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NEET | 30.07.

2017
COMBINED TEST 1 (P, C, B)

COMBINED TEST 1 (P, C, B)


Time: 3 hrs
Part A (Physics)
1. A small sphere of radius r which a velocity v under streamline conditions in a
viscous fluid experiences a retarding force F given by F = Kr where K is a
dimensionless constant. The SI system has the dimensions in mass, length and
time as
(A) 1, -2, -2 (B) 1, -1, +1 (C) 1, -1, -1 (D) 1, 1, -2
2. Dimensional formula for electron volt is
(A) MLT2 (B) ML2T2 (C) ML2T-3 (D) ML-2T-2
3. Nm2 kg-2 is the SI unit of
(A) Plancks constant (B) Einsteins constant
(C) Force constant of motion (D) Gravitational constant
4. Joule-second is the SI unit of
(A) Eisteins constant (B) Boltzmanns constant
(C) Plancks constant (D) Loschmidts constant
5. Which of the following pairs of physical quantities does not have the same
dimensions?
(A) Couple and angular momentum (B) (Pressure x Volume) and Surface
tension
(C) Torque and Impulse (D) Parsec and Light year
6. The dimensions of light (or electromagnetic energy) have
(A) -1 in mass (B) +1 in length (C) -2 in time (D) -2 in
length
7. The SI unit of Gravitational field intensity is
(A) ms-2 (B) J kg-1 (C) N kg m-2 (D) kg N-1
8. Angular velocity is
(A) a scaler (B) an axial vector (C) a polar vector (D) a tensor
9. Dimension of compressibility of a substance is
(A) +2 in time (B) +1 in mass (C) -1 in length (D) -
2 in time
10. Time period of a simple pendulum is calculated for 10 oscillations. If the
experiment is repeated for 40 oscillations, the error in the measurement of time
period will be reduced by a factor of
(A) y (B) 400 (C) 4 (D) 30
11. The density of copper is 9 g/cc. In a unit system in which unit length is 5 cm and
unit mass is 45 g, the density of copper is
81
(A) 25 (B) (C) 1 (D) 625
25
12. Which one of the following physical quantities is a vector?
(A) Temperature (B) Work (C) Momentum (D) Current

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NEET | 30.07.2017
COMBINED TEST 1 (P, C, B)

13. Which of the following is NOT a universal constant?


(A) Plancks constant (B) Gravitational constant
(C) Boltzmann constant (D) Acceleration of free fall
14. Which of the following does not have the dimensions of energy?
(A) PV (where P = pressure; V = volume) (B) Electron-volt
(C) Volt
(D) CvT; where Cv = specific heat at constant volume and T = absolute
temperature

15. Two quantities A and B have different dimensions, which mathematical operation
given below is physically meaningful?
(A) A/B (B) A + B (C) A B (D) none
16. Which of the following pairs does not have same dimensions?
(A) Angular momentum and Plancks constant
(B) Moment of inertia and moment of force
(C) Work and torque (D) Impulse and momentum
17. The physical quantity which has the dimensional formula M1T-3 is
(A) surface tension (B) solar constant (C) density (D) compressibility
18. If speed of light ((C), acceleration due to gravity (g), pressure (p) are taken as
fundamental units, the dimension of gravitational constant (G) are
(A) c0 gp 3 (B) c 2 g 3 p 2 (C) c0 g 2 p 1 (D) c 2 g 2 p 2
19. The force F is given in terms of time t and displacement x by the equation
F = A cos Bx + C sin Dt The dimension of D/B are
(A) [LT] (B) [L-1T-1] (C) [LT-1] (D) [L0T0]
L
20.The dimensions of are
RCV
(A) [AT-1] (B) [A-1 T-1] (C) [A0T0] (D) [A-1]
h
21. The dimensions of are same as that of
e
(A) magnetic field induction (B) magnetic flux
(C) electric field strength (D) electric flux
22. The unit vector along A 2i 3 j is
2i 3 j 2i 3 j 2i 3 j
(A) 2i 3 j (B) (C) (D)
2 3 13
23. Given: A 2i 3 j and B 5i 6 j . The magnitude of ( A B ) is
(A) 120 units (B) 130 units (C) 58 units (D)
65 units
A B
24. If A and B are two nonzero vectors such that A B and A 2 B
2
then the angle between A and B is
(A) 37 (B) 53 (C) cos 1 (3/4) (D) cos 1 (4/3)
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COMBINED TEST 1 (P, C, B)

