Test - 6 (Code A) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016

Time : 3 Hrs. T EST 6 MM : 720

[ PHYSICS]
Choose the correct answer :
1. A charge is moving in a circular path in uniform 5. The magnetic susceptibility of diamagnetic materials
magnetic field. The path of charge is defined as is

(1) Uniform motion (1) Positive and very small

(2) Positive and very high
(2) Uniform accelerated motion
(3) Negative and very small
(3) Non-uniform accelerated motion
(4) Negative and very high
(4) Both (2) & (3)
6. A voltmeter has a resistance of G ohm and a range
2. A proton and an -particle are projected with same of V volt. The value of resistance that must be used
momentum in uniform magnetic field. Direction of in series to convert it into a voltmeter of range
velocity is perpendicular to the magnetic field. Then nV volt is
path of
(1) (n 1)G (2) nG
(1) Proton is more curved than that of -particle
(2) -Particle is more curved than that of proton G G
(3) (4)
(n 1) n
(3) -Particle and proton are equally curved
7. In cyclotron, the field that is used to accelerate the
(4) -Particle is twice curve than that of proton
charge particle is
3. If momentum of same charge is halved in a uniform
(1) Magnetic field only
magnetic field perpendicularly. The time period of
revolution will be (2) Electric field only
(1) Twice (2) Half (3) Both electric and magnetic field
(3) Quadrupled (4) Same (4) Neither electric nor magnetic field
4. Current sensitivity of moving coil galvanometer can 8. Square loop of side L carrying current I in y-z plane.
be decreased by The net magnetic flux through y-z plane is
(1) Increasing the number of turns in coil (1) Zero
(2) Increasing the area of coil (2) Directly proportional to L
(3) Decreasing the area of coil (3) Directly proportional to I 2
(4) Decreasing the current in the coil (4) Both (2) & (3)

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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016 Test - 6 (Code A)
9. A circular conducting loop of radius R is placed in 14. In the circuit shown in figure, the average power lost
uniform magnetic field B with its plane perpendicular in one cycle is
to the field. If it is rotated about its axis through C
centre normal to its plane with angular frequency , R
then maximum value of induced emf is
BR 2
(1) BR 2 (2)

R 2
(3) (4) Zero
B E = E0 sin t
10. A non ideal inductor is connected to an AC source.
Then quantity which have zero average value in one E02R E02
(1) (2)
cycle is 1 2R
2 2 2 R2
(1) Heat (2) Charge C
(3) Emf (4) Both (2) & (3)
E02
11. Light of intensity I is incident normally on area A. (3) (4) Zero
R
The momentum of the photons reaching over the
area per unit time is (c = speed of light) 15. In the transformer phase difference between input and
output is
I IA
(1) (2)
c c
(1) 0 (2)
2IA 2I 2
(3) (4)
c c

12. Refractive index of a medium is given as (symbols (3) (4)
have their usual meanings) 6
16. In the given circuit the maximum current can be
C L
1 R
(1) 0 0 (2)
0 0

1
(3) r r (4)
r r
E = E0 sin t
13. Alternating current in a circuit is given as i = i1 + i2
cos t. The mean square value of this current is E0 E0
(1) (2)
R L
i 22
(1) i12 + i22 (2) i12
2 E0
(3) E0C (4) 1/2
i2 i12 i 22 1
2
2

(3) i12 2 (4) L R
2 2 C

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Test - 6 (Code A) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016
17. In the inductor shown in figure, current is increasing 23. In the given circuit the reading of ammeter at steady
at uniform rate, then correct option is state, when key is closed is
M I N R/2

(1) VM = VN (2) VM > VN E L

R
(3) VM < VN (4) VM VN R
18. In series LCR circuit the voltage across inductor, 2
capacitor and resistor are V L , V C and V R K A
respectively. At resonance which option is correct?
(1) VL + VC = 0 (2) VL + VR = 0 E E
(1) (2)
R 2R
(3) VC + VR = 0 (4) VL + VC + VR = 0
(3) Infinite (4) Zero
19. A series LR circuit is connected with AC source of
maximum voltage 100 V. If maximum voltage across 24. Variable current is measured by
inductor is 80 V, then effective current in the circuit (1) Moving coil galvanometer
is [Resistance of resistor is 15 ]
(2) Tangent galvanometer
(1) 2 A (2) 4 A
(3) Hot wire ammeter
(3) 2.8 A (4) 6.5 A
(4) Both (2) & (3)
20. The sharpness of resonance in a series LCR
resonance circuit, as the resistance of the circuit is 25. A wire AB of length 1 m is moving in perpendicular
decreased, is magnetic field of 2 T as shown in figure. Force
required to move the wire with constant velocity
(1) Increased (2) Decreased 3 m/s is
(3) Zero (4) Infinite A

21. Which statement is incorrect related to induced
electric field due to changing magnetic flux? R=2
F
(1) It varies with time

(2) It is non-conservative
B

(3) It forms closed loop (1) 6 N (2) 3 N

(4) Both (1) & (3) (3) 4 N (4) Zero
22. The magnitude of area under curve of graph induced 26. If current I as shown in figure increases at the rate
electromotive force and time gives of 3 A/s, then VM VN is
(1) Magnetic flux 1H 1H 1H
I
(2) Change in magnetic flux M N
(3) Energy (1) 9 V (2) 3 V
(4) Charge (3) 3 V (4) 9 V

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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016 Test - 6 (Code A)
27. In an AC generator, the magnetic flux linked with the 31. A charge of 2C is moving in a magnetic field of 1T
rotating coil has maximum value and frequency of with velocity 5 m/s. Force experienced by it may be
rotation of coil is f. Then amplitude of emf generated
(1) 10 N (2) 5 N
is
(3) Zero (4) All of these
2
(1) (2) 32. The magnetic field in the core of a toroid is
f f
2 (1) Constant in magnitude
(3) f (4) 2f (2) Constant in direction
28. Electromagnetic wave is produced due to (3) Non-uniform in direction
(1) Uniform moving charge (4) Both (1) & (3)
(2) Static charge 33. A charged particle is moving with uniform velocity vj
(3) Accelerated charge through a uniform magnetic field B( i) and a

(4) All of these uniform electric field E . Then E is
29. A thin long wire carrying current i is placed along (1) Bvk (2) Bvk
positive x-axis. The unit vector of magnetic field at a
point (0, a, a) v B
(3) k (4) k
B v
z
34. A ferromagnetic material is placed inside a solenoid
having n turns per unit length and current i, then net
magnetic field in the material is [I is the intensity of
magnetization]
y
i o (1) B = 0(ni + I) (2) B = 0
(3) B = ni + I (4) B = 0(ni I)
x
35. The susceptibility of a substance at 500 K is
j k j k 0.00004. Its susceptibility at 1000 K is
(1) (2)
2 2 2 2 (1) 0.00004 (2) 0.00002
j k j k (3) 0.00003 (4) 0.00001
(3) (4)
2 2 2 2 36. A magnetic substance of cross sectional area A and
30. A charge particle is released at rest in uniform length L is magnetised to develop an intensity of
magnetisation I. The pole strength of substance is


electric E and magnetic field B

if E B = 0
IL
then path of charge will be (1) (2) ILA
A
(1) Straight line (2) Helix
I
(3) IA (4)
(3) Circle (4) Parabola L
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Test - 6 (Code A) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016
37. Ferromagnetism is generally found in 42. A square loop of wire of side l is placed at the centre
of a coplanar circular loop of radius R (R >> l). Their
(1) Liquid centre coincide. The mutual inductance of system is
(2) Solid proportional to
(1) R 2 (2) R
(3) Gas
(3) l 2 (4) l
(4) All of these
43. Two circular coils A and B are arranged co-axially
38. A proton enters a perpendicular uniform magnetic
and the steady currents are flowing in the same
field with kinetic energy K. After T = 2 s the kinetic
direction in both. Select correct statement.
energy of proton will be

