2.3.

9 Unit 9:
We are going to give you some suggestions in this section on how to cover the portions of Unit-9. We
would be putting stress on the following questions which generally one has in his/her mind when one
thinks about the easiest way to prepare for Unit-9.

Is this topic important?

As you can understand from the very title of this Unit that it comprises mainly of terminologies
and very less actual concepts to understand, you can put the less stress in preparing this Unit.
Every year this Unit provides very rare/no questions in the Exam. So you can skip the topics in this
Unit or rather go through them once to be at a safer side. This will reduce your burden also while
preparing for such an important Exam in such a short period of time. I would suggest you to touch
this Unit only if you have managed to save time after preparing the rest of the syllabus.

I can suggest you some books that you look through to get a clearer overview of this Unit. They
are as follows:

Taxonomy: evolution at work by M. Daniel

Plant Taxonomy: The Systematic Evaluation of Comparative Data By Tod F.
Stuessy
Animal taxonomy by Theodore Horace Savory

For additional information regarding any of the topics in this Unit you can always clear
doubts by taking help from the vast array of options offered in the internet.
UNIT 9

1. Different groups of seaweeds can generally be distinguished on the basis of

a. Color.
b. size
c. Whether they have true leaves, stems, and roots.
d. Whether they are autotrophic or heterotrophic.

2. Which of the following are protozoans?

a. diatoms, flagellates, amoebas, and ciliates
b. apicomplexans, flagellates, amoebas, and ciliates
c. amoebas, actinomycetes, ciliates, and flagellates
d. flagellates, ciliates, cyanobacteria, and apicomplexans

3. In general, how do algae and protozoans differ?

a. Protozoans can move, and algae cannot.
b. Algae are free-living, and protozoans are parasitic.
c. Protozoans are autotrophic, and algae are heterotrophic.
d. Algae are photosynthetic, and almost all protozoans are heterotrophic.

4. Which of the following is not evidence for the role of endosymbiosis in the origin of eukaryotes?
a. Chloroplasts have their own DNA.
b. The inner membrane of a chloroplast is similar to prokaryotic membranes.
c. Mitochondria and chloroplast both are surrounded by two membranes.
d. The DNA in the eukaryotic nucleus codes for some enzymes in mitochondria

5. Protists are a diverse group of organisms that include

a. Plants.
b. Algae.
c. protozoans.
d. b and c

6. Among the following which statement is NOT a part of principles of current code adopted by XII
International Botanical Congress in Leningrad (1975).
a. Botanical nomenclature is independent of Zoological nomenclature
b. The application of names is determined by means of nomenclature types
c. The nomenclature of taxonomic group is based upon priority of publication
d. Scientific names of taxonomic group are treated as Italics regardless of their derivation.

7. Different hybrid forms of the same parentage are designated as-

a. Apomicts
b. Nothomorphs
 c. Race
d. Variety

8. According to current code for Botanical Nomenclature, the names of class must ends with-
a. opsida
b. idae
c. ales
d. aceae

9. Which technique is routinely used among plants for establishing genetic relationship-
a. Amino acid sequence
b. Serological investigation
c. Iso-enzyme profiling
d. Chromosome morphology

10. Numerical taxonomy is also referred as

a. Statistical taxonomy
b. Phenetics
c. Computer aided taxonomy
d. All

11. Which is NOT a characteristic of numerical taxonomy-

a. The greater the content of information in taxa of classification and the more character on
which it is based, the better is classification
b. Every character is of equal weight in creating natural taxa.
c. Classification is based on percentage (%) similarity coefficient for each OTU.
d. Phylogenetic inferences cannot be made from the taxonomic structure of a group and
from character correlation.

12. Which technique is not utilized during DNA profiling-

a. Restriction digestion
b. Electrophoresis
c. Southern blotting
d. RFLP

13. For DNA fingerprinting the region of DNA used for study are the non-coding regions of
chromosome known as-
a. VNTR
b. RFLP
c. RAPD
d. All
14. Which is major factor contributing to loss of biodiversity?
a. Habitat loss and fragmentation
b. Introduced species
c. Over exploitation of Plants and Animals
d. Industrial agriculture and forestry

15. An International treaty designated to protect wildlife from being threatened by international
trade was set up in 1975, it is known as-
a. WTO
b. IUCN
c. CITES
d. FAO

16. The diploid generation of the plant life cycle always

a. produces spores.
b. is called the gametophyte
c. is larger and more conspicuous than the haploid stage
d. develops from a spore

17. The diploid sporophyte stage is dominant in the life cycles of all of the following except
a. a pine tree
b. a dandelion.
c. a rose bush
d. a moss

18. Land plants arose during the

a. Ordovician
b. Jurassic
c. Cambrian
d. Carboniferous

19. Most bryophytes, such as mosses, differ from all other plants in that they
a. do not produce flowers
b. have cones but no seeds
c. have flagellated sperm
d. lack vascular tissue

20. The Ozone layer saves from lethal UV. It mainly absorbs-
a. UV-A
b. UV-B
c. UV-A & B
d. UV-B & C
21. Besides nomenclature of plants in wild, ICBN also gives binomial names for-
a. Bacteria & Fungus
b. Fungus
c. Fungus & cultivated plants
d. Cultivated plant

22. __________ are not native to a particular area, and can upset the balance of the ecosystem.
a. Exotic species
b. Ultraviolet waves
c. Decomposers
d. Reintroduction programs

23. What is the difference between a threatened species and an endangered species?
a. A threatened species means that the population is likely to become endangered An
endangered species has population numbers so low that it is likely to become extinct
b. A threatened species is already extinct. An endangered species means that the
populations numbers have increased greatly over the last 5 years
c. A threatened species means that the population is likely to become endangered.An
endangered species is already extinct
d. A threatened species and an endangered species are the same thing

24. Which of these programs is used to preserve a species facing extinction?

a. edge effects
b. sustainable use
c. natural resources
d. captive breeding

25. What does this figure illustrate?

a. habitat fragmentation
b. biodiversity
c. extinction
d. edge effect

26. The maximum biodiversity in India occurs at-

a. Western Himalayas
b. North East Himalayas
c. Western Ghats
d. Eastern Ghats

27. In which kingdom would you classify the archaea and nitrogen-fixing organisms, if the five-
kingdom system of classification is used?
 a. Plantae
b. fungi
c. protista
d. monera

28. Plants reproducing by spores such as mosses and ferns are grouped under the general term
a. Cryptogams
b. bryophytes
c. sporophytes
d. thallophytes

29. Which one of the following pairs of plants are not seed producers?
a. fern and Funaria
b. Ficus and Chlamydomonas
c. Punica and Pinus
d. Funaria and Ficus

30. According to botanical nomenclature, which are not allowed-

a. Synonyms
b. Antonyms
c. Tautonyms
d. Isonyms

31. The original specimen submitted by author himself is termed as-

a. Holotype
b. Paratype
c. Lectoype
d. Isotype

32. Phenetic classification is based on

a. the ancestral lineage of existing organisms
b. observable characteristics of existing organisms
c. dendrograms based on DNA characteristics
d. sexual characteristics

33. Which of the following is Spermatophyte?

a. Bryophyte
b. Pteridophyte
c. Thallophyte
d. Gymnosperm

34. The National herbarium in our country is located in-

 a. Bombay
b. Calcutta
c. Chennai
d. Delhi

35. All of the following are reasonable hypotheses for the high diversity observed in tropical rain
forest except
a. Habitat heterogeneity
b. Climatic variability
c. Niche specialization and resource partitioning
d. Population interaction and coevolution

