1.

1 Recognition of self molecules by immune system is important for

A. Activation of natural killers involved in innate immunity
B. Binding and identification of consequences of the future cooperation x
C. Induction of TCR and BCR expression on the self molecules
D. Stimulation of binding with
E. Activation of processes leading to kill the cell presenting self molecules

1.2 NK natural killer identifie the abnormalities on cells by detecting the

amount of
A. MHC I molecules x
B. Non self molecules
C. PAMP pathogen-associated molecular patterns
D. PRR pattern recognition receptors
E. SGR somatically generated cell surface receptors

1.3 PRR pattern recognition receptors can bind

A. B and T lymphocytes
B. Host-cell molecules
C. MHC I molecules
D. NK cells
E. PAMP x

1.4 SGR (e.g. BCR resp TCR) on B and T lymphocytes are

A. Bound only to MHC I molecules
B. Encoded to recognise PAMP
C. First to be produced after exposition to foreign molecule
D. Of the same specificity in everybody
E. Randomly generated during intrauterine development x

1.5 Immunological memory deals with

A. Activation of phagocyting cells leading to ingestion of mibrobial invaders
B. Changes of adaptive immunity after repeated exposition to the antigen
of the same microbe x
C. Stability of innate immunity reaction to reexposition to the same microbe
D. Recognition of PAMP via PRR
E. Stimulation of defective host cell with reduced amount of MHC molecules
to do the apoptosis

1.6 Which of below mentionned structures on microbes are recognised by

human immune system molecules.
A. MHC I molekuly
B. MHC II molekuly
C. PAMP x
D. PRR
E. SGR

2.1 Synthetic molecule that bind the receptors on B cells, but does not
stimulise their production of specific antibodies unless it is conjugated with
bigger immunogenic molecules is
A. adjuvans
B. carrier
C. hapten x
D. immunogen
E. tolerogen

2.2 Which of below mentioned molecules induce the strongest specific

immune reaction in man
A. 250 000 Da self plasmatic protein
B. 150 000 Da toxin produced by bacterium x
C. 500 Da plasmatic protein from monkey
D. 400 Da molecule from foreign man
E. 200 Da molecule of carbohydrate that is the same in all biological species

2.3 During early stages of lymphocyte development the receptor-epitop

binding can results in inactivation or death of the lymphocyte, or
unresponsivness. The epitop is
A. hapten
B. immunogen
C. tolerogen x
D. carrier
E. adjuvans

2.4 Natural killers induce lysis of infected cell, that has the decreased
exposition of MHC I molecules. NK cells do this by activation of receptors:
A. receptors for complement
B. Fc receptors
C. KAR killer activation receptors x
D. KIR killer inhibition receptros
E. TCR

2.5 Antibodies mediated accumulation of macrophages in the site of

pathogen arises thanks to
A. Receptors for complement
B. Fc receptors x
C. KIR killer activation receptors
D. PRR pattern recognition receptors
E. TLR toll like receptors

2.6 Allergic reaction is induced by

A. adjuvans
B. hapten
C. immunogen x
D. tolerogen
E. no of answer is correct

2.7 Binding of epitop on Fab portion of molecule before its Fc fragment

anchors in target structure is not required for
A. molecule of the carrier
B. conjugate of hapten-carrier
C. hapten
D. IgE x
E. IgG

2.8 Immunocompetent cells lymphocytes are stimulated by binding of

antigens to the surface receptors. This activity is influenced by:
A. A single and the only receptor per cell
B. A single type of receptor found on all cells
C. Integration of several signals generated by multiple receptors on single
cells x
D. Multiple receptors that bind soluble ligands only
E. Nonspecific receptors binding a wide spectrum of ligands

3.1 Vaginal candidosis (infection produced by funguses

microbes) after ATB therapy is caused by:
A. The ammount of secreted lysosyme in vagina
B. The ammount of secreted mucus in vagina
C. Changes in physiological flora x
D. pH in vagina
E. changes of function of epitelial cells

3.2 Repeated pneumoniae infectious inflamation of lung-

caused by oportunistic pathogens in patient with impaired
cilliated epitelium of bronchuses is conditioned by:
A. decreased IgA antibodies production
B. changes in total antibodies production
C. decrease of pH
D. decrease of nonspecific immune reactions x
E. impairement of specific immune mechanism

3.3 Permanent uretral catheter as one of the cause of

cystitis (inflamation of urine bladder) results in
A. production of conditions favorable for changes of molecules between
epitelium and environment
B. introduction of microorganisms in urethra x
C. secretion of mucus from epithelial cells
D. changes of pH of urine
E. all possibilities are correct

