A polysac- organic compounds to make ATP.
charide consists of at least three 25. The cytoskeleton is a network of thin
bonded monosaccharides. protein tubes and filaments that criss-
27. The shape of a protein is determined cross the cytosol. They give shape to
by the way the proteins amino acids the cell from the inside and act as a
interact with one another. Amino acid system of internal tracks on which
interactions can cause a protein to items move around inside the cell.
bend or fold. Protein shape can also
be influenced by temperature and the
type of solvent in which a protein is
dissolved.

Cell Structure and Function Homeostasis and

Chapter Test B (Advanced) Cell Transport
1. g 13. b Chapter Test A (General)
2. e 14. a 1. e 11. b
3. f 15. c 2. i 12. c
4. c 16. c 3. h 13. d
5. h 17. d 4. f 14. c
6. d 18. b 5. a 15. d
7. a 19. d 6. b 16. d
8. b 20. d 7. c 17. b
9. b 21. c 8. g 18. b
10. c 22. a 9. d 19. c
11. d 23. d 10. d 20. a
12. c 21. energy
24. (1) All living things are composed of 22. passive transport
one or more cells. (2) Cells are the 23. equilibrium
basic units of structure and function in 24. active transport
an organism. (3) Cells come only from 25. carrier proteins
the reproduction of existing cells.
25. Answers will vary. Skin cells are flat Homeostasis and
and platelike for covering and protect-
ing the bodys surface. Nerve cells are Cell Transport
specialized for transmitting nerve Chapter Test B (Advanced)
impulses. 1. d 12. a
26. Answers include the following: eukary- 2. b 13. b
otes contain a membrane-bound nucleus 3. h 14. c
and other organelles; prokaryotes do 4. g 15. d
not. 5. f 16. b
27. a. secondary cell wall; b. central 6. a 17. c
vacuole; c. nucleus; d. chloroplast; 7. c 18. b
e. primary cell wall. f. The central 8. e 19. a
vacuole, chloroplast, and cell wall 9. c 20. d
are found in plants but not in animals. 10. b 21. b
28. Answers include the following: The 11. d 22. b
nucleus contains DNA and RNA. 23. The rigid cell walls of plants prevent
Ribosomes are synthesized and them from expanding too much as the
partially assembled in the nucleolus. cells take in water through osmosis.
The contents of the nucleus are Some unicellular eukaryotes have
enclosed by the nuclear envelope. contractile vacuoles that collect
RNA is synthesized in the nucleus excess water and pump it out of the
and then passes into the cytoplasm cell. Many animal cells increase the
through pores in the nuclear envelope. water concentration inside the cell by
29. A colonial organism is a collection of removing dissolved particles from the
genetically identical cells that live cytoplasm to maintain homeostasis. If
together in a closely connected group. cells are not able to prevent excess
It is thought that multicellular organisms water from entering the cell, they may
arose from a colonial ancestor. expand and eventually burst.
30. a. plasma membrane; b. mitochondria; 24. passive: diffusion, osmosis, and
c. cytoplasm and other organelles facilitated diffusion; active: sodium-
potassium pump, endocytosis, and
exocytosis

25. Ink molecules at a high concentration 25. The energy used in the Calvin cycle is
in the water would move to an area of supplied by the ATP and NADPH that
lower concentration by a process are produced in the first stage (light
called diffusion. reactions) of photosynthesis.
26. Carrier proteins do not need to provide
additional energy in facilitated diffusion Photosynthesis
because substances move down their Chapter Test B (Advanced)
concentration gradients.
27. Ions cross the cell membrane by pass- 1. f 5. g
ing through proteins known as ion 2. a 6. c
channels. 3. h 7. b
28. During a cycle of the sodium-potassium 4. e 8. d
pump, three sodium ions are actively 9. Calvin cycle
transported out of the cell and two 10. photosynthesis
potassium ions are actively transported 11. pigments, thylakoids
into the cell. 12. II, I
29. In endocytosis, cells ingest external 13. water
substances by folding the cell mem- 14. d 19. c
brane inward to form a vesicle. In 15. a 20. b
exocytosis, cells release substances 16. c 21. c
by the fusion of a vesicle with the cell 17. a 22. d
membrane and the expulsion of the 18. a 23. c
vesicles contents into the extracellular 24. Each chloroplast is surrounded by a
environment. pair of membranes. Inside the inner
30. a. endocytosis; b. diffusion through membrane is a system of membranes
ion channels; c. passive diffusion; arranged as flattened sacs called
d. sodium-potassium pump; thylakoids. Thylakoids are layered
e. facilitated diffusion; f. exocytosis; in stacks called grana, and they are
g. endocytosis, sodium-potassium surrounded by a solution called the
pump, and exocytosis stroma.
25. Four electrons become available to
Photosynthesis replace those lost by chlorophyll mole-
cules in photosystem II. Protons remain
Chapter Test A (General) inside the thylakoid, while oxygen
1. g 11. k diffuses out of the chloroplast.
2. f 12. c 26. Energy from excited electrons is used
3. d 13. b to pump a high concentration of protons
4. a 14. a into the thylakoid. These protons then
5. c 15. c flow into the stroma and down their
6. j 16. d concentration gradient, providing the
7. b 17. c energy to drive the conversion of ADP
8. e 18. d into ATP, which is catalyzed by ATP
9. i 19. c synthase.
10. h 20. a 27. Most of the G3P is converted back
21. carbon dioxide into RuBP, but some G3P is used to
22. electrons make organic compounds.
23. slower (less) 28. CAM plants take in carbon dioxide at
24. No, the rate of photosynthesis will night and release it into the Calvin
increase with temperature up to a cycle during the day. CAM plants lose
certain point, beyond which tempera- less water than either C3 or C4 plants.
ture becomes too high for cellular 29. It means that the rate of photosynthe-
enzymes to function properly. When sis does not increase when the CO2
the temperature exceeds this point, the concentration exceeds a certain level.
rate of photosynthesis will decrease.
30. a. primary electron acceptor; b. primary 26. Much of the energy originally contained
electron acceptor; c. photosystem II; in glucose is held in pyruvic acid.
d. electron transport chain; e. photo- 27. Oxaloacetic acid regenerates coenzyme
system I; f. electron transport chain; A when it reacts with acetyl CoA to
g. ATP synthase form citric acid in step one of the
Krebs cycle. Coenzyme A is needed to
Cellular Respiration begin the Krebs cycle again.
28. The electrons react with oxygen to
form water.
1. g 10. d 29. the mitochondrial matrix; NADH and
2. f 11. b FADH2
3. d 12. d 30. a. glycolysis; b. lactic acid fermentation;
4. a 13. b c. alcoholic fermentation; d. Krebs
5. c 14. d cycle; e. electron transport chain
6. b 15. c
7. e 16. d Cell Reproduction
8. i 17. b
9. h 18. d
19. NAD 1. f 10. b
20. phosphate 2. e 11. d
21. ATP, oxygen 3. h 12. b
22. glycolysis 4. i 13. c
23. Krebs cycle 5. a 14. c
24. aerobic 6. c 15. b
25. In cells deprived of sufficient oxygen 7. d 16. d
for aerobic respiration, pyruvic acid 8. g 17. a
will undergo fermentation to recycle 9. j 18. b
NAD. This recycled NAD is needed 19. During anaphase, the spindle fibers
to continue making ATP through help to separate the chromatids by
glycolysis. dragging them to the opposite poles
of the cell.
Cellular Respiration 20. Crossing-over results in the exchange
Chapter Test B (Advanced) of genetic material between maternal
and paternal chromosomes. This
1. c 13. b results in genetic recombination
2. g 14. a because a new genetic mixture is
3. a 15. d created.
4. h 16. d 21. Sexual reproduction creates genetic
5. f 17. b recombinations that may change the
6. d 18. c characteristics of the organisms. If
7. e 19. a there has been a change in environ-
8. b 20. b mental conditions that would require
9. c 21. b an adaptation by the organism, the
10. b 22. c new combinations of genes might
11. a 23. d enable a species to adapt rapidly to
12. d new conditions.
24. Two ATP molecules are used in step 22. Spermatogenesis and oogenesis both
one. produce gametes. Spermatogenesis
25. When muscle cells are involved in occurs in males in the testes; oogene-
strenuous exercise and the body cannot sis occurs in females in the ovaries.
supply them with oxygen rapidly Spermatogenesis results in four
enough to carry out aerobic respiration, haploid sperm cells. Oogenesis results
lactic acid fermentation will occur. in one haploid ovum and three polar
bodies, which eventually die.
23. In asexual reproduction, a single par- 28. Spermatogenesis yields four sper-
ent passes copies of all of its genes to matids. Oogenesis yields one egg cell
each of its offspring. In contrast, in and three polar bodies.
sexual reproduction, two parents each 29. Independent assortment is the random
form reproductive cells (gametes) that separation of the homologous chromo-
have one-half the number of chromosomes. It results in genetic variation.
somes. These gametes join to form a 30. a. metaphase (3); b. cytokinesis (6);
diploid offspring. c. prophase (2); d. telophase (5);
24. Animal cells lack cell walls. In animal e. interphase (1); f. anaphase (4);
cells, the cytoplasm is divided when g. mitosis; two diploid cells are
a cleavage furrow pinches the cell in produced
half. In plant cells, the Golgi apparatus
forms vesicles that fuse in a line along Fundamentals of Genetics
the center of the cell and form a cell Chapter Test A (General)
plate. A new cell wall then forms on
each side of the cell plate. 1. F2
25. Each chromosome is a single molecule 2. Pp and pp
of DNA wrapped tightly around histones. 3. 3:1
The DNA-histone coils are coiled 4. self-pollinate, true-breeding
further to pack the DNA into a 5. 1:2:1
chromosome. 6. a 15. c
7. c 16. b
Cell Reproduction 8. a 17. c
9. b 18. d
Chapter Test B (Advanced) 10. b 19. e
1. e 5. d 11. b 20. b
2. g 6. b 12. a 21. d
3. h 7. f 13. c 22. a
4. a 8. c 14. d 23. c
9. cell cycle 24. Mendel calculated an approximate 3:1
10. DNA synthesis ratio of contrasting traits. He derived
11. interphase this ratio by counting plants express-
12. microtubules ing each type of trait he was compar-
13. cancer ing. Using division, he found that the
14. copied ratio of plants expressing the domi-
15. b 20. b nant trait to plants expressing the
16. a 21. a recessive trait was about 3:1.
17. c 22. c 25. The law of segregation states that the
18. d 23. d two factors for a trait are separated
19. c 24. c during the formation of gametes. The
25. A prokaryote would have a circular law of independent assortment states
molecule of DNA attached to the inner that the factors for two different traits
surface of the plasma membrane. A separate independently of one another
eukaryote would contain the following during the formation of gametes. We
structures at some stage of cell division: now know that this is true only when
nucleus, centrosome, mitotic spindle, the genes for the two traits are located
kinetochore fibers, polar fibers, indi- far apart on the same chromosome or
vidual rod-shaped chromosomes, on separate chromosomes.
nucleolus, and other organelles.
26. Meiosis results in haploid cells. The
cells produced during meiosis differ
genetically from the original cell.
27. Diagrams should include G1, S, G2, M
(mitosis), and C (cytokinesis) phases.
Fundamentals of Genetics 30. (a) The Punnett square represents a

dihybrid cross because two traits are
Chapter Test B (Advanced) tracked. (b) both parents are QqTt (c)
1. g 12. d QQTT, QQTt, QQtt, QqTT, QqTt, Qqtt,
2. e 13. c qqTT, qqTt, qqtt (d) 1/16 QQTT: 2/16
3. b 14. d QqTT: 2/16 QQTt: 4/16 QqTt: 1/16 QQtt:
4. h 15. c 2/16 Qqtt: 1/16 qqTT: 2/16 qqTt: 1/16
5. c 16. b qqtt (e) 9/16 with smooth, green seeds;
6. d 17. b 3/16 with wrinkled, green seeds, 3/16
7. f 18. a with smooth, yellow seeds, and 1/16
8. a 19. b with wrinkled, yellow seeds
9. a 20. b
10. b 21. a DNA, RNA, and
11. a 22. b Protein Synthesis
23. Mendel produced true-breeding plants
by allowing plants to self-pollinate.
He cross-pollinated plants pure for 1. h 11. l
contrasting traits (P generation). He 2. g 12. k
allowed the flowers from the F1 gener- 3. c 13. c
ation to self-pollinate to produce the 4. a 14. b
F2 generation. 5. b 15. a
24. Probability equals the number of times 6. i 16. c
an event is expected to happen divided 7. e 17. a
by the number of times an event could 8. j 18. c
happen. 9. d 19. b
25. In incomplete dominance, two or more 10. f 20. b
alleles influence the phenotype, result- 21. A genes instructions for making a
ing in a phenotype intermediate protein are transferred from DNA to
between the dominant trait and the mRNA during the process of transcrip-
recessive trait, as with four oclock tion. In translation, tRNA, rRNA, and
flowers. In codominance, both alleles ribosomes use the instructions on the
are expressed in a heterozygous off- mRNA to put together the amino acids
spring, as in human blood types. that make up the protein.
26. Use a test cross. Cross the purple- 22. RNA consists of a single strand of
flowering plant (PP) with a white- nucleotides instead of the two strands
flowering plant (pp). Students should that form the DNA double helix. RNA
draw a Punnett square for each of the nucleotides have the five-carbon sugar
following genotypes: PP and Pp. ribose rather than the sugar deoxyri-
27. Students should predict that 100 bose found in DNA nucleotides. RNA
percent of the offspring will be nucleotides have a nitrogenous base
heterozygous for fruit color. called uracil instead of the base
28. Students should predict a thymine found in DNA nucleotides.
1YY : 2Yy : 1yy. 23. DNA helicases are enzymes that sepa-
29. Mendel allowed each variety of garden rate the strands of the double helix of
pea to self-pollinate for several genera- the DNA molecule. The separation is
tions, selecting plants from each gen- accomplished by breaking the hydrogen
eration that exhibited one form of a bonds that link the complementary
trait. He did this until all of the off- bases.
spring of a given variety produced 24. a piece of double-stranded DNA
only one form of a particular trait. 25. Ahydrogen bonds; Bsugar-phosphate
chain; Cnitrogenous base