K
A B
(1) (2) K
2

(3) 2K (4) 4K

39. In case of a charged particle in a non-uniform

magnetic field [independent of time]
(1) If A is moved towards B, current in B decreases
(1) Speed changes
(2) If B is moved towards A, current in A decreases
(2) Kinetic energy changes
(3) Both coils attract to each other
(3) Work is non zero
(4) All of these
(4) Momentum changes
44. The magnetic field at a distance x = 3R from the
40. If a current carrying circular loop is placed in non-
centre of circular loop along its axis is B. Then the
uniform magnetic field, then
magnetic field at its centre is
(1) Force and torque must be non zero
(1) 8 B (2) 4B
(2) Force and torque must be zero
B
(3) Force must be non zero but torque may be zero (3) 2 B (4)
8
(4) Force and torque may be zero 45. In electromagnetic induction, the induced charge in
41. A long straight thick (R = radius) wire carries a a coil is independent of
current distributed uniformly in its cross-section, if (1) Resistance
magnetic field at distance r < R is B0, then B0 may
be (2) Change in flux

(1) Non-zero (2) Zero (3) Time

(3) Infinite (4) Both (1) & (2) (4) All of these
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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016 Test - 6 (Code A)

[ CHEMISTRY ]
46. The correct structure of trans-2-heptenal is 50. Which of the following conformers of a compound is
CHO (2) most stable?
(1) CHO
CH3
CH3
(3) CHO (4) CH3
CHO H CH3
(1) (2)
47. Which of the following pairs of compounds is/are H H H
enantiomers? H H H H
CH3 CH3
OH OH
(1) Cl H
&
Cl H
H Cl Cl H H OH H H
(3) (4)
CH3 CH3 H H
H H
CH3 CH3 H OH
H Cl Cl H 51. Which of the following has maximum negative
(2) &
Cl H H Cl inductive effect?
CH3 CH3
(1) NO2 (2) COOH
CH3 CH3
H Cl Cl H (3) NR3 (4) F
&
(3) Cl H Cl H
52. In toluene, methyl group is ortho, para-directing
CH3 CH3 because of
(4) All of these
(1) Inductive effect
48. Maximum enol content is observed in which of the
following compounds? (2) Electromeric effect

(3) Hyperconjugation effect

(1) O (2) CH3COCH2COCH3
(4) All of these
(3) (CH3)3CCHO (4) CH3CHO
49. Which of the following compounds cannot show 53. The number of structural isomers possible from the
geometrical isomerism? molecular formula C3H6O is
CH2 CH2 (1) 8
(1) (2)
(2) 5

CHBr (3) 7
(3) (4) All of these
(4) 9

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Test - 6 (Code A) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016
54. Which of the following is correct order of stability of 58. The degree of unsaturation in
carbocation?
CH CHCH3
(1) CH 2 CH > CH 3CH 2 CH is

(2) CH 3OCH 2 > CH3CH2

(1) 5 (2) 6
(3) CH 3CH 2CH 2 > CH2 CHCH2
(3) 7 (4) 4
(4) >
59. In the Kjeldahls method for estimation of nitrogen
present in a soil sample, ammonia evolved from
55. Which of the following carbanion is most stable? 0.8 g of sample is neutralized by 20 ml of
0.5 M H2SO4. The percentage of nitrogen in the soil is
CH2 CH2
(1) 30% (2) 45%
(1) (2)
(3) 35% (4) 40%
NO2
60. The Lassaignes extract of an organic compound
CH2 CH2 containing both nitrogen and sulphur on treatment
with FeCl3 produces a blood red colouration due to
(3) (4) the formation of

NH2 (1) [Fe(CNS)3]

OCH3
56. In which of the following compounds, ( ) (2) Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3
conjugation is not possible?
(3) Na4[Fe(CN)5NOS]
CH(CH3)2
(1) (2) CH 3CH CH2 (4) [Fe(CNS)2]

61. The hydration of C6H5CH CH CH3 in presence of

CH3 H2SO4 produces the major product, is
(3) CH 3C (4)
(1) C6H5CHCH CH3
CH3
57. Which of the following are aromatic compounds? OH

(i) (ii) (2) C6H5CH2CHCH3

OH
(iii) (iv)
(3) C6H5CH2CH2CH2OH
N
(1) (iii) & (iv) (2) (i), (iii) & (iv)
(4) HO CH CHCH3
(3) (iii) only (4) (i) & (iii)

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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016 Test - 6 (Code A)

62. In the reaction sequence 65. Which of the following reagents will be able to
distinguish between 1-pentyne and 2-pentyne?
HOCl (R) (1) Na (2) Tollens reagent
CH2 CH2 (A) CH2OH
(3) NH4OH / Cu2Cl2 (4) All of these
CH2ONO
66. Which of the following statements is/are incorrect?
the product (A) and reagent (R) respectively are (1) For the separation of two immicible liquids
fractional distillation is used
(1) CH3CH2Cl & KNO2
(2) Carbon and hydrogen present in an organic
(2) CH3CH2OH & AgNO2 compound are estimated by Carius method
(3) All alkynes show acidic property
(3) CH 2CH 2 & KCN
(4) All of these
O
67. In which of the given cases set of reactants is/are
(4) CH2ClCH2OH & KNO2 not correctly matched with their major product?
63. Which one of the following reactions is expected to F
alc.KOH
readily give a hydrocarbon product in good yields? (1)

CH2COO K Electrolytic
(CH3)3COK
(1) (2)
CH2COO K Oxidation
Cl
Br2 CH3
(2) RCOO Ag
CCl4
Br2
(3) CH3 h
Cl2
(3) CH 3CH 2CH 3
h
Br
(4) Both (1) & (2)
h
(4) + Br2 68. Chlorination of CH4 involves following steps
h
(i) Cl Cl 2Cl
64. A hydrocarbon A on mono-chlorination gives B in
presence of h which on heating with alcoholic (ii) CH4 + Cl CH3 + HCl

potassium hydroxide changes into another (iii) CH 3 + Cl2 CH 3Cl + Cl
hydrocarbon C. The latter decolourises Baeyers Which of the following is rate determining step?
reagent and on ozonolysis forms carbonyl compound
(1) Step (ii) (2) Step (i)
which on reaction with red P/HI gives propane. The
hydrocarbon A is (3) Step (iii) (4) Both step (i) & (ii)
69. Which of the following has zero dipole moment?
(1) Cyclopentane (2) Cyclopropane
(1) Cis-2-butene (2) 2-Methyl-1-propene
(3) Propene (4) Methane (3) 1-Butene (4) Trans-2-butene

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Test - 6 (Code A) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016
70. Which of the following statements is correct? 75. Arrange the following compounds in order of
(1) Addition of HBr in buta-1, 3-diene gives 3-bromo- decreasing reactivity towards nucleophilic aromatic
but-1-ene as major product at high temperature substitution