3.4 Which of mentionned possibilities is the example of

physiological barrier inhibiting colonisation by microorganisms
A. respiratory tract with pH - 9,0 11,0
B. skin - pH around 8,0
C. stomac - pH 1,0 3,0 x
D. upper part of GIT pH - 6,5 7,5
E. vagina pH around 7,0
3.5 Which of the mentionned possibilities is the cause of
microbicidal activity in respiratory tract
A. Lysosyme that degrades 1,4 glycosidical binding of bacteria x
B. Saliva that break IgA molecules pn mucous membrane
C. Fatty acids of commensal bacteria degrading the peptidoglycan of
pathogens
D. Tears enabling ingestion of microbes by phagocytes
E. Lysosyme degrading DNA and RNA produced by pathogenic microbes.

4.1 Which of mentioned cells are present on the place of infection by

worms
A. basofils
B. eosinofils x
C. lymphocytes
D. monocytes
E. neutrofils

4.2 NK cells natural killers - belong to:

A. basofils
B. eosinofils
C. lymphocytes x
D. monocytes
E. neutrofils

4.3 In microscopic smear of the pus from bacterial infection site there will be
mostly present
A. bazofils
B. eozinofils
C. lymphocytes
D. monocytes
E. neutrofils x

4.4 Which of mentionned cells are leading cells in allergic reactions

A. basofils x
B. dendritic cells
C. lymphocytes
D. monocytes
E. neutrofils

4.5 Which of mentionned cells engulf extracellular bacterial antigens and

are not antigen presentig cells
A. basofils
B. dendritic cells
C. eosinofils
D. macrophages
E. neutrofils x

4.6 Red blood cells arise from

A. granulocyte line
B. lymfocyte line
C. monocyte line
D. myeloid line x
E. trombocyte line

4.7 Which of bellow mentionned cells undergo differenciation in thymus

A. basofils
B. eosinofils
C. lymfocytes x
D. monocytes
E. neutrofils

4.8 Predominant form of leucocytes in the blood of patient with longlasting

pyogenic bacterial infection are
A. B lymphocytes
B. Juvenil and inmature neutrofils x
C. Monocytes a macrophages
D. Natural killers
E. T lymphocytes

4.9 Cells of lymphoid line

A. Are most frequent leucocyte population
B. Is formed by T, B, and NK cells x
C. Contain cytoplasmatic granules
D. Differentiat from precursors of myeloid cells
E. Phagocyte rests of foreign cells.

5.1 PAMP pathogen-associated molecular patterns

A. Enable lymphocytes to recognise microbes and disrupt them
B. Are cystein-rich peptides of leucocytes
C. Are recognised by PRR receptors of innate immunity x
D. Are proteins on the surface of infected cell
E. Induce secretion of interferons

5.2 Primary immunity to Gram negative bacterium involves

A. Nonspecific stimulation of complement x
B. Production of specific somatically generated receptors
C. Productin and secretion of specific antibodies
D. Production of specific cytokines by lymphocytes
E. Stimulation of KIR on NK cells

5.3 Nonspecific immune mechanisms do not include

A. chemokines
B. complement
C. defenzines
D. memory cells x
E. Interferon type 1
5.4 Which of below mentionned molecules are expressed on the
surfaces of human infected cells or abnormal cells and are recognised
as stress molecules by NK cells
A. Alfa or beta defensines
B. C3 convertase and properdine
C. Cytokines and chemokines
D. Interferon and/or interferon beta
E. MICA and MICB x

5.5 Alternative pathway of complement is activated by

A. Cell surface molecules, that are largely recognised as foreign for host x
B. Mannose containing rests of glycoproteins on some microbes
C. Stimulation of KAR on NK cells
D. Immunocomplexes of antigen and antibodies
E. TLR receptors binding PAMP

6.1 Epitop-specific receptors on T lymfocytes (TCR) are present

A. In cytoplasma and/or on membrane bound proteins
B. In plasma, lympha other body fluids
C. On surface of plasmatic cells
D. As transmembrane polypeptides x
E. In lipid bilayer of nucleus

6.2 Antibody (immunoglobulin)

A. Is synthesised and secreated by B and T cells
B. Binds several different epitop at once
C. Contains 4 different polypeptids of light chains
D. Recognises specific epitopes and self molecules
E. Recognises antigens that lead to destruction of the antigens x

6.3 Constant regions of heavy chains in molecules of immunoglobulin

influence
A. Epitope
B. Fab fragment
C. Isotype x
D. Idiotype
E. Antigentic specificity

6.4 The cleavage of the immunoglobulin molecule by pepsin results in

production of
A. Separated heavy and light chains
B. Inhibition of antigen binding
C. 2 individual antigen binding fragments
D. In cold crystalising structures
E. Dimer of antigen binding molecules x

