Medical Major Test - 01

PHYSICS
1. A particle is thrown horizontally from the top of a tower of height H. The angle made by velocity of particle
before hitting the ground is 45 with the horizontal. What is the horizontal range of particle?
(a) H (b) 2H (c) 3H (d) 4H
2. If position (in meter) of a particle moving in straight line is given by x t 2 2t 1 (where t is time in second).
The distance travelled by particle in first two second is
(a) zero (b) 2 m (c) 4 m (d) 3 m
3/2
3. A body is in rectilinear motion with an acceleration given by a = 2v . If particle starts its motion from origin
with a velocity of 4 ms1, the position x of the particle at an instant in terms of v can be given as
1 1
(a) x (b) v x 2 (c) v x (d) v 2x 1
v 2
1
4. The equation of trajectory of an oblique projectile is y x x 2 . The time period of projectile will be
2
2 3 4 2 2
(a) (b) (c) (d)
g g g g

5. Acceleration-time graph of a particle, starting from rest in straight line, is

shown in adjacent figure, then a
(a) displacement of particle will first increases then decreases.
(b) velocity of the particle will first increases then decreases.
(c) displacement of particle continuously increases. t
(d) speed of the particle first increases in a direction then becomes zero
and finally increases in opposite direction.
6. A ball is thrown vertically upwards with a speed of 10 m/s from the top of a tower 200 m high and another is
thrown vertically downwards with the same speed simultaneously. The time difference between them in
reaching the ground in seconds (g = 10ms2) is
(a) 12 (b) 6 (c) 2 (d) 1
7. Rain is falling vertically downwards with a velocity of 3 km/hr. A man walks in the rain with a velocity of 4
km/hr. The raindrops will fall on the man with a velocity of
(a) 1 km/hr (b) 3 km/hr (c) 4 km/hr (d) 5 km/hr
8. A boat which has a speed of 5 m/s in still water crosses the river of width 25 m in 10 seconds. The boat is
heading at an angle of with downstream, where is equal to
(a) 150 (b) 120 (c) 90 (d) 60
100
9. A particle is moving on a circular path of radius m in such a way that magnitude of its velocity varies
19
with time as v 2t 2 t , where v is velocity in m/s and t is time in s. The acceleration of the particle at t = 2 s
is
(a) 21 m/s2 (b) 9 m/s2 (c) 10 m/s2 (d) 13.5 m/s2

10. If r bti ct 2 j where b and c are positive constants, the velocity vector make an angle of 45 with the x and y
axes at t equal to
b b c c
(a) (b) (c) (d)
2c c 2b b

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 Medical Major Test - 01

11. During an accelerated motion of a particle (initial velocity of particle is zero)

(a) average velocity of the particle is always less than its final velocity
(b) average velocity of the particle is always greater than its final velocity
(c) average velocity of the particle may be zero
(d) average velocity of the particle is half its final velocity
12. The velocity time graph of a particle starting from rest from v (m/s)
4
a point P is shown here. Particle will reach P again, after
staring from P in time 2

(a) 8s (b) 10s

8 t (s)
(c) 12s (d) 16s 6

13. Position-time curve of a body moving along a straight line is x

shown in figure. The velocity-time curve for the motion of

the particle will be t
v
v v v
(a) t (b) (c) t (d)
t t

14. The position vector r of a moving particle at time t after the start of the motion is given by

r (2t 3t 2 )i 2tj t 2 k . The time t, when acceleration is perpendicular to velocity, is
(a) 1 s (b) 0.5 s (c) 0.3 s (d) 0.25 s
15. If the speed of light (c), acceleration due to gravity (g) and pressure (p) are taken as fundamental units, the
dimensional formula of gravitational constant (G) will be
(a) c0 g p3 (b) c 2 g 3 p2 (c) c0 g 2 p1 (d) c 2 g 2 p 2
16. The velocity of water waves may depend on their wavelength , the density of water and the acceleration
due to gravity g. The method of dimensions gives the relation between these quantities as
(a) v 2 g 1 1 (b) v 2 g (c) v 2 g (d) v 2 g 1 2
17. Error in the measurement of radius of sphere is 2%. Then error in the calculation of volume will be
(a) 1% (b) 5% (c) 3% (d) 6%
18. The diameter of a wire is measured with a screw gauge having 50 divisions on circular scale and by one
complete rotation of circular scale, main scale moves 0.5 mm. If reading of screw gauge is 0.250 cm. The
minimum percentage error in the reading will be
(a) 0.4 (b) 0.8 (c) 4 (d) 5
y
19. Energy due to position of a particle is given by, U , where and are constants, y is distance. The
y
dimensions of ( ) are
(a) [M0LT0] (b) [M1/2 L3/2 T 2 ] (c) [M 0 L7/ 2 T 0 ] (d) [ML7 /2 T 2 ]