DNA, RNA, and 28. (1) Helicases separate the two strands
of DNA at replication forks. (2) DNA
Protein Synthesis polymerases construct a complemen-
Chapter Test B (Advanced) tary chain one nucleotide at a time.
1. f (3) Replication ends with two identical
2. c copies of the original DNA molecule.
3. g 29. Radioactive elements were used
4. h because they can be followed or
5. b traced. They were used to locate the
6. e genetic material of bacteriophages
7. a after they infected bacteria.
8. d 30. (a) guanine, cytosine, adenine, and
9. translation thymine (b) Guanine pairs with cyto-
10. anticodons sine; adenine pairs with thymine.
11. uracil (c) Yes; the percentage of cytosine is
12. transforming agent or genetic material about the same as the percentage of
13. RNA polymerase guanine, and the percentage of thymine
14. codons is about the same as the percentage of
15. b adenine. (d) Yes; DNA of vastly different
16. b organisms contains the same four
17. b nucleotides. (e) 34.7 percent; the
18. c percentage of uracil should match
19. c the amount of thymine because
20. d uracil replaces thymine in mRNA.
21. a
22. c Gene Expression
23. a Chapter Test A (General)
24. In transcription, RNA is produced
from DNA. In translation, polypeptides 1. homeotic gene
are assembled from information in 2. DNA chip
mRNA. 3. malignant
25. DNA is a double helix formed from 4. metastasis
nucleotides that have deoxyribose and 5. mutation
a phosphate group as the backbone. 6. repressor protein, off
The bases of DNA are cytosine, gua- 7. RNA polymerase
nine, thymine, and adenine. RNA is 8. eukaryotes
formed from nucleotides that have 9. carcinogen
ribose and a phosphate group as the 10. tumor
backbone. The bases of RNA are 11. b
cytosine, guanine, adenine, and uracil. 12. d
26. These codons mark the beginning and 13. c
ending of a gene that is being translated. 14. b
27. mRNA is a single, uncoiled chain of 15. a
nucleotides that carries genetic infor- 16. a
mation from the nucleus to the site of 17. d
translation in eukaryotes. tRNA consists 18. d
of nucleotides folded into a hairpin 19. c
shape and binds to amino acids. rRNA 20. b
consists of nucleotides in a globular 21. When present in prokaryotic cells,
form. Along with proteins, rRNA lactose binds to the repressor protein
makes up ribosomes. and changes the proteins shape. The
repressor prevents RNA polymerase
from binding to the promoter. The

change in shape releases the repressor. 18. c
With the blocking effect eliminated, 19. b
the transcription of genes that code 20. c
for lactose-metabolizing enzymes 21. d
proceeds. 22. a
22. Introns are long segments of nucleotides 23. c
in eukaryotic genes with no coding 24. By controlling gene expression and
information. After transcription, making only needed proteins, cells
enzymes remove introns from the conserve resources.
mRNA molecule before the mRNA is 25. The diagram shows transcription of
transcribed. DNA into pre-mRNA and of pre-mRNA
23. Many eukaryotic genes are interrupted into mRNA in the nucleus of a eukary-
by segments of non-coding DNA called otic cell. Structures labeled A represent
introns. The segments of DNA that are introns, and those labeled B represent
expressed are called exons. After tran- exons.
scription, exons are joined together 26. Cancer cells divide when densely
and then translated. packed or when they are no longer
24. Transcription factors are regulatory attached to other cells; they continue
factors, which control mostly tran- to divide indefinitely.
scription in eukaryotes. In eukaryotes, 27. Mutations could affect the regulatory
an enhancer must be activated for a abilities of these genes, allowing cells
gene to be expressed. Transcription to multiply uncontrolled and leading
factors initiate transcription by binding to cancer.
to enhancers and to RNA polymerases. 28. In Drosophila, homeotic genes deter-
25. The lac operon consists of a cluster of mine where certain anatomical struc-
genes that enables a bacterium to tures will develop.
build the proteins needed for lactose 29. The genomes of eukaryotes are larger
metabolism only when lactose is than those of prokaryotes and are
present. Some of the genes determine located on several chromosomes
whether or not other genes will be rather than on a single circular
expressed; the other genes code for chromosome.
enzymes that break down lactose. 30. (a) 6 (b) 2 (c) 7 (d) 5 (e) 4 (f) 1 (g) 3
Gene Expression Inheritance Patterns and

Chapter Test B (Advanced) Human Genetics
1. d Chapter Test A (General)
2. g 1. a
3. h 2. a
4. a 3. d
5. c 4. b
6. e 5. c
7. f 6. d
8. b 7. c
9. RNA polymerase 8. c
10. operator 9. polygenic inheritance
11. repressor protein 10. genetic disorders
12. transcription factors 11. recessive
13. introns 12. map units
14. c 13. Y
15. c 14. g
16. a 15. a
17. d 16. d

17. i 19. c
18. f 20. a
19. c 21. c
20. b 22. c
21. e 23. a
22. h 24. Hemophilia is caused by a recessive
23. Some traits are controlled by several X-linked gene. Thus, a female would
genes rather than by only one. Each have to receive two copies of the gene
gene contributes to the final gene to express the disease. Males only
expression. have one X chromosome, so the allele
24. Most sex-linked characteristics are is always expressed if it is present.
carried as alleles on the X chromosome. 25. The principle of independent assort-
A male would express a sex-linked ment states that genes separate inde-
recessive trait if he gets the gene for pendently during the formation of
the trait from his mother. He cannot get gametes. Genes that are linked remain
an X chromosome from his father. A together during the formation of
female would have to get the gene for gametes.
the recessive trait on both of the X 26. Chromosome mutations are changes
chromosomes she receivesthe one in the structure of a chromosome or
from her mother and the one from her loss of an entire chromosome. Gene
father. mutations may involve large segments
25. An individual with cystic fibrosis has of DNA or a single nucleotide.
two copies of a defective gene that 27. Multiple-allele traits are controlled by
makes a protein necessary to pump three or more alleles of the same gene
chloride into and out of cells. The air- that code for a single trait. Polygenic
ways of the lungs of these individuals traits are controlled by two or more
become clogged with thick mucus. different genes.
Treatments can relieve some of the 28. The chromosome map sequence is A
symptoms, but there is no cure for this CB with five map units between A
disorder. and C, 15 map units between C and B,
and 20 map units between A and B.
Inheritance Patterns and 29. A sex-linked trait is controlled by a
Human Genetics gene found on a sex chromosome.
Because of sex hormones, a sex-
Chapter Test B (Advanced) influenced trait is expressed differ-
1. d ently in men and women who have
2. f the same genotype.
3. a 30. (a) The pedigree should be completed
4. e according to the information about
5. h cystic fibrosis in the family. (b) A pos-
6. c sible key may include the following:
7. g = male noncarrier; = female
8. b noncarrier; = male with cystic fibro-
9. Down syndrome sis; = female with cystic fibrosis;
10. Somatic-cell = male carrier; = female carrier.
11. nucleotides (c) A child born to the F2 son with
12. Polygenic, genes fibrosis and a female noncarrier
13. environment, genes would be a carrier of the trait.
14. Y chromosome
15. 35
16. d
17. c
18. b

Gene Technology Gene Technology

Chapter Test A (General) Chapter Test B (Advanced)
1. a 1. d
2. b 2. e
3. d 3. f
4. c 4. g
5. d 5. a
6. a 6. h
7. a 7. b
8. d 8. c
9. a 9. another species
10. c 10. complementary
11. DNA fingerprint 11. insulin
12. plasmids 12. polymerase, nucleotides, primers
13. clones 13. 20,000
14. restriction enzymes 14. d
15. probes 15. d
16. complementary, sticky 16. b
17. b 17. c
18. d 18. d
19. e 19. a
20. a 20. a
21. c 21. d
22. Answer should include any three of 22. d
the following: made crop plants more 23. b
tolerant of environmental conditions, 24. A cloning vector is used to clone the
more resistant to weed-controlling gene for insulin and then transfer it to
herbicides, less susceptible to insect another organism. An insulin gene is
damage, resistant to certain diseases, isolated from a human cell and then
and more nutritious. transferred to a host organism via a
23. Goats have been altered and cloned cloning vector. The host organism
to produce milk that contains human receives the recombinant DNA.
blood-clotting factors. Pig organs have 25. Gene therapy is the treatment of a
been altered so they do not trigger genetic disorder by introducing a gene
organ rejection if transplanted into into a cell or by correcting a gene
human recipients. Animals are being deficit in a cells genome. It differs
cloned as models for the study of from traditional treatments in that it
human disease, such as cystic fibrosis. attempts to correct the gene defect
24. DNA fingerprints are used in paternity that causes the disorder.
cases, in forensics, and in the identifi- 26. DNA fingerprinting has been used to
cation of the genes that cause genetic compare samples of blood or tissue
disorders. found at a crime scene with those of a
25. Gel electrophoresis uses an electrical suspect, and it has been used to deter-
field within a gel to separate DNA frag- mine whether two individuals are
ments by their size and charge, allow- related.
ing the fragments to be identified. 27. DNA fingerprints are very accurate
because they compare segments of
DNA that tend to vary the most
between individuals. If all 13 sites are
used, the odds of two people having
the same profile is smaller than the
number of people on Earth.

28. Advantages include the development decayed by 60,000 years. More accurate
of safer, more-effective vaccines and measurements of older samples can
pharmaceutical products and products be made using isotopes with longer
that will improve agricultural yields. half-lives.
Disadvantages include the development 21. The control group consisted of open
of superweeds and the possibility that jars containing meat; in the experimen-
genetically engineered crops will harm tal group, the jars were covered by net-
the environment. ting. The independent variable was the
29. a. 3; b. 1; c. 4; d. 2 presence of adult flies; the dependent
30. (a) Labeled diagrams should resemble variable was the appearance of maggots.
the similar image in the chapter text. 22. Critics held that Spallanzani had boiled
(b) Restriction enzymes are used to cut his flasks of broth too long, destroying
DNA at specific sites within nucleotide the vital force in the air. Pasteurs
sequences. The pieces of DNA that are flasks remained open to the air.
cut by these enzymes can bind with 23. Microspheres or coacervatesor
DNA from another source that has structures like themcan grow and
been cut with the same restriction might have contained early self-repli-
enzyme. (c) hydrogen bonds (d) The cating RNA molecules.
restriction enzyme would cut the DNA 24. The shapes of both depend on the
at a different nucleotide sequence, and sequences of their nucleotide compo-
the sticky ends would not match. nents and on the hydrogen bonds
between those nucleotides.
History of Life 25. Chloroplasts are thought to have
originated as photosynthetic bacteria
Chapter Test A (General) that were engulfed by a larger, non-
1. d 14. c photosynthetic cell. Similarly, mito-
2. e 15. c chondria are thought to have
3. a 16. d originated as aerobic bacteria.
4. c 17. b 26. 4 billion
5. b 18. c 27. spontaneous generation
6. d 19. d 28. upper atmosphere
7. d 20. b 29. archaebacteria
8. b 21. b 30. (a) water (b) water vapor, or steam (c)
9. b 22. a electrode; it provides energy to start
10. d 23. b chemical reactions (simulates light-
11. c 24. c ning) (d) H2O, or water vapor, H2, CH4,
12. a 25. b and NH3 (e) organic compounds
13. b
Theory of Evolution
History of Life Chapter Test A (General)
Chapter Test B (Advanced) 1. b 14. b
1. g 11. b 2. c 15. d
2. e 12. a 3. c 16. c
3. h 13. d 4. b 17. d
4. a 14. d 5. c 18. a
5. f 15. b 6. b 19. e
6. d 16. c 7. d 20. b
7. b 17. a 8. b 21. g
8. c 18. b 9. c 22. i
9. c 19. b 10. c 23. j
10. a 11. a 24. h
20. The half-life of carbon-14 is relatively 12. a 25. f
brief (5,730 years) so most of it has 13. d
Theory of Evolution Population Genetics

Chapter Test B (Advanced) and Speciation
1. g 13. b Chapter Test A (General)
2. f 14. c 1. c 10. c
3. e 15. b 2. e 11. c
4. h 16. b 3. a 12. a
5. b 17. c 4. b 13. a
6. a 18. d 5. d 14. c
7. c 19. b 6. b 15. c
8. d 20. a 7. d 16. d
9. l 21. d 8. b 17. c
10. i 22. d 9. b
11. k 23. b 18. Stabilizing selection results in fewer
12. j individuals in a population that have
24. Lamarck wrongly suggested that alleles promoting extreme types.
organisms acquired traits that helped Individuals become more similar, and
them survive and that they passed these genetic diversity decreases.
traits to offspring. He was correct in 19. The three major ways that genotypic
observing that populations change variation occurs are by mutations, by
over time. recombination during meiosis, and by
25. Sample answer: Darwin observed the random pairing of gametes.
species in many different areas which 20. disruptive selection
had similar body forms and occupied 21. The extreme traits of body color are
similar habitats; he also observed being selected for.
many similar species of finches on the 22. The allele frequency is calculated by
Galpagos Islands with beaks adapted dividing the number of a certain allele
to different foods. by the total number of alleles of all
26. The breeding of animals by humans types in the population.
artificial selectionis similar to natu- 23. no net mutations occur, individuals
ral selection in that it modifies the neither enter or leave the population,
genetic material of a species over gen- large population, individuals mate ran-
erations. It is different in that humans, domly, and selection does not occur
rather than the environment, select the 24. Genetic drift is when allele frequen-
traits to be amplified. cies in a population change as a result
27. Newer forms of organisms are actually of chance or random events.
the modified descendants of older 25. Allopatric speciation occurs when
species. species form as a result of geographic
28. The environment selects traits that isolation. Sympatric speciation occurs
increase an organisms fitness, that is, when species form as a result of
its reproductive success. reproductive isolation in the same
29. same general body shape; backbone; geographic area.
tail; eye; homologous arm/wing and leg
30. (a) A is the oldest; C is the youngest.
(b) yes (c) Species A and B and species
B and C are most closely related;
species A and C are least closely
related.