6.5 In patient with allergy the cross binding of the allegen molecule with Fab
fragment of immunoglobulin will activate degranulation of mediators:
A. IgA
B. IgE x
C. IgG
D. Histamin
E. Mastocytes

6.6 Classical complement pathway is activated by

A. Activation of C1 x
B. Cleavage and activation of C4, C2 and C3
C. IgA binding to specific epitop
D. Production of Membrane Attack Complex
E. Production of C3 convertase

6.7. The role of classical complement pathway is to:

A. Cleave to immunoglobulin molecules on Fc fragments
B. Lyse microbe x
C. Recognise specific epitops on microbes
D. To start degranulation of histamin
E. Inhibit degranulation of histamin

6.8 MHC II molecules are expressed on

A. All cells with nucleus
B. Antigen presenting cells x
C. on erytrocytes
D. on mastocytes
E. on T cells

6.9 The structure of TCR is formed by

A. heterodimer of ab (gd) bound on membrane of T cell x
B. complex of heavy and light chains
C. molecules CD3 a CD247 on the membrane of T cell
D. complex of MHC with peptid (pMHC)
E. soluble IgM molecule

6.10 Migration of B lymfocyte to a specific place (e.g. lymphatic node) depend

on production of
A. antibodies
B. CD8 molecule
C. CD3 molecule
D. complement
E. Selectins x

6.11 Which of mentioned molecules is present on every mature T helper cell

A. CD4 x
B. CD8
C. GlyCAM-1
D. IgA
E. IgG

7.1 TCR receptor on CD8+T cells - recognises fragments of peptid bound in

A. CD3 molecule
B. CD4 molecule
C. MHC I molecule x
D. MHC II molecule
E. MHC III molecule
7.2 B lymphocytes exprime the molecule of immunoglobulin
A. That is specific for 2 to10 different antigens
B. In phagosome and cytoplasma
C. In membrane complex containing CD3
D. On their surface membrane x
E. Only before leaving bone marrow

7.3 Primary lymfoid organs are those in which

A. Specific immunity is activated
B. Filtration of cell debrits are performed
C. Circulating leucocytes communicate mutually
D. Lymphocytes undergo the basical differenciation x
E. PRRs bind antigens

7.4 Thymus is the place of primary differenciation of

A. B cells
B. T cells x
C. Erytrocytes
D. Heamtopoetic stem cells
E. Neutrofils

7.6 Which of molecules is present on CD4+ T cell

A. BCR
B. CD1d
C. CD3 x
D. CD8
E. CD19

7.7 Positive selection of T cell:

A. Is done in bone marrow
B. Means production of specific TCR
C. Is the migration of stem cells to tymus
D. Is programmed death of autoreactive T cells
E. Recognition of self MHC by double positive thymocytes x

7.8 Which are primary lymfoid organs

A. Bone marrow x
B. Lymphatic node
C. Peyers plaques
D. Spleen
E. Tonsils

7.9 White pulpe of spleen is rich on

A. erytrocytes
B. CD4+CD8+T cells double positive
C. NK cells
D. Plasmatic cells x
E. Precursores of B cells .

8.1 Changes of IgM to IgE is enabled by the process:

A. Immunity maturation
B. Allel exclusion
C. Isotype switch x
D. Junction diversity
E. somatic hypermutation

8.2 Existence of BCR and TCR specific only for one antigen is enabled by:
A. rearrangemet of genes for variable part of immunoglobulin molecule x
B. maturation of immunity
C. exclusion of allels
D. Isotype swich
E. Junction diversity

8.3 Presence of only mothers or only fathers genes for V chains is

enabled by
A. Exclusion of allels x
B. Antibody diversity
C. Isotype switch
D. Junction diversity
E. Random rearrangement of VD and VDJ

8.4 Antibody specificity is produced by

A. Recombination of V, D and J genes x
B. Rearrangemet of VD and J segments for heavy chains
C. Affinity maturation for antigen caused by mutation
D. Recombination of CL with CH1, CH2, CH3 or CH4 domens
E. Transport of VL allel from mothers on fathers chromosome

8.5 During restimulations of memory B cells the minor mutation in DNA

encoding variable part of light and heavy chains will result in
A. Isotype swich
B. Decrease of antigenic specificity
C. Exclusion of allels
D. Specificity maturation
E. .apoptosis of the cell x

9.1 Which of problems is typical for patients with aplasia of tymus

A. problems of B cells development only
B. inactivation of complement system
C. dysfunction of NK cells
D. dysfunction of cellular immunity
E. dysfunction in T lymphocyte differenciation and B cell mediated immunity
x
<h5>9.2 Negative selection of T cells is produced in</h5>
A. periferal blood circulation
B. bone marrowi
C. lymphatic node
D. spleen
E. thymus x