20. If two non-zero vectors A & B obey the relation A B A B , the angle between them is

(a) 1200 (b) 900 (c) 600 (d) 00

21. If | A.B || A B | , then the resultant of A and B is

(a) A B (b) A B (c) A 2 B2 (d) A 2 B2 2AB

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 Medical Major Test - 01

22. Maximum and minimum values of the resultant of two forces acting at a point are 7 N and 3N respectively.
The smaller force is equal to
(a) 21 (b) 4N (c) 2N (d) 5N

23. If A = 2 i 3j and B = 2 k , then what is the value of A.B .
(a) 0 (b) -2 (c) 2 13 (d) cannot be found

24. If A = 2 i 3j and B = 2 k , what is the value of ( A B ) ?
(a) ( 6i 4j ) (b) ( 6i 4j ) (c) ( 6i 4j ) (d) ( 6i 4j )

25. If A, B,C represent unit vectors in each case, which vector combination(s) result in a unit vector?

C


V C
V B V B
(1) (2)

V A
V A

V B
V B
(3) (4)
A
V C V A V

V C

(a) 1, 2,3 (b) 1, 3 (c) 1, 2, 4 (d) 4

dy
26. If y = 2 tan x find
dx
sec 2 x tan x
(a) 2 sec2 x (b) (c) x sec 2 x (d)
x x
/ 2
27. If I = sin 2x dx , the value of I will be
0

1 1
(a) 1 (b) - 1 (c) (d)
2 2

28. The slope of curve y = 2 sec x tan x at x = will be
6
8
(a) zero (b) 1 (c) (d) none of these
3
29. Area of curve y = 2x3 3x2 + 4 from x1 = - 1 to x2 = 1 will be
(a) 0 (b) 2 (c) 6 (d) 10
30. If y = 3 sin x cos x , then there will be maxima corresponding to x equal to

(a) 0 (b) (c) (d)
3 6 2

31. The diagonal of a parallelogram are represented by vectors A 5i 4j 3k and B 3i 2j k . Area of the
parallelogram is
(a) 171 unit (b) 72 unit (c) 171 unit (d) 72 unit

32. The vector component of A 2i j 2k in the direction of B 4i 3k is given by
14 14 1 1
(a)
9

2i j 2k (b)
25

4i 3k (c)
9
2i j 2k (d)
25

4i 3k
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 Medical Major Test - 01

33. Two vectors A and B lie in a plane. Another vector C lies outside this plane. The resultant A B C of
these three vectors
(a) can be zero (b) can not be zero

(c) lies in the plane of A B (d) lies in the plane of A B
34. Two forces P and Q acting at a point are such that if P is reversed, the direction of the resultant is turned
through 90. Then
Q
(a) P = Q (b) P = 2Q (c) P (d) No relation between P and Q.
2
35. When the number 6.03587 is rounded off up to the second place of decimals, it becomes
(a) 6.035 (b) 6.04 (c) 6.03 (d) none of these
36. The length of a rod is measured by four different instruments and the measurements are reported as
(A) 500.0 MM (B) 50.0 CM (C) 0.500 M (D) 5.0 104 KM
We can conclude that
(a) (A) is most accurate measurement (b) (C) is most accurate measurement
(c) (A), (C) and (B) are equally accurate measurements
(d) the accuracy of all the measurements is the same
37. The parallex of a heavenly body measured from two points diametrically opposite on the equator of earth is
1.0 minute. If the radius of earth is 6400 km, find the distance of the heavenly body from the centre of earth in
AU. Take 1 AU = 1.5 1011 m.
(a) 0.293 AU (b) 0.28 AU (c) 2.01 AU (d) 3.97 AU
10 10
4.4 10 4.4 10
38. Two resistance r 11
0.293 AU r 0.293 AU R1= (2 .0.2) and R2= (1 .0.1) are
1.5 10 1.5 1011
connected in parallel. Then the % error in the combination will be
(a) 10 % (b) 20 % (c) 30 % (d) 40 %
39. A particle starting from rest undergoes a rectilinear motion with a(m/s2)
acceleration a. The variation of a with time t is shown in the figure.
10
The maximum velocity attained by the particle during the motion is
(a) 55 m/s (b) 550 m/s
(c) 110 m/s (d) 650 m/s 11 t(s)