Population Genetics choose to mate with males based on

certain traits.
and Speciation 30. (a) stabilizing (b) disruptive (c) about
Chapter Test B (Advanced) 6.0 cm in 1940; about 3.25 and 8.0 cm
1. c 12. c in 1980 (d) The fish prefers medium-
2. f 13. b size (4 cm7 cm long) leeches
3. a 14. a (e) Answers will vary. For example,
4. h 15. b fish in captivity could be offered a
5. e 16. c number of leeches ranging from
6. b 17. b 1 cm to 10 cm long, and the fishes
7. d 18. d preferences could be noted.
8. g 19. c
9. a 20. a Classification of Organisms
10. b 21. d Chapter Test A (General)
11. c
1. c 11. c
22. In a small population, an individual
2. d 12. c
accounts for a relatively large fraction
3. d 13. d
of the total number of alleles. Thus,
4. a 14. c
the reproductive success of an
5. b 15. d
individual can have a large impact on
6. d 16. e
allele frequencies in the population.
7. a 17. a
23. no net mutations; no immigration or
8. b 18. b
emigration; large population; random
9. b 19. f
mating; no selection
10. d 20. c
24. Gene flow results in changes in allele
21. Animalia
frequencies.
22. Archaebacteria
25. The graphic representation of a trait
23. Fungi
in a population is a bell-shaped curve
24. Eukarya
because the average form of the trait
25. Eubacteria
is found in most members, while
extreme forms of the trait are found
in few members. Classification of Organisms
26. In punctuated equilibrium, a species Chapter Test B (Advanced)
does not change for a long period of
1. b 13. i
time but then changes rapidly over a
2. h 14. c
short period of time. In gradual evolu-
3. f 15. a
tionary change, a species changes
4. d 16. d
slowly and steadily over a long period
5. g 17. c
of time.
6. e 18. b
27. allele frequencies: R = 10/16 = 0.625;
7. c 19. d
r = 6/16 = 0.375; phenotype frequencies: 8. a 20. a
red = 3/8 = 0.375, pink = 4/8 = 0.5,
9. m 21. d
white = 1/8 = 0.125
10. l 22. d
28. Morphological species are classified
11. k 23. c
based on the internal and/or external
12. j
structure and appearance of an organ-
24. kingdom, phylum/division, class,
ism. Biological species are classified
order, family, genus, species
by whether a group of organisms can
25. Aristotle grouped organisms as plants
successfully interbreed, but cannot
and animals, as did Linnaeus. Aristotle
breed with other groups.
also grouped organisms by habitat.
29. To be in genetic equilibrium, indivi-
Linnaeus grouped morphologically
duals in a population must only mate
related organisms into a seven-level
randomly. In sexual selection, females
hierarchy.
26. Kingdom Protista includes all eukary- 24. Energy is always lost when it is trans-
otes that are not plants, animals, or ferred from one trophic level to the
fungi. It contains unicellular and next.
multicellular organisms that lack 25. Producers capture from the sun all the
specialized tissues. energy for an ecosystem.
27. A cladogram for a group of organisms
represents one possible interpretation Introduction to Ecology
for the evolutionary relationships Chapter Test B (Advanced)
between the organisms in the group
being investigated. 1. d 11. a
28. Animals that have similar embryologi- 2. f 12. c
cal development probably shared a 3. g 13. b
relatively recent ancestor. 4. h 14. b
29. In the three-domain system, domain 5. a 15. c
Archaea consists of kingdom 6. c 16. b
Archaebacteria; domain Bacteria is 7. b 17. c
composed of kingdom Eubacteria; and 8. e 18. b
domain Eukarya is composed of king- 9. c 19. b
doms Protista, Plantae, Fungi, and 10. d
Animalia. The three-domain system is 20. A trophic level indicates an organisms
based on comparisons of rRNA, which position in a sequence of energy
indicates how long ago any two organ- transfer levels in an ecosystem that
isms shared a common ancestor. is occupied by one or more types of
30. (a) This divergence might have been organisms. An organisms trophic level
caused by a decreased availability of is determined by its source of food.
food preferred by the ancestral birds. 21. Models help ecologists understand the
(b) Insects probably were a more environment and make predictions
plentiful food source than cactus. about how it might change. Models are
(c) Their beaks are adapted for cracking limited in their applications because
seeds. (d) A cladistic taxonomist might they cannot account for every variable
use evidence of shared derived charac- in an environment.
ters, such as a beak shape that differed 22. A species with a broad niche can live
from that of an ancestor. (e) analyses in a variety of places and can use a
of genetic material variety of resources.
23. biosphere, ecosystem, community,
Introduction to Ecology population, and organism
24. Trees, grass, animals, flowers, and all
Chapter Test A (General) other living components are biotic
1. d 12. b factors. Sunlight, seasonal changes,
2. a 13. c storms, fires, and earthquakes are
3. b 14. b some examples of abiotic factors.
4. c 15. d 25. Each is a response that allows
5. d 16. f organisms to avoid unfavorable
6. b 17. g environmental conditions.
7. b 18. d 26. A regulator could tolerate a wider
8. c 19. a range of environmental conditions,
9. d 20. b because their internal conditions are
10. b 21. c kept at the optimal range over a wide
11. c 22. e range of external conditions.
23. Without bacteria and fungi, dead 27. photosynthesis and chemosynthesis
organisms would not decompose, and 28. The three major processes in the
the nutrients within their bodies water cycle are evaporation, precipita-
would be unavailable to other living tion, and transpiration. Evaporation is
organisms. the change from liquid water to water
vapor and adds water to the atmos- Populations
phere. Precipitation is the process by
which water vapor leaves the atmos-
Chapter Test B (Advanced)
phere as rain, snow, fog, sleet, etc. 1. d 12. c
Transpiration is the process by which 2. g 13. b
plants take in water through their 3. e 14. d
roots and release water through their 4. h 15. a
leaves. 5. f 16. d
29. Carbon is converted from an inorganic 6. a 17. d
form into an organic form during 7. b 18. c
photosynthesis. 8. c 19. b
30. (a) It is a tolerance curve that repre- 9. b 20. b
sents plant growth under varying 10. d 21. c
temperatures. (b) No; improvement 11. a
in growth will not be observed. Both 22. When viewed up close, the individuals
plants are outside their temperature in a population may be evenly spaced.
tolerance range. (c) Plant 2 would When viewed from farther away, how-
begin to grow faster and plant 4 ever, the individuals may be found to
would exhibit slowed growth. be clustered around a food or water
source.
Populations 23. Density-independent limiting factors
Chapter Test A (General) reduce the population by the same
amount, regardless of its size. Examples
1. a 8. c include weather, floods, and fires.
2. c 9. a Density-dependent limiting factors
3. d 10. c place greater limits on population
4. e 11. c growth as the population density
5. b 12. b increases. Examples include limited
6. c 13. c resources, such as food.
7. b 14. b 24. The death rate decreased.
15. population size, population density, 25. The country probably has more young
age structure, and dispersion people than old people.
16. exponential growth 26. The country probably has more old
17. Population B has the greater potential people than young people.
for rapid population growth because 27. Type I
of the high percentage of people of 28. Type III
reproductive age. Population A will 29. Type II
most likely have a higher death rate 30. Solve the proportions as follows:
than population B, due to the high T t
percentage of older people in
N
n, Tn tN
population A. 6 3 72
18. Density-dependent (a) = , 6(12) 3N, N,
N 12 3
19. Life expectancy N 24 ferrets
20. emigration 6 6 72
21. limiting factor (b) = , 6(12) = 6N, N,
N 12 6
22. inbreeding N 12 ferrets (half of the original estimate)
23. more (c) No; t would equal zero, incorrectly
24. developed indicating an infinite number of
25. demographic transition ferrets.

Community Ecology 28. Following retreat of the last glaciers,

only barren rock and till remained.
Chapter Test A (General) Freezing and thawing gradually broke
1. a 14. e the rock into smaller pieces. Lichens
2. a 15. f eventually colonized the barren rock
3. d 16. a and released minerals from the rock,
4. b 17. i forming a thin layer of soil that
5. a 18. b enabled small grasslike plants and
6. d 19. c shrubs to grow.
7. b 20. d 29. Species richness is the number of
8. c 21. j species in the community, while species
9. c 22. g evenness is the relative abundance of
10. b 23. interspecific competition each species.
11. b 24. parasitism 30. (a) plots with both ants and rodents
12. d 25. disturbance (b) The seed density did not change
13. h significantly. (c) The seed density
greatly increased (almost tripled).
Community Ecology
Chapter Test B (Advanced) Ecosystems
1. c 13. a
2. f 14. d 1. c 12. b
3. e 15. c 2. a 13. d
4. d 16. b 3. b 14. f
5. g 17. c 4. c 15. a
6. h 18. d 5. c 16. g
7. b 19. a 6. b 17. h
8. a 20. d 7. a 18. c
9. i 21. b 8. a 19. i
10. j 22. b 9. b 20. e
11. d 23. b 10. d 21. b
12. c 11. a 22. j
24. Thorns, tough leaves, and toxins, such 23. permafrost
as strychnine and nicotine, protect 24. intertidal zone
plants from herbivorous predators by 25. Biomes
providing structures or chemicals that
discourage the herbivores from eating Ecosystems
the plants. Chapter Test B (Advanced)
25. These two species are competitors.
Chthamalus stellatus grows best in 1. e 12. d
areas exposed to prolonged dry 2. g 13. b
periods. Under these conditions, 3. h 14. a
Chthamalus outcompetes Semibalanus 4. b 15. d
balanoides. Semibalanus usually 5. f 16. c
grows best underwater. Under these 6. d 17. b
conditions, it outcompetes 7. c 18. d
Chthamalus. 8. a 19. d
26. commensalism; mutualism 9. j 20. b
27. Humans are reducing the size of natu- 10. i 21. a
ral habitats. This reduction causes a 11. c
decrease in the number of species 22. The different terrestrial biomes are
(species richness) that can be sup- distinguished by the characteristic
ported in these habitats. This is the plants and animals that occur, but
species-area effect. most are identified by their dominant
plant life.
23. The three types of grasslands are Humans and the

temperate grasslands, savannas, and
chaparral. Temperate grasslands are
Environment
characterized by thick, rich soils, with Chapter Test A (General)
dense, tall grasses in moist areas and 1. b 8. d
short grasses in drier areas. Savannas 2. c 9. b
have dry, thin, porous, and nutrient- 3. a 10. d
poor soils, with tall grasses and scat- 4. d 11. a
tered trees. Chaparral areas have 5. c 12. f
thick, rocky, nutrient-poor soil, with 6. b 13. e
evergreen shrubs and scattered trees. 7. b 14. c
24. Trees are rare because of the short 15. hydrosphere
growing season and because the 16. biodiversity
permafrost doesnt allow the tree 17. extinction
roots to penetrate down into the soil. 18. smog
25. The forest floors of tropical rain forests 19. keystone
are relatively free of vegetation because 20. Sample answer: Knowledge of ecology
little sunlight can penetrate the thick is an essential tool to solving environ-
forest canopy down to the forest floor. mental problems. Individuals can take
26. Organisms that live in the intertidal steps to conserve energy such as by
zone must be able to tolerate periodic using bicycles or public transportation
exposure to air and avoid dehydration. and by recycling or other conservation
They must also be able to withstand efforts.
the force of strong waves. 21. Sustainability is the desired condition
27. Freshwater wetlands are important of the relationship between humans
because they filter pollutants out of and the environment. It means the wise
the water that flows through them, use of renewable resources in a way
they provide spawning grounds for that will enable the human population
many economically important species, to survive indefinitely.
they are important stopovers for 22. Acid precipitation began to be produced
migratory birds, they are home to when industries and cars began to
many endangered species, and they release air polluntants that combined
control flooding. with water vapor in the atmosphere to
28. Tropical rain forests are located near form acidic precipitation. Such sources
the equator and have year-round grow- of air pollution did not exist 200 years
ing seasons, abundant precipitation, tall ago.
trees, and the highest species richness 23. Many species offer possible benefits to
of all biomes. Temperate deciduous humans, and we could lose our chance
forests are located farther from the to learn about these species. For
equator and have pronounced seasons, example, plant and animal species
lower annual precipitation, and lower are used as food and medicine.
species richness than tropical rain 24. Since 1960, the levels of carbon dioxide
forests do. in the atmosphere and the average
29. Lakes and ponds are characterized global temperature have both risen
as either eutrophic or oligotrophic. steadily. The correlation of increasing
Eutrophic lakes and ponds are rich temperatures with increasing carbon
in organic matter and vegetation. dioxide levels is very close. Many
Oligotrophic lakes and ponds contain scientists believe that the two are
little organic matter. related. However, correlation does
30. (a) savanna, (b) tropical forest, not prove cause and effect. Both
(c) temperature: approximately 6 C global temperature and levels of
to 5 C; precipitation: approximately 0 greenhouse gases may be changing
cm to 200 cm, (d) approximately 125 cm because of other variables that have
to 450 cm. not yet been recognized.
25. The ozone layer protects life on Earth taking steps to protect its biodiversity.
from ultraviolet radiation from the sun. In ecotourism, natural areas are
preserved in order to attract tourist
Humans and the business.
29. Some problems that have been faced
Environment in the attempt to reintroduce whoop-
Chapter Test B (Advanced) ing cranes include the low genetic
1. c 13. l diversity of the species; the need to
2. d 14. a recreate aspects of the cranes behavior,
3. b 15. d such as the courtship dance, to insure
4. g 16. c that the birds will successfully mate;
5. h 17. c and the need to teach the young
6. e 18. c cranes the migration route using small
7. a 19. b aircraft. Other problems include the
8. f 20. d need to protect the cranes habitat
9. m 21. d along the entire migration route.
10. i 22. a 30. (a) release of chemicals into the envi-
11. k 23. c ronment (b) increased atmospheric
12. j carbon dioxide levels and global warm-
24. The greenhouse effect has a positive ing (c) biodiversity (d) debt-for-nature
effect on life on Earth. Without the swaps or ecotourism (e) conservation
greenhouse effect Earth would be too efforts (f) reintroducing the whooping
cold to support life as we know it. crane
25. A thinning of the ozone layer would
allow more ultraviolet radiation to Bacteria
reach Earths surface, possibly result- Chapter Test A (General)
ing in an increase in mutations, such
as those that cause skin cancer, in 1. b 12. d
humans and other organisms. 2. d 13. d
26. Upper atmospheric ozone levels are 3. d 14. c
expected to decrease. Atmospheric 4. c 15. h
carbon dioxide levels are expected to 5. b 16. g
increase. Global temperature is 6. b 17. b
expected to increase. Undeveloped 7. d 18. a
land areas are expected to decrease, 8. c 19. f
and various natural resources, such as 9. a 20. d
clean water, fossil fuels, and forested 10. d 21. e
areas, are expected to decrease. 11. a 22. i
27. Humans have caused biodiversity to 23. any four of the following: cholera,
decrease by causing extinctions of tooth decay, anthrax, Lyme disease,
other species, through pollution, over- botulism, gonorrhea, tuberculosis,
hunting, and habitat destruction from food poisoning
activities such as mining, agriculture, 24. Bacteria can be identified and classified
and construction. However, humans by their shapes, by their reaction to
have also tried to protect and restore Gram staining, by their biochemical
biodiversity in some cases. properties, and by their evolutionary
28. Both debt-for-nature swaps and eco- relationships.
tourism originated to help conserve 25. Bacteria secrete exotoxins into their
biodiversity in poor countries. In a environment. These toxins, which are
debt-for-nature swap, a richer country poisonous to eukaryotic cells, can
or private organization pays some of cause disease. Bacteria also produce
the debts of a poorer country in endotoxins, which are released when
exchange for the poorer countrys the cell dies.