9.5 T cell
A. can recognise many different antigens
B. has surface membrane markers characteristic for NK cells
C. changes to memory cells during reexposition to an antigen
D. migrates mostly to respiratory organs, skin and peritoneal cavity x
E. produces slowlier answer to antigen than NK cells do

<h5>9.6 NKT cells </h5>

A. are usually CD8 pocitive
B. bind with pMHC II
C. have TCR x
D. synthesise immunoglobulin
E. present Ig on their surface

9.8 B-1 B cells when compared with B-2 B cells

A. arise later in development
B. are more important for innate immunity mechanisms x
C. have IgD than IgM molecules
D. recognise more antigens
E. require T cell cooperation for activation

<h6>10.1 T cells recognise epitop to which they are exposed for the first
time by</h6>
A. randomly generated TCRs x
B. MHC molecule
C. Ig molecule
D. One of many molecule on the surfacei
E. PRR

<h6>10.2 Which of below mentioned bind peptid to MHC II </h6>

A. CD4+ T
B. CD8+ T
C. Dendriticcells x
D. gd T cells
E. neutrofils

10.3 Fragments of intracelular pathogen are presented to T cell

A. by activation of PRR on the cell surface
B. by pinocytosis to gd T cells
C. by molecules of MHC I to CD8+ T cells x
D. by molecules of MHC II to CD8+ T cell
E. by molecules of MHC II to CD4+ T cell
<h6>10.4 Imunological synapsis is </h6>
A. binding of PAMP to PRR
B. Restriction of CD4+ T cells for MHC I molecule
C. Selective anergy of T cells
D. Recognition of free peptides by T cells
E. Contact between APC and T cell x

10.5 CD4+ T respnding to intracellular pathogen by activation and

aggregation of phagocyting cells are
A. APC
B. CTL - cytotoxic T lymphocytes
C. Th0 cells
D. NK cells th1 x
E. Th2 cells

<h6>10.6 Presence of lipopolysaccharid from bacterial cell wall in the

tissue stimulates (nonspecific stimulation)</h6>
A. APC cells to cytokines secretion
B. Release of cytokines to activate leucocytes
C. Stimulation and sectretion of IFN- g that activate leucocytes
D. Th0 cells differentiate to Th1 cells
E. All answere are correct x

10.7 Formation of pMHC I on infected cell

A. Results in BCRs cross binding and signalisation to the nucleus
B. CD4+ T cell secretion of IL-4
C. CD8+ T cell killing of infected cell x
D. Naive Th1 cell secretion of cytokines
E. Th0 cells differentioate to Th2 cell

<h6>10.8 Activation of B cell results in </h6>

A. Presentation of MHC I by dendritic cells
B. Recognition of epitop by surface IgD and IgM
C. Transmission of signal from BCR and CD4+ T cell to the nucleus x
D. Isotypte switch
E. Lysis of antigen by proteasomes

11.1 Production of of visible aggregates to identify blood groupes by binding

IgM with apropriate A or B antigens is:
A. aglutination x
B. complement aktivation
C. neutralisation
D. opsonisation
E. precipitation

11.2 C3b is able to bind on a microbe that will make it more attractive for
phagocytosis. This process is
A. agglutination
B. complement activation
C. neutralisation
D. opsonisation x
E. precipitation

11.3 Test (diffusion in agar) that identifies production on not soluble

complexes of soluble antigen with antibody is the example of
A. agglutination
B. complement activation
C. neutralisation
D. opsonisation
E. precipitation x

11.4 Antigen antibody binding that will result in incapability of microbe to

bind on target cells is:
A. agglutination
B. complement activation
C. neutralisation x
D. opsonisation
E. precipitation

11.5 Which of mentione izotypes of antbodies activate complemet cascade if

bound to antigen
A. IgA and IgD
B. IgA and IgE
C. IgA and IgM
D. IgE and IgG
E. IgG and IgM x

12.1 State of unresponsivness of T lymphocytes that exists after production

of immunological synapsis is
sa nazva
A. allergy
B. apoptosis
C. anergy x
D. autoimmunity
E. hypersensitivity

12.2 Which of mentioned cells are the source of the 2nd signal to T cell after
immunological synapsis is produced
A. APC x
B. Anergised T cell
C. CD4+T cells
D. B cells
E. Naive T cells-thymocytes
12.3 Which of mentioned cells need cooperation of pMHC with costimulatory
2nd signals from APC to be activated.
A. anergised T cells
B. B cells
C. Mastocytes
D. Nave T cells x
E. Natural killers