40. An aircraft flying horizontally at 360 km/hr releases a bomb (with zero velocity relative to the aircraft) at a
stationary tank 200 m away from a point just below the aircraft. What must be the height of the aircraft above
the tank if the bomb is to hit the tank?
(a) 100 m (b) 9.8 m (c) 19.6 m (d) 98 m
Assertion and Reason
Directions: This question consists of two statements each, printed as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). While answering
these questions you are required to choose any one of the following four responses.
(a) If both Assertion and the Reason are true and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both the Assertion and the Reason are true but the Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If the Assertion is true but the Reason is false.
(d) If both the Assertion and the Reason are false.
41. A : Horizontal range is same for angle of projection and (90-)
R : Horizontal range is independent of angle of projection.

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 Medical Major Test - 01

42. A : The displacement-time graph of a particle moving in a straight line with constant acceleration will be
a parabola.
R : Acceleration is constant and hence the distance travelled by the particle increases continuously.
43. A : If a man can throw a stone up to a maximum height of 50 m, he can throw the stone up to a maximum
horizontal distance of 100 m.
R : For maximum range the angle of projection should be 45.
44. A : A body started from rest, after time t its speed is v0/2. In the next interval of time t its speed increases
to v0. The body is moving with uniform acceleration.
R : In case of uniformly accelerated motion speed must increases equally in equal interval of time.
45. A : If an equation is dimensionally consistent, it must be correct.
R : A correct equation may not be dimensionally consistent.

CHEMISTRY
46. The number of molecules in 16 g of methane is
(a) 3.0 1023 (b) 6.02 1023 (c) 4.5 1022 (d) 3.6 1023
47. Suppose 1017 J of light energy is needed by the interior of human eye to see an object. The photons of green
light ( = 550 nm) needed to see the object are
(a) 27 (b) 28 (c) 29 (d) 30
48. The periodic table of the elements does not
(a) Reveal regularities in the occurrence of elements with similar properties
(b) Permit us to make accurate guess of the properties of undiscovered elements
(c) Tells us arrangement of atoms in a molecule
(d) Include the inert gas
49. What transition in He+ ion shall have the same wave number as the first line in Balmer series of hydrogen
atom?
(a) 3 2 (b) 6 4 (c) 5 3 (d) 7 5
50. The percentage of oxygen in NaOH is
(a) 40 (b) 16 (c) 8 (d) 1
51. If the total energy of an electron in a hydrogen like atom in an excited state is 3.4 eV, then the de Broglie
wavelength of the electron is
(a) 6.6 1010 m (b) 3 1010 m (c) 5 109 m (d) 9.3 1012 m
52. Arrange the elements with the following electronic configurations in the increasing order of electron affinity
(i) IS2 2S2 2P2 (ii) IS2 2S2 2P4 (iii) IS2 2S2 2P3 (iv) IS2 2S2 2Pb 3S23P4
(a) i < ii < iii < iv (b) iv < iii < ii < i (c) iii < ii < iv < i (d) ii < iii < i < iv
53. The approximate quantum number of a circular orbit of diameter, 20.6 nm of the hydrogen atom according to
Bohrs theory is
(a) 10 (b) 14 (c) 12 (d) 16
54. The number of mole of CO2 left after removing 1021 molecules from 200mg of CO2 will be
(a) 2 103 mole (b) 3 104 mole (c) 3 103 mole (d) 103 mole
55. An ion Mna+ has the magnetic moment equal to 4.9 B.M. The value of a is
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 2 (d) 5

