Question Report

TM
MEDIUM : ENGLISH
PAPER CODE Path to success KOTA (RAJASTHAN)
JEE (Main + Advanced) UNIT TEST - 1_PHASE # 2

NURTURE COURSE 21 05 2017
TARGET : JEE (Main + Advanced) 2019 TEST PATTERN : JEE (Advanced)
Time : 3 Hours Maximum Marks : 180
Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.
INSTRUCTIONS
A. General :
1. This booklet is your Questions Paper. Do not break the seals of this booklet before being instructed to do so by the
invigilators.
2. Blank spaces and blank pages are provided in this booklet for your rough work. No additional sheets will be provided
for rough work.
3. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cameras, cellular phones, pagers, and electronic gadgets
are NOT allowed inside the examination hall.
4. The answer sheet, a machine-readable Optical Response Sheet (ORS), is provided separately.
5. DO NOT TAMPER WITH/MUTILATE THE ORS OR THE BOOKLET.
B. Filling the ORS :
6. A candidate has to write his / her answers in the ORS sheet by darkening the appropriate bubble with the help of Black
ball point pen as the correct answer(s) of the question attempted.
7. Write your Name, FNO and sign with pen in the boxes provied on part of the ORS. Do not write any of this information
anywhere else.
C. Question Paper Format :
8. The question paper consists of 3 parts (Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics). Each part consists of One Section
(Section -1) . Section-I consists of three types of questions.
9. SECTIONI :
TYPE (A) : This part contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out
of which ONE is correct.
TYPE (B) : This part contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out
of which ONE or MORE than ONE is/are correct.
TYPE (C) : This section contains 2 groups of questions. Each group has 2 multiple choice question based on a paragraph.
Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
D. Marking scheme :
10. Section I
TYPE (A) : For each question in TYPE (A), you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding
to the correct answer ONLY. Minus (1) marks will be awarded for incorrect answers in this section.
TYPE (B) : For each question in TYPE (B), you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding
to the correct answer(s) ONLY. In all other cases, zero(0) marks will be awarded. No negative marks will be awarded
for incorrect answers in this section.
TYPE (C) : For each question in TYPE (C), you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding
to the correct answer ONLY. Minus (1) marks will be awarded for incorrect answers in this section.
11. Take g = 10 m/s2 unless otherwise stated.
Write your Name, Form No. & Sign in the space provided on the back page of this booklet.
1
2
JEE (Main + Advanced) /Nurture Course/21-05-2017
HAVE CONTROL HAVE PATIENCE HAVE CONFIDENCE 100% SUCCESS
PHYSICS
BEWARE OF NEGATIVE MARKING
PART-1 : PHYSICS
SECTIONI (PART-A)
This section contains EIGHT questions.
Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four option(s) is correct.
1
1. If Y = tan x + then dy is
x2 dx
2
(B) sec x -
2
(A) 2x + sec2x (C) secx + 2x3 (D) sec2x + 2/x3
x3
2. Y = sin x3 then dy is equal to

dx
(A) 3x2 cos x3 (B) cos x3 (C) 3 cos x3 (D) 3x2 sin x3
dy
3. Y = sin2x then the value of at x = p / 4 is
dx
1 3
(A) (B) (C) 1 (D) 0
2 2
Space for Rough Work
MUMBAI E-3/26
4. The radius of a sphere increasing at the rate of 2 cm/sec. The rate of increase its volume with time, when
PHYSICS
its radius is 5 cm is
(A) 100 p cm3/sec (B) 200 p cm3/sec (C) 20 p cm3/sec (D) 80 p cm3/sec
5. First derivative at ex is
2 2
(A) ex (B) ex (C) ex (D) ex
6. Value of sin 74 is
24 14 3 +1 14
(A) (B) (C) (D) -
25 25 25 25
E-4/26 MUMBAI
7. 2 ln 9 + ln 6 =
PHYSICS
(A) ln 15 (B) ln 54 (C) ln 54/2.303 (D) ln 486
8. If Y = x2 sin x. dy will be
dx
(A) x2 cos x (B) 2x2 cos x
(C) x2 cos x + 2x sin x (D) 2x sinx + x2 cos2x
MUMBAI E-5/26
SECTIONI (PART-B)
PHYSICS
This section contains SIX questions.

Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these
four option(s) is (are) correct.
9. If Y' is differential co-efficient of y with respect to x, then
(A) If y = sin(tanx) then y' = sec2x cos(tanx)
(B) If y = sinx cos x then y' = sin2x + cos2x
(C) If y = e2x then y = 2e2x
(D) If y = e5 then y' = e5
10. Chose the correct options
1
(A) sin ( 225 ) = - (B) cos ( 240) = -1/ 2
2
1
(C) tan (135) = -1 (D) cot (120) =
2
E-6/26 MUMBAI
11. Choose the correct options :
PHYSICS
(A) 1 + 5 + 9 + 13 + ........ + 45 = 276 (B) log108 + log1025 + log103 log106 = 12
1 1 1
(C) (1.0007)8 = (1.0056) (D) ln 1 + + + + ...... = 2.303 log10 2
2 4 8
12. If y = x3 12x + 4
(A) y has a maxima at x = 2 (B) y has a minima at x = 2
dy
(C) y has a maxima at x = 2 (D) = 0 at x = 2
dx
MUMBAI E-7/26
13. Which of the following options is/are incorrect:

PHYSICS
(A) differentiation of x 2 w.r.t. x is 2x

1
(B) integration of x w.r.t. x is 2 x +c
(C) integration of sin x w.r.t. x is cos x + c
(D) differentiation of sin ( x 2 ) w.r.t. x is 2x cos ( x 2 )
14. For a function y = 2x 3 - 9x 2 + 28
(A) minima will occur at 0 (B) maxima will occur at 3
(C) maximum value will be 28 (D) minimum value will be 1
E-8/26 MUMBAI
SECTIONI (PART-C)
PHYSICS
This section contains TWO paragraphs.
Based on each paragraph, there will be TWO questions
Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D) ONLY ONE of these four option(s) is correct.
For each question, darken the bubble corresponding to the correct option in the ORS
Paragraph for Q. 15 and 16

If y = f(x) where y = 4 x x whose graph is given below
2
x
O
15. For above graph slope of 'e' curve

(A) 1st increases then decreases (B) 1st decreases then increases
(C) Increases continusly (D) Decreases continusly
16. Slope of curve at x = O is
(A) 4 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 0
MUMBAI E-9/26
Paragraph for Q. 17 and 18
PHYSICS
Dx dx
Consider the expression for instantaneous velocity V = limit =
Dt o Dt dt
17. Which of the following statements is/are correct

(I) The symbol limit stands for operation of taking limit as Dt O of the qunatity on its right
Dx dx
(II) The qunatity limit is the differential co-efficient of x with respect to t and is denoted by
Dt o Dt dt
dx
(III) The instantaneous velocity (V) expressed as V = , is the rate of change of position (x) with
dt
respect to time t at that instant

(A) Only I (B) II & III (C) I, II & III (D) I & III
18. If position (x) of a body varies with time t as x = 2t2 + 4t + 5 it is instantaneous velocity at t = 1 sec is
('x' is in meter & 't' is sec)
(A) 4 ms1 (B) 8 ms1 (C) 0 (D) 12 ms1
E-10/26 MUMBAI
PART-2 : CHEMISTRY
CHEMISTRY
SECTIONI (PART-A)
Each question has FOUR options (A), ((B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four option(s) is correct.
1. A photon of 300 nm is absorbed by a gas and then emits two photons. One photon has a wavelength
496 nm then the wavelength of second photon in nm is :
(A) 759 (B) 859 (C) 959 (D) 659
2. Photon having wavelength 310 nm is used to break the bond of A2 molecule having bond energy
288 kJ mol1 then % of energy of photon converted to the K.E. is [hc = 12400 ev , 1 ev = 96 kJ/mol]
(A) 25 (B) 50 (C) 75 (D) 80
3. Last line of Lyman series for Hatom has wavelength l1 , 2nd line of Balmer series has wavelength
l 2 then
16 9 16 3 4 1 16 3
(A) l = l (B) l = l (C) l = l (D) l = l
1 2 2 1 1 2 1 2
MUMBAI E-11/26
Target : JEE (Main + Advanced) 2019/21-05-2016
16x
4. The largest wavelength in Paschen series of Li +2 is . The largest wavelength of Balmer series in
CHEMISTRY
9
He+ is
5x
(A) x (B) 1.2 x (C) 1.4 x (D)
9
x
5. An electron in an atom jumps in such a way that kinetic energy changes from x to . The change in
4
potential energy will be :
3 3 3 3
(A) + x (B) - x (C) + x (D) - x
2 8 4 4
6. In a discharge tube, there are only two hydrogen atoms. If the electrons in both atoms are de-exciting
from 4th orbit, the minimum and maximum number of spectral lines should respectively be
(A) 1, 4 (B) 4, 1 (C) 3 , 4 (D) 1, 6
E-12/26 MUMBAI
7. The ionization energy of hydrogen atom in the ground state is x kJ. The energy required for an electron
CHEMISTRY
to jump from 2nd orbit to 3rd orbit in Be3+ is
5x 20x
(A) (B) 5x (C) 7.2 x (D)
36 9
8. When electrons are de-exciting to ground state from nth orbit in a sample of hydrogen atoms, 15 spectral
lines are observed. The shortest wavelength among these will be
11 900 35 36
(A) R (B) (C) (D)
900 11R 36R 35R
MUMBAI E-13/26
SECTIONI (PART-(B)
CHEMISTRY
This section contains FOUR questions.