13.4 Whicb of mechanisms are/is responsible for repeated infection with

influenza virus
A. Neutralisation antibodies are short living
B. Low stimulation of CD4+ T cells to produce memory cells
C. Intracellular localisation disable stimulation of immune system
D. Hypersensitivity type 1 is present only in second exposition
E. Variability of viral antigens x

13.6 Molecule of acute phase of infection synthesised in liver during

bacterial and viral infection is
A. CRP x
B. Chemokin
C. Complement
D. Immunoglobulin
E. Interleukin

13.7 Which of mentioned isotype is consistent with mucous membrane

immunity
A. IgA x
B. IgD
C. IgE
D. IgG
E. IgM

13.8 Which of characteristic is consistent with mucous membrane immunity

A. Rapid answer against all molecules
B. Chronical inflammation producing unfavourable conditions form microbes
C. IL-2 and IFN-g produce favourable environment for TH1
D. Secretion of IgG is more important than secretion of IgA
E. Tolerance to foreign antigens is more regular than exceptional x

13.9 Even unvaccinated child can be protected against some of vaccination

preventable diseases because of
A. Herd immunity x
B. Genetical predisposition
C. Antigenic shift
D. Imunity escape
E. Tolerance

13.10 Herd effect is not possible

A. if more than 85 % are vaccinated
B. for tetanus and rabies x
C. diphtheria, pertussis, haemophilus meningitis
D. measles, rubeolla, mumps
E. poliomyelitis, variola small pox

13.11 Which of mentioned type of vaccine will elicit the most protective
immunity
A. attenuated live virus vaccine x
B. DNA vakcine
C. Killed virus in vaccine
D. Rekombinant vaccine
E. Subunit vaccine
14.1 Patient with symptoms of sneezing, congestion in nose, respiratory
problems becoming worse when he enters his house that is wet and molds are
present on the walls and with skin tests for hypersensitivity positive has:
A. Contact dermatitis
B. DTH
C. Hypersensitivity type I x
D. Hypersensitivity type II
E. Hypersensitivity type III.

14.2 Patient with history of PNC allergy was given the dose in PNC
injection. In minutes the symptoms of hypotension, tachycardia, diffuse
exanthema arised. She suffered from:
A. Anaphylactic reaction x
B. Anergy
C. ADCC
D. Ashtma
E. Contact hypersensitivity

14.3 Which of mentione reaction is induced by interaction of host cell

membrane with IgM or IgG antibodies
A. Arthus reaction
B. Serum disease
C. hypersenzitivity I type
D. hypersensitivity II type x
E. hypersensitivity IV type

14.4 A patient with known allergy ate unconsciously the cake with peanuts
that resulted in diffus exanthema, respiratory distress and diffuse lung
symptoms This is typical for:
A. hypersensitivity I. Type x
B. arthus reaction
C. serum disease
D. IgG binding on extraceluluar matrix in respiratory tract mucous
membrane
E. IgM dependent disease from immunocomplexes

14.5 Contact dermatitis example of

A. hypersensitivity I type mediated by CD4+T cells
B. hypersensitivity I type mediated by CD8+T cells
C. hypersensitivity II type mediated by CD8+T cells
D. hypersensitivity III type mediated by CD4+T cells
E. hypersensitivity IV type mediated by CD4+T cells x

14.6 Glomerulonefritis can be caused by:

A. hypersensitivity I type mediated by CD4+T cells
B. hypersensitivity II type mediated by IgM antibodies
C. hypersensitivity III type mediated by free IgG molecules x
D. hypersensitivity IV type mediated by B cells
E. hypersenzitivitu IV typu mediated by IgG or IgM i

14.7 Patient treated by PNC with symptoms of dyspnoe, hypotnesion,

tachycardia, malaise with positivity of antibodies against PNC present on
erytrocytes are typical for:
A. hypersensitivity I type mediated by IgG
B. hypersensitivity II type mediated by IgG x
C. hypersensitivity III type mediated by IgG
D. hypersensitivity III type mediated by IgG and IgM
E. hypersensitivity IV type mediated by CD4+T cellsi

15.1 Imunodeficiency caused by genetic or innate impairment is

A. primary x
B. secondary
C. always lethal
D. not detectable
E. all answers are correct

15.2 Secondary immunodeficiency is not consistent with

A. Di Geoerge sy x
B. malnutrition
C. HIV infection
D. Immunosupresive therapy
E. All answers are correct

15.3 Deficiency in lymphoid line is presented by

A. Impairment in specific humoral immunity
B. Impairment in non-specific cellular immunity
C. Impairment in ADCC
D. Impairment in DTH
E. All answers are correct x