25. Vectors A i j 2k and B 3i 3 j 6k are :


(A) Parallel (B) Antiparallel
(C) Perpendicular (D) at acute angle with each other
26. A particle is moving with speed 6 m/s along the direction of A 2i 2 j k , then
its velocity is :
(A) (4i 2 j 4k) units (B) (4i 4 j 2k) units
(C) (4i 4 j 4k) units (D) (2i 4 j 2k) units

27. If P i j k and Q i j k , then unit vector along ( P Q ) is :
1 1 2 j 2 k j k 2 j 2 k
(A) i k (B) (C) (D)
2 2 2 2 2 4
28.If a b a b then angle between a and b may be
(A) 50 (B) 90 (C) 60 (D)
120

29. If A, B & A B are three nonzero vector. Such that A B is perpendicular to B


then which of one is correct :
B B
(A) A B (B) A (C) A > B (D) A >
2 2
30.If a unit vector is represented by 0.5i 0.8 j ck , then the value of 'c' is :
(A) 1 (B) 0.11 (C) 0.01 (D) 0.39
31. The unit vector parallel to the resultant of the vectors A 4i 3 j 6k and
B i 3 j 8k is :
1 1 1 1
(A) (3i 6 j 2k) (B) (3i 6 j 2k) (C) (3i 6 j 2k) (D) (3i 6 j 2k)
7 7 49 49
32. How many minimum number of coplanar vectors which represent same physical
quantity having different magnitudes can be added to give zero resultant?
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5
33. A displacement vector, at an angle of 30 with yaxis has an xcomponent of 10
units. Then the magnitude of the vector is
(A) 5.0 (B) 10 (C) 11.5 (D) 20
34. A bird moves from point (1 m, 2 m, 3 m) to (4 m, 2 m, 3 m). If the speed of the
bird is 10 m/s, then the velocity vector of the bird in m/s is:

(A) 5 i 2 j 3k
(B) 5 4i 2 j 3k (C) 0.6i 0.8 j (D) 6i 8 j
35. 12 coplanar non collinear forces (all of equal magnitude) maintain a body in
equilibrium, then the angle between any two adjacent forces is
(A) 15 (B) 30 (C) 45 (D) 60
36. A vector A points vertically upward and B points towards north. The vector
product A B is :

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COMBINED TEST 1 (P, C, B)

(A) Null vector (B) Along west (C) Along east (D)
Vertically downward

37. Given that P = Q = R. If P Q R then the angle between P and R is q1. If P Q R 0

then the angle between P and R is q2. The relation between q1 and q2 is :
2
(A) q1 = q2 (B) q1 = (C) q1 = 2q2 (D) None of the above
2
38.At what angle must the two forces (x + y) and (x y) act so that the resultant
may be ( x2 y2 ) :
( x2 y2 ) 2( x 2 y 2 ) ( x2 y2 )
(A) cos1 (B) cos1 (C) cos1 2 2 (D)
2( x 2 y 2 ) x2 y 2 x y
( x2 y2 )
cos1
x2 y 2

39. The value of ( A B).( A B) is :

(A) 0 (B) A2 B2 (C) A2 + B2 + 2AB (D) None of these


40. Two balls are rolling on a flat smooth table. One ball has
velocity components 3 j and i while the other has components 2i and 2 j . If both
start moving simultaneously from the same point, the angle between their paths
is
(A) 15o (B) 30o (C) 45o (D) 60o
41. Select incorrect statement.
(A) for any two vectors A B AB
(B) for any two vectors A B AB
(C) A vector is not changed if it is slid parallel to itself.
(D) A vector is necessarily changed if it is rotated through an angle.
42. In a clockwise system :
(A) k j i (B) i .i 0 (C) j j i (D) k . j 1
43. The linear velocity of a rotating body is given by v r , where is the angular
velocity and r is the radius vector. The angular velocity of a body is i 2 j 2k
and the radius vector r 4 j 3k , then | v | is
(A) 29 units (B) 31 units (C) 37 units (D) 41 units
b
44.The velocity v of a particle at time t is given by v = at + , where a, b and c are
tc
constants. The dimensions of a, b and c are respectively :
(A) LT2, L and T (B) L2, T and LT2 (C) LT2, LT and L (D) L, LT and T2
45. If force, acceleration and time are taken as fundamental quantities, then the
dimensions of length will be:
2 1 2 1 2 2
(A) FT (B) F A T (C) FA T (D) AT