(2) Addition of HBr in buta-1, 3-diene gives 1-bromo- Cl Cl Cl Cl

pent-2-ene as major product at low temperature NO2 O2N NO2
(3) Addition of Br2 in trans-but-2-ene in the presence
of CCl4 gives meso form through syn addition
NO2 NO2 NO2
(4) The reaction between benzene and (CH3)3CCOCl
in the presence of anhydrous AlCl3 gives tert- (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
butyl benzene as major product (1) (iv) > (ii) > (iii) > (i) (2) (i) > (iii) > (ii) > (iv)
71. Which of the following statements is/are correct? (3) (iv) > (iii) > (ii) > (i) (4) (ii) > (iii) > (iv) > (i)
(1) Bhopal gas tragedy was caused by methyl
isocynate 76. CHCl3
KOH
P
(Major)
(2) pH of drinking water should lie between 5.5 9.5
(3) pH of acid rain is approximately 5.6 The major product P is
(4) All of these Cl Cl
72. Which of the following is not a property of (1) (2)
photochemical smog? DH

(1) Photochemical smog is an oxidising agent in Cl

character Cl
(3) (4) Cl
(2) Photochemical smog does not cause irritation in
eyes and throat
77. Which of the following is correct order of dipole
(3) It is also called Los Angles smog moment?
(4) It contains O3, PAN and NOx (1) CH3F > CH3Cl > CH3Br > CH3I
73. Which of the following is/are greenhouse gases? (2) CH3Cl > CH3F > CH3Br > CH3I
(1) CO2 (2) CFCs (3) CH3I > CH3Br > CH3Cl > CH3F
(3) N2O (4) All of these (4) CH3Cl > CH3Br > CH3I > CH3F
74. Which of the following is the incorrect match? 78. Which of the following compounds has the highest
(1) Classical smog Reducing smog melting point and boiling point respectively?

(2) Ozone layer Troposphere (i) O-dichlorobenzene (ii) m-dichlorobenzene

(3) Fluoride In excess, causes blue-baby (iii) p-dichlorobenzene

syndrome (1) (iii) & (i) (2) (iii) & (ii)
(4) Carbon dioxide Carboxyhaemoglobin (3) (i) & (ii) (4) (i) & (iii)
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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016 Test - 6 (Code A)
79. The most reactive compound towards formation of 82. For which of the following compound Kjeldahls
alkene when treated with alcoholic KOH is method is/are not applicable for the estimation of
Cl nitrogen?
Cl
(1) (2)
(1) N N (2) N
Cl
H
(3) (4)
Cl (3) (4) All of these
SO3 H N

conc. H H
80. + H2 SO4 + H2 O NaI
83. C2H5 C Cl acetone
I C C2H5
Which of the following is incorrect statement for
CH3 CH3
above reaction?
(1) It is an electrophilic substitution reaction Which of the following statements is/are correct for
above reaction?
(2) The mechanism of above reaction is completed
in four steps (1) It is known as Finkelstien reaction
(3) The carbocation (-complex) intermediate forms (2) The above reactant and product have no chiral
in the reaction carbon
(4) The electrophile is SO3H (3) If reactant has s-configuration then product also
Hg
2
PCl5
having s-configuration
81. C CCH3 (A) (B) (4) Both (1) & (3)
H2SO4(dil.)
The major product (B) is CH3

(1) CCHCH3 Cl2/h CH3Cl aq.KOH

84. A B C
excess FeCl3
O Cl (anhy.)

Cl The product C in the above reaction sequence is

(2)
O CH3 CH3
Cl
(1) (2)
(3) Cl CCH2 CH3 COO K
COO K
O
Cl COOH
CH3
(4) CCH2CH3
(3) (4)
Cl COO K CH3

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Test - 6 (Code A) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016

85. Which of the following statements is not correct?

CH3
(1) The reaction of tert-butylbromide with aqueous
(3) CH3CCH2Br
KOH follows first order kinetics
CH3
(2) The SN2 reaction follows second order kinetics

(3) The SN2 reaction proceeds with stereochemical

inversion (4) CH2Br

(4) Bond breaking and forming simultaneously occur

NaCN
in SN1 reaction mechanism 88. CH3CH2 Cl (A)
KNO2
(B)
HCl
(A)
(Major) The products A and B respectively are
B2H6/THF
86. CH3 CH CH CH2 (B) (1) CH3CH2CN & CH3CH2ONO
H2O2/OH
(Major)
CH3 Hg(OCOCH3)2/H2O (2) CH 3CH2NC & CH3CH2CH2NO 2
(C)
NaBH4/OH
(Major)
(3) CH3CH2NC & CH3CH2NH2

Which of the following statements is correct about (4) CH 3CH2CN & CH3NH
above reaction? CH3
(1) Product (B) & (C) are same
89. Chloropicrin is obtained by the reaction of
(2) Product (B) & (C) are isomers
(1) Nitric acid on chloroform
(3) Product (B) is ether
(2) Nitrous acid on chlorobenzene
(4) Product (A) is alkyl halide but (C) is alkane
(3) Ammonia on chloromethane
87. In an SN2 reaction of the type
(4) Steam on tetrachloromethane
DMSO
RBr + Cl RCl + Br 90. Chloral reacts with chlorobenzene in presence of
sulphuric acid produces
Which one of the following alkyl bromide has the
highest relative rate? (1) BHC
(1) CH3CH2CH2Br (2) DDT

(2) CH3CHCH2Br (3) TEL

CH3 (4) BTX

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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016
[ BIOLOGY ]
91. Select incorrect statement w.r.t., human genome.
(1) Largest gene is autosomal with 2.4 million
bases
(2) Human genome contains 3164.7 million
nucleotide bases
(3) Less than 2 percent of genome codes for
proteins
(4) The last chromosome to be sequenced was
chromosome 1 in May 2006
92. How many of the following statements is/are correct?
(a) Apo-repressor and co-repressor complex binds
to operator gene and blocks the function of RNA
polymerase in the trp operon
(b) Beadle and Tatum produced arginine auxotrophs
by giving UV-rays treatment to Neurospora
(c) In Chlamydomonas, the supercoils of DNA are
maintained by polyamines proteins
(d) Purine adenine is equimolor with pyrimidine
thymine in phage 174
(1) Four (2) Three
(3) One (4) Two
93. Number of genes associated with chromosome 1 in
human beings is
(1) 14 (2) 2968
(3) 3000 (4) 231
94. Satellite DNA
(1) Is polymorphic DNA
(2) Is intronic sequences of DNA
(3) Forms the basis of DNA fingerprinting
(4) More than one option is correct
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Test - 6 (Code A)
95. The formation of peptide bond between two amino
acids during translation in E.coli bacterium is
catalysed by
(1) 18S rRNA (2) 23S rRNA
(3) 16S rRNA (4) 28S rRNA
96. Choose odd one w.r.t. regulation of gene expression
in bacteria
(1) Repressor of lac-operon is synthesised
constitutively by i gene
(2) Regulation of lac-operon by repressor is referred
to as positive regulation
(3) Lactose acts as inducer in lac-operon
(4) In lac-operon, a polycistronic gene is regulated
by a common promoter and regulatory genes
97. The sequence on mRNA which is required for
efficient translation process is
(1) Pribnow box (2) UTRs
(3) TATA box (4) CAAT box
98. The sequence of amino acids in proteins does not
necessarily predict the sequence of nucleotides on
mRNA. This is due to
(1) Universality of genetic code
(2) Commaless nature of genetic code
(3) Non-ambiguous nature of genetic code
(4) Degeneracy of genetic code
99. Tailing of hnRNA requires addition of _ (A)_ residues
with the help of _ (B)_.
(1) (B) Poly A polymerase, (A) 200300 adenylate
(2) (B) Guanyl transferase, (A) 100200 adenylate
(3) (B) Guanyl transferase, (A) 200300 adenylate
(4) (B) Poly A polymerase, (A) 100200 adenylate
Test - 6 (Code A)
100. Severo Ochoa enzyme is
(1) Polynucleotide phosphorylase
(2) DNA independent RNA polymerase
(3) RNA dependent DNA polymerase
(4) More than one option is correct
101. Transcription and translation are coupled in bacteria
because
(1) Processing of mRNA is required
(2) There is no separation of cytosol and nucleus
(3) Splicing of introns is a prerequisite
(4) More than one option is correct
All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016
105. The number of nucleotides present in repeating unit
of chromatin is
(1) 200 (2) 500
(3) 300 (4) 400
106. The unequivocal proof that DNA is the genetic
material came from the experiment
(1) Performed by Avery, MacLeod and McCarty
(2) Performed by Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase
(3) That used heavy isotope of nitrogen
(4) Used radioactive thymidine
107. Which experiment proved semi-conservative mode of
DNA replication in eukaryotes?