Bacteria Viruses
Chapter Test B (Advanced) Chapter Test A (General)
1. h 4. b 1. d 10. c
2. g 5. f 2. c 11. h
3. e 6. c 3. b 12. b
7. d 4. c 13. e
8. a 5. b 14. g
9. obligate anaerobes 6. a 15. f
10. eukaryotes, bacteria 7. d 16. a
11. pink 8. c 17. d
12. antibiotic resistance 9. b
13. domains 18. virus
14. b 19. living cells or host cells
15. d 20. DNA, RNA
16. c 21. prions
17. c 22. macrophage or immune
18. b 23. any four of the following: chickenpox;
19. a influenza; smallpox; colds; hepatis B,
20. d C, and D; AIDS.
21. c 24. Viruses cause disease in many living
22. b organisms and therefore have a major
23. d impact on the living world.
24. Answers include food production or 25. The first viruses may have evolved from
processing by fermentation, digestion of early cells, since viruses need host cells
proteins in foods, digestion of carbohy- for replication. Early viruses may have
drates in foods, production of industrial been naked pieces of nucleic acid from
and organic chemicals and fuels in min- early cells. Over time, a protective
ing and petroleum recovery, and the protein coat evolved.
cleanup of chemical and oil spills.
25. Chemoautotrophs extract energy from Viruses
chemicals taken from the environment, Chapter Test B (Advanced)
while photoautotrophs harvest energy
from sunlight. 1. d 5. b
26. Recombination is a nonreproductive 2. g 6. c
means by which bacteria acquire new 3. f 7. a
combinations of genes. Recombination 4. h 8. e
includes transformation, conjugation, 9. cells
and transduction. 10. lysozyme
27. Bacteria cause disease by secreting 11. mutates
endotoxins or exotoxins and by 12. shingles
destroying body tissues. 13. oncogene
28. The overuse of antibiotics has encour- 14. a 19. c
aged the evolution of resistant strains 15. b 20. c
of bacteria. 16. b 21. c
29. a. spirillum; b. bacillus; c. coccus 17. a 22. a
30. (a) Pili allow bacteria to adhere to 18. c 23. b
surfaces and enable conjugation. 24. Because viruses depend on cells in
(b) The cell wall protects and gives order to replicate, it is thought that
shape to bacteria. (c) The chromosome viruses were probably pieces of
carries genetic information. nucleic acid that were able to travel
(d) Plasmid contains genes obtained from one cell to another.
through genetic recombination.
(e) Flagella enable movement.
25. A virulent virus undergoes the lytic 13. Phytoplankton

cycle and causes disease by invading a 14. holdfast, stipe, blade
host cell, producing new viruses, 15. sporozoite, merozoite
destroying the host cell, and then 16. pseudopodia
releasing the newly formed viruses. A 17. amoeba
temperate virus replicates via the lyso- 18. flagellum
genic cycle and does not kill the host 19. mastigophoran or euglenoid
cell immediately. 20. cilia
26. No; viruses do not have all of the 21. ciliate
characteristics of life, such as cells, 22. The kingdom Protista is considered
metabolism, homeostasis, growth, the most diverse kingdom because its
and reproduction. members are classified by exclusion.
27. a. glycoprotein; b. capsid; c. RNA Eukaryotes that cannot be classified
genome; d. reverse transcriptase; as fungi, plants, or animals are classified
e. envelope as protists.
28. Viroids and prions are like viruses in 23. Possible answers include the follow-
that they cause disease, are very small, ing: amebiasis through contaminated
and are not composed of cells. Viroids food or water, giardiasis through
are composed of RNA only, prions are contaminated food or water, sleeping
made of protein only, and viruses sickness through the bite of an
contain DNA or RNA and protein. infected tsetse fly, leishmaniasis
29. When humans enter previously undevel- through sand flies, and cryptospordiosis
oped habitats, they may come into through contact with feces from
contact with animals that carry previ- infected animals.
ously unknown viruses and become 24. In the second stage of the life cycle of
infected through contact. This contact Plasmodium, merozoites infect the
may cause infection and spread of the hosts red blood cells and divide rap-
disease. idly. In about 48 hours, the blood cells
30. (a) When the virus was temperate, its rupture, releasing more merozoites
DNA became integrated into the hosts and toxic substances into the hosts
genome. During viral replication, parts body and initiating a cycle of chills and
of the bacterial genome were probably fever. The cycle repeats itself every 48
replicated with the viral genome and hours as new blood cells are infected.
integrated into the viral capsid during 25. Protists produce large amounts of
assembly. (b) The lysogenic cycle oxygen and organic matter; they help
begins with the attachment of the recycle materials; they form the foun-
virus to a host cell, injection of viral dation of food webs. Protists also cause
DNA into the host cell, and integration serious diseases in humans and live-
of the viral DNA into the host genome. stock. The cost of treating infected
As the host cell multiplies, the viral livestock is passed on to consumers.
DNA is also replicated and included in
each offspring cell. (c) a. 2; b. 5; c. 1; Protists
d. 4; e. 3 Chapter Test B (Advanced)
Protists 1. g 5. h
2. c 6. a
Chapter Test A (General) 3. f 7. b
1. b 6. d 4. d 8. e
2. d 7. c 9. organelles
3. c 8. c 10. micronuclei
4. c 9. d 11. phytoplankton
5. b 10. c 12. holdfast, stipe, blade
11. endosymbiosis 13. liver, red blood cells
12. Diatoms
14. c 19. a 15. ascus

15. a 20. b 16. digestive enzymes
16. d 21. d 17. mycelium, hyphae
17. a 22. d 18. zygosporangia, asci, basidia
18. c 23. d 19. infections or diseases
24. A motile protozoan; it is able to move 20. gills, basidia
toward food sources and to escape 21. yeasts
harsh environments. 22. hyphae
25. Algae constitutes one of the primary 23. crustose
energy sources in aquatic ecosystems. 24. A mycorrhiza is a relationship between
Known collectively as phytoplankton, a fungus and the roots of vascular
they form the base of nearly all marine plants. The fungus transfers minerals
and freshwater food chains. from the soil to the plant. The plant
26. A protist is any member of kingdom provides the fungus with carbohydrates.
Protista. A protozoan is a protist that A lichen is a relationship between a
moves without cilia or flagella. fungus and a photosynthetic partner
27. (from left to right) sexual; asexual such as an alga, a cyanobacterium, or
28. Rhodophyta and Phaeophyta; Seaweeds both. The fungus, usually an
are large, multicellular algae that store ascomycete, protects the photosyn-
food as carbohydrates, live in marine thetic partner and provides it with
environments, and have structures mineral nutrients. The photosynthetic
that resemble leaves, stems, and partner provides the fungus with
roots of plants. Most other algae carbohydrates.
are unicellular. 25. Fungi are thought to have arisen from
29. Pseudopodia are cytoplasmic exten- unicellular endosymbiotic prokaryotes
sions that enable ameboid movement. about 460 million years ago.
Cilia beat in synchronized strokes,
causing the protist to rotate on its Fungi
axis. The rapid whipping motion of Chapter Test B (Advanced)
flagella pushes or pulls the protist
through water. 1. d 5. a
30. (a) a. anal pore; b. gullet; c. cilia; d. 2. f 6. h
oral groove; e. food vacuole; f. pellicle; 3. c 7. g
g. contractile vacuole (b) Ciliophora; 4. e 8. b
Paramecium (c) Cilia sweep food 9. deuteromycotes
down the oral groove to the mouth 10. chitin
pore and into the gullet, which forms 11. dikaryotic
food vacuoles that circulate through- 12. prokaryotes
out the cytoplasm. The food is then 13. aflatoxin
digested, and waste exits from the 14. a
anal pore. 15. b
16. c
Fungi 17. b
18. b
Chapter Test A (General) 19. d
1. d 7. a 20. d
2. b 8. d 21. d
3. d 9. d 22. c
4. b 10. b 23. b
5. a 11. c 24. Some fungi produce sporangiospores
6. d 12. d on the tips of stalked sporangiophores;
13. organic matter some fungi produce conidia on the
14. spore tips of stalklike conidiophores; some
fungi produce cells that dry and
fragment off from the parent hyphae; The Importance of Plants
and some fungi produce new cells
(spores) by budding.
25. A gametangium is a single cell that 1. d 12. c
contains a haploid nucleus of one 2. c 13. d
mating type. A zygosporangium is 3. d 14. f
a structure that forms when two 4. b 15. j
gametangia of compatible mating 5. a 16. a
types merge and their nuclei fuse 6. c 17. g
to form a zygote. 7. d 18. i
26. Mycorrhizae are symbiotic associations 8. b 19. e
between a fungus and the roots of a 9. c 20. b
plant. They increase mineral uptake 10. b 21. h
from the soil by plants and thus 11. b 22. c
promote plant growth. 23. Quinine
27. Fungi are primarily multicellular, while 24. nut
most protists are unicellular; fungi are 25. root crops
heterotrophic, while plants are
autotrophic; fungi are nonmotile, The Importance of Plants
while animals are motile. Chapter Test B (Advanced)
28. When the environment is favorable,
asexual reproduction ensures a rapid 1. e 12. b
spread of the species. When the envi- 2. d 13. a
ronment is unfavorable, sexual repro- 3. c 14. d
duction enables genetic 4. g 15. c
recombination, increasing the likeli- 5. h 16. c
hood that offspring will survive in the 6. b 17. a
environment. 7. f 18. d
29. Both are reproductive structures of 8. a 19. d
fungi, are composed of dikaryotic 9. c 20. c
hyphae, and are large and easily visible. 10. d 21. a
The basidiocarp has basidia, which 11. a
produce basidiospores. The ascocarp 22. Answers will vary but may include
has asci, which produce ascospores. medicines derived from plants, clothing
30. (a) The hypothesis is that symbiotic fibers, fuels, and any other nonfood
organisms can grow where the uses of plants.
individual organisms cannot grow. 23. Answers include the use of irrigation,
(b) location; diameter of organism fertilizers, and pesticides; improvements
(c) In location 1, the lichen grew well, in cultivars; farm machinery; food
but the fungus and the alga grew preservation techniques; and methods
poorly. In location 2, the lichen grew of controlling diseases, weeds, and
well, but neither the fungus nor the pests.
alga survived. In location 3, all three 24. Scientists hope to find sources of new
organisms grew well. (d) The hypoth- medicines in wild plants that have not
esis is supported by the results; yet been researched, such as those
lichens grow where neither the fungus growing in the tropics.
nor the component alga can grow. 25. Water hyacinth grows in dense popula-
(e) Lichens contribute to ecological tions, impedes the passage of boats,
succession by producing soil from shades underwater plants, and
bare rock. consumes oxygen in the water.
26. The insect on the left can harm the
plant by eating it, and the plant might
benefit from an insecticide. The insect

on the right can benefit the plant by 23. Seeds protect the plant embryo before
pollinating it. Eliminating the pollinator it starts to grow and nourish it during
with an insecticide could affect the early growth. Seeds help disperse, or
plants reproduction. spread, the embryos of seed plants,
27. Answers will vary but may include thus reducing or eliminating competi-
nitrogen, phosphorus, potassium, iron, tion for resources between parent and
magnesium, oxygen, carbon dioxide, offspring. Finally, seeds make it possi-
and water. ble for plant embryos to wait until
28. Answers will vary, but could include environmental conditions are favor-
tobacco, cocaine, alcohol, opium, poi- able before beginning to grow.
son ivy, poison oak, holly, mistletoe, 24. Fruit that smells sweet when ripe is
and various types of pollen. likely to attract animals who will eat
29. ricecereal, nutmegspice, the fruit. The seeds inside the fruit will
oreganoherb, zucchinivegetable, then be dispersed when they pass
lentilslegume, sweet potatoroot undigested from the animals bodies.
crop, and pearfruit. 25. Some flowers, such as roses, have
30. (a) tofu (b) millet (c) No; legumes are brightly colored petals or strong scents.
high in isoleucine and lysine, while These characteristics attract insects
grains are high in tryptophan, cysteine, and other animals that carry pollen and
and methionine. therefore increase the likelihood of
cross-pollination. Other flowers, such
Plant Evolution and as garden peas, are adapted for self-
Classification pollination. The flowers of oaks and
grasses have small greenish flowers
Chapter Test A (General) that are adapted for wind pollination.
1. d
2. a Plant Evolution and
3. b Classification
4. a
5. c Chapter Test B (Advanced)
6. b 1. e 5. g
7. b 2. f 6. a
8. d 3. h 7. b
9. b 4. c 8. d
10. c 9. sporophyte, gametophyte
11. d 10. gymnosperms
12. c 11. fiddleheads, fronds
13. b 12. Bryophyta, Hepatophyta, and
14. alternation, generations, sporophyte, Anthocerophyta
gametophyte 13. strobilus
15. water, nutrients 14. c
16. protect, nourish 15. a
17. Xylem 16. c
18. nonvascular 17. d
19. angiosperms 18. b
20. bryophytes 19. a
21. pterophyta 20. c
22. Like all nonvascular plants, mosses 21. d
require a film of water for fertilization 22. b
to occur because the sperm must 23. c
swim to the egg. In vascular plants 24. The primary function of spores and
with seeds (such as roses), sperm are seeds is to protect and disperse the
able to reach and fertilize eggs without plants reproductive cells.
swimming through a film of water.
25. Green algae require water for disper- 24. Organic compounds move from a
sal of reproductive structures, and source, where they are made or
they lack protection from water loss stored, to a sink, where they are used.
and structural support. Leaves and roots are sources. Roots,
26. Nonvascular plants must live near stems, and developing fruits are sinks.
water because they lack means of 25. Sugar from a source enters the phloem
transporting water and require water by active transport. This increases the
for sexual reproduction. sugar concentration in the phloem and
27. Mosses, liverworts, and hornworts are causes water to enter the phloem cells
bryophytes. They are mostly terres- from the xylem by osmosis. Pressure
trial; live in moist environments; are builds up inside the phloem and forces
nonvascular; lack true roots, leaves, the sugar through the phloem. Sugar
and stems; and have an alternation of then moves from the phloem into a
generations life cycle. sink by active transport.
28. Coniferophyta; seed plants
29. Their leaves are needle-shaped and Plant Structure and Function
have a small surface area. Chapter Test B (Advanced)
30. (a) meiosis (b) spores; haploid;
mitosis (c) gametes (eggs and sperm); 1. d 13. a
haploid (d) fertilization (e) zygotes; 2. c 14. b
seed 3. f 15. d
4. g 16. a
Plant Structure and Function 5. a 17. d
6. e 18. c
Chapter Test A (General) 7. h 19. b
1. c 8. b 8. b 20. a
2. a 9. d 9. j 21. d
3. c 10. c 10. i 22. c
4. d 11. d 11. k 23. b
5. d 12. b 12. d
6. a 13. d 24. The function of tracheids is to trans-
7. d 14. c port water and minerals.
15. c 25. The lateral meristems of plants are
16. leaves the vascular cambium and the cork
17. Collenchyma cambium. They cause secondary
18. storage growth.
19. mesophyll, ground 26. Root hairs, branch roots, and mycor-
20. stomata, transpiration rhizal associations increase the
21. xylem, phloem, ring absorbing surface area of roots.
22. air spaces 27. Water moves from the soil to the
23. Most stomata open during the day and epidermis, cortex, endodermis, and
close at night. When epidermal cells of pericycle of the vascular cylinder,
leaves pump potassium ions into guard and then into the xylem.
cells, water moves into the guard cells 28. Guard cells; they accumulate potassium
by osmosis. This water influx make ions and water, which causes them to
the guard cells swell, which causes swell and bow apart, forming a stoma.
them to bow apart and form a pore. In leaves, stomata regulate the
During darkness, potassium ions are exchange of carbon dioxide and oxygen
pumped out of the guard cells. Water and water loss.
then leaves the guard cells by osmosis, 29. Carbohydrates are actively transported
causing the guard cells to shrink and into sieve tubes, and water enters the
the pore to close. sieve tubes by osmosis. Osmotic
pressure pushes the carbohydrates