36. Research on the nothern spotted owl indicates that

a. owl population will stabilize if an adequate number of immature forest source habitats
can be preserved
b. metapopulations must be more closely spaced to compensate for the owls limited flight
capacity
c. setting aside marginal habitat encourages dispersion of owls into areas where
reproductive success is unlikely
d. the current owl population is too small to disperse into source habitats

37. A population of strictly monogamous swans consists of 40 males and 10 females. The effective
population size for this population is
a. 50
b. 40
c. 20
d. 10

38. Which of the following conditions is the most likely indicator of a metapopulations long-term
survival?
a. The population is not subdivided into subpropulations
b. Regular and extensire movement of individuals among patches makes the subpopulations
function essential as a single unit.
c. Source and sinks all contain subpopulations
d. All subpopulations are connected by corridors

39. The applications of ecological principles to return a degraded ecosystem to its natural state is
characteristic of
a. bioremediation
b. restoration ecology
c. landscape ecology
d. conservation ecology
40. is the unit of evolution
a. Species
b. individual
c. community
d. population

41. Not all species contribute equally to the integrity of an ecological community, with limited time
and resources, it would be most reasonable to focus conservation efforts on
a. the large vertebrates
b. keystone species
c. primary producers
d. exotic species

42. Populations with low effective sizes are susceptible to all of the following problems except
a. inbreeding
b. genetic drift
c. bottlenecking
d. adaptive radiation

43. Which of the following errors would result in an underestimate of a species MVP?
a. underestimating the maximum age of reproduction
b. underestimating the average birth rate
c. overestimating the death rate
d. overestimating the average fecundity

44. European zebra mussels, accidentally released into lake Erie in 1988, quickly displaced native
mussel species. This threat to biodiversity is an example of
a. Metapopulation expansion
b. exotic introduction
c. habitat fragmentation
d. over exploitation

45. Which of these ecosystems has the lowest primary productivity per square meter?
a. a salt marsh
b. an open sea
c. a coral reef
d. a grassland

46. The part of chromosome used for DNA fingerprinting is-

a. Microsatellite
b. Minisatellite
 c. Tandem satellite
d. Macrosatellite

47. Which one of the following is a correct statement?

a. Antheridiophores and archegoniophores are present in pteridophytes.
b. Origin of seed habit can be traced in pteridophytes.
c. Pteridophyte gametophyte has a protonemal and leafy stage.
d. In gymnosperms female gametophyte is free-living.

48. Which one of the following is a correct statement?

a. Fronds are found in Bryophytes.
b. Heterocysts are found in Nostoc.
c. Diatoms produce basidiospores.
d. Multiciliated sperms are found in Angiosperms.

49. In the prothallus of a vascular cryptogam, the antherozoids and eggs mature at different times.
As a result:
a. There is high degree of sterility
b. There is no change in success rate of fertilization
c. Self fertilization is prevented
d. One can conclude that the plant is apomictic

50. Cycas and Adiantum resemble each other in having:

a. Cambium
b. Vessels
c. Seeds
d. Motile Sperms

51. In which of the following, all listed genera belong to the same class of algae
a. Porphyra, Ectocarpus, Ulothrix
b. Volvox, Spirogyra, Chlamydomonas
c. Chara, Fucus, Polysiphonia
d. Sargassum, Laminaria, Gracillaria

52. In a moss the sporophyte

a. Arises from a spore produced from the gametophyte
b. produces gametes that given rise to the gametophyte
c. is partially parasitic on the gametophyte
d. Manufactures food for itself, as well as for the gametophyte

53. Algae have cell wall made up of

a. Hemicellulose, pectins and proteins
 b. Cellulose, galactans and mannans
c. Cellulose, hemicellulose and pectins
d. Pectins, cellulose and proteins

54. Mosses and ferns are found in moist and shady places because both :
a. depend for their nutrition on micro-organisms which can survive only at low temperature
b. do not need sunlight for photosynthesis
c. require presence of water for fertilization
d. cannot compete with sun-loving plants

55. In gymnosperms, the pollen chamber represents:

a. A cavity in the ovule in which pollen grains are stored after pollination
b. A cell in the pollen grain in which the sperms are formed
c. The microsporangium in which pollen grains develop
d. An opening in the megagametophyte through which the pollen tube approaches the egg

56. If you are asked to classify the various algae into distinct groups, which of the following characters
you should choose?
a. Nature of stored food materials in the cell
b. Types of pigments present in the cell
c. Chemical composition of the cell wall
d. Structural organization of thallus

57. Sexual reproduction in Spirogyra is an advanced feature because it shows:

a. Morphologically different sex organs
b. Same size of motile sex organs
c. Different size of motile sex organs
d. Physiologically differentiated sex organs

58. Spore dissemination in some liverworts is aided by :

a. Indusium
b. Elaters
c. Peristome teeth
d. Calyptra

59. Identify the alga known for a biological activity called bioluminescence.
a. Spirogyra
b. Noctiluca
c. Cyclotella
d. Chlorella

60. Which of the following groups of algae do not have eukaryotic organization?
 a. Blue green algae
b. Green algae
c. Golden brown algae
d. Red algae

61. Assertion: Red algae contribute in producing coral reefs.

Reason: Some red algae secrete and deposit calcium carbonate over their walls.
a. Both the Assertion and the Reason are true and the Reason is a correct explanation of the
Assertion.
b. Both the Assertion and the Reason are true but the Reason is not a correct explanation of
Assertion.
c. Assertion is true but the Reason is false.

62. Radial symmetry is found in _________.

a. protozoa
b. coelenterata
c. flatworms
d. arthropoda

63. Protochordates consist of _______ and _______.

a. urochordata and cephalochordata
b. urochordata and vertebrata
c. cephalochordata and vertebrata
d. none of the above

64. Sub-phylum urochordata includes _____.

a. amphibians
b. marine animals
c. terrestrial animals
d. all of the above

65. The class Aves have all the following features except that their.
a. fore limbs are modified into wings
b. respiration is not through lungs
c. heart is 4 chambered
d. skeleton is light

66. In phylum Aschelminthes, the alimentary canal is

a. complete
b. incomplete
c. not present
d. none of the above
67. An example of phylum Echinodermata is
a. prawn
b. starfish
c. octopus
d. apis

68. Chondrichthyes are also called

a. cartilaginous fish
b. bony fish
c. lamprey
d. creeping vertebrates

69. Binomial nomenclature was introduced by

a. John Ray
b. A. P. de Candolle
c. A. L. de Jussien
d. Carolus Linnaeus

70. A group of freely inter-breeding organisms constitutes a

a. species
b. genera
c. family
d. class

71. Which taxonomic term may be substituted for any rank in the classification?
a. Class
b. Genus
c. Species
d. Taxon

72. In Whittaker's classification, unicellular organisms are grouped under

a. protista
b. porifera
c. fungi
d. protozoa

73. The algal partner of a lichen is called

a. mycobiont
b. phycobiont
c. both A and B
d. none of the above
74. 'Venus flower basket' is the dried skeleton of
a. euspongia
b. euplectella
c. spongilla
d. leucosolenia