A (1) Taylors experiment using density gradient

centrifugation
5' 3'
Terminator Promoter
(2) Meselson and Stahl experiment using heavy
102. nitrogen
3' 5'
B (3) Cairns experiment using radioactive thymidine
Choose correct option for A, B w.r.t. schematic (4) Taylors experiment using radioactive thymidine
structure of a transcription unit given in figure. 108. In prokaryotic DNA replication
(1) ANon-template strand BCoding strand (1) DNA pol II is the main polymerising enzyme
(2) ACoding strand BNon-template strand (2) Deoxyribonucleoside triphosphates provide
energy for polymerisation
(3) ATemplate strand BCoding strand
(3) Only DNA polymerases are required
(4) ASense strand BAntisense strand
(4) Five types of RNA polymerases are used
103. DNA polymerase is similar to RNA polymerase in
109. In prokaryotes, RNA polymerase binds to a region of
(1) Requirement of primer to initiate the process of DNA which is recognised by
replication and transcription respectively
(1) factor (2) Transcription factor
(2) Showing polymerisation in 5' 3' direction
(3) factor (4) Core enzyme
(3) Can perform repair mechanisms
110. Select incorrect match.
(4) Requirement of ssRNA as template (1) Griffith Transformation principle
104. Methylated form of uracil (2) F. Meischer Nuclein
(1) Is a purine base (2) Is present in DNA (3) Meselson and Stahl Faba beans
(3) Is present in mRNA (4) Has four N-atoms (4) Kornberg DNA pol I
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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016 Test - 6 (Code A)

111. Trp operon and lac operon 117. Select correct match.
(1) Show positive control Column I Column II
a. Lactic acid (i) Penicillium chrysogenum
(2) Are repressible systems
b. Swiss cheese (ii) Monascus purpureus
(3) Are gene regulation mechanism in prokaryotes c. Statins (iii) Lactobacillus
(4) Are inducible systems d. Gluconic acid (iv) Propionibacterium
112. The hallmark of Watson and Crick model is (1) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) (2) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
(3) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv) (4) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i)
(1) Base complementarity rule
118. Heterotrophic bacteria those can fix atmospheric
(2) Presence of major and minor groove in double nitrogen in free living state in soil are
helix (1) Azotobacter, Beijerinckia
(3) Presence of H-bonds between the two (2) Rhizobium, Azotobacter
polynucleotide chains (3) Oscillatoria, Klebsiella
(4) Double helix nature of DNA (4) Rhizobium, Rhodospirillum
113. If the proportion of thymine in ds DNA is 43% then 119. Microbial degradation of organic matter in STP takes
what will be the proportion of bicyclic N-bases in this place during/in
DNA? (1) Primary treatment
(1) 43% (2) 7% (2) Tertiary treatment
(3) 14% (4) 50% (3) Filtration and sedimention
(4) Aeration tank
114. Which of the following is not used in organic farming?
120. Select incorrect match (w.r.t. biofertilisers)
(1) Nostoc (2) Boletus
(1) Aulosira Paddy field
(3) Escherichia coli (4) Anabaena
(2) Glomus Orchids
115. Bioactive molecule which is used as immunosuppressive (3) Boletus Pine
agent in organ-transplant patients is
(4) Frankia Cicer
(1) Streptokinase (2) Statins 121. Read the following statements and choose correct
(3) Cyclosporin A (4) Butyric acid option. (w.r.t. sewage treatment)
(i) Flocs are masses of anaerobic bacteria
116. Which of the following microbes is effective
associated with fungal filament
biocontrol agent of several plant pathogens?
(ii) Activated sludge is used for production of biogas
(1) Dragonflies
(1) Both (i) & (ii) are correct
(2) Gambusia fish (2) Only (i) is incorrect
(3) Trichoderma (3) Both (i) & (ii) are incorrect
(4) All of these (4) Only (ii) is incorrect

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Test - 6 (Code A) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016
122. Agriculture by using biofertilizers is called 129. Which one of the following heterotrophic organisms
is used as alternate source of proteins for animal
(1) Biofortification (2) Inorganic farming
and human nutrition?
(3) Organic farming (4) Chemical farming
(1) Methylophilus methylotrophus
123. Ethanol is commercially produced by using a
(2) Chlorella
particular species of
(3) Spirulina
(1) Clostridium
(2) Saccharomyces (4) More than one option is correct

(3) Aspergillus 130. The entire collection of plants/seeds having all diverse
alleles of all gene collection of a crop is called
(4) Trichoderma
(1) Gene pool
124. Which of the following plant varieties is resistant to
yellow mosaic virus? (2) Hardening

(1) Pusa Sadabahar (2) Prabhani Kranti (3) Germplasm collection

(3) Pusa Gaurav (4) Pusa Komal (4) Gene cloning

125. Cereals are generally deficient in 131. Which of the following features of maize can result
to resistance to maize stem borer?
(1) Methionine and cysteine
(1) Low sugar and aspartic acid
(2) Tryptophan and lysine
(2) Low nitrogen and high aspartic acid
(3) Histidine
(3) High nitrogen and sugar content
(4) Cysteine and tryptophan
(4) Low aspartic acid
126. Which of the following technique is useful for
immediate expression of mutations and quick 132. Fusion of protoplasts in somatic hybridisation is done
formation of pure-lines? by using
(1) Pollen grain culture (2) Embryo culture (1) PEG
(3) Meristem culture (4) Ovary culture (2) Electric current
127. Mark the mismatched pair : (3) X-rays
(1) BiofortificationAtlas 66 variety of wheat (4) More than one option is correct
(2) HeterosisHybrid vigour 133. Cotton plants is resistant to jassids due to presence of
(3) MaizeRich in thiamine (1) Hairy leaves (2) High sugar
(4) P1542HYV of sweet pea (3) Smooth leaves (4) Low nitrogen
128. Somaclones are made by 134. The explant best suited for obtaining virus free plants is
(1) Hybridisation (2) Plant breeding (1) Anther (2) Ovule
(3) Tissue culture (4) Mutation breeding (3) Protoplast (4) Meristem