Part B (Chemistry)
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NEET | 30.07.2017
COMBINED TEST 1 (P, C, B)

46.Which of the following pairs of species have the same bond order?
(1) O2, NO+ (2) CN, CO (3) N2, O2 (4) CO, NO
47. The correct sequence of increasing covalent character is represented by:
(1) LiCl < NaCl<BeCl2 (2) BeCl2<LiCl<NaCl
(3) NaCl<LiCl<BeCl2 (4) BeCl2 < NaCl<LiCl
48. The weakest among the following types of bonds.
(1) Ionic (2) covalent (3) metallic (4) H-bond
49.Which of the following is not correct statement?
(1) The canonical structures have no real existence
(2) Every AB5 molecule does in fact have square pyramidal Structure
(3) Multiple bonds are always shorter than corresponding single bonds
(4) The electron-deficient molecules can act as Lewis acids
50.Among the following the electron deficient compound is:
(1) BCl3 (2) CCl4 (3) PCl5 (4) BeCl2
51. Which of the following would have a permanent dipole moment?
(1) SiF4 (2) SF4 (3) XeF4 (4) BF3
52. Which of the following pairs of ions are isoelectronic and isostructural?
(1) ClO3, CO32 (2) SO32, NO3 (3) ClO3, SO32 (4) CO32, SO32
53. In BrF3 molecule, the lone pairs occupy equatorial positions to minimize.
(1) Lone pair bond pair repulsion only (2) Bond pair bond pair repulsion
only
(3) Lone pair lone pair repulsion and lone pair-bond pair repulsion
(4) Lone pair lone pair repulsion only

54. In compound X, all the bond angles are exactly 109028; X is


(1) Chloromethane (2) Carbon tetrachloride
(3) Iodoform (4) Chloroform
55. The angle between the overlapping of one s-orbital and one p-orbital is
(1) 1800 (2) 1200 (3) 109028 (4) 1200, 600
56. Which of the following options represents the correct bond order?
(1) O2 <O2<O2+ (2) O2 >O2>O2+ (3) O2
57. In which of the following ionization processes the bond energy increases and the
magnetic behavior changes from paramagnetic to diamagnetic?
(1) N2 N2+ (2) O2 O2+ (3) C2 C2+ (4) NO NO+
58.The pairs of species of oxygen and their magnetic behaviors are noted below.
Which of the following presents the correct description?
(1) O2both diamagnetic (2) Oboth paramagnetic
(3) O2both paramagnetic (4) Oboth paramagnetic
59. The ground state electronic configuration of valence shell electrons in nitrogen
molecules (N2) is written as KK 2s2, *2s2, 2px2, 2py2 2pz2. Bond order in nitrogen
molecule is
(1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 3

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COMBINED TEST 1 (P, C, B)

60. Linear combination of two hybridized orbitals belonging to two atoms and
each having one electron leads to a
(1) Sigma bond (2) Double bond
(3) Coordinate covalent bond (4) Pi bond
61. A 20 litre container at 400 K contains CO2(g) at pressure 0.4 atm and an excess of
SrO (neglect the volume of solid SrO). The volume of the container is now
decreased by moving the movable piston fitted in the container. The maximum
volume of the container, when pressure of CO2 attains its maximum value will be:
(Given that: SrCO3(g) SrO(s)+CO2(g), KP=1.6 atm)
(1) 10 litre (2) 4 litre (3) 2 litre (4) 5 litre
62. If the equilibrium constant for N2(g)+O2(g) 2NO(g) is K, the equilibrium
1 1
constant for N 2 ( g ) O2 ( g ) NO(g) will be:
2 2
1
1
(1) K 2 (2) K (3) K (4) K2
2
63. The following equilibrium constants are given:
N2+3H2 2NH3; K1 N2+O2 2NO; K2
H2+ O2 H2O; K2
The equilibrium constant for the oxidation of NH3 by oxygen to give NO is
K 2 K32 K 22 K 3 K1 K 2 K 2 K 33
(1) (2) (3) (4)
K1 K1 K3 K1
64.For dibasic acid correct order is
(1) K a1 K a2 (2) K a1 K a2 (3) K a1 K a2 (4) not certain
65. Which of the following statements is correct for a reversible process in a state of
equilibrium?
(1) G=2.30 RT log K (2) G0=2.30 RT log K
(3) G0=2.30 RT log K (4) G=2.30 RT log K
66.For the reversible reaction, N2(g)+3H2(g) 2NH3(g)+heat. The equilibrium
shifts in forward direction
(1) By increasing the concentration of NH3(g)
(2) By decreasing the pressure
(3) By decreasing concentration of N2(g) and H2(g)
(4) By increasing pressure and decreasing temperature
67. For the reaction 2BaO2 2BaO(s)+O2(g); H=+ve. In equilibrium condition,
pressure of O2 is dependent on
(1) Mass of BaO2 (2) Mass of BaO
(3) temperature of equilibrium (4) mass of BaO2 and BaO both
68. The equilibrium constant for the reaction A2 2A at 500 K and 700 K are 1
x 1010 and 1 x 105 respectively. The given reaction is
(1) Exothermic (2) slow (3) endothermic (4) fast