15.4 Deficiency in T cell immunity is presented by

A. Mild specific humoral immunity impairment
B. Non-specific cellular immunity impairment
C. Impairement in ADCC
D. DTH impairement
E. All answers are correct|||| x

15.5 Deficiency in B cells line is presented by

A. Problems in specific humoral immunity x
B. Problemsin non-specific cellular immunity x
C. Problems in ADCC x
D. Problems with DTH
E. Several possibilities are correct (if yes which)

15.6 Problems with ingestion and degradation of antigen is the deficit fo

A. phagocyting cells
B. NK cellsk
C. T cells
D. B cells
E. All answers are correct

15.7 Deficiency in complement system will be presented by important

impairment of
A. opsonization
B. bacterial lysis
C. inflammation generation
D. non-specific immunity
E. all answers are correct x

16.1 Deficiency to inactivate and eliminate of autoreactive cells is the result

of
A. autoimmunity x
B. positive selection
C. negative selection
D. tolerance
E. supression

16.2 Deficiency of immune system to recognise epitop and eliminate it is

A. autoimmunity
B. positive selection
C. negative selection
D. tolerance x
E. supression

16. 3 Inativation and destructon of lymphocytes bearing the BCR or TCR

recognising self molecules results in
A. autoimmunity
B. positive selection
C. negative selection x
D. tolerance
E. supression
16.4 Molecular mimicry is resulting from reaction against self structures
produced by
A. cross reacting antibodies x
B. loss of toleranie
C. loss of negative selection
D. loss of anergy of immunologicall priviledged organs
E. loss of central tolerance

16.5 Central tolerance is produced

A. in primary lymphoid organs in utero x
B. v secondary lymphoid organs in utero
C. v primary lymphoid organs after birth x
D. v secondary lymphoid organs after birth
E. by not existence of the 2nd signal to activate T lymphocytes after
immunological synapsis is produced

16.6 Periferal tolerance is produced

A. in primary lymphoid organs in utero
B. in primary lymphoid organs after birth
C. by regulatory inhibition of autoreactive cells
D. not existence of the 2nd signal to activate T lymphocytes after formation
of immunological synapsis
E. C and D is correctvetci monosti s sprvne x

16.7 Reumatoid factor is

A. IgM antibody bound on Fc fragment IgG
B. Diagnostical for reumatic feve
C. Both are correct x

16.8 Immunologically privileged organs or tissues are

A. cornea
B. placenta
C. lumen of tubules of testes
D. brain
E. all are correct x

16.9 Autoimmune disease is characterised by

A. production of antibodies against self structures
B. production of specific T cells against self structures x
C. reactions (cellular and humoral immunity) against self structures

17.1 Transplantation success depend on

A. Family relationship
B. Genetical match
C. imunosupresive therapy
D. ABC is correct
E. BC is correct x

17.2 Transplantat from the genetically identical twin is

A. autotransplantat
B. isotransplantat x
C. allotransplantat
D. heterotransplantat
E. idiotransplantat

17.3 Transplantat from parents is

A. Autotransplantat
B. Isotransplantat
C. Allotransplantat x
D. Heterotransplantat
E. idiotransplantat

17.4 Transplantat of skin from of animal given to man is

A. Autotransplantat
B. Isotransplantat
C. Allotransplantat
D. Heterotransplantat x
E. idiotransplantat

17.5 MHC I and II genes are characterised by

A. Codominancy x
B. Heterozygocy x
C. Multiple locusesi x
D. Autosimale dominant transmission
E. Several answers are correct (which)

17.5 Acute reaction to graft is characterised by rejection

A. Within minutes
B. Resulting from activity of existing sensibilised T cells
C. Resulting from production of new reaction to nonself antigens in graft x
D. Resulting from preexisting antibodies
E. Resulting from the lost of tolerance

17.6 Chronical reaction to graft is characterised by rejection

A. Within minutes
B. Resulting from activity of existing sensibilised T cells
C. Resulting from production of new reaction to nonself antigens in graft x
D. Resulting from preexisting antibodies
E. Resulting from the lost of tolerance

17.7 Accelerated reaction to graft is characterised by rejection

A. Within minutes
B. Resulting from activity of existing sensibilised T cells x
C. Resulting from production of new reaction to nonself antigens in graft
D. Resulting from preexisting antibodies
E. Resulting from the lost of tolerance

17.8 Hyperaccute reaction to graft is characterised by

A. Within minutes
B. Resulting from activity of existing sensibilised T cells
C. Resulting from production of new reaction to nonself antigens in graft
D. Resulting from preexisting antibodies x
E. Resulting from the lost of tolerance

17.9 Host versus graft reaction is

A. Typical for reaction after transplantation of bone marrow
B. Typical for reaction in second transplantation
C. Characterised by rising success in direction auto, iso, allo, xeno
D. Characterised by existence of memory cells
E. All answers are correct x