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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016 Test - 6 (Code A)
135. Select incorrect match (w.r.t. crop varieties bred by 140. Functionally, Bursa of Fabricius in birds can be
hybridisation and selection) considered similar to
(1) Wheat Himgiri (1) Bone marrow in mammals
(2) Cauliflower Pusa Shubhra (2) Kidney in mammals
(3) Cowpea Pusa Komal (3) Liver in mammals
(4) Chilli Pusa Swarnim
(4) Thyroid in mammals
136. Black water fever is caused by
141. Which of the following is not an antigen presenting
(1) Salmonella typhi cell (APC)?
(2) Giardia lamblia (a) Histiocytes (b) Clasmatocytes
(3) Plasmodium falciparum (c) B Cells (d) T helper cells
(4) Bacillus pestis
(e) T Killer cells
137. Select the correct set of viral diseases in humans.
(1) (a), (b), (c), (d) & (e) (2) (a), (b) & (c)
(1) Rabies, Common cold, Tetanus
(3) (d) & (e) (4) (a), (b), (d) & (e)
(2) Plague, Dengue, Chicken pox
142. Find out the incorrect match w.r.t disease and its
(3) Small pox, Measles, Diphtheria
diagnostic test.
(4) Mumps, Polio, Chikungunya
(1) Tuberculosis Mantoux test
138. Which of the following statements is incorrect w.r.t
interferons? (2) Plague Wassermann test

(1) Interferons are lipoproteins released by virus (3) Diphtheria Schick test
infected cells.
(4) Dengue Tourniquet test
(2) Interferons do not kill virus
143. The second most abundant antibody in human body is
(3) Interferons make unattacked cells less
susceptible from the attack of virus (1) IgA (2) IgG

(4) Interferons are included in cytokine barrier of (3) IgM (4) IgE
innate immunity.
144. Kochs postulates are not applicable to
139. Which of the following is a component of
physiological barrier of innate immunity? (a) Mycobacterium leprae

(1) Skin and mucous membrane (b) Viruses

(2) Histamine and serotonin (c) Treponema pallidium

(3) Sebum and bile (1) (a) & (b) (2) (b) & (c)
(4) Perforins and pyrogens (3) (a) & (c) (4) (a), (b) & (c)
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Test - 6 (Code A) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016
145. Match the following 150. Trophozoite or magna form of Entamoeba histolytica
Column I Column II (1) Degrades mucosa of small intestine
a. Killed vaccine (i) Tetanus (2) Feeds on RBC
b. Attenuated vaccine (ii) Tuberculosis (3) Monogenetic and polypodial

c. Toxoid (iii) OPV (4) More than one option is correct

151. Select the correct sequence of stages in the
(iv) Typhoid
erythrocytic cycle in asexual cycle of Plasmodium in
(1) a(iii), b(i), c(iv) (2) a(iv), b(iii), c(i) man
(3) a(iii), b(ii), c(i) (4) a(i), b(iv), c(ii) (1) Trophozoite Amoeboid Signet ring Schizont
146. Hay fever is an allergy of Rosette
(2) Amoeboid Trophozoite Signet ring
(1) Lower respiratory tract
Schizont Rosette
(2) Skin with minute blisters
(3) Trophozoite Signet ring Amoeboid Rosette
(3) Urinary and reproductive tract Schizont
(4) Upper respiratory tract (4) Trophozoite Signet ring Amoeboid Schizont
Rosette
147. Which of the following antibody is present in
mothers milk and provides natural passive immunity 152. Find out the incorrect match w.r.t type of ringworm.
to new born? (1) Tinea pedis Athletes foot
(1) IgD (2) IgM (2) Tinea capitis Ringworm of scalp
(3) IgE (4) IgA (3) Tinea barbae Ringworm of bearded areas of
face and neck
148. Select the correct set of bacterial diseases caused
by exotoxins. (4) Tinea cruris Ringworm of hands
(1) Diphtheria and typhoid 153. Which of the following is not an example of passive
immunity?
(2) Plague and tetanus
(1) Colostrum rich in IgA antibodies
(3) Dysentery and cholera
(2) A person recovering from chicken pox infection
(4) Diphtheria and tetanus
(3) IgG antibodies crossing placental barrier to reach
149. Which of the following is incorrect statement w.r.t foetus
rabies?
(4) Anti-tetanus serum
(1) Rabies is caused by flavi-ribo virus is introduced
154. Which of the following is not an autoimmune
in human body by bite of rabid (mad) dogs
disorder?
usually
(1) Rheumatoid arthritis
(2) Hydrophobia is most important characteristic
symptom (2) Myasthenia gravis
(3) Rabies virus destroys brain and spinal cord (3) Severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID)
(4) Rabies is 100% fatal (4) Graves disease (Exopthalmic goitre)
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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016
155. The cells which secrete antibodies
(1) Secrete histamine which causes inflammation
(2) Are major cells of cell mediated immunity
system
(3) Are produced in thymus
(4) Are a part of humoral mediated immunity
system.
156. Consider the following four statements A, B, C & D
and select whether they are true (T) or false (F).
(A) Big Bang theory explains origin of universe
(B) Spontaneous generation states that units of life
called spores were transferred to different planets
including earth
(C) Primitive earth had reducing atmosphere and high
temperature
(D) The first non-cellular forms of life could have
originated 3 billion years back
(1) AT, BT, CT, DF
(2) AT, BF, CT, DT
(3) AT, BF, CT, DF
(4) AF, BT, CT, DF
157. Which of the following sets of amino acids was
formed in the Millers experiment?
(1) Alanine, Glycine, Glutamic acid
(2) Aspartic acid, Valine, Alanine
(3) Alanine, Asparagine, Leucine
(4) Glycine, Aspartic acid, Alanine
158. Which of the following is not an avian characteristic
of Archaeopteryx?
(1) Intimate fusion of skull bones
(2) Presence of free caudal vertebrae
(3) Jaws are modified into beak
(4) Presence of feathers on body
Space for Rough Work
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Test - 6 (Code A)
159. Which of the following ancestral horse was adapted
to browsing of soft lush vegetation and was called
dawn horse?
(1) Parahippus (2) Merychippus
(3) Mesohippus (4) Hyracotherium
160. The conclusion drawn by Charles Darwin during his
five year expedition was
(1) Existing living forms share similarities to varying
degrees not only among themselves but also
with life forms that existed millions of years ago
(2) Evolution of life forms had occurred but driven by
use and disuse of organs
(3) Mutations cause speciation
(4) Life came out of decaying and rotting matter
161. Which of the following is not an example of
analogous organ?
(1) Eye of octopus and of mammals
(2) Wings of butterfly and of birds
(3) Types of mouth parts of cockroach and mosquito
(4) Flippers of penguins and dolphins
162. Find out the correct statement w.r.t industrial
melanism.
(1) Before industrialisation there were more dark-
winged moths
(2) After industrialisation, the tree trunks got covered
by lichens making white-winged moths
inconspicous
(3) Before industrial revolution white-winged moths
were more as predator (birds) were absent
(4) Melanised moths were mutuant forms
163. Which of the following discarded Lamarcks concept
of inheritance of acquired characters?
(1) Mendels law of inheritance
(2) Theory of continuity of germplasm
(3) Theory of Pangenesis
(4) More than one option is correct
Test - 6 (Code A)
164. The type of reproductive isolation in which breeding
period of mating individuals is different, is
(1) Psychological isolation(2) Hybrid breakdown
(3) Temporal isolation (4) Mechanical isolation
165. Which of the following is an incorrect match w.r.t
ancestor of man, its cranial capacity and one of its
feature?
(1) Australopithecus 500 CC Hunted with stone
weapons but essentially ate fruits
(2) Homo erectus 900 CC Knew use of fire for
hunting, defense and cooking
(3) Homo habilis 650800 CC Used chipped
stone tools and probably did not ate meat
(4) Homo sapiens fossilis 1400 CC
Prognathous face and buried their dead ones
with flowers and tools
166. Which of the following is an incorrect match w.r.t.
period of Paleozoic era?
(1) Permian Origin of mammal-like reptiles
(2) Carboniferous First vascular plants and age of
amphibians
(3) Devonian Age of fishes
(4) Silurian Colonization of land by plants and
arthropods
167. All of the following exhibit adaptive convergence
except
(1) Placental wolf and Tasmanian tiger wolf
(2) Lemur and Numbat (ant eater)
(3) Bobcat and Tasmanian tiger cat
(4) Flying squirrel and flying phalanger
168. Darwins finches is an example of
(A) Founder effect (B) Macroevolution
(C) Diversifying selection (D) Allopatric speciation
(1) A, B, C & D (2) A & B
(3) A, B & D (4) A & D
Space for Rough Work
All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016
169. All of the following support Darwins concept of
natural selection, except
(1) DDT resistant mosquitoes
(2) Loss of limbs in snakes due to creeping in
narrow burrows
(3) Streptomycin resistant bacteria
(4) Proboscis length in insects and position of
nectary in flower
170. Read the statements (i) to (iv) and choose the
correct option.
(i) The phrase Survival of Fittest was first used by
Charles Darwin.
(ii) Genetic drift is more marked in stable large
population.
(iii) Women who are heterozygotes for sickle cell
anaemia have higher fertility in malaria prone
area.
(iv) African lioness and Asian tigers easily breed in
natural conditions and produce fertile offsprings.
(1) Statement (i) & (iii) are correct; statement (ii) & (iv)
are wrong
(2) Statement (i) & (ii) are wrong; statement (iii) & (iv)
are correct
(3) Statement (ii) & (iii) are wrong; statement (i) & (iv)
are correct
(4) Statement (iii) is correct; statement (i), (ii) & (iv)
are wrong
171. Which of the following methods of dating fossils has
recently been used to determine the age of hominid
fossils in East Africa?
(1) Electron spin resonance method
(2) Potassium-Argon method
(3) Radioactive carbon method
(4) Uranium-lead method
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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016
172. Find out the correct sequence of evolution of
mammals from early reptiles
(1) Early reptiles Sauropsids Therapsids
Mammals
(2) Early reptiles Synapsids Pelycosaurs
Therapsids Mammals
(3) Early reptiles Synapsids Thecodonts
Mammals.
(4) Early reptiles Sauropsids Pelycosaurs
Mammals
173. Which of the following exhibits artificial selection?
(1) Australian marsupials
(2) Banding pattern of human chromosome number
3 and 6 compared with those of particular
autosomes in chimpanzee.
(3) Cabbage, cauliflower, kohlrabi are descendents of
a common ancestor, colewort
(4) Isthmus of Panama between gulf of Mexico and
pacific ocean.
174. The term paraspecies has been used by Mayr for
(1) Morphologically grouped asexual species
(2) Species that are morphologically similar but
reproductively isolated
(3) Morphologically distinct interbreeding groups
(4) New species formed as a result of geographical
isolation.
175. Find out the correct match w.r.t type of fossil and
its description.
(1) Coprolite Fossil of spores and pollen grains
(2) Palynofossil Faecel pellets preserved
(3) Cast Mould along with petrified fossil
(4) Microfossils Fossil of bones, teeth etc.
176. Which of the following pairs of organs/structures
represents vestigial organs in humans?
(1) Plica semilunaris and upper eyelid
(2) Vermiform appendix and auricular muscles
(3) Wisdom tooth and cerebellum
(4) Body hair and alveoli of lungs
 