75. Choanocytes are unique to

a. protozoa
b. porifera
c. mollusca
d. echinodermata

76. Mesoglea is characteristic of

a. platyhelminthes
b. aschelminthes
c. cnidaria
d. mollusca

77. In platyhelminthes, the excretory organs are

a. nephridia
b. malpighian tubules
c. flame cells (solenocytes)
d. green glands

78. The body cavity of arthropoda is

a. pseudocoel
b. coelom
c. haemocoel
d. acoelom

79. Respiration in arthropods occurs through

a. gills
b. book lungs
c. trachea
d. all the above

80. Spiders and scorpions are

a. insects
b. millipedes
c. arachnids
d. crustaceans
81. Hag fish is the common name of
a. octopus
b. balanoglossus
c. myxine
d. peteromyzon

82. Elasmobranchs do not have

a. placoid scales
b. gill-slits
c. notochord
d. operculum

83. What is the scientific name of the National bird of India?

a. Psittacula eupatra
b. Passer domesticus
c. Pavo cristatus
d. Corvus splendens

84. Birds differ from bats in absence of

a. homeothermy
b. four-chambered heart
c. tracheae
d. diaphragm

85. Characteristics of living organisms include

a. the ability to adapt to the environment.
b. the ability to evolve over time.
c. possessing homeostatic mechanisms.
d. the ability to reproduce
e. All of the choices pertain to living organisms

86. A(n) __________ consists of the interactions between groups of different individuals and the non-
living factors in a particular area.
a. population
b. ecosystem
c. community
d. domain
e. species

87. Organisms belonging to the same _____ would be the most closely related.
a. kingdom
b. phylum
 c. family
d. class
e. order

88. Which of the following is NOT one of the characteristics of living organisms?
a. to be organized
b. to respond
c. to grow
d. to metabolize
e. All of the choices are characteristics of living organisms.

89. A university biology department wishes to hire a scientist to work on the relationships among the
wolves, moose, trees and grass species on an island. If you were charged with writing the job
announcement, you should title the position
a. population geneticist.
b. molecular biologist.
c. community ecologist.
d. organismic physiologist.
e. island zoologist.

90. Which of the following characteristics is NOT required for the life of an individual organism to
continue?
a. to be organized
b. to respond
c. to metabolize
d. to reproduce
e. to acquire energy

91. Which of the following organisms is NOT ultimately dependent on the sun as a source of energy?
a. A night-blooming flower is pollinated by night-flying bats.
b. An underground earthworm avoids the sun.
c. A cave fish feeds on debris that washes down to it.
d. All of the choices ARE ultimately dependent on the sun.
e. None of the choices are ultimately dependent on the sun.

92. Which statement is FALSE about nearly all living things?

a. Living things are made up of cells.
b. Living things must obey the laws of chemistry and physics.
c. Living things show biological organization and other common characteristics of life.
d. Emergent properties can be used to distinguish living things from nonliving things.
e. Living things are composed only of organic elements, whereas nonliving things are made
up of inorganic elements.
93. What is the process by which the sun's energy is trapped as the source of energy used by virtually
all living organisms?
a. evolution
b. metabolism
c. adaptation
d. homeostasis
e. photosynthesis

94. What is the term which refers to all the chemical energy transformations that occur within a cell?
a. evolution
b. metabolism
c. adaptation
d. homeostasis
e. photosynthesis

95. Which of the following does NOT represent homeostasis?

a. Sensors detect CO2 levels in the blood and trigger an increase or decrease in the rate of
breathing.
b. When body temperature drops, you shiver to generate heat; when your body heats up,
you sweat and the evaporation cools you.
c. Feelings of hunger and then fullness affect the length of time and quantity of food you
eat, keeping your weight near a "set point."
d. Energy is captured by plants, then transferred to consumers and decomposers, and
eventually lost as heat.
e. Cells adjusting the openings on the bottom of leaves respond to differences in water
stress in order to maintain moisture inside the leaf.

96. Which of these is a peculiarity of form, function, or behavior that promotes the likelihood of a
species' continued existence?
a. evolution
b. metabolism
c. adaptation
d. homeostasis
e. photosynthesis

97. Which of these is the process by which changes occur in the characteristics of species of organisms
over time?
a. evolution
b. metabolism
c. adaptation
 d. homeostasis
e. photosynthesis

98. All ecosystems taken together make up a

a. niche.
b. biosphere.
c. community.
d. population.
e. habitat.

99. The two parts of a species name, in order, are the

a. kingdom and genus names.
b. family and species names.
c. genus name and specific epithet.
d. specific epithet and genus name.
e. species and genus names.

100. Which of the following sequences correctly gives the different classification levels of an
organism, going from the largest grouping to the smallest? (Some are left out.)
a. species, genus, family, class, phylum
b. kingdom, phylum, class, order, species
c. class, family, kingdom, species, genus
d. genus, class, phylum, species, family
e. kingdom, phylum, order, species, family

101. Which term is based on the Greek root words for "laws" of "classification"?
a. species, genus, family, class, phylum
b. taxonomy
c. homeostasis
d. nomenclature
e. hypothesis

102. Which of the following domains contains the most primitive bacteria that live in extreme
environments?
a. Archaea
b. Bacteria
c. Plantae
d. Fungi
e. Eukarya
103. Which of the following domains contains the common advanced plants and animals and
fungi?
a. Archaea
b. Bacteria
c. Plantae
d. Fungi
e. Eukarya

104. Which of the following kingdoms contains multicellular organisms that ingest their food?
a. Protista
b. Animalia
c. Plantae
d. Archaea
e. Fungi

105. Which of the following kingdoms contains primarily multicellular, larger-celled,

photosynthetic organisms?
a. Protista
b. Animalia
c. Plantae
d. Archaea
e. Fungi

106. Which of the following kingdoms contains organisms that obtain their food by absorption
through filaments called hyphae?
a. Protista
b. Animalia
c. Plantae
d. Archaea
e. Fungi.

107. What is inductive reasoning?

a. a tentative statement, based on data, that can be used to guide further observations and
experiments
b. a report of the findings of scientific experiments
c. a general statement made to infer a specific conclusion, often in an "if . . . then" format
d. using isolated observations and facts to reach a general idea that may explain a
phenomenon
e. none of the above
108. What is deductive reasoning?
a. a tentative statement, based on data, that can be used to guide further observations and
experiments
b. a report of the findings of scientific experiments
c. a general statement made to infer a specific conclusion, often in "if . . . then" format
d. using isolated facts to reach a general idea that may explain a phenomenon
e. none of the above

109. Which statement is NOT true about a hypothesis?

a. Experiments or observations are undertaken to test a hypothesis.
b. A hypothesis must be testable
c. A hypothesis cannot be proven false.
d. Data that support a hypothesis do not actually prove it.
e. If data from experiments do not support a hypothesis, the hypothesis must be rejected
or revised.

110. Which best describes a control group in an experiment?

a. It is subjected to the condition that is being tested
b. It is a sample taken through all experimental steps except the one being tested
c. It is treated identically as the experimental group
d. It tests the dependent variable
e. All of the above

111. Four groups of mice consume different amounts of sweetener in their food. The control
group is the one that receives
a. 10 mg/day of sweetener.
b. 50 mg/day of sweetener.
c. no sweetener.
d. extra food.
e. milk instead of water.

112. Which statement is NOT true about experimental design?

a. All conditions are held the same except for the condition being tested by the experiment.
b. It is best to use genetically identical mice to reduce the uncontrolled variables.
c. Mice for each group should be selected at random.
d. The condition being tested in an experiment is the control variable.
e. The dependent variable is observed at the end of the experiment when statistical
comparisons are made between groups.