17.10 Graft versus host reaction is

F. Typical for reaction after transplantation of bone marrow x
G. Typical for reaction in second transplantation
H. Characterised by rising success in direction auto, iso, allo, xeno
I. Characterised by existence of preformed antibodies
J. All answers are correct

2. Vaccination against small pox was experimentaly described by

A. Edward Jenner x
B. Louis Pasteur
C. Ramzes I
D. Ali Mao Malin
E. Robert Koch

3. Antigen react with antibodies

A. Only in vivo
B. Only in vitro
C. In vivo and in vitro x

4. Antibodies of acute phase of infection are

a. IGD
b. IgM x
c. IgE
d. IgA
e. IgG
5. Significant for infection is
A. decrease in titer
B. increase in titer x
C. change from positivity to negativity and 4 fold increase of titer

6. Detection o acute phase inflamation in serum of patient is to detect

A. Specific cell immunity
B. pecific humoral immunity
C. Non specific cell immunity
D. Non specific humoral immunity x

7. Activation of complement immediatly after the secopnd exposition to

antigen is done
by

A. Alternative path
B. Classical path x
C. MBL path

18. Cells of lymphoid system

i. Produce immunoregulative cytokins
ii. Do not influence other part of immune system
iii. Do not influence specific immunity

19. Bactericidal activity of serum is test of

a. quantitative to detect specific immunity
b. qualitative to detect specific immunity
c. quantitative to detect nonspecific imunity
d. qualitative to detect non specific immunity x

20. Serologica reactions are reactions of

F. antigen with antibody to detect specific immunity x
G. antigen with antibody to detect nonspecific immunity
H. antigen with complement to detect nonspecific immunity
I. antigen with complement to detect specific immunity

1. In vaccination against variola small pox the attenuated annimal virus

was used to prevent human virus infection (antigenic similarity and cross
reacting immunity). Similar principle is used in vaccination against
A. tuberculosis
B. tetanus
C. measles
D. poliomyelitis
E. pertussis
2. Specific passive immunity naturally acquired is
A. From transplacentarly transmitted antibodies from mother x
B. After disease
C. After vaccination
D. After aplication of specific immune serum

3. Inactivation of serum is done by heating the fresh serum to 37 C for 3O

(min.)
A. correct
B. Wrong x

4. The antigen can be bound for better visualisation of aglutination on:

A. Other corpuscular antigen or body
B. erytrocyete
C. latex particules
D. all answers are correct x

5. To detect dynamics of total antibodies we need

A. one sample
B. at least 2 samples x

6. By detecting the concentration of C3, C4 components of complement in

serum of patient we detect:
a. Specific cell immunity
b. Specific humoral immunity
c. Non specific cellular immunity
d. Non specific humoral immunity x

7. Biological properties of complement are:

F. Lysis of cell (formation of MAC)
G. Opsonisation
H. Stimulation of fagocytosis chemotaxis of leucocytes
I. All answers are correct x

1. Substance that resemble toxin, that has its antigenic and immunogenic
properties but not toxic properties is called
A. antitoxin
B. toxoid x
C. toxin
D. antibody
E. hapten

2. Complete antigen:
F. hapten
G. semihapten
H. imunogen x
3. CH50 is a
A. Specific immunity function
B. Nonspecific immunity function x

4. Serotypisation is the method to detect

A. Specific immunity
B. Nonspecific immunity
C. Antibody titer
D. Antigenic structure of microbe x

5. Detection of concentration of lysosyme is samples from patient we use:

A. M. lysodeicticus
B. E. coli
C. Precipitation
D. Agglutination

6. Titer is
A. Dilution of serum x
B. Indicating the amount of antibodies in not diluted serum
C. For ex. 1:124
D. Indicate the number of vial in witch the reaction is positive
E. Is to detect precipitation
F. Is used to detect nonspecific immunity

7. Antibodies connected with innate (maternally derived) immunity of

newborne baby is
A. IgM
B. IgG x
C. IgE
D. IgA
E. IgD

12. Vaccination can produce autoimmune disease., is not needed because the
disease against that they protect are eradicated no more present of the
world. These statements are
A. true based on immunological and epidemiological studies
B. correct - based on immunological surveys
C. flase and presented by antivaccination activitists
D. are not well studied and that is why they can be tolerated
E. are well studied and should be propagated

13. To detect corpuscular antigen we use mostly:

A. agglutination methods x
B. precipitation methods
C. diffusion method

14. In serotypisation we detect

A. antigenic structure of bacteria with the help of
antibodies x
B. specific immunity with the help of antigens
15. Titer is indicating
A. dilution of antigen
B. dilution of antibodies
C. quanitative value of specific serological reaction
D. qualitative value of specific serological reaction x