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COMBINED TEST 1 (P, C, B)

69.The reaction quotient (Q) for the reaction N2(g)+3H2(g) 2NH3(g) is given by
NH 3 . The reaction will proceed from right to left if
2

Q
N 2 H 2
3

(1) Q=0 (2) Q=Kc (3) Q<Kc (4) Q>Kc


70.The dissociation constants for acetic acid and HCN at 25 C are 1.5 x 105 and 4.5 x
0

1010 respectively. The equilibrium constant for the equilibrium CN-+CH3COOH


HCN+CH3COO- would be:
(1) 3.0 x 105 (2) 3.0 x 104 (3) 3.0 x 104 (4) 3.0 x 105
71. According to Le-chateliers principle, adding heat to a solid liquid equilibrium
will cause the
(1) Temperature to increase (2) temperature to decrease
(3) amount of liquid to decrease (4) amount of solid to decrease
72. Given that the equilibrium constant for the reaction 2SO2(g)+O2(g) 2SO3(g)
has a value of 278 at a particular temperature. What is the value of the
equilibrium constant for the following reaction at the same temperature? SO3(g)
SO2(g) + O2(g)
(1) 1.8 x 103 (2) 3.6 x 103 (3) 6.0 x 102 (4) 1.3 x
5
10
73. What is the pH of the resulting solution when equal volumes of 0.1 M NaOH and
0.01 M HCl are mixed?
(1) 12.65 (2) 2.0 (3) 7.0 (4) 1.04
74. Which of the following salts will give highest pH in water?
(1) KCl (2) NaCl (3) Na2CO3 (4) CuSO4
75. Which of the following is least likely to behave as Lewis base?
(1) H2O (2) NH3 (3) BF3 (4) OH
76. The ionization constant of ammonium hydroxide is 1.77 x 105 at 298 K.
Hydrolysis constant of ammonium chloride is
(1) 6.50 x 1012 (2) 5.65 x 1013 (3) 5.65 x 1012 (4) 5.65 x
10
10
77. Equal volume of three acid solutions of pH 3, 4 and 5 are mixed in a vessel. What
will be the H+ ion concentration in the mixture?
(1) 1.11 x 104M (2) 3.7 x 104M (3) 3.7 x 103M (4) 1.11 x 103M