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 Medical Major Test - 01

56. Among the following pairs of compounds, the one that illustrates the law of multiple proportions is
(a) CuO and Cu2O (b) CS2 and FeSO4 (c) NH3 and NCl3 (d) H2S and SO2
57. Which of the following metal is expected to have the highest third ionization enthalpy?
(a) Cr(Z = 24) (b) V(Z = 23) (c) Mn(Z = 25) (d) Fe(Z = 26)
58. Molar mass of water if it contains 50% heavy water (D2O) is
y2M y 3 M y 2 M y 3 M
(a) (b) (c) (d)
224 3 x 224 2 x 22400 3 x 22400 2 x
13.6
59. The energy for an electron is an orbit of hydrogen atom is given by; E n 2 Z2 eV .
n
Calculate the energy of the orbit having a radius 9r1 where r1 is the radius of first orbit?
(a) 1.51 eV (b) 10.2 eV (c) 13.6 eV (d) 1.36 eV
60. Molar mass of water if it contains 50% heavy water (D2O) is
(a) 18 g mol-1 (b) 19 g mol-1 (c) 20 g mol-1 (d) 21 g mol-1
61. The maximum wavelength of light that can excite an electron from first to third orbit of hydrogen atom is
(a) 487 nm (b) 170 nm (c) 103 nm (d) 17 nm
62. 0.5 g of fuming H2SO4 (Oleum) is diluted with water. This solution is completely neutralized by 26.7 mL of
0.4 M NaOH. The percentage of free SO3 in the sample is
(a) 30.6% (b) 40.6% (c) 20.6% (d) 50%
63. The total energy of the electron in the hydrogen atom in the ground state is 13.6 eV. The KE of this electron
is
(a) 13.6 eV (b) Zero (c) 13.6 eV (d) 6.8 eV
64. In an atom, two electrons move around the nucleus in circular orbits of radii R and 4R. The ratio of the time
taken by them to complete one revolution is
(a) 1 : 4 (b) 4 : 1 (c) 1 : 8 (d) 8 : 7
65. The number of orbitals that could be associated with principal quantum number are
(a) n2 (b) 2n2 (c) n2 + 2 (d) n2 2
66. If kinetic energy of a proton is increased nine times the wavelength of the de-Broglie wave associated with it
would becomes
(a) 3 times (b) 9 times (c) 1/3 times (d) 1/9 times
67. The radius of Bohrs first orbit in H atom is 0.053 nm. The radius of second orbit in He+ would be
(a) 0.0265 nm (b) 0.0530 nm (c) 0.1060 nm (d) 0.2120 nm
68. Different proportions of oxygen in the various oxides of nitrogen, prove the law of
(a) reciprocal proportions (b) multiple proportions
(c) constant proportions (d) conservation of mass
69. The Bohrs energy equation for H atom reveals that the energy level of a shell is given by E = 13.58/n2 eV.
The smallest amount that an H atom will absorb in ground state is
(a) 1.0 eV (b) 3.39 eV (c) 6.79 eV (d) 10.19 eV
70. A compound was found to contain nitrogen 28g and oxygen 80 g. The formula of the compound is (N =
14, O = 16)
(a) NO (b) N 2 O3 (c) N 2 O5 (d) N 2 O 4
71. The total energy in 1st orbit of hydrogen atom is given by
2 2 k 2 e4 m 22 k 2 e 2 m 2 2 k 2 e4 m 22 k 2 e 4 m
(a) (b) (c) (d)
h3 h2 h2 h2

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 Medical Major Test - 01

72. Assuming full decomposition, the volume of CO2 released at STP on heating 9.85 g of BaCO3 (Atomic mass
of Ba = 137) will be
(a) 0.84 L (b) 2.24 L (c) 4.06 L (d) 1.12 L
73. Which of the following pairs has almost same atomic radii?
(a) Al, Ga (b) Be, Mg (c) Mg. Al (d) B, Be
74. If iodized salt contains 1% KI and a person takes 1gm of the salt everyday the iodide ions going into his body
every day would be approximately
(a) 72.5 1018 (b) 3.6 1017 (c) 7.2 1018 (d) 3.6 1018
75. The correct order of Ionic size in Polar solvent is
(a) Li Na K Pb (b) Rb K Na Li
(c) K Na Li Rb (d) Rb Na K Li
76. A gaseous mixture contains oxygen and nitrogen in the ratio of 1:4 by weight. The ratio of number of
molecules is
(a) 1:4 (b) 2:7 (c) 7:32 (d) 3:16
77. According to Bohr's postulates which quantity can taken up only discrete values?
(a) momentum (b) potential energy (c) kinetic energy (d) angular momentum
78. Which of the following ionic radius would be maximum?
(a) C4 (b) N3 (c) Mg 2 (d) O 2
79. The statement that is not correct for the periodic classification of elements?
(a) The properties of the elements are the periodic functions of their atomic numbers
(b) Non-Metallic elements are lesser in number than metallic elements
(c) The first ionization energies of elements along a period do not vary in a regular manner with increase in
atomic number
(d) For transition elements the d-subshells are filled with electrons monotonically with increase in atomic
number.
80. Which of the following oxides is not expected to react with sodium hydroxide?
(a) BeO (b) B2O3 (c) CaO (d) SiO2
81. Which of the following atoms would be paramagnetic?
(a) Be (b) Zn (c) N (d) Ca
82. Which one of the following indicates the correct order of atomic size?
(a) F < Ne < Be < C (b) Ne > Be > C > F (c) Be < C < F < Ne (d) Be < C < F < Ne
83. The values of electronegativity of atom A and B are 1.20 and 4.0 respectively. The percentage of ionic
character of A B bond is
(a) 55.3% (b) 73.6% (c) 43% (d) 50%
84. An atom has electronic configuration 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p6, 3d3, 4s2. To which group does in belong?
(a) Third (b) Second (c) First (d) Fifth