113. Which of the following terms best describes the collection of scientific data through
observation in the field, such as observing the behavior of birds?
a. a scientific model
 b. an experiment
c. descriptive research
d. a scientific theory or principle
e. experimental results

114. Which statement is NOT true about science?

a. Science is concerned about understanding the natural world.
b. Science approaches data in a subjective manner.
c. Science gains information by observing and testing the natural world.
d. The conclusions of science are subject to change based on new findings.
e. Science attempts to avoid prejudice in making judgments.

115. Which of the following terms best describes a conceptual scheme in science that is
strongly supported, has not yet been found incorrect, and is based on the results of many
observations?
a. a scientific model
b. an experiment
c. descriptive research
d. a scientific theory or principle
e. experimental results

116. Which of the following concepts is NOT one of the unifying theories of biology?
a. Virtually all organisms are composed of cells.
b. Life may arise through spontaneous generation.
c. Life comes only from life.
d. Organisms contain coded information that dictates their form, function, and behavior.
e. All living things have a common ancestor and are adapted to a particular way of life.

117. All individuals of a given species living in a defined area at a defined time are a (an)
a. population
b. community
c. ecosystem
d. biosphere
e. abiotic component of the system

118. Unicellular prokaryotes

a. lack a membrane bounded nucleus
b. are found in the domains Bacteria and Archaea
c. are found in almost all habitats
d. are structurally simple and metabolically complex
e. All of the choices are correct.
119. A group of college students order a pizza with mushrooms, ham, and pineapple. The
mushrooms belong to the kingdom
a. Protista
b. Plantae
c. Fungi
d. Animalia
e. Bacteria

120. The correct order of classification from most general to most specific is which of the
following?
a. Domain-Kingdom-Phylum-Class-Order-Family-Genus-Species
b. Kingdom-Domain-Class-Phylum-Order-Family-Genus-Species
c. Kingdom-Domain-Class-Phylum-Order-Genus-Species-Family
d. Kingdom-Class-Phylum-Domain-Genus-Order-Family-Species
e. Genus-Species-Kingdom-Phylum-Class-Order-Family-Domain

121. Experimental design

a. is the way in which the scientist intends to conduct an experiment
b. ensures that scientists are testing what they want to test
c. ensures that the test results are meaningful
d. All of the choices are correct.
e. None of the choices are correct.

122. Factors which provide a measure of biodiversity in a particular ecosystem include

a. the total number of species in that ecosystem
b. the variability of the individual genes
c. the relative abundance of each species
d. the number of different habitats being utilized
e. All of the choices are correct.

123. Which group is most closely related phylogenetically to the first vertebrates?
a. echinoderms
b. arthropods
c. mollusks
d. annelids
e. nematodes
124. Which statement is NOT true?
a. All chordates have notochords.
b. All chordates have pharyngeal pouches or slits.
c. All chordates have dorsal tubular nerve cords.
d. All chordates are vertebrates.
e. Chordates are found in all major types of environments.
125. The notochord is most closely associated with the
 a. nervous system
b. spinal cord
c. skeletal system
d. skin system
e. nervous system and spinal cord only
126. The chordate feature still present in the human adult is
a. pharyngeal gill slits
b. nerve cord
c. notochord
d. tail
e. all of the choices
127. Which of the following statements is false?
a. All vertebrates have a ventral nerve cord.
b. All vertebrates have a tail at some stage in their life cycle.
c. All vertebrates have a notochord at some stage in their life cycle.
d. All vertebrates have pharyngeal gill slits at some stage in their life cycle.
e. All vertebrates have a tubular nerve cord.
128. Which of the following is NOT a feature that is found exclusively among all vertebrates?
a. notochord
b. pharyngeal gill slits
c. four legs
d. post-anal tail
e. dorsal nerve cord
129. In filter-feeding chordates, which structure has cilia that create water currents and mucus
sheets that capture nutrients suspended in the water?
a. notochord
b. differentially permeable membrane
c. filiform tongue
d. gill slit
e. jaw
130. Which of the following is a diagnostic feature of the sea squirts that forms the basis for
its classification?
a. metamorphosis from a motile larva to a sessile adult
b. a heart that allows circulation of blood
c. a notochord located in the tail of the larva
d. sexual reproduction during the larval stage
e. the presence of a tunic or coat over the body of the adult

131. During the life of a tunicate, the notochord

a. is present throughout life
b. appears in the larva only
c. develops during adulthood
d. is completely absent
e. changes into the nerve cord
132. The "tunic" of tunicate refers to
a. a body covering
b. the type of food-gathering mechanism
c. muscle arrangements in the larva
d. the immature stage of a true fish
e. the protective cover of the brain

133. Lancelets possess which of the following all their lives?

 a. notochord
b. gill slits
c. nerve cord
d. notochord and nerve cord only
e. notochord, nerve cord, and gill slits.
134. Lancelets are
a. predators
b. filter feeders
c. scavengers
d. parasites
e. scrapers that feed on the ocean bottom
135. What is the only craniate without a vertebral column?
a. hagfish
b. lamprey
c. lancelet
d. placoderm
e. tunicate
136. The most primitive vertebrates are members of the group of
a. jawless fishes
b. amphibians
c. cartilaginous fish
d. birds
e. bony fish
137. The vertebrate jaw first appeared in which organism?
a. fishes
b. amphibians
c. reptiles
d. birds
e. mammals
138. The evolution of vertebrates
a. is believed to have proceeded from cephalochordates
b. is most closely tied to urochordates
c. is most closely tied to hemichordates
d. is probably in a lineage apart from present-day invertebrate chordates
e. possibly proceeded from cephalochordates through hemichordates
139. In vertebrate evolution, the appearance of the vertebral column led most directly to the
development of
a. limbs such as arms and legs
b. jaws
c. sense organs and the nervous system
d. more efficient breathing systems
e. greater speed and agility

140. In fishes ancestral to land vertebrates, pouches in the gut wall developed into
a. heart chambers
b. the notochord
c. lobes of the liver
d. lungs
e. vocal cords
141. The ostracoderms were
a. an ancient group of spiny, thin echinoderms
 b. a group of primitive protochordates
c. primitive fishes without jaws
d. one of the first terrestrial vertebrates
e. reptiles with a bony skin
142. Ostracoderms lost out in evolutionary competition to animals
a. with more protective body coverings
b. who were filter feeders
c. with lungs
d. that had begun to develop jaws
e. with an exoskeleton
143. Placoderms were the first fishes to display
a. jaws
b. gill openings
c. cartilaginous skeletons
d. jaws and gill openings only
e. jaws, gill openings, and cartilaginous skeletons
144. The chief advance of the placoderms was the development of
a. paired fins for efficient movement
b. paired jaws that enabled them to bite and feed
c. bony plates for protection
d. an efficient set of lungs
e. a strengthened notochord
145. The feeding habits of lampreys are best described as
a. suspension feeding
b. predatory
c. parasitic
d. scavenging
e. all of the choices
146. The term jawless fish could be used to describe
a. ostracoderms
b. placoderms
c. hagfish
d. ostracoderms and hagfish
e. placoderms and hagfish
147. Sharks differ from most other fish in that they lack
a. lungs
b. scales
c. bone
d. paired appendages
e. fins
148. Sharks, rays, and skates belong to what group?
a. birds
b. amphibians
c. cartilaginous fish
d. bony fish
e. reptiles
149. In true fishes, the gills primarily serve which function?
a. gas exchange
b. feeding
c. water elimination
 d. both feeding and gas exchange
e. all of the choices
150. The vertebrate lung first appeared in which organism?
a. fishes
b. amphibians
c. reptiles
d. birds
e. mammals
151. All but which of the following have cartilaginous skeletons?
a. sharks
b. lampreys
c. perch
d. rays
e. both perch and rays
152. Coelacanths are
a. cartilaginous fish
b. jawless fish
c. lobe-finned fish
d. lung fish
e. ray-finned fish
153. Which of the following statements is false?
a. A sharks teeth are modified scales that are continuously shed and replaced.
b. Many fish use a swim bladder to provide buoyancy control.
c. The bony fishes were the ancestors of the cartilaginous fishes.
d. The ray-finned fishes are the most numerous and diverse of the fish groups.
e. The lobe-finned lung fish gave rise to the tetrapods.