Each question has FOUR options (A), ((B), (C) and (D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these
9. In a H-like sample, electrons make transition from 4th excited state upto 2nd state. Then
(A) 10 different spectral lines are observed
(B) 6 different spectral lines are observed
(C) number of lines belonging to the balmer series is 3.
(D) number of lines belonging to paschen series is 2.
10. 1st excitation potential for the H-like (hypothetical) sample is 91.8 Volt. Then :
(A) lonisation energy of the sample is 54.4 eV.
(B) lonisation energy of the sample is 122.4 eV.
(C) Binding energy of 3rd excited state is 13.6 eV.
(D) 2nd excitation potential of the sample is 13.6 8 volt
E-14/26 MUMBAI
11. A s an electron jumps f rom 4th orbit to the 2nd orbit in Be3+ ion, its
CHEMISTRY
(A) K.E increases (B) speed increases
(C) frequency of revolution increases (D) angular momentum increases.
12. Rutherfords a-scattering experiment led to the following conclusions:
(A) Atom has largely empty space.
(B) The centre of the atom has positively charged nucleus.
(C) The size of the nucleus is very small as compared to the size of the atom.
(D) Electrons are present in the nucleus.
MUMBAI E-15/26
13. Which is true about an electron ?
CHEMISTRY
(A) Mass of electron is 9.1 1028 g

(B) The mass of electron is very small in comparision of nucleus
(C) Molar mass of electron is 5.48 104 g/mole
(D) e/m of electron is 1.7 108 coulomb/g
14. From the a-particle scattering experiment, Rutherford concluded that
(A) a-particle can come within a distance of the order of 1014 m from the nucleus
(B) the radius of the nucleus is less than 1014 m
(C) a large empty space within atom
(D) the postive charge is concentrated and space occupied is very small in the atom
E-16/26 MUMBAI
SECTIONI (PART-C)
CHEMISTRY
Each question has FOUR options (A), ((B), (C) and (D) ONLY ONE of these four option(s) is correct.
Paragraph for Q. 15 to 16
When a sample of hydrogen atoms is irradiated by electromagnetic radiations of suitable wavelength,
all the eletrons jump from the ground state to the fifth orbit, they de-excites to the ground state making
one or more than one transitions. Each transition results the emission of an electromagnetic radiation
of a particular wavelength. When these radiations pass through a prism, they deviate with different angle,
resulting the spectral line.
15. What is the maximum number of spectral lines, if the sample is containing only one atom ?
(A) 5 (B) 4 (C) 6 (D) 10
16. What should be the minimum number of hydrogen atoms in the sample to get a maximum of 10 spectral
lines ?
(A) 6 (B) 5 (C) 7 (D) 10

MUMBAI E-17/26
Paragraph for Q. 17 to 18
CHEMISTRY
A muon is an unstable elementary particle whose mass is 207 me (where me is mass of electron) and
whose charge is either +e or -e. A negative muon (m-) can be capture by a proton to from a muonic atom.
This atom follows Bohr's quantisation condition. Answer the following neglecting reduced mass effect.
17. What is the radius of the Bohr orbit of this atom?
(A) 52.9 pm (B) 0.256 pm (C) 0.256 nm (D) 10.9 nm
18. What is the wavelength of the photon emitted when nuon drops from second orbit to the ground state
in this atom ?
(A) 2.53 10-5 m (B) 1.22 10-7 m (C) 5.91 10-10 m (D) 2.85 10-12 m
E-18/26 MUMBAI
PART-3 : MATHEMATICS
MATHEMATICS
SECTIONI (PART-A)
Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four option(s) is correct.
( a - b)3 + (b - c)3 + (c - a )3
1. If a, b, c are real and distinct numbers, find the value of
( a - b)( b - c)(c - a )
(A) 0 (B) a + b + c (C) 1 (D) 3
25
2. Find the conjugate of z =
(3 + 4i)(1 - i)
7 i 7 i
(A) + (B) - (C) 7 i (D) 7 + i
2 2 2 2
MUMBAI E-19/26
MATHEMATICS
1
If x2 3x + 1 = 0, find the value of x +
4
3.
x4
(A) 7 (B) 11 (C) 47 (D) 31
4. Find the values of x satisfying | x + 3x + 2 | > x + 3x + 2
2 2
(A) ( , 2) (1, ) (B) ( , 2] [1, )