85. In the process, Cl (g) + e
Cl g , H is
H

(a) positive (b) zero (c) negative (d) unpredictable

Assertion and Reason
86. A : NO ion is isoelectronic with CN ion

R : Isoelectronic ions have same number of electrons and protons.

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 Medical Major Test - 01

87. A : 22.4 L of ethane at N.T.P contains one mole of hydrogen molecules.

R : One mole of hydrogen molecules at N.T.P occupies 44.8 L of volumes.
88. A : The 19th electron in potassium atom enters into 4s-orbital and not 3d orbital.
R : The energy of orbital can be compared with the help of (n + ) rules.
89. A : NaCl imparts Golden yellow colour to the flame.
R : Sodium has low ionization energy.
90. A : An orbital cannot have more than two electrons.
R : The two electrons in an orbital create opposite magnetic field.

BOTANY
91. Which among the following is the correct statement for growth as one of the characteristic feature of living
organisms?
(a) Growth can be extrinsic or intrinsic occurs continuously throughout their life span.
(b) In animals, growth by cell division occurs continuously throughout their life span.
(c) Growth and reproduction are mutually exclusive event in majority of lower animals.
(d) Intrinsic growth is characteristic of all living organisms.
92. In taxonomic hierarchy, which of the following group of taxa will have less number of similarities as
compared to another?
(a) Solanum, Petunia & Datura (b) Felidae, Canidae & Hyaenidae
(c) Solanaceae, Convolvulaceae & Poaceae (d) Primata, Rodentia & Carnivora
93. Select the correct match:
Column I Column-II
(A) Analytical in nature (i) Monograph
(B) Ex-situ conservation (ii) Royal Botanical Garden, Kew
(C) Quick referral system (iii) Key
(D) Contains informations of any one taxon (iv) Herbarium
Options:
[A] [B] [C] [D]
(a) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(b) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(c) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(d) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
94. The equivalent rank of mammalia in taxonomic categories of house fly and mango are respectively:
(a) Insecta & Dicotyledoneae (b) Diptera & Spindales
(c) Muscidae & Anacardiaceous (d) Diptera & Dicotyledonae
95. Binomial nomenclature means:
(a) One name given by two scientists.
(b) One scientific name consisting of a family and specific names.
(c) Two names, one scientific, other local.
(d) One scientific name consisting of a generic and specific epithet.