Space for Rough Work
20/20
Test - 6 (Code A)
177. Which of the following is not an embryological
evidence of evolution?
(1) Presence of fish like tadpole in the development
of frog
(2) Presence of flagellated sperms in Cycas and
Ginkgo which need water for fertilization
(3) Tendrils of Passiflora are modified stem branches
and that of Pisum sativum are modified leaves
(4) Larva of Herdmania show presence of notochord
but adult do not
178. Which of the following explains Hardy-Weinberg
principle?
(1) New species are formed by sudden appearance
of variations and not by continuous variations
(2) A small segment of original population becomes
isolated reproductively and forms a new species
(3) During the long course of evolution animals have
tendency to increase in size
(4) Gene pool of a non-evolving population remains
constant
179. Magnolias, Tulips and Sassafras are plants that
grow naturally in eastern USA and China only. These
represent
(1) Discontinuous distribution
(2) Restricted distribution
(3) Adaptive radiation
(4) Parallelism
180. Donald Johanson found a fossil of skeleton of a
female human ancestor which he niknamed it Lucy.
The scientific name of Lucy is
(1) Australopithecus africanus
(2) Dryopithecus africanus
(3) Australopithecus afarensis
(4) Kenyapithecus wickeri

Test - 6 (Code A) (Answers & Hints) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016

All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016

TEST - 6 (Code-A)
Test Date : 31-01-2016 ANSWERS
1. (3) 37. (2) 73. (4) 109. (3) 145. (2)
2. (2) 38. (2) 74. (2) 110. (3) 146 (4)
3. (4) 39. (4) 75. (1) 111. (3) 147. (4)
4. (3) 40. (4) 76. (1) 112. (1) 148. (4)
5. (3) 41. (4) 77. (2) 113. (4) 149. (1)
6. (1) 42. (3) 78. (1) 114. (3) 150. (2)
7. (3) 43. (4) 79. (3) 115. (3) 151. (4)
8. (1) 44. (1) 80. (4) 116. (3) 152. (4)
9. (4) 45. (3) 81. (4) 117. (1) 153. (2)
10. (4) 46. (1) 82. (4) 118. (1) 154. (3)
11. (2) 47. (2) 83. (1) 119. (4) 155. (4)
12. (3) 48. (2) 84. (2) 120. (4) 156. (2)
13. (3) 49. (4) 85. (4) 121. (2) 157. (4)
14. (1) 50. (3) 86. (2) 122. (3) 158. (2)
15. (4) 51. (3) 87. (1) 123. (2) 159. (4)
16. (1) 52. (3) 88. (1) 124. (2) 160. (1)
17. (3) 53. (4) 89. (1) 125. (2) 161. (3)
18. (1) 54. (2) 90. (2) 126. (1) 162. (4)
19. (3) 55. (2) 91. (1) 127. (4) 163. (4)
20. (1) 56. (4) 92. (3) 128. (3) 164. (3)
21. (1) 57. (1) 93. (2) 129. (1) 165. (4)
22. (2) 58. (2) 94. (4) 130. (3) 166. (2)
23. (1) 59. (3) 95. (2) 131. (2) 167. (2)
24. (3) 60. (1) 96. (2) 132. (4) 168. (3)
25. (1) 61. (1) 97. (2) 133. (1) 169. (2)
26. (4) 62. (4) 98. (4) 134. (4) 170. (4)
27. (4) 63. (1) 99. (1) 135. (4) 171. (2)
28. (3) 64. (2) 100. (4) 136. (3) 172. (2)
29. (3) 65. (4) 101. (2) 137. (4) 173. (3)
30. (1) 66. (4) 102. (3) 138. (1) 174. (1)
31. (4) 67. (3) 103. (2) 139. (3) 175. (3)
32. (4) 68. (1) 104. (2) 140. (1) 176. (2)
33. (1) 69. (4) 105. (4) 141. (3) 177. (3)
34. (1) 70. (4) 106. (2) 142. (2) 178. (4)
35. (1) 71. (1) 107. (4) 143. (1) 179. (1)
36. (3) 72. (2) 108. (2) 144. (4) 180. (3)