154. Amphibians most likely evolved from

a. lobe-finned fish
b. ray-finned fish
c. reptiles
d. lawless fish
e. placoderms
155. Amphibians are most dependent on an aquatic environment for
a. respiration
b. feeding
c. reproduction
d. urination
e. defecation
156. Amphibians are distinguished from earlier vertebrates by
a. the development of eggs capable of hatching on land
b. metamorphosis
c. the development of limbs capable of moving on land
d. the presence of scales to prevent desiccation
e. absence of gills in any stage of development

157. A water environment provides more of all but which one of the following than does an air
environment?
a. support
b. buoyancy
c. constancy of temperature
d. oxygen
 e. resistance to movement
158. Amphibians can use which of the following for gas exchange?
a. gills
b. lungs
c. skin
d. gills and lungs
e. all of the choices
159. In which group are retention of larval characteristics and sexual maturity seen in the same
body?
a. toads
b. salamanders
c. frogs
d. caecilians
e. none of the choices
160. Which of the following is (are) leading to declines in amphibian populations?
a. shrinking/disrupted habitat
b. climate change
c. increases in UV light
d. parasitic and fungal diseases
e. all of the choices
161. Which of the following is most responsible for freeing vertebrates from dependence on
watery habitats?
a. lungs
b. paired appendages
c. shelled, amniote eggs
d. a four-chambered heart
e. fur
162. The first group to exhibit an amniotic egg was the
a. cartilaginous fish
b. amphibians
c. reptiles
d. bony fish
e. mammals
163. The reptiles differ from the amphibians in that they
a. have a more developed cerebral cortex
b. have scales that prevented desiccation
c. have internal fertilization
d. use a shelled amniotic egg
e. all of the choices

164. Which of the following statements is false?

a. Lizards are a very small component of the present-day reptiles.
b. Lizards gave rise to the snakes.
c. Lizards are primarily predators.
d. Lizards can break off their tails to serve as a distraction to predators.
e. None of the choices.
165. The only reptiles with four-chambered hearts are the
a. crocodilians
b. lizards
c. snakes
d. tuataras
 e. turtles

166. The most primitive reptiles with amphibian-like brains and locomotion are the
a. crocodilians
b. lizards
c. snakes
d. tuataras
e. turtles
167. The immediate ancestors of snakes were the
a. amphibians
b. birds
c. crocodilians
d. lizards
e. tuataras

168. Which existing reptile group is most closely related to birds?

a. crocodilians
b. lizards
c. snakes
d. tuataras
e. turtles
169. An organism that possesses feathers must also possess
a. malpighian tubules
b. a three-chambered heart
c. a dorsal nerve cord
d. a pseudocoelom
e. replaceable teeth
170. Birds differ from more primitive vertebrates by
a. their lack of scales
b. the land egg
c. the ability to maintain a constant body temperature
d. the ability to fertilize eggs internally
e. their possession of a dorsal nerve cord
171. Adaptations for flight in birds include all but which of the following?
a. sound production
b. lightweight bones
c. feathers
d. efficient respiration
e. four-chambered heart
172. Which feature do mammals share in common with all vertebrates?
a. hair
b. a column of individual backbones
c. milk production
d. internal development
e. internal fertilization
173. Mammals are the only vertebrates that possess
a. teeth
b. a backbone
c. a brain
d. mammary glands
e. sensory organs
174. All of the choices are types of mammalian teeth EXCEPT
a. canines
b. molars
c. premolars
d. cusps
e. incisors
175. Live birth is characteristic of
a. marsupials
b. monotremes
c. placentals
d. marsupials and placentals
e. all of the choices
176. Modern mammals arose in the
a. Cretaceous
b. Jurassic
c. Ordovician
d. Permian
e. Pleistocene
177. The ability to fly evolved in
a. birds
b. mammals
c. reptiles
d. both birds and mammals
e. birds, mammals, and reptiles
178. Which is NOT an anthropoid?
a. orangutan
b. lemur
c. spider monkey
d. human
e. chimpanzee
179. Humans are least closely related to the
a. chimpanzee
b. orangutan
c. gorilla
d. lemur
e. spider monkey
180. Humans belong to all but which one of the following?
a. hominids
b. hominoids
c. prosimians
d. anthropoids
e. primates

181. Which characteristic is NOT considered to have been a key character in early primate
evolution?
a. eyes adapted for discerning color and shape in a three-dimensional field
b. body and limbs adapted for tree climbing
c. greater jaw and dental specialization
d. eyes adapted for discerning movement in a three-dimensional field
e. opposable thumb and forefinger
182. Four of the five answers listed below are members of a common group. Select the
 exception.
a. lancelet
b. jawed fish
c. jawless fish
d. sea squirt
e. squid
183. Four of the five answers below are members of the same group. Select the exception.
a. angel fish
b. catfish
c. hagfish
d. salmon
e. tuna
184. Four of the five answers below are classes of living chordates. Select the exception.
a. hagfish
b. bony fish
c. reptiles
d. placoderms
e. cartilaginous fish
185. Four of the five answers below are related by a common group. Select the exception.
a. frogs
b. toads
c. tuataras
d. salamanders
e. caecilians
186. Four of the five answers below are principal characteristics of all chordates. Select the
exception.
a. post-anal tail
b. bony vertebra
c. notochord
d. dorsal nerve cord
e. pharyngeal gill slits
187. Four of the five answers below are gas exchange regions in chordates. Select the
exception.
a. skin
b. gills
c. tracheas
d. lungs
e. lining of pharynx and mouth
188. Four of the five adaptations below allowed animals to live on land. Select the exception.
a. eggs that can develop out of water
b. waterproof skin
c. lungs
d. ectothermy
e. internal fertilization
189. Four of the five groups below are animals in which flying evolved. Select the exception.
a. amphibians
b. birds
c. insects
d. mammals
e. reptiles
190. Four of the five answers below characterize one group of chordates. Select the exception.
a. feathers
b. ectothermic
c. four-chambered heart
d. hollow skeleton
e. no teeth
191. Four of the five answers listed below are anthropoids. Select the exception.
a. tarsier
b. Old World monkey
c. human
d. ape
e. gorilla
192. Four of the five answers listed below are trends in hominid evolution. Select the
exception.
a. strong social bonding
b. enhanced vision
c. upright vertebral column
d. omnivorous feeding behavior
e. enhanced tool making.
193. A patient of Acute lymphocytic leukemia with fever and neutropenia develops diarrhoea
after administration of amoxicillin therapy, which of the following organism is most likely to be
causative agent:
a. Salmonella typhi
b. Clostridium difficile
c. Clostridium perfringens
d. Shigella flexneri
194. The following statements are true with reference to Mycoplasma except:
a. They are the smallest prokaryotic organisms that can grow in cell free culture media
b. They are obligate intracellular organisms
c. They lack a cell wall
d. They are resistant to beta-lactam drugs
195. In HIV infected individual Gram stain of lung aspirate shows yeast like morphology. All of
the following are the most likely diagnosis except:
a. Candida tropicalis
b. Cryptococcus neoformans
c. Penicillium marneffi
d. Aspergillus fumigatus