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 Medical Major Test - 01

96. Mayrs biological concepts of species is mainly based on:

(a) Morphological traits (b) Reproductive isolation
(c) Modes of reproduction (d) Morphology and reproduction
97. External and internal structure along with the structure of cell, development process and ecological
informations of organisms are essential for:
(a) Systematic (b) Classification (c) Taxonomy (d) Binomial nomenclature
98. Read the following statements carefully and select correct option.
(A) In zoological parks animals are kept in protected human care.
(B) Key is taxonomic aid used for identification of plants and animals based on similarities among them.
(C) In herbarium sheet, local names are not mentioned.
(D) Taxonomic aids are useful in knowing bioresources.
Options:
(a) A & D (b) A, B, & D (c) B, C & D (d) A, B, C & D
99. Term systematic was derived from ___________ word systema which means _________.
(a) Greek, representation of taxonomic categories in hierarchy.
(b) Greek, evolutionary classification.
(c) Latin, systematic arrangement of organisms.
(d) Latin, representation of rank or category.
100. Actual account of habitat and distribution of plants of a given area is provided by:
(a) Manuals (b) Catalogues (b) Monograph (d) flora
101. In three kingdom classification, the kingdom protista includes:
(a) Unicellular prokaryotic organisms only
(b) Unicellular eukaryotic organisms only
(c) All unicellulars, microorganisms as well as most aquatic eukaryotes
(d) Unicellulars as well as multicellulars mostly aquatic eukaryotes
102. Which among the following is not the basis of five kingdom classification proposed by Whittaker?
[A] Cell structure [B] Thallus Organization
[C] Mode of Nutrition [D] Reserved food mateiral
[E] Reproduction [F] Phylogenetic relationship
Options
(a) B & F (b) B only (c) D & F (d) D only
103. What is nucleoid?
(a) DNA and RNA with free ends
(b) Circular DNA packaged with polyamines
(c) Circular single stranded DNA with histone proteins
(d) Linear single stranded DNA without histone proteins
104. Presence of branched chain of lipids in cell membrane ensures:
(a) Capability of methanogens to convert CO2, HCOOH etc. into methane
(b) Insensitivity of mycoplasma to penicillin
(c) Capability of thermoacidophiles to withstand in high temperature and high acidity
(d) All the above
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 Medical Major Test - 01

105. Find out the incorrect statement w.r.t bacterial reproduction.

(a) Bactria reproduce mainly by fission.
(b) Sometimes, under favourable conditions they produce spores
(c) They also reproduce by sort of sexual reproduction by adopting a primitive type of DNA transfer from
one bacterium to the other.
(d) Binary fission is a type of asexual reproduction.
106. Which among the following is not the animal characteristic of Euglena?
(a) Presence of contractile vacuole (b) Presence of longitudinal binary fission
(c) Presence of proteinaceous pellicle (d) Presence of holophytic nutrition
107. The characteristic photosynthetic pigments in cyanonacteria are:
(a) Chlorophyll a and c (b) Chlorophyll a and carotenes
(c) Chlorophyll a and phycobillins (d) Chlorophyll a & b, carotenoids and phycobillins
108. Unicellular, biflagellate, heterokont, showing bioluminescence, production of taxins and causal organisms of
red tide:
These are the characteristic features of-
(a) Dinoflagellates (b) Diatoms (c) Cyanobacteria (d) Chrysophytes
109. Heterocytous organisms are:
(a) Mycoplasma & Cyanobateria (b) Archaebacteria & Eubacteria
(c) Diatmos and Desmids (d) Nostoc and Anabaena
110. How many statements is/are incorrect w.r.t slime moulds?
(i) These are found in decaying twigs and leaves and engulf organic material saprophytically.
(ii) During favourable conditions the plasmodium forms fruiting bodies.
(iii) Slime moulds may or may not possess cell wall but their spores possess true walls.
(iv) Under unfavourable conditions slime moulds form an aggregation called plasmodium which is extremely
resistant and can survive for many years.
(v) Spores are formed at the tips of fruiting bodies and dispersed by water current.
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3
111. Match the Column I with Column II
Column-I Column-II
[A] Albugo [i] Edible fungi
[B] Neurospora [ii] Used in genetic work
[C] Alternaria [iii] Help in mineral cycling
[D] Morels [iv] Parasitic fungi of mustard
[A] [B] [C] [D]
(a) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(b) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(c) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(d) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
112. Fungi with cellulosic wall belong to the class:
(a) Phycomycetes (b) Zygomycetes
(c) Ascomycetes (d) Fungi do not contain cellulosic cell wall
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113. Choose incorrect match w.r.t different classes of fungi, their asexual spores and form of
sexual reproduction.
(a) Zygomycetes- sporangiospores - gametangial conjugation
(b) Ascomycetes zoospores shorter dikaryophase
(c) Basidiomycetes no asexual spores somatogamy
(d) Deuteromycetes conidia sexual reproduction is not known
114. Find out incorrect statement w.r.t basidiomycetes.
(a) These grow is soil, on logs and tree stumps and in living plant bodies as parasites.
(b) Sex organs are absent.
(c) The basidiospores are endogenously produced on the basidium.
(d) Vegetative reproduction by fragmentation is common.
115. Secondary mycelium is long lived and constitute dominant phase in the life cycle:
(a) Bracket fungi (b) Sac fungi (c) Algal fungi (d) Ray fungi
116. Ascospore in sac fungi is a _____________ that is formed _______________.
(a) Meiospore, exogenously (b) Meiospore, endogenously
(c) Mitospore, exogenously (d) Mitospore, endogenously
117. Mark the incorrect match of disease and causal organism.
(a) Early blight of potato Alternaria solani
(b) Loose smut of wheat Ustilago nuda tritici
(c) Ergot of rye Claviceps purpurea
(d) White rust of cruciferae Colletotrichum falcatum