(C) [2, 1] (D) (2, 1)
5. Let f(x) = (sinx + cosx)2 + (cosx sinx)2 + x. Find the value of log2(f(1) + f(2) + f(3)) log23
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 3
E-20/26 MUMBAI
MATHEMATICS
3x - 1
6. Solve the following inequality >3
x -1
2
(A) , (B) ( -, 3) (C) ( 2, ) (D) None of these
3
1
7. Let P(x) be a polynomial of degree 3 such that; P(i) = i {1, 2, 3, 4}. Find P(6).
i +1 "
1 2
(A) 0 (B) (C) (D) None of these
7 15
8. Solve the inequality 6x + 1 > 2x + 3x

(A) R (B) R {1} (C) R {0} (D) R {2, 3}
MUMBAI E-21/26
SECTIONI (PART-B)
MATHEMATICS
This section contains SIX questions.

Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these
9. If 927a40b is an odd multiple of 45, then the possible values of a is / are
(A) 0 (B) 3 (C) 6 (D) 9
1011
10. If x = , then the expression
2017
1 2 2016
x + 2017 + x + 2017 + ..... + x + 2017 is divisible by
(Given [ ] denotes G.I.F.)

(A) 5 (B) 7 (C) 11 (D) 13
E-22/26 MUMBAI
MATHEMATICS
1 2 1
11. Number of positive integral solutions of the equation x + y = 4 is equal to
5
(A) 6 (B) log215 2log23 + log224 log2
8
(C) A composite natural number (D) Sum of first three positive initegers
12. Consider, a = log23, b = log20162017, c = log94, d = log89
Then, identify the wrong options from the following
(A) c < a < d < b (B) c < b < d < a (C) c < a < b < d (D) a < b < d < c
MUMBAI E-23/26
MATHEMATICS
1 1 1
13. The value of 1 + log b + log c + 1 + log c + log a + 1 + log a + log b 1 is (a, b, c R+{1})
a a b b c c
(A) zero (B) A non negative integer

(C) A non positive integer (D) A prime number
14. If x a is a factor of x 6ax + 11a 6, then the possible values of a is/are
3
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 3

E-24/26 MUMBAI
SECTIONI (PART-C)
MATHEMATICS
Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D) ONLY ONE of these four option(s) is correct.
For each question, darken the bubble corresponding to the correct option in the ORS
Paragraph for Questions 15 and 16

If x, y R, then |x| + |y| |x + y|. Equality holds if xy 0.
Also, |x| + |y| |x y|. Equality holds if xy 0.
15. Number of initegers satisfying |x 1| + |x 7| = 6 is
(A) 2 (B) 6 (C) 7 (D) Infinite
16. The exhaustive set of values satisfying |2x2 7x 4| + |x 1| = |2x2 6x 5| is
1 1 1
(A) - , 1 [4, ) (B) , 1 [4, ) (C) [1, 4] (-, ] (D) None of these
2 2 2
MUMBAI E-25/26
Paragraph for Questions 17 and 18
MATHEMATICS
Consider k = |x + 6| + |x 2| + |x 9|
17. Find k if the above equation has exactly one solution
(A) k = 15 (B) 15 k 22 (C) k 22 (D) None of these
18. Find k if the above equation has two solutions
(A) k < 15 (B) k > 15 (C) 15 k 22 (D) k 22
E-26/26 MUMBAI

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TM

JEE (Main + Advanced) UNIT TEST - 1_PHASE # 2

HAVE CONTROL HAVE PATIENCE HAVE CONFIDENCE 100% SUCCESS

2. Y = sin x3 then dy is equal to

This section contains SIX questions.

11. Choose the correct options :

13. Which of the following options is/are incorrect:

(A) differentiation of x 2 w.r.t. x is 2x

Paragraph for Q. 15 and 16

15. For above graph slope of 'e' curve

17. Which of the following statements is/are correct

respect to time t at that instant

Space for Rough Work

This section contains FOUR questions.

(A) Mass of electron is 9.1 1028 g

(A) 6 (B) 5 (C) 7 (D) 10

(A) 52.9 pm (B) 0.256 pm (C) 0.256 nm (D) 10.9 nm

(A) 0 (B) a + b + c (C) 1 (D) 3

(A) ( , 2) (1, ) (B) ( , 2] [1, )

8. Solve the inequality 6x + 1 > 2x + 3x

This section contains SIX questions.

(Given [ ] denotes G.I.F.)

(A) zero (B) A non negative integer

(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 3

Paragraph for Questions 15 and 16

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