196. A 45 year old female complains of lower abdominal pain and vaginal discharge. On
examination there is cervicitis along with a mucopurulent cervical discharge. The best approach
to isolate the possible causative agent would be:
a. Culture chocolate agar supplemented with Haemin
b. Culture on McCoy cells
c. Culture on a bilayer human blood agar
d. Culture on vero cell lines
197. A major step in the pathogenesis of listeriosis is:
a. The formation of antigen-antibody complexes with resultant complement activation and
tissue damage
b. The release of hyaluronidase by L. monocytogenes, which contributes to its dissemination
from local sites
c. The antiphagocytic activity of the L. monocytogenes capsule
d. The survival and multiplication of L. monocytogenes within mononuclear phagocytes and
 host epithelial cells
198. The following is not a method of isolation of chlamydia from clinical specimens:
a. Yolk sac inoculation
b. Enzyme immunoassay
c. C. Tissue culture using irradiated McCoy cells
d. Tissue culture using irradiated BHK cells.
199. Minimal change glomerulopathy may be seen in association with all of the following
except:
a. Hepatitis B
b. HIV
c. Drug-induced interstitial nephritis
d. Hodgkins disease.
200. The organism associated with peptic ulcer is :
a. E.coli.
b. Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
c. Helicobacter pylori.
d. Klebsiella.

PART-C
201. Most biologists agree that seaweeds are protists, even though most other protists are
microscopic unicellular creatures. Some biologists think that at least some seaweeds should be
considered plants, not protists. Which of the following would support the latter position?
a. Certain seaweeds contain several kinds of specialized cells.
b. Certain seaweeds undergo sexual and asexual reproduction.
c. Certain seaweeds are found to be prokaryotic.
d. Certain seaweeds have very complex cells.

202. Protozoans called choanoflagellates live in small clusters. They look very much like
choanocytes, special feeding cells found in sponges, which are simple animals. Why might
biologists find choanoflagellates of great evolutionary interest?
a. They show how the very first organisms might have lived.
b. They might show how the first heterotrophs lived.
c. offer hint about origin of multicellular organism
d. They suggest what the first eukaryotes might have been like.

203. A specimen or element selected by a competent worker form the original material studied
by the author to serve as a substitute for the holotype if the latter was not designated in the
original publication or is lost or destroyed-
a. Lectotype
b. Neotype
c. Isotype
d. Paratype
204. Deep in the tropical rain forest, a botanist discovered an unusual plant with highly
developed vascular tissue, stomata, flagellated sperm, cone-like reproductive structures bearing
seeds, and an alternation of generations life cycle. He was very excited about this discovery
because it would be rather unusual for a plant to have both
a. highly developed vascular tissue and flagellated sperm
b. vascular tissue and alternation of generations
c. seeds and flagellated sperm
d. alternation of generations and seeds.

205. Concerning the nature of "life" (the property that makes living things differ from
nonliving), which of the following statements would most biologists support?
a. Development of an organism, even a single cell, is too complex to be explained by
chemical and physical laws.
b. The critical "vitalist" force that makes organisms live is of a different nature from nonliving
chemistry and is yet to be discovered.
c. Life consists of a property called "soul" and this leaves the body when an organism dies.
d. Development of living forms from simple to complex forms contradicts physical laws.
e. None of these statements would be a mainline biology perspective.

206. Some members of a species have a genetic change that causes them to be better suited
to their environment. These members survive to reproduce and pass these genetic changes to
their offspring. This is
a. adaptation
b. natural selection
c. the driving force for evolution
d. All of the choices are correct.
e. None of the choices are correct.

207. For five years, you wake up before the alarm is set to ring each morning. This leads you
to conclude that people have a built-in "alarm clock" capable of waking them up. From a science
viewpoint, this conclusion
a. is science because it is based on real observations.
b. is science because it is predictive of what will happen tomorrow morning.
c. is scientifically valid because 5 years x 365 days is a large number of trials.
d. may not be valid because it generalizes about all people, and there may have been other
variables that could awaken you without a built-in clock.
e. cannot be scientifically treated because it involves human behavior

208. You probably believe that the earth is spherical, but it is obvious that the earth is flat.
Look around; where do you see the curvature? One classmate suggests that if you call someone
on the "other side" of the world by phone, he or she will answer and, for instance, it will be
midnight there at the instant it is noon here. Another student reminds you of the picture taken of
 the spherical earth from the moon landing. Your teacher explains the ancient observation that
when the sun was directly overhead on one day near the equator, a pole some hundreds of miles
away to the north still cast a shadow. What is the best scientific basis for still considering that the
earth is spherical?
a. "Seeing is believing" and, therefore, you must suspend judgment until you can ride on the
Concorde and see the curvature of the earth for yourself.
b. If scientists say it, it must be correct until they vote otherwise.
c. If it is in a science book, it is correct until another explanation is published.
d. The observation that the earth is flat is direct and objective, whereas all of the other
observations are indirect and subjective or based on extrapolated judgment.
e. Reasoning must be used to arrive at a model that best fits the observations.

209. You are interested in the effect of increased carbon dioxide versus normal air, and also in
the effect of green light versus full sunlight on the growth of corn plants in a greenhouse. Although
you can set up your experiment inside a greenhouse, it is possible that there will be plant growth
effects due to effects that you do not know and may never know. Which of the following are
important to ensure control of unknown variables?
a. An increase in carbon dioxide should not result in a substantial decrease of other
necessary gases.
b. All seedlings should be from one uniform strain.
c. The intensity or brightness of the green light should equal the intensity of the full sunlight.
d. All temperatures and available water should remain the same.
e. All of the choices are important.

210. Some biologists study the complex interactions of animals and plants in forests or prairies.
Such ecology field research often produces slightly different results for different researchers. In
contrast, ecology experiments that are run indoors with one organism in a terrarium usually
produce results that are repeatable. What is the most likely explanation?
a. The scientific method is only useful in laboratory settings.
b. It is not possible to establish a control group outside of a laboratory.
c. It is easier to hold all but one variable constant in a laboratory.
d. Field research is only descriptive, and descriptive research is not strictly "science."
e. Fieldwork is inductive; lab work is deductive.

211. An elementary student decides to conduct an experiment comparing the effectiveness of

two commercial soaps as cleaning agents (Soap 1 and Soap 2), using each in paired tests of
different types of stains and colors of cloth, where the only variable is the soap used. The student
will use the judgment of classmates to decide if the stains remain equal or if Soap 1cleans better
than Soap 2 in each test run. However, the student makes no prediction of which soap is expected
to perform best.
a. This lacks a hypothesis and is therefore not a scientific test.
b. This lacks any control group (no-soap treatment) and therefore will provide no
 meaningful results.
c. Because this is based on the subjective judgments of students, it is not objective and
therefore not scientific.
d. This is a scientific procedure, although it does lack a stated hypothesis describing an
anticipated outcome.
e. This experimental design has all the components and procedures of the scientific method.