into adjacent sieve tubes and to parts 23. The pollen tube links a pollen grain
of the plant that lack carbohydrates. with an ovule. Each grain contains two
Carbohydrates are then actively sperm that travel through the tube to
transported out of the sieve tubes the ovule. One sperm fuses with the
into storage or energy-requiring cells. egg and forms the zygote. The other
30. (a) gas exchange; occurs through sperm fuses with two other haploid
stomata (b) photosynthesis; occurs nuclei and develops into the
primarily in palisade mesophyll cells endosperm. The zygote and the
of leaves (c) translocation; occurs in endosperm develop into a seed,
sieve tubes of roots, stems, and leaves which grows into a new sporophyte.
(d) water pulled upward; occurs in 24. Many plants produce structures that
tracheids and vessel elements of roots, can grow into new plants. Some exam-
stems, and leaves (e) transpiration; ples are bulbs, corms, rhizomes, and
occurs through stomata tubers, which are modified stems.
Pieces of roots, stems, and leaves may
Plant Reproduction also grow into new plants.
Chapter Test A (General) 25. The stolon of a strawberry plant is a
horizontal runner or aboveground
1. b 8. d stem that can produce leaves and
2. a 9. b roots at its nodes. When the runner
3. c 10. a node reaches the ground it will grow
4. b 11. d roots and leaves to produce a new
5. d 12. b strawberry plant.
6. c 13. c
7. d Plant Reproduction
14. gametophytes, pistil
15. pollen, pollen tube, ovule
16. cotyledon 1. e 13. d
17. sepals, petals, stamens, pistil 2. g 14. b
18. sporophyte 3. f 15. c
19. fertilization 4. h 16. a
20. vegetative parts 5. d 17. d
21. The diploid sporophyte produces hap- 6. b 18. b
loid spores by meiosis. The spores fall 7. a 19. c
to the ground and grow into haploid 8. c 20. c
gametophytes, which produce 9. j 21. d
gametessperm and eggsby 10. i 22. d
mitosis. When water covers the 11. b 23. d
gametophytes, sperm can swim to the 12. c
archegonia and fertilize the eggs inside 24. mature sporophyte, sporangium, spores,
of them. The zygotes, or fertilized mature gametophyte, antheridium and
eggs, grow into new sporophytes. archegonium, egg and sperm cells,
22. At the time of pollination, the scales of zygote
a female cone are open, exposing the 25. Meiosis in megaspore mother cells
ovules. When a pollen grain lands near produces four megaspores. Three of
an ovule, a slender pollen tube grows these degenerate and one produces an
out of the pollen grain and into the embryo sac containing an egg cell.
ovule. The sperm moves through the 26. Meiosis in microspore mother cells
pollen tube and enters the ovule to produces four microspores. Each of
reach the egg. The pollen tube provides these produces pollen grains. The tube
a way for the sperm to reach the egg cell produces a pollen tube leading to
without having to swim through water. an ovule. The generative cell produces
two sperm cells, which move into the

ovule and fuse with the egg cell and as they follow the suns movements
the polar nuclei there. across the sky.
27. Making cuttings involves growing new 22. Plants are categorized as either short-
plants from pieces of stem, root, or day plants, long-day plants, or day-
leaf. Layering involves inducing root neutral plants. Short-day plants flower
formation on a stem. Grafting involves in the spring or fall when days are
attaching two or more plant parts to short and nights are long. Long-day
form a single plant. Tissue culture plants flower in the summer when
involves growing new plants from small days are long and nights are short.
pieces of tissue in sterile nutrient media. Day-neutral plants are not affected
28. Factors required to break dormancy by day length.
in certain seeds include light, low 23. Cytokinins promote cell division and
temperature, and abrasion by acid or promote lateral bud development in
other agents. These help prevent seeds dicots.
from germinating before environmental 24. Nastic movements are plant movements
conditions are suitable for growth of that occur in response to environmental
the plant. stimuli, but are independent of the
29. water, oxygen, and the appropriate stimuli direction. Examples include
temperature range the Venus flytrap that closes when
30. (a) 1. spores; 2. sperm; 3. eggs; 4. zygote touched and the prayer plant that has
(b) B and C (c) A (d) D (e) spores, male leaves that fold up at night.
gametophyte, female gametophyte, 25. The changing leaf colors are a photo-
sperm, and eggs periodic response and a temperature
response to the short day, longer
Plant Responses nights, and cooler temperatures of
Chapter Test A (General) autumn. The leaves stop producing the
green pigment chlorophyll, allowing
1. c 10. a the red, orange, and yellow pigments
2. c 11. g in the leaves to become visible.
3. a 12. a
4. a 13. f Plant Responses
5. c 14. h
6. b 15. d
7. d 16. c 1. e 13. b
8. d 17. e 2. d 14. c
9. b 18. b 3. h 15. d
19. The result of the auxin spray on fruit 4. g 16. d
trees depends on the plants stage of 5. b 17. b
development when the spray is 6. a 18. c
applied. If auxin is sprayed on young 7. c 19. d
fruits, some will drop off allowing the 8. f 20. b
remaining fruits to grow larger. If it is 9. j 21. a
sprayed on fruits several weeks before 10. i 22. c
they are ready to be picked, it will 11. a 23. b
prevent the fruits from dropping. 12. c
20. Roots grow downward under the influ- 24. Ethylene; one rotting apple will produce
ence of gravity. This is an example of ethylene gas, which stimulates nearby
gravitropism. Roots are positively apples to ripen and spoil.
gravitropic, because auxins accumulate 25. Leaf abscission causes dead, damaged,
along the lower side of the roots and or infected leaves to drop to the
the roots grow downward. ground rather than shading healthy
21. Heliotropism or solar tracking is leaves or spreading disease.
the movement of leaves or flowers

26. Auxins accumulate on the lower sides Introduction to Animals

of horizontally oriented stems and
roots. Auxins stimulate stem cells to
elongate, resulting in upward growth 1. f 13. g
of the shoot, and inhibit elongation of 2. h 14. d
root cells, resulting in downward 3. m 15. b
growth of the root. 4. e 16. b
27. Thigmonastic movements; some thig- 5. k 17. a
monastic movements occur within a 6. j 18. d
few seconds of a stimulus. 7. a 19. c
28. Long-day plants will flower when the 8. b 20. b
number of hours of continuous dark- 9. l 21. c
ness is shorter than critical night 10. i 22. b
length, or when a period of darkness 11. d 23. d
longer than critical night length is 12. c
divided into two dark periods each 24. Scientists have inferred that multicel-
shorter than critical night length. lular invertebrates may have devel-
29. Biennial plants flower in the spring of oped from colonies of loosely
their second year of growth. connected flagellated protists.
30. (a) auxin (b) step B; the agar block did Colonial protists may have lost their
not contain plant hormones, and no flagella over the course of evolution as
changes in growth were observed.
(c) Synthetic auxin could be applied to individualized cells in the colony grew
an agar block and then the agar block more specialized.
placed on one side of a decapitated 25. Sponges have no body symmetry and
shoot tip. If the shoot tip were to bend no true tissues.
in the direction opposite the location 26. Segmentation refers to a body com-
of the agar block, then the results posed of a series of repeating similar
would indicate that auxin causes the units. It is not found in all animals;
results observed in part A of Wents some invertebrate phyla are not seg-
experiments. mented.
27. The coelom forms from rapid cell divi-
Introduction to Animals sion in the blastocoel. The newly dif-
Chapter Test A (General) ferentiated mesodermal cells spread
out and completely line the newly
1. a 12. a formed coelom.
2. d 13. e 28. a. blastocoel; b. archenteron; c. coelom;
3. d 14. g d. schizocoely; e. blastocoel; f. coelom;
4. a 15. a g. archenteron; h. enterocoely
5. d 16. f 29. A human embryo undergoes radial,
6. b 17. h indeterminate cleavage; the coelom
7. c 18. c forms by enterocoely; and the blasto-
8. c 19. i pore becomes the anus. In contrast,
9. a 20. d a clam embryo undergoes spiral,
10. b 21. b determinate cleavage; the coelom
11. b forms by schizocoely; and the blasto-
22. mesoderm pore becomes the mouth.
23. radial symmetry 30. a. invertebrates; b. both; c. inverte-
24. hermaphrodite brates; d. both; e. both; f. invertebrates;
25. organogenesis g. vertebrates; h. both; i. vertebrates;
j. both; k. both; l. invertebrates; m. both;
n. both; o. vertebrates

Sponges, Cnidarians, 26. Both sponges and cnidarians have two

cell layers (though only cnidarians
and Ctenophores have true tissues); the central body
Chapter Test A (General) cavity of both has one opening, and
1. c 10. f cnidarians have mesoglea.
2. c 11. j 27. The dominant body form found in
3. d 12. i scyphozoans is the medusa, while the
4. b 13. a dominant body form found in antho-
5. c 13. a zoans is the polyp.
6. d 14. e 28. Algae; the conditions of shallow equa-
7. a 15. h torial seas allow the algae to live and
8. b 16. c undergo photosynthesis.
9. g 17. d 29. a. epidermis; b. gastrovascular cavity;
18. choanocytes c. mouth; d. medusa; e. mouth; f. gas-
19. gemmule trovascular cavity; g. epidermis; h.
20. hermaphrodite polyp
21. medusa 30. (a) external (b) blastula (c) Planula; it
22. polyp attaches to the sea floor. (d) The polyp
23. apical organs forms a stack of medusae that are
24. nerve net released into the water.(e) Identical;
25. ctenophore they are the result of the union of
a single egg and sperm.
Sponges, Cnidarians,
and Ctenophores Flatworms, Roundworms,
Chapter Test B (Advanced) and Rotifers
1. e 13. b
2. f 14. b 1. a 9. c
3. c 15. a 2. b 10. d
4. a 16. d 3. a 11. a
5. l 17. c 4. d 12. b
6. i 18. c 5. d 13. f
7. m 19. b 6. c 14. g
8. k 20. d 7. b 15. e
9. j 21. a 8. h
10. h 22. d 16. tegument
11. g 23. b 17. proglottids
12. d 18. snail
24. The food that a sponge collects is 19. eyespot
engulfed and digested by collar cells. 20. scolex
Nutrients then pass to amebocytes, 21. The pseudocoelom contains fluid. This
which spread the nutrients among the fluid serves as a simple circulatory
sponges other body cells. Waste prod- and gas exchange system, carrying
ucts diffuse out of cells and leave the nutrients, oxygen, and carbon dioxide
sponges body through the osculum. throughout the animals body. The
25. Sponges reproduce asexually by bud- materials move into and out of cells
ding or by regeneration. When sponges by diffusion.
reproduce sexually, sperm from one 22. cooking meat thoroughly to kill all
sponge are released in the water and larvae it may contain; wearing shoes
join with the egg of another sponge, in areas where animal hosts are com-
producing a swimming larva that even- monly found; and wearing protective
tually becomes a sessile adult sponge. clothing when wading in waters that
may be contaminated with Schistosoma