118. Difference between a red sea and red tide is:

(a) Associated with a cyanobacteria and protist respectively.
(b) Red tides takes place in red sea.
(c) Associated with dinoflagellates and diatoms respectively.
(d) One is by an archaebacteria and other is by dinoflagellate, respectively.
119. In mycorrhizal association, the function of fungal hypae is:
(a) Provide nourishment to the cells directly and also by small projections into cortical cells.
(b) Excretion of sugar and other soluble ingredients.
(c) Enhance supply of water, nitrogen, phosphorus & other minerals.
(d) Increase of N2-fixation ability.
120. Helotism is:
(a) Vesicular Arbuscular mycorrhiza.
(b) Heterothallism observed in Rhizopus.
(c) Master and slave relationship in lichens.
(d) Combined term given to endomycorrhiza and ectomycorrhiza.
121. Select incorrect statement w.r.t T4 bacteriophage.
(a) It has polygonal prismatic head. (b) It has contractile tail without tail sheath.
(c) It contains six tail fibres. (d) It posses double stranded DNA as genetic material.

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 Medical Major Test - 01

122. Viruses possess all the following properties, except:

(a) Presence of protoplasm (b) High specific gravity
(c) Ability to multiply in host cell (d) Occurrence of mutations
123. Consider these statements and mark true or false for them.
[i] Molecular weight of a viroid is low.
[ii] Capsid is the outer protein coat made up of subunits called capsomeres.
[iii] Viruses can be killed by autoclaving and ultraviolet rays.
[iv] Viruses have ability to get crystallized and respire.
Options:
[i] [ii] [iii] [iv]
(a) True True False True
(b) False False True True
(c) False True False False
(d) True True True False
124. Endospores formed by bacteria are actually means for:
(a) Sexual reproduction (b) Perennation
(c) Production of toxins (d) Red snow formation
125. Give one word for the following from the given options
[A] Chief producers in oceans
[B] Good pollution indicator
[C] Association of fungi with roots of higher plants.
[D] Fruiting body of sac fungi.
A B C D
(a) Dianoflagellate Lichens Mycelium Ascocarp
(b) Diatoms Lichens Mycorrhiza Basidiocarp
(c) Diatoms Lichens Mycorrhiza Ascocarp
(d) Dinoflagellate Fungi Mycelium Ascocarp
126. Which of the following statement is not correct about different classification system?
(a) Plant and animal kingdoms have been constant under all different systems.
(b) Understanding of which groups /organisms be included under these kingdoms have been changing.
(c) Number and nature of other kingdoms have also been understood differently by different scientist over
time.
(d) Once an organism is placed to one kingdom then its position is permanent.
127. In R.H Whittaker five kingdom classification, how many kingdoms include heterotrophic organisms and how
many kingdoms include autotrophic organisms?
(a) 3, 2 (b) 4, 3 (c) 5, 2 (d) 2, 3