212. A researcher reports he has conducted many experiments where a galvanometer (lie
detector) was hooked up to detect the plant's responses. He reports that when a spider was
released near the plant, the spider's decision to escape was picked up by the plant, "causing a
reaction in the leaf." When other researchers repeated the experiment, they could not get any
galvanometer responses. The researcher then concluded that plants could be put into a faint by
humans.
a. This is a justified conclusion from a research design that appears to follow the scientific
method.
b. The only problem with this general research plan is that it lacks a control.
c. Results must be somewhat repeatable and these results that only work for this researcher
do not qualify as science.
d. The design is scientific; it just lacks a hypothesis.
e. If the researcher has actual numerical counts, this must be accepted as valid science

213. An earlier classification grouped organisms by whether they inhabited the air, land or sea.
However, the five-kingdoms-of-life and three-domains system divided into class-order-family-
genus-species as described in this chapter is superior because it
a. better represents the origin of features held in commonthe unity of life in DNA, etc.
b. better reflects the origin of adaptationsthe diversity of life for differing environments.
c. allows the organization of over 900,000 different species.
d. groups organisms based on similarities related to their structure and evolution.
e. All of the choices are correct

214. Metabolism is the sum of chemical reactions that occur in living cells, and we are
accustomed to living cells continuously using energy and respiring. Even when plants and seeds
are "dormant," we expect that they are carrying on metabolism but at a very slow rate.
"Cryptobiosis" is a state of almost total loss of water seen in some roundworms, rotifers, and
tardigrades and has been considered a near cessation of metabolism. Recently, a botanist working
in a British museum accidentally spilled fluid on 120+ year old herbarium mounts. Fearing damage
to the plant specimen, he immediately inspected it under the microscope only to find small
tardigrades "waking up." These observations
a. support the claim that the tardigrades were always alive but respiring at a very slow rate.
b. generate the possibility that we can bring most dead animals back to life.
c. contradict the cell theory that all life comes from life.
d. indicate that metabolism probably did totally stop, and that organization may be
 sufficient to maintain the possibility for "life."
e. suggest that a "vital force" may be involved in defining when life is present.

215. Studying a brick does not predict the design of a skyscraper. Intense examination of
muscle tissues does not allow you to predict the design of a kangaroo or clam. The structure of
chlorophyll does not dictate the unique structure of a tree. These cases demonstrate
a. essential properties of life.
b. levels of organization from atom to biosphere.
c. determinism, or how all phenomena are predictable effects of causes.
d. emergent properties that are easily predicted by examining their parts.
e. emergent properties that cannot be predicted by examining their parts.

216. One classic definition of life is "a self-replicating molecular assemblage." However, clay
particles (in clay soil) contain layered aluminum and iron compounds that determine the pattern
of the adjacent layers of sediment. This is technically a self-replicating molecular assemblage.
Which of the following conclusions is most accurate?
a. It is living.
b. It is not living because it cannot think.
c. It is not living because there were no molecular changes (or chemistry) involved.
d. It is not living because there is no carbon involved; otherwise, such duplication would be
living.
e. It is not living because it is a simple repetitive process without the ability to evolve or
respond to the environment.

217. Which of the following terms or structures is properly associated only with animals?
a. Hox genes
b. cell wall
c. autotrophy
d. sexual reproduction
e. chitin

218. The larvae of some insects are merely small versions of the adult, whereas the larvae of
other insects look completely different from adults, eat different foods, and may live in different
habitats. Which of the following most directly favors the evolution of the latter, more radical, kind
of metamorphosis?
A. natural selection of sexually immature forms of insects
B. changes in the homeobox genes governing early development
C. the evolution of meiosis
a. B and C only
b. A, B, and C
c. A and B only
d. B only
219. The number of legs an insect has, the number of vertebrae in a vertebral column, or the
number of joints in a digit (such as a finger) are all strongly influenced by
a. haploid genomes.
b. introns within genes.
c. heterotic genes.
d. heterogeneous genes.
e. Hox genes.

220. The Hox genes came to regulate each of the following in what sequence, from earliest to
most recent?
1. identity and position of paired appendages in protostome embryos
2. formation of water channels in sponges
3. anterior-posterior orientation of segments in protostome embryos
4. positioning of tentacles in cnidarians
5. anterior-posterior orientation in vertebrate embryos
a. 4 ,1, 3, 2, 5
b. 4, 2, 3, 1, 5
c. 4, 2, 5, 3, 1
d. 2, 4, 5, 3, 1
e. 2, 4, 3, 1, 5

221. In individual insects of some species, whole chromosomes that carry larval genes are
eliminated from the genomes of somatic cells at the time of metamorphosis. A consequence of
this occurrence is that
a. we could not clone a larva from the somatic cells of such an adult insect.
b. such species must reproduce only asexually.
c. the descendents of these adults do not include a larval stage.
d. metamorphosis can no longer occur among the descendents of such adults.
e. both C and D.

222. Which statement is most consistent with the hypothesis that the Cambrian explosion was
caused by the rise of predator-prey relationships?
a. increased incidence of worm burrows in the fossil record
b. increased incidence of larger animals in the fossil record
c. increased incidence of organic material in the fossil record
d. increased incidence of fern galls in the fossil record
e. increased incidence of hard parts in the fossil record

223. Fossil evidence indicates that the following events occurred in what sequence, from
earliest to most recent?
1. Protostomes invade terrestrial environments.
2. Cambrian explosion occurs.
3. Deuterostomes invade terrestrial environments.
4. Vertebrates become top predators in the seas.
a. 2, 4, 3, 1
b. 2, 1, 4, 3
c. 2, 4, 1, 3
d. 2, 3, 1, 4
e. 2, 1, 3, 4

224. What is the probable sequence in which the following clades of animals originated, from
earliest to most recent?
1. tetrapods
2. vertebrates
3. deuterostomes
4. amniotes
5. bilaterians
a. 5, 3, 2, 4, 1
b. 5, 3, 2, 1, 4
c. 5, 3, 4, 2, 1
d. 3, 5, 4, 2, 1
e. 3, 5, 2, 1, 4

225. Sponges and cnidarians are among the fossilized animals found in both the Ediacara Hills
and the Burgess
a. Shale from the Rocky Mountains of British Colombia. This observation requires that
b. ancestral sponges and cnidarians had formerly been terrestrial animals.
c. North America and Australia were united to each other about 550 million years ago (mya).
d. land that now comprises the Ediacara Hills and the Rocky Mountains was underwater
about 550 million years ago.
e. only sponges and cnidarians existed at the time the sediments were deposited.