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 All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016 Test - 6 (Code A) (Answers & Hints)

Hints to Selected Questions

[ PHYSICS]
1. Answer (3) 17. Answer (3)
2. Answer (2) M I
N
mv
r= if p = mv = constant By Linz law current is to be decreased
qB
1 VM < VN
r , lower radius indicated more curved path.
q 18. Answer (1)
3. Answer (4) VL & VC are in opposite phase.

Time period is independent of speed of charge. 19. Answer (3)

V02 = VL02 + VR0
2
4. Answer (3)
VR0 = 60 V & VR0 = i0R
NBA
Current sensitivity = i0 = 4 A & irms = 2.8 A
k i
20. Answer (1)
5. Answer (3)
21. Answer (1)
6. Answer (1)
22. Answer (2)
7. Answer (3)
t2
8. Answer (1)
dt
Because magnetic field lines form closed loop t1

9. Answer (4) 23. Answer (1)

10. Answer (4) At steady state the potential difference across the
inductor becomes zero so resistor is short circuited
11. Answer (2) and current does not flow through it.
U IA 24. Answer (3)
p=
C C 25. Answer (1)
12. Answer (3) To move with constant velocity
13. Answer (3) Frequired = Fmagnetic

i2 B2 l 2v
ir ms = i12 2 & io = 2 irms Frequired = iBl =
2 R
14. Answer (1) 26. Answer (4)
Effective circuit is
v 0 i0
Paverage = cos
2 I 3H
M N
v 02R
Paverage =
2z 2
I
15. Answer (4) VM VN = L
t
16. Answer (1) 27. Answer (4)
At resonance current becomes maximum e0 = NBA =

E0 28. Answer (3)

Z = R & i0 =
Z 29. Answer (3)

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Test - 6 (Code A) (Answers & Hints) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016
30. Answer (1) 40. Answer (4)
31. Answer (4) 41. Answer (4)
FMagnetic q 42. Answer (3)
32. Answer (4) 43. Answer (4)
33. Answer (1) 44. Answer (1)

0 iR 2 0IR 2
= E B Baxis = = 3/ 2
2[R 2 x 2 ]3/2 2 R 2 3R 2
34. Answer (1)
35. Answer (1) 0IR 2 0 I
36. Answer (3) 16R = B (given)
= 2 8R 3 =

37. Answer (2) 0 I

38. Answer (2) B at centre = = 8B
2R
39. Answer (4) 45. Answer (3)

[ CHEMISTRY]
46. Answer (1) 51. Answer (3)
When similar atoms are on opposite side around 52. Answer (3)
( C C ) bond of the compound is called trans-form
53. Answer (4)
H CHO C3H6O
C C
C4H9 H (a) CH3CH2CHO
47. Answer (2) (b) CH 3CCH 3
Compounds which are mirror image of each other
and are not superimposable are termed as O
enantiomers. (c) CH2 CHCH2OH
48. Answer (2)
(d) CH3CH CHOH
O O
O O (e) CH2 CHOCH3
C C
CH3CCH2CCH3 CH3 CH CH3 (f) CH3CHCH2
H O
CH2O
Hydrogen bond (g)
H CH2CH2
O O

C C (h)
OH
CH CH3
CH3
(i) CH2 CCH3
49. Answer (4)
50. Answer (3) OH
Due to hydrogen bonding between the two OH 54. Answer (2)
groups, gauche conformation of ethylene glycol is
most stable Due to resonance

H CH3OCH2 CH3O CH2

O
H O
H
H H is more stable than CH3CH2

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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016 Test - 6 (Code A) (Answers & Hints)
55. Answer (2)
CH CHCH3 + H CHCH2CH3
Due to R and I-effect
Benzylic carbocation
56. Answer (4) (2-Carbocation)

It has no -hydrogen H
O
57. Answer (1) H2SO4 H
CHCH2CH3 CHCH2CH3

OH O
H H H
HSO4
H
10-electron 62. Answer (4)
Non planar
(Non-Aromatic) KNO2
CH2 CH2 + HOCl CH2CH2 KCl
CH2CH2
OH Cl OH ONO
63. Answer (1)
Non-planar N
(Non-aromatic) CH2COOK Electrolytic CH2
6-electron + CO2 + KOH + H2
Oxidation
Heterocyclic CH2COOK CH2
Aromatic aromatic
6 6-electron compound Or

58. Answer (2) 64. Answer (2)

Degree of unsaturation = 2 + 4 = 6 Cl
Number of ring = 2 h alc. O3
+ Cl2 Zn/H2O
HCCH2CH
KOH
Number of double bond = 4 (A) (B) (C) O O
59. Answer (3)
Red P/HI
Percentage of nitrogen =
CH3CH2CH3
1.4 Normality of the acid Volume of acid used (Propane)
Weight of soil sample 65. Answer (4)

1.4 0.5 2 20 CH3CH2CH2C CH + Na

=
0.8
CH3(CH2)2C C Na + H2
= 35%
60. Answer (1) CH3(CH2)2C CH + NH4OH + AgNO3

 CH3(CH2)2C C Ag
Na C N S NaCNS
Sod.sulphocyanide
NH4OH
CH3(CH2)2C CH CH3(CH2)2C C Cu
Cu2Cl2
Fe3 3NaCNS
[Fe(CNS)3 ] 3Na
Ferric thiocyanate(blood red colour ) 66. Answer (4)
61. Answer (1) Separating funnel is used for the separation of two
H2O immiscible liquids.
C6H5CH CHCH3 C6H5CHCH2CH3
H2SO4
Liebig's method is used for the estimation of carbon
OH and hydrogen present in an organic compound.
H2SO4 H + HSO4 Terminal alkynes can show acidic property.