23. Planarians are hermaphrodites that 28. Planaria swim with a wavelike motion.
reproduce sexually when two individu- They move over a surface on a layer of
als transfer sperm to each other. They mucus they secrete, propelled by the
also reproduce asexually by splitting cilia that cover their bodies.
in two to form two individuals. 29. a. eyespots; b. excretory tubule;
24. They absorb food from the hosts c. nerve; d. pharynx
intestine directly through their skin. 30. (a) No; horses do not eat meat.
25. Rotifers sweep food into the mouth (b) after the pig (c) by eating only
with a crown of beating cilia. The food meat that has been inspected for
moves from the mouth to the mastax, cysts and by cooking meat thoroughly
where it is ground into smaller parti- (d) larval (the larvae are contained in
cles. The food is further digested in cysts embedded in muscle) (e) Worms
the stomach, and the nutrients are are animals, and medicines that kill
absorbed in the intestine. them can also affect their animal
hosts. Bacteria are very different from
Flatworms, Roundworms, eukaryotic animal cells, and many
and Rotifers antibiotics attack bacterial structures
that animal cells do not share, such
Chapter Test B (Advanced) as the cell wall.
1. d 13. l
2. f 14. a Mollusks and Annelids
3. j 15. c Chapter Test A (General)
4. h 16. d
5. b 17. d 1. a 11. d
6. a 18. b 2. c 12. c
7. k 19. b 3. b 13. g
8. i 20. b 4. d 14. i
9. e 21. c 5. c 15. e
10. g 22. c 6. a 16. a
11. m 23. c 7. d 17. f
12. c 8. c 18. h
24. Fertilized eggs are released in the 9. b 19. d
urine and feces of humans, the pri- 10. a 20. b
mary host. In water, ciliated larvae 21. radula
develop and invade the bodies of 22. setae, parapodia
snails, the intermediate host. The lar- 23. trochophore
vae develop tails and become free- 24. gills
swimming. The tailed larvae enter the 25. incurrent siphons
skin of a human swimming or wading
in the water, and the cycle repeats. Mollusks and Annelids
25. feeding only cooked meat scraps to Chapter Test B (Advanced)
animals used for food; inspecting meat
1. c 12. a
for the presence of cysts; cooking
2. e 13. b
meat thoroughly
3. d 14. b
26. The tegument is composed of cells;
the cuticle is not. 4. a 15. c
5. h 16. d
27. An acoelomate does not have a body
6. g 17. d
cavity. A pseudocoelomate has a body
7. b 18. d
cavity, and mesoderm lines the outer
8. f 19. c
body wall. Platyhelminthes, or flat-
9. b 20. a
worms, are acoelomates with three
10. c 21. b
germ layers.
11. d

22. The mantle that lines a terrestrial Arthropods

snails mantle cavity must be moist
for respiration to occur. During dry
conditions, the snail closes itself up 1. d 12. f
in its shell. 2. m 13. i
23. Cephalopods have strong, beaklike 3. h 14. c
jaws and tentacles with suction cups 4. j 15. o
for seizing prey. They have well- 5. a 16. c
developed nervous systems, including 6. b 17. a
a lobed brain and complex eyes, and 7. e 18. d
are capable of complex behavior. They 8. n 19. d
have a closed circulatory system for 9. g 20. a
more rapid transport of nutrients and 10. k 21. b
wastes, and they have jet propulsion. 11. l 22. d
Both allow for a highly active lifestyle. 23. head, thorax, abdomen
24. Answers include the trochophore 24. crustaceans
larva and the coelom. Annelids are 25. four
segmented, while mollusks are not.
25. No; an important function of the mantle Arthropods
is secretion of a shell. Annelids do not Chapter Test B (Advanced)
have a shell.
26. In a closed circulatory system, blood 1. b 13. g
moves more rapidly. Members of 2. j 14. c
Cephalopoda have a closed circulatory 3. a 15. d
system. 4. m 16. c
27. Oxygen diffuses through the skin of 5. d 17. c
the earthworm. The environment must 6. f 18. d
be moist and cool. 7. h 19. c
28. Polychaetes differ from other annelids 8. l 20. d
in that polychaetes have antennae and 9. i 21. a
specialized mouthparts. They are also 10. c 22. c
the only annelids that have a tro- 11. e 23. b
chophore stage of development. 12. k
29. There are some differences in habitat: 24. Segmented appendages around the
Oligochaeta live in soil or fresh water; mouth and eyes are examples of
Polychaeta are mostly marine; and features associated with cephalization.
Hirudinea live in calm, fresh water or 25. Before a molt, an arthropods tissues
in moist vegetation on land. swell, straining the exoskeleton. A
30. (a) a. shell; b. gill; c. mantle cavity; hormone that induces molting is then
d. anus; e. heart; f. mantle; g. stomach; produced, causing epidermal cells to
h. ganglia (b) The mantle secretes secrete enzymes that digest the inner
hard shells that protect the mollusk. layer of the exoskeleton. The epider-
(c) The evolution of gills has maximized mis synthesizes a new exoskeleton,
the area available for gas exchange in and the old exoskeleton is shed.
the mollusk. 26. Trilobita (the extinct trilobites),
Crustacea (lobsters, crayfish, sow
bugs, pill bugs), Chelicerata (spiders,
scorpions, mites, ticks), Myriapoda
(millipedes, centipedes), and
Hexapoda (insects)

27. Abdominal muscles; the telson and Insects

uropods, which together act as a pad-
dlelike tail, help propel the crayfish
during tailflips. 1. d 13. e
28. Spiders use chelicerae (fangs) to 2. j 14. a
inject poison into their prey. Venom 3. f 15. b
is produced in poison glands in the 4. b 16. d
cephalothorax. 5. m 17. a
29. Centipedes kill their prey with poison 6. a 18. a
claws and tear the meat apart with 7. h 19. d
mandibles and maxillae. 8. l 20. c
30. (a) a. stomach; b. poison gland; 9. k 21. b
c. chelicera (fang); d. pedipalp; 10. g 22. b
e. Malpighian tubule; f. silk gland; 11. i 23. c
g. gut; h. book lung (b) The excretory 12. c
system of spiders is adapted to life on 24. The bombardier beetle defends itself
land by Malpighian tubules, which by spraying a hot stream of a noxious
enable spiders to conserve water by chemical from an opening on its
reabsorption. (c) The main disadvan- abdomen that can be rotated.
tage of molting is that each new 25. Ants lay a pheromone on the ground
exoskeleton takes a few days to harden, to guide other ants to food sources.
rendering an arthropod vulnerable to Female moths secrete pheromone to
predation and desiccation. attract mates.
26. The mouthparts of drones are too short
Insects to feed on flower nectar, so drones
Chapter Test A (General) must be fed by workers. You would
expect the mouthparts of workers to
1. g 9. e be functional because workers collect
2. h 10. f food, work in the hive, and feed the
3. j 11. b members of the colony.
4. d 12. a 27. Grasshoppers have two kinds of eyes,
5. a 13. d simple and compound. There are three
6. c 14. b simple eyes and two compound eyes.
7. i 15. b The simple eyes detect light intensity.
8. b 16. d The compound eyes detect intensity,
17. head, thorax, abdomen movement, and form images.
18. hemolymph, open 28. Isoptera (termites)
19. gizzard, midgut 29. The honeybee has a barbed stinger
20. touch, smell and displays altruistic behavior. After
21. vibrates in response to sound it stings another animal, the honeybee
22. exchanges gases with the environment flies away. The stinger remains in the
23. contains digestive, respiratory, circula- animal, and the bees internal organs
tory, and reproductive organs are ripped out. The wasp has a smooth
24. During development, the larva uses stinger that can be removed from its
habitats and food sources different enemy when the wasp flies away.
from those of the adult. Competition 30. a. incomplete metamorphosis; b. egg;
between larva and adult is reduced, c. nymph; d. adult grasshopper;
thus increasing the chance for survival e. complete metamorphosis; f. egg;
in each stage of the insect life cycle. g. larva; h. pupa; i. butterfly; j. Larvae
25. biting and chewing, piercing and and adults do not compete for food
sucking, sponging and lapping and space. k. The pupa and chrysalis
protect an insect during the winter
and thus enhance the insects chances
of survival.
Echinoderms and excurrent siphon into the surrounding

water, where fertilization occurs.
Invertebrate Chordates 29. Aristotles lantern is the jawlike feeding
Chapter Test A (General) structure of sea urchins that consists
1. f 11. a of teeth and muscles.
2. d 12. d 30. (a) Cephalochordata (b) Urochordata
3. e 13. d (c) Vertebrata (d) Cephalochordata
4. a 14. b and Urochordata; In the water; most
5. h 15. a sessile animals filter food from water.
6. c 16. a (e) Cephalochordata: lancelet;
7. b 17. c Urochordata: tunicates; Vertebrata:
8. g 18. c sample answers include any fish,
9. d 19. b amphibian, reptile, bird, or mammal.
10. a 20. a
21. water, vascular Fishes
22. common ancestor Chapter Test A (General)
23. nerve ring
1. e 11. c
24. sea cucumbers
2. c 12. d
25. pharyngeal pouches or slits
3. d 13. c
4. f 14. a
Echinoderms and 5. b 15. b
Invertebrate Chordates 6. a 16. a
Chapter Test B (Advanced) 7. c 17. d
8. b 18. c
1. f 13. d
9. d 19. c
2. i 14. a
10. d 20. a
3. m 15. d
21. opercula
4. k 16. b
22. lampreys, hagfish
5. l 17. c
23. scales, age
6. a 18. b
24. optic tectum
7. b 19. c
25. countercurrent flow
8. e 20. b
9. h 21. c
10. j 22. b Fishes
11. c 23. d Chapter Test B (Advanced)
12. g 1. d 13. m
24. In vertebrates, it leaves only a trace 2. j 14. b
after the backbone is developed. 3. a 15. a
In cephalochordates, it is retained. 4. f 16. c
In tunicates, it is lost during 5. l 17. d
metamorphosis. 6. b 18. a
25. notochord, dorsal nerve cord, post-anal 7. c 19. b
tail, and pharyngeal pouches or slits 8. h 20. b
26. Young tunicates have all four chordate 9. e 21. d
characters, whereas adults have only 10. g 22. a
the pharyngeal pouches or slits. 11. i 23. b
27. The arms of a sea star can detach and 12. k
regenerate as a defense mechanism. 24. The lateral-line system consists of a
Regeneration is important to repro- row of sensory structures that run
duction because each arm of a sea star along each side of the fishs body and
contains a pair of ovaries or testes. are connected by nerves to the brain.
28. Tunicates are hermaphrodites. Sperm The structures detect vibrations in
and eggs are released through the the water.
25. Members of Myxini and Actinopterygii 21. Caudata

use external fertilization, where the 22. Caecilians are blind and legless. They
male releases sperm as the female have teeth for capturing and consuming
releases eggs. Members of Chond- prey, and chemosensory tentacles for
richthyes use internal fertilization, in detecting prey. All of these are adapta-
which the male transfers sperm into tions for a burrowing lifestyle.
the females body with claspers. 23. Mucous glands embedded in the skin
26. Answers include the following: sense supply a lubricant that keeps the skin
of smell (detects chemicals with moist. This moist surface is necessary
nostrils); lateral-line system (detects for cutaneous respiration.
vibrations in water); vision; sensitive 24. Oxygen-poor blood from the body
to electric fields. enters the right atrium. Oxygen-rich
27. Deoxygenated blood enters the sinus blood from the lungs enters the left
venosus and then moves into the larger atrium through the pulmonary veins.
atrium. Contraction of the atrium The blood from both atria enters the
moves the blood to the ventricle, the ventricle, which pumps the blood to
main pumping chamber of the heart. the conus arteriosus and then to the
The ventricle pumps blood through lungs and the body. Oxygen-poor is
the conus arteriousus and eventually sent to the lungs. Oxygen-rich blood
to the gills. is sent to the body.
28. Jaws allow fish to seize and manipulate 25. The male Darwins frog broods the
prey; paired fins increase stability and eggs in his vocal sacs where they
maneuverability. hatch and undergo metamorphosis.
29. Cartilaginous fishes either keep moving Female gastric-brooding frogs swallow
to maintain a vertical position or store their eggs, which hatch and mature in
large amounts of low-density lipids. the stomach. Females of some species
Bony fishes have a swim bladder, sit on their eggs until they hatch.
which contains a mixture of gases
from the bloodstream and regulates Amphibians
the amount of gas in the body to Chapter Test B (Advanced)
adjust body density.
30. (a) 1. bony fish; 2. mammals; 1. c 13. i
3. Myxini; 4. Aves; 5. cartilage; 2. g 14. c
6. yes (b) all of them (c) Vertebrata 3. a 15. d
(d) aquatic (e) The skeleton is 4. d 16. a
composed of cartilage. 5. k 17. c
6. f 18. a
Amphibians 7. b 19. b
8. j 20. a
Chapter Test A (General) 9. l 21. a
1. e 9. d 10. m 22. d
2. a 10. c 11. e 23. c
3. b 11. a 12. h
4. c 12. b 24. During inhalation, the floor of the
5. d 13. c mouth drops and the nostrils open. Air
6. b 14. d is then pushed into the lungs as the
7. c 15. c floor of the mouth is raised and the
8. d nostrils close.
16. cutaneous 25. Accept four of the following: metamor-
17. cloacal, vent phosis; moist, thin skin without scales;
18. metamorphosis feet that lack claws; gills, lungs, and
19. ventricle skin for respiration; eggs laid in water
20. lungs or moist places; external fertilization.