226. Arthropods invaded land about 100 million years before vertebrates did so. This most
clearly implies that
a. arthropods evolved before vertebrates did.
b. extant terrestrial arthropods are better adapted to terrestrial life than are extant
terrestrial vertebrates.
c. ancestral arthropods must have been poorly adapted to aquatic life, thus experienced a
selective pressure to invade land.
d. vertebrates evolved from arthropods.
e. arthropods have had more time to co-evolve with land plants than have vertebrates.
227. An obsolete taxon, the "Radiata," included all phyla whose adults had true radial
symmetry. Today, the "Radiata" is more correctly considered to be
1. a clade.
2. a grade.
3. monophyletic.
4. paraphyletic.
5. polyphyletic.
a. 1 and 2
b. 1 and 3
c. 2 and 4
d. 2 and 5
e. 1, 2, and 3

228. A researcher is trying to construct a molecular-based phylogeny of the entire animal

kingdom. Assuming that none of the following genes is absolutely conserved, which of the
following would be the best choice on which to base the phylogeny?
a. genes involved in chitin synthesis
b. collagen genes
c. beta-catenin genes
d. genes involved in eye-lens synthesis
e. genes that cause radial body symmetry

229. What is the correct sequence of the following four events during an animal's
development?
1. gastrulation
2. metamorphosis
3. fertilization
4. cleavage
a. 4, 3, 2, 1
b. 4, 3, 1, 2
c. 3, 2, 4, 1
d. 3, 4, 2, 1
e. 3, 4, 1, 2

230. What may have occurred to prevent species that are of the same grade from also
belonging to the same clade?
a. similar structures arising independently in different lineages
b. convergent evolution among different lineages
c. adaptation by different lineages to the same selective pressures
d. A and B only
e. A, B, and C
231. During metamorphosis, echinoderms undergo a transformation from motile larvae to a
sedentary (or sometimes sessile) existence as adults. What differentiates echinoderm adults, but
not their larvae? Adults should
a. be diploblastic.
b. have radial symmetry, or something close to it.
c. lack mesodermally derived tissues.
d. A and B only
e. A, B, and C

232. Which of the following is a correct association of an animal germ layer with the tissues or
organs to which it gives rise?
a. ectoderm: outer covering of digestive system
b. endoderm: internal lining of blood vessels
c. mesoderm: central nervous system
d. mesoderm: skin
e. endoderm: linings of liver passageways and lung passageways

233. What distinguishes a coelomate animal from a pseudocoelomate animal is that

coelomates have a body cavity, whereas pseudocoelomates have a solid body.
a. contain tissues derived from mesoderm, whereas pseudocoelomates have no such tissue.
b. have a body cavity completely lined by mesodermal tissue, whereas pseudocoelomates
do not.
c. have a complete digestive system with mouth and anus, whereas pseudocoelomates have
a digestive tract with only one opening.
d. have a gut that lacks suspension within the body cavity, whereas pseudocoelomates have
mesenteries that hold the digestive system in place.

234. Which of the following is descriptive of protostomes?

a. spiral and indeterminate cleavage, blastopore becomes mouth
b. spiral and determinate cleavage, blastopore becomes mouth
c. spiral and determinate cleavage, blastopore becomes anus
d. radial and determinate cleavage, blastopore becomes anus
e. radial and determinate cleavage, blastopore becomes mouth

235. If we were to separate these eight cells and attempt to culture them individually, then
what is most likely to happen?
a. All eight cells will die immediately.
b. Each cell may continue development, but only into an inviable embryo that lacks many
parts.
c. Each cell may develop into a full-sized, normal embryo.
d. Each cell may develop into a smaller-than-average, but otherwise normal, embryo.
236. If an undisturbed embryo is allowed to develop further, then one should expect that
a. the first opening of the gastrula will ultimately serve as the mouth.
b. upon metamorphosis, the resulting trochophore larva will gain a backbone.
c. upon gastrulation, a solid ball of cells will be produced.
d. both A and B
e. both B and C

237. With the current molecular-based phylogeny in mind, rank the following from most
inclusive to least inclusive.
1. ecdysozoan
2. protostome
3. eumetazoan
4. triploblastic
a. 4, 2, 3, 1
b. 4, 3, 1, 2
c. 3, 4, 1, 2
d. 3, 4, 2, 1
e. 4, 3, 2, 1

238. Which of the following statements concerning animal taxonomy is (are) true?
1. Animals are more closely related to plants than to fungi.
2. All animal clades based on body plan have been found to be incorrect.
3. Kingdom Animalia is monophyletic.
4. Only animals reproduce by sexual means.
5. Animals are thought to have evolved from flagellated protists similar to modern
choanoflagellates.
a. 5
b. 1, 3
c. 2, 4
d. 3, 5
e. 3, 4, 5

239. If the current molecular evidence regarding animal origins is well substantiated in the
future, then what will be true of any contrary evidence regarding the origin of animals derived
from the fossil record?
a. The contrary fossil evidence will be seen as a hoax.
b. The fossil evidence will be understood to have been incorrect because it is incomplete.
c. The fossil record will henceforth be ignored.
d. Phylogenies involving even the smallest bit of fossil evidence will need to be discarded.
e. Only phylogenies based solely on fossil evidence will need to be discarded.
240. The last common ancestor of all bilaterians is thought to have had four Hox genes. Most
extant cnidarians have two Hox genes, except Nematostella (of beta-catenin fame), which has
three Hox genes. On the basis of these observations, some have proposed that the ancestral
cnidarians were originally bilateral and, in stages, lost Hox genes from their genomes. If true, this
would mean that
a. Radiata should be a true clade.
b. The radial symmetry of extant cnidarians is secondarily derived, rather than being an
ancestral trait.
c. Hox genes play little actual role in coding for an animals body plan.
d. Cnidaria may someday replace Acoela as the basal bilaterians.
e. both B and D
ANSWER KEYS

1.b

2.b

3.d

4.d

5.d

6.d

7.b

8.d

9.a

10.d

11.d

12.d

13.a

14.a

15.b

16.c

17.d

18.a

19.d

20.d

21.a

22.a

23.a
24.d

25.a

26.c

27.d

28.a

29.a

30.c

31.a

32.b

33.d

34.b

35.b

36.c

37.c

38.b

39.b

40.d

41.b

42.d

43.d

44.b

45.b

46.d

47.b

48.b
49.c

50.d

51.b

52.c

53.b

54.c

55.a

56.b

57.d

58.b

59.b

60.a

61.a

62.b

63.a

64.b

65.b

66.a

67.b

68.a

69.d

70.a

71.d

72.a

73.b
74.b

75.b

76.c

77.c

78.c

79.d

80.c

81.c

82.d

83.c

84.d

85.e

86.b

87.c

88.e

89.c

90.d

91.d

92.e

93.e

94.b

95.d

96.c

97.a

98.b
99.c

100.b

101.b

102.a

103.e

104.b

105.c

106.e

107.d

108.c

109.c

110.c

111.c

112.d

113.c

114.b

115.d

116.b

117.a

118.e

119.c

120.a

121.d

122.e

123.a
124.d

125.c

126.b

127.a

128.c

129.d

130.c

131.b

132.a

133.e

134.b

135.a

136.a

137.a

138.d

139.e

140.d

141.c

142.d

143.a

144.b

145.c

146.d

147.c

148.c
149.a

150.a

151.c

152.c

153.c

154.a

155.c

156.c

157.d

158.e

159.b

160.e

161.c

162.c

163.e

164.a

165.a

166.d

167.d

168.a

169.c

170.c

171.a

172.b

173.d
174.d

175.d

176.a

177.e

178.b

179.d

180.c

181.c

182.e

183.c

184.d

185.c

186.b

187.c

188.d

189.a

190.b

191.a

192.a

193.b

194.b

195.

196.b

197.d

198.b
199.a

200.c

PART-C

201.d

202.c

203.a

204.a

205.e

206.d

207.d

208.e

209.e

210.c

211.d

212.c

213.e

214.d

215.e

216.e

217.a

218.b

219.e

220.e
221.a

222.e

223.c

224.b

225.c

226.e

227.c

228.b

229.e

230.e

231.b

232.c

233.c

234.b

235.b

236.a

237.d

238.d

239.b

240.e