16. Mean number of phagocyted elements by 1 PMNL is indicated by:

a. Fagocyting activity
b. Index of fagocytosis x

17. Part of nonspecific cell immunty function is detected by

a. Concentration of lysosyme
b. Bactericidal activity of serum
c. Phagocyting activity x
d. Number of lymphocytes

18. Antigen presenting cells (APC):

a. Are not in lymph nodes
b. Can phagocyte x
c. Do not present antigen to T cells

20.To myeloid line are not involved:

a. Eozinofils
b. NK cells x
c. Macrophages

14. The first vaccination was directed against

A. Rabies
B. measels
C. tetanus
D. small pox x
E. chicken pox

15. CH50 is a
F. detection of hemolytical activity of complement x
G. Specific immunity function qualitative test
H. Nonspecific immunity function qualitative test

16 .Measurement of C3, C4 complementu molecules in seurm of patient

detect:
e. pecific cell immunity
f. pecific humoral immunity
g. Nonspecific cell immunity
h. Nonspecific humoral immunity x

17 . To detect dynamics of total antibodies we need

A. one sample
B. at least 2 samples x

18. . Bactericidal activity of serum is test:

e. quantitative to detect specific immunity
f. qualitative to detect specific immunity
g. quantitative to detect nonspecific imunity
qualitative to detect non specific immunity x

i. Titer is
I. Dilution of serum
J. Indicating the amount of antibodies in not diluted serum x
K. For ex. 1:124
L. Indicate the number of vial in witch the reaction is positive
M. Is to detect precipitation
N. Is used to detect nonspecific immunity

ii. Antibodies connected with innate intrauterine

disease of newborne baby is
h. IgM x
i. IgG
j. IgE
k. IgA
l. IgD

16. Activation of complement after the 1st exposition to antigen is done

by

A. Alternative way
B Classical way
C MBL way
D All answers are correct
E A and C is correct x

17. To detect soluble molecules toxin for ex. Which test can be use:
A. agglutination
B. precipitation x
C. diffusion
D. B and C is correct

18. Which of mentioned way is correct to indicate the titer of antigodies:

A. 16O
B. 1: 16O x
C. 1 x16O

19. Serotypisation is to detect:

A. specific humoral immunity
B. specific cellular immunity
C. antigenic structure of microbe x

20, Number of phagocyting PMNL in % indicates:

A. phagocytic activity x
B. Index of phagocytosis

1. On the surface of cytotoxic T cells is

a) IgG
b) CD 4
c) CD 8 x
d) p 24

2. Ddetetion of lysosyme is the test of

a) specific cellular immunity
b) non-specific cellular immunity x
c) specific humoral immunity
d) non-specific humoral immunity
e) bactericidal activity of saliva

2. Discrimination of immunocompetent cells of specific immunity is possible

based on
a) Morpfological signs
b) Specific surface molecules
c) Spontaneous production of cytokines
d) Presence of granules

5. Presentation of extraceluluar bacteria to T cells is enabled by molecules on

APC
a) MHC I
b) MHC II x
c) IgG
d) TcR

6. Number of polypeptid chains is the biggest in

a) IgG
b) IgM
c) IgE x
d) IgD

7. MHC II molecule is active in

a) Recognision of antigens
b) Presentation of antigens x
c) Neutralisation of antigens
d) Stimulation of cytotoxic immunity
8. Complement fixation reaction is
a) in vivo reaction to detect activity of complement
b) reaction detectiong concentration of complemnt molecules in serum of
patient
c) is serological reaction x
d) is reaction in vitro to detect 50% of hemolytical activity of complement

9. Result 1: 160 of serological reaction

a) is the titer of antibodies
b) is the highest dilution with positive reaction of Ag + Ab x
c) is the lowest dilution with positive Ag+Ab reaction
d) is negative result of serological reaction

11: Molecule of T cell receptore (TCR) is parallel to

a) Fab fragment of IgG x
b) Fc fragment of IgG
c) MHC I
d) MHC II

12. Exotoxn
a) Is immunogenic x
b) Is the synonyme to toxoid
c) Is neutralised by anatoxin
d) Is a part of vaccine against tetanus

15. Imunoglobuline other than monomeric structure is

a) IgG, IgE, IgD
b) IgG, IgA, IgD, IgE
c) IgM, IgA, x
d) IgG, IgE

16. Specific IgM antibodies in serum from the blood taken from umbilical
cord is indicating
a) Intrauterine infection of the fetus
b) Transplacentarly transmitted antibodies from mother
c) Perinatal infection x
d) Postnatal infection