26. The moist skin of amphibians is 24. Cheloniaturtles; Rhynchocephalia

vulnerable to dehydration, so most tuataras; Squamatalizards and snakes;
amphibians live in moist environments Crocodiliacrocodiles and alligators
and are active at night. Desert amphib- 25. A turtles shell is streamlined and disk
ians remain in moist burrows deep in shaped. Depending on the species, the
the soil, coming out to feed and repro- carapace (top) and plastron (bottom)
duce only after heavy rains. are made of fused plates of bone
27. Answers include a rigid spine to bear covered with horny shields or tough,
the weight of the body; strong limbs to leathery skin. In most species, the
support the body while moving or vertebrae and ribs are fused to the
standing; and a fused lower forelimb inside of the carapace. The shell
(radio-ulna) and hind limb provides protection and support
(tibiofibula). for muscle attachments.
28. The tadpole gradually changes from its
aquatic form to its terrestrial form, Reptiles
growing legs, losing its tail and gills, Chapter Test B (Advanced)
and developing jaws and functional
lungs. 1. d 13. k
29. The male Darwins frog takes the eggs 2. b 14. b
into his vocal sacs, where the eggs 3. m 15. d
hatch and undergo metamorphosis. 4. f 16. a
Females of some species of frogs sit 5. a 17. c
on their eggs to keep them moist. 6. j 18. c
30. (a) 5; young frog coming onto land 7. l 19. b
(b) 3; tadpole lives in water (c) 6; adult 8. h 20. c
frog (d) 1; male fertilizes eggs (e) 4; 9. c 21. a
tadpole is growing legs and still living 10. e 22. c
in water (f) 2; fertilized eggs in water 11. g 23. d
12. i
Reptiles 24. This hypothesis suggests that a huge
asteroid hit Earth, sending so much
Chapter Test A (General) dust into the atmosphere that the
1. c 9. d amount of sunlight reaching Earths
2. b 10. b surface was greatly reduced. The
3. a 11. d resulting climatic changes led to mass
4. d 12. c extinction.
5. c 13. b 25. The body of a turtle is covered by a
6. b 14. a shell; the pelvic and pectoral girdles
7. a 15. c lie within the ribs; and turtles have a
8. b sharp beak instead of teeth.
16. ectotherms 26. The upper and lower jaws are loosely
17. alveoli hinged and move independently; the
18. plastron lower jaw, palate, and parts of the
19. amniotic, ancestor skull are joined by a flexible ligament
20. Mesozoic era that allows the snakes head to stretch
21. asteroid impact hypothesis around its prey.
22. autotomy 27. A crocodile lies waiting until an animal
23. A snakes jaw is very flexible because approaches and then attacks quickly.
it has several points of movement. At It can see and breathe while it is qui-
one of these pointsthe chinthe etly submerged in water, and it can
halves of the lower jaw are connected feed underwater due to a valve that
by an elastic ligament that permits the prevents water from entering its air
lower jaw to spread apart when a passages.
large meal is being swallowed.
28. Answers include three of the following: amount of oxygen transported to the
Dinosaurs were a diverse group of rep- body cells. Also, because the flow of
tiles that varied in size, form, and habi- blood in the lungs runs in a different
tat. Icthyosaurs were aquatic reptiles direction than the flow of air, oxygen
that resembled dolphins. Plesiosaurs absorption is increased.
were also aquatic, with long, flexible 25. One hypothesis states that the ances-
necks and compact bodies. Pterosaurs tors of birds were tree dwellers that
were flying reptiles. glided between the branches; a second
29. The amnion is a membrane that hypothesis holds that winglike struc-
surrounds the embryo; it encloses tures were used for stability and prey
the salty fluid in which the embryo capture in ground-dwelling species.
floats and develops.
30. (a) Arrows should be drawn from the Birds
body to the right atrium, then to the Chapter Test B (Advanced)
lungs, then from the lungs to the left
atrium, then to the ventricle, and back 1. a 13. f
to the body. (b) 1. deoxygenated; 2. l 14. a
2. mixed; 3. oxygenated; 4. mixed 3. c 15. c
(c) 1. deoxygenated; 2. deoxygenated; 4. h 16. c
3. oxygenated; 4. oxygenated 5. d 17. c
(d) Crocodilia (e) Bypassing the lungs 6. j 18. d
allows an inactive reptile to conserve 7. b 19. b
energy and raise its temperature quickly. 8. k 20. c
9. i 21. d
Birds 10. e 22. a
11. g 23. a
Chapter Test A (General) 12. h
1. c 10. a 24. Both types of air sacs store air. The
2. g 11. c anterior air sacs receive oxygen-rich
3. f 12. b air and send it to the lungs. The poste-
4. b 13. a rior air sacs receive oxygen-depleted
5. h 14. c air leaving the lungs.
6. a 15. b 25. Precocial refers to birds that lay many
7. e 16. c eggs and incubate them for long periods
8. d 17. b of time. Altricial refers to birds that
9. d lay few eggs that hatch quickly.
18. amniotic, scales 26. Answers include three of the following:
19. contour feathers position of stars, topographical land-
20. forelimbs marks, Earths magnetic field, changes
21. ducks in air pressure, and low-frequency
22. scales sounds.
23. Contour feathers cover an adult birds 27. Both have a sharp, curved beak and
body and give it shape. Specialized talons, which are used for hunting.
contour feathers on the wings and Members of Strigiformes hunt at night
tail help provide lift for flight. Down and rely on their sense of hearing.
feathers cover young birds and are Members of Ciconiiformes hunt during
found beneath the contour feathers the day and use their keen sense of
of adults. Down feathers conserve vision.
body heat by providing insulation. 28. Answers include feathers; wings; a
24. A bird lung is more efficient. The lungs lightweight, rigid skeleton; endothermic
are connected to a series of air sacs metabolism; a beak; oviparity; and an
that make one-way air flow possible. efficient respiratory system consisting
Thus, the lungs are exposed only to of air sacs connected to the lungs.
oxygenated air, which increases the
29. Answers may include that flight 24. Once dinosaurs became extinct, new
evolved in tree-dwellers that jumped habitats and ecological roles became
between branches, glided, and eventu- available to mammals without the
ally flapped wings, or that flight danger of predation by dinosaurs,
evolved on the ground and wings were allowing mammals to diversify.
used to stabilize animals leaping after 25. Both are ungulates, or hoofed mam-
prey. mals. Artiodactyls have an even num-
30. (a) a. proventriculus; b. gizzard; ber of toes and a rumen for breaking
c. kidney; d. large intestine; e. cloaca; down cellulose. Perissodactyls have an
f. crop; g. heart (b) digestive and odd number of toes and a cecum.
excretory systems (c) In birds, the 26. Separated ventricles of the heart
passage of food through the digestive prevent the mixing of oxygenated and
system is very rapid. The excretory deoxygenated blood. Mammals also
system is efficient and lightweight; have a large internal lung surface area
most birds do not store liquid waste. and a diaphragm. These adaptations
(d) The gizzard often contains small increase the supply of oxygen, which
stones that aid in the grinding of food. is needed for the fast metabolism of
(e) The crop stores and moistens food. endothermic animals.
27. All have streamlined bodies similar to
Mammals those of fish. The forelimbs and hind
Chapter Test A (General) limbs of pinnipeds are paddlelike for
swimming. The forelimbs of cetaceans
1. b 10. a and sirenians are flippers; a broad tail
2. c 11. c replaces their hind limbs.
3. a 12. g 28. All produce milk to feed their young.
4. c 13. f Monotremes lay eggs, while marsupials
5. d 14. d and placental mammals give birth to
6. c 15. a live young. Marsupial females have a
7. c 16. e pouch in which their young continue
8. b 17. b early development after birth.
9. b 18. c Placental mammals nourish their
19. Homo erectus young internally through a placenta.
20. Africa 29. endothermy, hair, a completely divided
21. four-chambered heart, milk production by mammary
22. therapsids, endotherms glands, a single jawbone, and special-
23. synapsid ized teeth
24. dinosaurs 30. (a) a. Carnivora; b. Insectivora;
25. artiodactyl, perissodactyl c. Cetacea (b) The long canines of
carnivores aid in tearing flesh and
Mammals grasping prey. The baleen serves to
Chapter Test B (Advanced) filter invertebrates from the water.
(c) Skull b; the nose is long and
1. g 13. k pointed and enables probing in soil
2. j 14. b for insects, worms, and other inverte-
3. h 15. d brates. The teeth are sharp, an adapta-
4. d 16. a tion that is useful for catching and
5. b 17. c grasping insects. (d) Baleen; it is used
6. e 18. b to filter and trap invertebrates in the
7. l 19. b water. (e) the cerebrum
8. a 20. d
9. i 21. c
10. c 22. d
11. m 23. c
12. f
Animal Behavior 26. The killing of cubs benefits the indi-

vidual male lion that carries out the
Chapter Test A (General) killing because it increases the likeli-
1. c 11. c hood that he will father more cubs.
2. a 12. b Natural selection favors traits that
3. d 13. e contribute to the survival and repro-
4. d 14. g duction of individuals.
5. b 15. b 27. The rat accidentally pressed a lever
6. c 16. f that released food. Then it learned to
7. d 17. a press the lever to obtain food. The
8. b 18. d chimpanzee stacked boxes to obtain a
9. a 19. c banana hanging overhead without
10. a using any experimentation or trial-and-
20. natural selection error strategies. The chimpanzee ana-
21. operant conditioning lyzed the situation and reasoned the
22. migratory behavior best way to obtain the banana.
23. associate, classical conditioning 28. Courtship rituals help in species identi-
24. A young birds ability to imprint, or to fication and help to identify individuals
follow the first moving object it sees receptive to mating. Examples include:
after hatching, is genetically pro- flash patterns of fireflies (species iden-
grammed. The object the young bird tification); pheromones produced by
follows, or imprints on, is learned female silk moths (identification of
immediately after it hatches. individuals receptive to mating); and
25. Animals can use sight, sound, chemicals, songs and sounds produced by birds,
touch, and sometimes language. insects, and amphibians.
29. Benefits include protection from pred-
Animal Behavior ators and increased success in forag-
Chapter Test B (Advanced) ing. Costs include increased
competition for food, mates, and other
1. c 13. j resources. There is also the increased
2. m 14. c risk of spreading diseases.
3. l 15. a 30. (a) a. annual; b. lunar; c. circadian (b)
4. g 16. d Sample examples: a. ground squirrels
5. b 17. b hibernating during the winter; b. fiddler
6. e 18. d crabs emerging from their burrows at
7. i 19. a low tide; c. mice and owls being active
8. d 20. c at night and quiet during the day
9. k 21. a (c) Cyclical behavior is influenced by
10. f 22. c changes in the environment, including
11. a 23. b temperature changes, variations in
12. h availability of food, and likelihood
24. Sample answer: Innate behaviors are of predation.
genetically determined, such as the
orb spiders web building. Learned Skeletal, Muscular, and
behaviors are created or modified
through experience, such as Pavlovs
Integumentary Systems
dogs or the rats in the Skinner boxes Chapter Test A (General)
that associated response actions to 1. c 8. b
stimuli with food rewards. 2. b 9. d
25. It ensures that individuals will mate 3. d 10. d
only with members of their own 4. c 11. a
species. 5. d 12. a
6. a 13. d
7. b 14. b
15. osteoarthritis, rheumatoid arthritis the inner layer of skin, consists of

16. thoracic cavity, abdominal cavity blood vessels, sensory neurons, hair
17. axial skeleton follicles, glands, and other structures
18. flexors that enable the body to respond to
19. oxygen debt, muscle soreness external stimuli.
20. hair follicles 28. Red bone marrow produces red blood
21. a cells and some white blood cells.
22. c Yellow bone marrow consists prima-
23. b rily of fat cells and serves as an energy
24. c store.
25. a 29. a. ball-and-socket joint; b. hinge joint;
c. gliding joint
Skeletal, Muscular, and 30. (a) biceps; flexor (b) triceps; extensor
(c) An insertion is the point where a
Integumentary Systems muscle attaches to a moving bone.
Chapter Test B (Advanced) The insertion of a is the radius, and
1. f 13. a the insertion of c is the ulna. (d) An
2. h 14. d origin is the point where a muscle
3. e 15. d attaches to a stationary bone. The
4. g 16. d origin of both a and c is the scapula.
5. a 17. d (e) elbow; hinge joint
6. c 18. b
7. d 19. a Circulatory and
8. b 20. d Respiratory Systems
9. b 21. c
10. d 22. b
11. c 23. d 1. d 10. a
12. b 2. a 11. a
24. Myosin filaments attach to actin fila- 3. c 12. b
ments. The myosin filaments bend 4. d 13. c
inward, causing the actin filaments to 5. c 14. a
overlap. This shortens the length of 6. d 15. b
sarcomeres and causes the muscle to 7. b 16. e
contract. 8. d 17. d
25. The skin provides protection from and 9. c
interaction with the external environ- 18. venae cavae, right atrium
ment, retains body fluids, eliminates 19. air pressure
waste, and helps regulate body 20. alveoli
temperature. 21. systemic circulation
26. Tissue is a collection of cells that are 22. acidic
similar in structure and that work 23. atria
together to perform a particular 24. platelets
function. An organ consists of 25. diaphagm, contracts
various tissues that enable the
organ to perform a specific function.
27. The epidermis, the tough outer layer
of skin, consists primarily of dead,
keratin-filled cells and serves as the
bodys protective barrier. The dermis,

Circulatory and to diffuse back into the blood from the

alveoli. (d) Red blood cells transport
Respiratory Systems oxygen and, to a lesser extent, carbon
Chapter Test B (Advanced) dioxide. (e) In the lungs, bicarbonate
1. b 13. d ions combine with a proton to form
2. f 14. d carbonic acid, which in turn forms
3. i 15. c carbon dioxide and water.
4. h 16. c
5. g 17. a The Bodys Defense Systems
6. j 18. b Chapter Test A (General)
7. a 19. c
1. b 13. a
8. d 20. b
2. a 14. h
9. k 21. c
3. c 15. f
10. c 22. b
4. b 16. e
11. e 23. c
5. d 17. b
12. b
6. c 18. a
24. No; the problem associated with
7. d 19. d
the transfusion of whole blood is the
8. b 20. c
agglutination of the donor blood cells
9. b 21. g
caused by the antibodies of the recipi-
10. c 22. histamine
ent. There are no donor blood cells if
11. a 23. antigen
only plasma is being used; thus, there
12. c
is no need to know the blood type of
24. skin, mucous membranes
the donor.
25. The most rapid division of B cells
25. Valves in the veins prevent the back-
occurs during the time period labeled
flow of blood.
C because this is the interval during
26. Systemic circulation is the circulation
which antibody production increases
of blood between the heart and all
at the fastest rate.
other body tissues except the lungs.
27. Mucus decreases friction created by
the movement of the lungs during The Bodys Defense Systems
breathing. Chapter Test B (Advanced)
28. When a deep breath is taken, the chest
1. k 13. b
expands as rib muscles contract. The
2. j 14. c
rib cage expands and the diaphragm
3. g 15. b
contracts and moves downward. The
4. d 16. d
reduced air pressure in the thoracic
5. f 17. b
cavity causes air from the atmosphere
6. b 18. b
to move into the lungs.
7. e 19. b
29. a. aorta; b. superior vena cava; c. right
8. i 20. d
atrium; d. right ventricle; e. inferior
9. c 21. b
vena cava; f. pulmonary artery; g. left
10. a 22. a
atrium; h. pulmonary veins; i. left
11. h 23. d
ventricle
12. b
30. (a) concentration gradients (b) Carbon
24. A primary difference is that the specific
dioxide is more concentrated in the
recognition of an antigen is required to
blood. (c) The concentration of oxygen
activate the immune systems specific
in alveoli decreases as the remaining
defenses. Specific recognition is not
oxygen diffuses from alveoli into the
required for nonspecific defenses.
blood. In addition, the concentration
25. When an injury such as a cut occurs,
of carbon dioxide in alveoli increases,
damaged cells release histamine, which
causing the concentration gradient to
increases blood flow to the wounded
shift. This shift causes carbon dioxide