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Test - 6 (Code A) (Answers & Hints) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016
67. Answer (3) 76. Answer (1)

Allylic substitution (free radical) Cl

KOH + CHCl3 C + KCl + H2O
Br2 Cl
CH3 h
CH2Br + HBr (Dichlorocarbene)

alc.
Cl
KOH CCl2 C
F (E1CB mechanism ) H2O Cl

68. Answer (1) H OH CCl2

69. Answer (4) Cl Cl Cl
C C
Cl Cl
CH3 H Chlorobenzene
C C (Major)
H CH3
77. Answer (2)
m = 0 m = q d
70. Answer (4) 78. Answer (1)
Order of melting point :

CH3 Cl Cl
CH3 C CCl Cl
> >
CH3 O Cl Cl
Anhy. Cl
AlCl3
p o m

(CH3)3CC O + AlCl4 Order of boiling point

CO Cl Cl
Cl
CH3 > >
C CH3 + C(CH3)3 Cl Cl
Cl
CH3 o p m

79. Answer (3)

71. Answer (1)
KOH K + OH
72. Answer (2)
Cl
It is oxidising in nature and causes irritation to eyes. H
Lungs, nose, asthmatic attack and damage plants. OH
Cl H2O
73. Answer (4) 3-Carbocation
(Allylic Carbocation)
74. Answer (2)
80. Answer (4)
Ozone layer is formed in stratosphere.
Step I
75. Answer (1) H2SO4 + H2SO4 HSO4 + SO3 + H3O

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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016 Test - 6 (Code A) (Answers & Hints)
86. Answer (2)
Step II O
O H
SO Cl
+ S O CH3 C CH2 CH3
O O
CH3
(Electrophile)
(A)
O HSO4 O O
H
SO SO H3O

SOH OH
H2SO4 H2O
O O O CH3CHCH2CH2OH CH3CHCHCH3

Step III Step IV CH3 CH3

(B) (C)
81. Answer (4)
PCl5
C CH2 CH3 are isomers

O 87. Answer (1)

(A)
Cl 88. Answer (1)
C CH2 CH3 + POCl3 NaCN
CH3CH2Cl CH3CH2CN
Cl (A)
(B)
KNO2
82. Answer (4) CH3CH2ONO
This method is not used when nitrogen present in (B)
azo group, ring & NO2, group
89. Answer (1)
83. Answer (1)
84. Answer (2) Cl
HNO3
CHCl3 O2NCCl
Cl Cl
CH3 Cl C Cl Nitrochloroform
(Chloropicrin)
Cl2/h CH3Cl
excess FeCl3 (anhy.)
90. Answer (2)
(A)
Cl
OH Cl
CCl3 OH C OH Cl C C O+
Cl Conc.
aq. KOH Cl H H2SO4
3KCl
CH3 CH3
(B) Cl
H2O Cl
Cl C CH
COOK COOH Cl
Cl
aq. KOH
(DDT)
H2O
CH3 CH3
(C)
TEL : Tetraethyl Lead
85. Answer (4) BTX : Benzene, Toluene & Xylene

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Test - 6 (Code A) (Answers & Hints) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016

[ BIOLOGY ]
91. Answer (1) 110. Answer (3)
Largest gene is allosomal dystrophin gene located On E. coli.
on X-chromosome.
111. Answer (3)
92. Answer (3) Positive and negative control in lac operon
(b) X-rays 112. Answer (1)
(c) In bacteria 113. Answer (4)
(d) 174-ssDNA A & G are purines
A + G = T + C.
93. Answer (2)
114. Answer (3)
2968
E.coli is not a biofertiliser.
94. Answer (4)
115. Answer (3)
95. Answer (2) 116. Answer (3)
23S rRNA has ribozyme activity. Trichoderma is a deuteromycetes fungus.
96. Answer (2) 117. Answer (1)
Negative regulation 118. Answer (1)
Rhizobium is symbiotic, nitrogen fixing bacteria.
97. Answer (2)
119. Answer (4)
Untranslated regions
Aeration tank is used for biological treatment.
98. Answer (4)
120. Answer (4)
One amino acid may be coded by more than one Frankia make root nodules in non-legumes.
codons.
121. Answer (2)
99. Answer (1)
Flocs are masses of aerobic bacteria and fungi.
100. Answer (4) 122. Answer (3)
101. Answer (2) Organic farming is biofertilizer.
102. Answer (3) 123. Answer (2)
103. Answer (2) Fermentation by yeast.
124. Answer (2)
Both have polymerising activity in 5 3 direction.
It is a variety of okra.
104. Answer (2)
125. Answer (2)
Thymine (5-methyl uracil) is found in DNA.
126. Answer (1)
105. Answer (4) 127. Answer (4)
Repeating unit is nucleosome which has 200 bp. Garden pea
106. Answer (2) 128. Answer (3)
Based on transduction principle 129. Answer (1)

107. Answer (4) Chlorella and Spirulina are autotrophs.

130. Answer (3)
108. Answer (2)
Germplasm collection
109. Answer (3)
131. Answer (2)
Promoter site is recognised
Low nitrogen and high aspartic acid.

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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016 Test - 6 (Code A) (Answers & Hints)
132. Answer (4) 150. Answer (2)
PEG and electrofusion. Entamoeba histolytica is parasite of large intestine
133. Answer (1) in humans, particularly in colon.

134. Answer (4) 151. Answer (4)

Meristem is best suited for obtaining virus free plants. 152. Answer (4)
135. Answer (4) Tinea cruris involves groin and perineum region.
Pusa Sadabahar is a disease resistant variety of 153. Answer (2)
chilli.
154. Answer (3)
136. Answer (3)
Severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID) is an
Haemoglobin appears in urine during Plasmodium immunodeficiency disorder in which both B cells and
falciparum infection. T cells are absent.
137. Answer (4) 155. Answer (4)
Tetanus, plague and diphtheria are bacterial
Plasma cells (Effector B cells) secrete antibodies.
diseases.
156. Answer (2)
138. Answer (1)
157. Answer (4)
Interferons are glycoproteins
158. Answer (2)
139. Answer (3)
Sebun, Bile, lysozyme in tears and saliva, HCl in Presence of free caudal vertebrae is a reptilian
stomach are all parts of physiological barriers of feature.
innate immunity. 159. Answer (4)
140. Answer (1) Hyracotherium (Eohippus) is Dawn horse.
Bursa of Fabricius in birds is site for B cell 160. Answer (1)
development.
161. Answer (3)
141. Answer (3)
Different types of mouth parts in insects is an
142. Answer (2)
example of homologous organs.
Plague Wayson stain test, Syphilis Wasserman
162. Answer (4)
test.
Before industrialisation there were more white winged
143. Answer (1)
moths as they remain unnoticed due to lichen
IgA 15% of total antibody count. background on tree trunks.
144. Answer (4) 163. Answer (4)
These cannot be grown in culture media. Mendels laws of inheritance and theory of continuity
145. Answer (2) of germplasm discarded inheritance of acquired
146. Answer (4) characters.

Hay fever is characterised by swollen, reddened, 164. Answer (3)

running eyes and nose. 165. Answer (4)
147. Answer (4) Homo sapiens fossilis 1650 CC, orthognathous
IgA is secretory antibody. cove paintings, skin cloth.
148. Answer (4) 166. Answer (2)
Rest are caused by endotoxins. Origin of vascular plants occurred in Silurian period.
149. Answer (1) 167. Answer (2)
Favi-ribo virus causes Dengue. Rabies is caused by Lemur and spotted cuscus exhibit adaptive
Rhabdo virus. convergence.

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Test - 6 (Code A) (Answers & Hints) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016

168. Answer (3) 175. Answer (3)

169. Answer (2) Coprolites Faecal pellets preserved as fossil
Loss of limbs in snakes due to creeping in narrow Palynofossils and Microfossils Fossil of spores
burrows for avoiding enemies was given by Lamarck and pollen grains.
to support his theory. 176. Answer (2)
170. Answer (4) Upper eyelid, cerebellum and alveoli of lungs are not
The phrase Survival of fittest was first used by vestigial.
Herbert Spencer 177. Answer (3)
171. Answer (2)
Tendrils of Passiflora and Pisum sativum are
172. Answer (2) analogous organs.
Fact. 178. Answer (4)
173. Answer (3) 179. Answer (1)
174. Answer (1)
180. Answer (3)

  

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