78.In HS, I, RNH2 and NH3 order of proton accepting tendency will be
(1) I>NH3>RNH2>HS (2) HS>RNH2>NH3>I
(3) RNH2>NH3>HS>I (4) NH3>RNH2>HS>I
79. The pH value of a 10 M solution of HCl is
(1) Less than 0 (2) equal to 0 (3) equal to 1 (4)
equal to 2
80. Accumulation of lactic acid (HC3H5O3), a monobasic acid in tissues leads to
pain and a feeling of fatigue. In a 0.10 M aqueous solution, lactic acid is 3.7%
dissociated. The value of dissociation constant Ka for this acid will be
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(1) 2.8 x 104 (2) 1.4 x 105 (3) 1.4 x 10 (4) 3.7 x 104
81. At 250C the dissociation constant of a base, BOH is 1.0 x 1012. The concentration
of hydroxyl ions in 0.01 M aqueous solution of the base would be
(1) 1.0 x 105 mol L1 (2) 1.0 x 106 mol L1 (3) 2.0 x 106 mol L1 (4)
7 1
1.0 x 10 mol L
82.Concentration of the Ag+ ions in a saturated solution of Ag2C2O4 is 2.2 x 104 mol
L1. Solubility product of Ag2C2O4 is
(1) 2.66 x 1012 (2) 4.5 x 1011 (3) 5.3 x 1012 (4) 2.42 x
8
10
83.The Ksp of Ag2CrO4, AgCl, AgBr and AgI are respectively, 1.1 x 1012, 1.8 x 1010, 5.0
x1013, 8.3 x 1017. Which one of the following salts will precipitate last if
AgNO3 solution is added to the solution containing equal moles of NaCl, NaBr, NaI
and Na2CrO4?
(1) AgCl (2) AgBr (3) Ag2CrO4 (4) AgI
84. Which one of the following pairs of solution is not an acidic buffer?
(1) HClO4 and NaClO4 (2) CH3COOH and CH3COONa
(3) H2CO3 and Na2CO3 (4) H3PO4 and Na3PO4
85.The dissociation constant of a weak acid is 1 x 104. In order to prepare a buffer
solution with a pH=5 the [Salt]/[Acid] ratio should be
(1) 1:10 (2) 4:5 (3) 10:1 (4) 5:4
86. Buffer solutions have constant acidity and alkalinity because
(1) These give unionized acid or base on reaction with added acid or alkali
(2) Acids and alkalies in these solutions are shielded from attack by other ions
(3) They have large excess of H+ or OH ions
(4) They have fixed value of pH
87.A buffer solution is prepared in which the concentration of NH3 is 0.30 M and the
concentration of NH4+ is 0.20 M. If the equilibrium constant, Kb for NH3 equals
1.8 x 105, what is the pH of this solution? (log 2.7=0.433)
(1) 9.08 (2) 9.43 (3) 11.72 (4) 8.73
+
88. What is [H ] in mol/L of a solution that is 0.20 M in CH3COONa and 0.10 M
in CH3COOH? Ka for CH3COOH=1.8 x 105.
(1) 3.5 x 104 (2) 1.1 x 105 (3) 1.8 x 105 (4) 9.0 x 106
89. The solubility product of AgI at 250C is 1.0 x 1016 mol2 L2. The solubility of
AgI in 104 N solution of KI at 250C is approximately (in mol L1)
(1) 1.0 x 108 (2) 1.0 x 1016 (3) 1.0 x 1012 (4) 1.0 x
10
10
90. Which of the following is most soluble?
(1) Bi2S3 (Ksp=1 x 1017) (2) MnS (Ksp=7 x 1016)
(3) CuS (Ksp=8 x 107) (4) Ag2S (Ksp=6 x 1051)

Part C (Biology)

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ANSWER KEY 30.07.2017 (Sharanya)


PART A (PHYSICS)
Q.No 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans 3 2 4 3 4 3 1 2 1 3
Q.No 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans 1 3 4 3 1 2 2 3 2 4
Q.No 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans 2 4 2 3 1 2 3 2 3 2
Q.No 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans 1 2 4 4 2 2 2 1 1 1
Q.No 41 42 43 44 45
Ans 4 1 1 1 4
PART B (CHEMISTRY)
Q.No 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55
Ans 2 3 4 2 1 2 3 3 2 1
Q.No 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
Ans 1 4 3 4 1 4 1 4 2 2
Q.No 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75
Ans 4 3 2 4 3 4 3 1 3 3
Q.No 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
Ans 4 2 3 1 3 4 3 3 1 3
Q.No 86 87 88 89 90
Ans 1 2 4 3 2
PART C (BIOLOGY)
Q.No 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Ans 5 2 4 1 1 1 2 2 3 2
Q.No 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
Ans 1 3 1 2 3 1 4 2 2 1
Q.No 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
Ans 1 2 4 1 3 1 3 4 1 3
Q.No 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
Ans 4 3 4 2 2 1 1 3 4 3
Q.No 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
Ans 2 2 1 4 4 4 1 2 2 2
Q.No 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
Ans 4 1 1 2 2 2 1 3 4 1
Q.No 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160
Ans 1 3 3 2 1 2 1 4 1 1
Q.No 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
Ans 2 2 4 4 4 1 3 3 1 4
Q.No 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
Ans 1 4 3 2 3 3 1 3 1 3

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