area. Phagocytes and neutrophils then 12. capillaries, lymphatic vessels
engulf and destroy most of the 13. pancreas
pathogens. 14. collecting duct
26. In an autoimmune disease, the immune 15. nephron
system responds to the bodys own 16. renal cortex, renal medulla
cells, attacking them as if they were 17. rickets
pathogens. 18. iodine
27. HIV mutates rapidly and suppresses 19. mechanical digestion, chemical
the immune system. These two charac- digestion
teristics make the development of an 20. 4
effective HIV vaccine difficult. 21. 1
28. No; it is possible to be infected with 22. 3
HIV without showing the symptoms 23. 5
associated with AIDS. Following 24. 2
exposure to HIV, the immune system 25. 6
is able to respond to and control the
virus for a limited time. Digestive and
29. The first antibodies are produced during
the time period labeled b, or the cell-
Excretory Systems
mediated immune response. The most Chapter Test B (Advanced)
rapid division of B cells occurs during 1. m 13. j
the time period labeled c, or the 2. h 14. c
humoral immune response. 3. f 15. c
30. (a) Presentation of antigen A by 4. g 16. c
macrophages is required for the 5. i 17. b
secretion of interleukin 2 (IL-2) by 6. e 18. a
helper T cells. (b) The unknown 7. c 19. d
substance prevents helper T cells from 8. a 20. c
secreting IL-2 even in the presence of 9. l 21. b
antigen A, which is presented by the 10. d 22. b
macrophages. (c) Answers will vary 11. b 23. d
but may include the following: The 12. k
unknown substance could bind to or 24. Nutrients are chemical substances that
interfere with receptors on the surface are necessary for organisms to func-
of helper T cells that recognize antigen tion and grow properly.
A. It could bind to antigen A as it is 25. Carbohydrates are broken down by a
presented by macrophages, preventing series of enzymes within the digestive
the helper T cells from binding to the system. The final product of carbohy-
antigen. It could inhibit production of drate digestion, glucose, is absorbed
IL-2 by helper T cells. It could also through the wall of the small intestine
destroy interleukin-1 before it reaches and transported to blood capillaries.
the T cells. 26. The lining of the stomach is composed
of cells that secrete mucus. The mucus
Digestive and lines the stomach and prevents the
Excretory Systems gastric fluid from contacting the
stomach cells.
Chapter Test A (General) 27. The circulatory system is responsible
1. b 7. d for removing metabolic wastes from
2. b 8. b cells throughout the body. Blood
3. c 9. a transports these wastes to the urinary
4. d 10. c system, which subsequently excretes
5. a 11. a them from the body. The intersection
6. c of the two systems occurs at the

glomerulusBowmans capsule tic cleft. The neurotransmitters move
complex. across the synapse and bind to recep-
28. No; bile is secreted by the liver and tors on the postsynaptic cell. This
stored in the gallbladder until released either excites or inhibits the postsy-
into the small intestine. naptic cell.
29. Osmotic pressure in the kidney is 24. Addiction is a physiological response
necessary for the reabsorption of caused by the use of a drug that alters
water from the filtrate into the the normal functioning of neurons and
bloodstream. synapses. Once a neuron or synapse
30. (a) a. esophagus; b. liver; c. large has been altered by a drug, it cannot
intestine, or colon; d. stomach; function normally unless the drug is
e. small intestine; f. rectum (b) Liver; present.
the liver stores glycogen and breaks 25. Cocaine blocks the reuptake of
down toxic substances, such as alcohol. dopamine by the presynaptic neuron.
The liver also secretes bile, which is The excess dopamine overstimulates
vital in the digestion of fats. (c) In the postsynaptic cell, which thereby
mechanical digestion, the body physi- decreases the number of dopamine
cally breaks down chunks of food into receptors. This causes the postsynaptic
small particles that can be digested cell to become less sensitive, requiring
easily. In chemical digestion, digestive more cocaine for adequate stimulation.
enzymes and fluids change the chemical
nature of nutrients so that the nutrients Nervous System and
can be absorbed and used by the body. Sense Organs
(d) Nutrients are absorbed into the
circulatory system through blood and Chapter Test B (Advanced)
lymph vessels in the lining of the small 1. l 13. f
intestine. Nutrients are absorbed by 2. m 14. b
microvilli through diffusion and active 3. e 15. d
transport. (e) When the pH value in 4. c 16. d
the stomach is low, pepsin splits 5. i 17. d
complex proteins into peptides. 6. k 18. d
7. a 19. d
Nervous System and 8. g 20. b
Sense Organs 9. h 21. a
10. j 22. c
Chapter Test A (General) 11. d 23. c
1. a 10. a 12. b
2. a 11. c 24. An afferent neuron carries information
3. d 12. c toward the central nervous system. An
4. c 13. b efferent neuron carries information
5. b 14. a away from the central nervous system.
6. b 15. b 25. During an action potential, the inside
7. c 16. b of a neuron momentarily becomes
8. a 17. d positively charged as sodium ions
9. b 18. b rapidly flow into the cell. Potassium
19. Taste buds ions then flow out of the cell to
20. mechanoreceptors reestablish the resting potential.
21. olfactory 26. When the tendon below the patella is
22. temporal stretched, a sensory neuron detects
23. Signals are transmitted at a synapse stretching of the quadriceps. In the
by neurotransmitters. When a nerve spinal cord, the sensory neuron stimu-
impulse reaches the end of an axon, lates motor neurons that excite the
neurotransmitters are released from quadriceps. It also stimulates interneu-
the presynaptic neuron into the synap- rons that inhibit motor neurons that
stimulate the hamstrings. Thus, the 21. target cells
quadriceps contract, the hamstrings 22. amino acidbased
relax, and the leg rapidly extends. 23. hypothalamus
27. Saliva causes food to release chemicals 24. steroid, thyroid
that can be detected by chemoreceptors 25. melatonin
in taste buds (the sensory receptors
for taste). In response to the chemicals, Endocine System
the taste buds transmit action potentials
to the thalamus and then to the cerebral
cortex, where taste is interpreted. 1. e 13. j
28. A neurotransmitter is a chemical 2. k 14. c
released by one neuron that has a 3. i 15. b
specific effect on another neuron. 4. c 16. b
Neurotransmitters diffuse across 5. m 17. a
synaptic clefts between neurons and 6. a 18. c
either increase or decrease the activity 7. g 19. d
of the postsynaptic neuron. 8. l 20. c
29. a. axon terminals; b. nodes of Ranvier; 9. b 21. c
c. Schwann cells; d. axon; e. cell body; 10. d 22. b
f. nucleus; g. dendrites 11. f 23. b
30. a. The graph illustrates the changes in 12. h
membrane potential that occur in a 24. Releasing hormones are chemicals
neuron during an action potential. produced by neurosecretory cells that
b. The permeability of the membrane regulate secretion of the anterior-pitu-
changes when a dendrite or cell body itary hormones. Examples include
is stimulated by a neurotransmitter. PRL-releasing hormone, TSH-releasing
c. During period A sodium ions rapidly hormone, LH-releasing hormone, FSH-
flow into the cell, causing the inside releasing hormone, GH-releasing hor-
of the neuron to momentarily become mone, and ACTH-releasing hormone.
more positive than the outside. 25. In a positive feedback mechanism, an
d. During period B potassium ions increase in the regulated hormone or
flow out of the cell, restoring the substance increases the secretion of
resting potential of the cell membrane the regulating, or initial, hormone. In a
(about 70 millivolts). e. The resting negative feedback mechanism, an
potential must be restored before increase in the regulated hormone or
another action potential can occur. substance decreases the secretion of
The period after an action potential the regulating hormone.
during which neurons cannot fire is 26. The requirement of a hormone binding
called the refractory period. to a receptor: Without this event, the
correct target cell would not be recog-
Endocine System nized and the hormone would have no
effect.
Chapter Test A (General) 27. Answers will vary but may include
1. a 11. c that the transplanted islet cells secrete
2. d 12. b insulin the way normal islet cells do.
3. b 13. b 28. Hypoglandular refers to a condition
4. a 14. b of abnormally low gland activity, such
5. c 15. d as hypothyroidism, type I diabetes
6. d 16. a mellitus, and pituitary dwarfism.
7. b 17. c 29. Steroid hormones are lipid-soluble and
8. c 18. d thus can diffuse through the lipid
9. d 19. c bilayer of a target cell.
10. d 20. a

30. (a) The immediate cause for not expe- Reproductive System
riencing puberty is a low level of
testosterone. (b) the hypothalamus
and the anterior pituitary (c) The ante- 1. k 13. j
rior pituitary; because the injection of 2. e 14. c
LH-releasing hormone failed to 3. m 15. d
increase LH secretion, receptors on 4. l 16. b
LH-secreting cells of the anterior pitu- 5. a 17. b
itary could be defective. Alternatively, 6. g 18. c
LH secretion from these cells could be 7. c 19. d
deficient. (d) In the negative feedback 8. i 20. d
mechanism, testosterone secretion 9. d 21. b
inhibits LH secretion from the anterior 10. b 22. a
pituitary. (e) Testosterone-secreting 11. f 23. c
cells in the testes could be unresponsive 12. h
to LH. 24. The corpus luteum forms from the
follicle that ruptures during ovulation.
Reproductive System The corpus luteum secretes proges-
Chapter Test A (General) terone and estrogen, which cause the
uterine lining to thicken.
1. d 12. c 25. No; menopause occurs when menstru-
2. c 13. b ation ceases after a womans follicles
3. c 14. a have either ruptured or degenerated.
4. a 15. d 26. The epididymis conducts sperm from
5. d 16. a the testis to the vas deferens, stores
6. d 17. c sperm between ejaculations, and is
7. c 18. f the site of the final steps of sperm
8. a 19. g maturation.
9. b 20. h 27. No; ovulation normally occurs in one
10. a 21. e ovary during each menstrual cycle.
11. d 22. b Gennerally only one mature egg is
23. A sperm cell consists of a head, a ovulated per cycle.
midpiece, and a long tail. Enzymes in 28. The cervix connects the vagina with
the head help a sperm cell penetrate the uterus.
an egg. The head also contains the 29. a. outer jellylike layer; b. cell membrane
nucleus, which can fuse with the of ovum; c. sperm head; d. sperm tail;
nucleus of an egg cell. In the midpiece, e. sperm midpiece; f. nucleus of ovum.
mitochondria produce ATP and supply The diagram illustrates the fusion of a
the energy that the sperm cell needs to sperms head region with an ovums
use its tail to propel itself through the cell membraneone of the steps
reproductive system. required for fertilization.
24. During the second and third 30. (a) a. egg cell; b. corpus luteum;
trimesters, the fetus grows rapidly and c. ovary; d. follicle. The diagram illus-
its organs become functional. trates egg maturation and ovulation.
25. Prior to ovulation, increasing levels of (b) FSH, LH, and estrogen (c) The
estrogen cause the lining of the uterus corpus luteum secretes estrogen and
to thicken. After ovulation, high levels progesterone, which cause the uterine
of both estrogen and progesterone lining to thicken. (d) menstruation
maintain the uterine lining and cause (e) After ovulation, the egg is swept
it to thicken more. If pregnancy does into a fallopian tube and travels toward
not occur, the levels of estrogen and the uterus. If the egg is not fertilized, it
progesterone decrease, causing the dies within 48 hours of ovulation and
lining of the uterus to shed. This leaves the body during menstruation.
marks the end of the menstrual cycle.

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Modern Biology

______ 1. hypothesis a. variable that is measured in an experiment

______ 9. A theory, in the scientific sense, is

______10. The function of the eyepiece in a compound light microscope is to

______11. During a scientific investigation, a researcher generally forms a

Copyright by Holt, Rinehart and Winston. All rights reserved.

The Science of Life, Chapter Test A continued

14. A(n) is the smallest unit capable of all life

15. The hierarchy of organization in a multicellular organism consists of cells,

through the process of .

17. Parents produce offspring through .

18. Organisms that are related are placed on branches

19. as a theme in biology helps biologists understand

21. An organisms is all of the chemical reactions that

it carries out in order to run the processes of life.

Copyright by Holt, Rinehart and Winston. All rights reserved.

The Science of Life, Chapter Test A continued

24. What is the role of metabolism in life?

25. Why is reproduction an essential part of living?

Copyright by Holt, Rinehart and Winston. All rights reserved.

______ 1. A substance that cannot be ______ 5. Water is _______ , therefore

Copyright by Holt, Rinehart and Winston. All rights reserved.

Chemistry of Life, Chapter Test A continued

______11. The concentration of hydronium ions in a solution with a pH of 4

______12. alkaline a. an attraction between substances of the

______15. acid d. a reactant gains an electron

______18. covalent bond h. a compound that forms hydronium ions

Copyright by Holt, Rinehart and Winston. All rights reserved.

Chemistry of Life, Chapter Test A continued

20. Molecules that are dissolve best in water, while

molecules do not dissolve well in water.

21. The weak chemical attraction between water molecules are

bonds, while the stronger chemical bonds between

the atoms of each water molecule are bonds.

22. Unlike most solids, solid is less dense than its

23. A hydrogen ion reacts with a water molecule to form a

24. When sodium chloride is dissolved in water, it dissociates to form

25. Enzymes are a type of , which reduces the

activation energy of a chemical reaction.

Copyright by Holt, Rinehart and Winston. All rights reserved.

______ 1. All organic compounds ______ 5. A substrate attaches to the

______ 2. Enzymes ______ 6. A model of enzyme action

______ 4. Two polysaccharides that ______ 9. A phospholipid molecule

Copyright by Holt, Rinehart and Winston. All rights reserved.

Biochemistry, Chapter Test A continued

______10. carbohydrate a. subunit of most lipids

______16. RNA h. small simple molecule that makes up a

Copyright by Holt, Rinehart and Winston. All rights reserved.

Biochemistry, Chapter Test A continued

22. How can you tell whether a compound is organic or not?

24. Briefly describe the function of ATP in cells.

25. Why is cholesterol needed by the body?

Copyright by Holt, Rinehart and Winston. All rights reserved.

______ 1. cytoplasm a. outer boundary of the cell

______ 2. ribosome b. hairlike structure that enables cell

Cell Structure and Function, Chapter Test A continued

______12. Which of the following ______15. Which type of molecule

______14. The nucleus of a cell con-

18. Cilia and are structures that enable cell movement

of the cell is called the .

20. Ribosomes are found on the endoplasmic reticulum.

21. Newly made are transported to the smooth

Copyright by Holt, Rinehart and Winston. All rights reserved.

1. A substance that cannot be 5. Water is ___ , therefore

1. All organic compounds 5. A substrate attaches to the

2. Enzymes 6. A model of enzyme action

4. Two polysaccharides that 9. A phospholipid molecule

12. Which of the following 15. Which type of molecule