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 Medical Major Test - 01

128. Identify the blanks in the following figure:-

A dividing Bacteria Nostoc

(a) A Cell wall, B Cell membrane, C Heterocyst, D DNA, E Mucilagenous sheath
(b) A Cell wall, B Cell membrane, C DNA, D Heterocyst, E Mucilagenous sheath
(c) A Mucilagenous sheath, B Cell membrane, C DNA, D Heterocyst, E Cell wall
(d) A Cell membrane, B Cell wall, C DNA, D Heterocyst, E Mucilagenous sheath
129. Study the diagram given below and mark the correct
option.
(A) It is two bacterial cell undergoing conjugation
(B) It is main mode of reproduction in bacteria
(C) It is bacteria undergoing fission
(D) It is structure formed by bacterium under
unfavorable conditions
(a) A and B are correct (b) B and C are correct (c) C and D are correct (d) A and D are correct
130. Find out the set of correct statements for the given diagram.
(i) Protein rich layer called pellicle makes their body flexible.
(ii) Though they are photosynthetic but when deprived of sunlight they
behave like heterotrophs.
(iii) Pigments in them are identical to those present in plants.
(iv) They have two equal flagella.
(a) 1, 2, 3 (b) 2, 3, 4 (c) 1, 2, 4 (d) 1, 3, 4
Assertion and Reason
131. A : Species is a genetically closed system
R : It is because the reproductive isolation constitutes the most important boundary between different
species.
132. A : Rosa indica is a taxon and species is its category.
R : Taxon is an abstract term representing a rank in classification.
133. A : MLOs are pleomorphic and non-motile monerans.
R : They are resistant to antibiotics like penicillin.
134. A : Viroids are not included in five kingdom system
R : They are acellular.
135. A : Lichens do not grow in polluted area having SO2
R : They reproduce through isidia.

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 Medical Major Test - 01

ZOOLOGY
136. Match the following
Animal Level of body organisation
(A) Planaria (i) Tissue level
(B) Locusta (ii) Organ system level
(C) Sycon (iii) Cellular level
(D) Pleurobrachia (iv) Organ level
(a) A-(ii), B- (iv), C-(i), D-(iii) (b) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(ii)
(c) A-(iv), B- (ii), C- (iii), D-(i) (d) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv)
137. How many of the following features are not applicable to Ophiura.
(i) Triploblastic & coelomate body condition (ii) Absence of specialised excretory system
(iii) Sexes are not separate (iv) Direct development
(v) Complete digestive system with dorsal mouth & ventral anus.
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 2 (d) 1
138. Doliolium and Branchiostoma
(a) Have notochord extending from head to tail (b) Are found in marine habitat
(c) Have ventral solid nervous system (d) Are triploblastic and asymmetrical
139. Sucking and circular mouth without jaws is present in
(a) Pristis and Petromyzon (b) Neophron and Myxine
(c) Balaenoptera and Pterophyllum (d) Petromyzon & Myxine
140. Mostly marine, radially symmetrical, diploblastic animals having tentacles belong to phylum.
(a) Mollusca (b) Echinodermata (c) Coelenterata (d) Hemichordata
141. Which of the following features are applicable to Ancylostoma & Wuchereria?
(i) Complete alimentary canal with well developed muscular pharynx.
(ii) Bilateral symmetry & monoecious body form (iii) External fertilization
(iv) Triploblastic & acoelomate body condition (v) Both are endoparasites
(a) (ii), (iii) & (iv) (b) (i) & (v) (c) (iii), (iv) & (v) (d) (i), (ii), (iii)
142. Which of the following sets of animals are parasites?
(a) Apis, Ascaris, Adamsia (b) Asterias, Aplysia, Antedon
(c) Ancylostoma, Ascaris, Laccifer (d) Hirudinaria, Petromyzon, Fasciola
143. How many of the following animals are triploblastic and bilaterally symmetrical?
Echinus, Dentalium, Ascidia, Pennatula, Planaria, Limulus, Ctenoplana.
(a) 3 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 4
144. Which of the following sets of animal posses true coelom?
(a) Aplysia, Adamsia, Ancylostoma (b) Fasciola, Physalia, Pila
(c) Locusta, Pheretima, Salpa (d) Aedes, Taenia, Antedon
145. Which of the following sets of animals are oviparous with internal fertilization and direct development?
(a) Ornithorhynchus, Macropus, Pteropus. (b) Ichthyophis, Felis, Calotes.
(c) Carcharodon, Clarias, Hyla. (d) Aptenodytes, Neophron, Struthio

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 Medical Major Test - 01

146. Features mentioned below are applicable to which animal?

(i) Absence of external ear openings (ii) Poikilothermy
(iii) Terrestrial habitat (iv) Scutes present
(a) Balaenoptera (b) Bungarus (c) Exocoetus (d) Psittacula
147. Which of the following is incorrect match?
(a) Fighting fish Betta (b) Flying fish Exocoetus
(c) Devil fish Sepia (d) Silver fish Lepisma
148. Members of phylum platyhelminthes are mostly __A___ and are __B___ symmetrical, triploplastic with
____C____ body condition.
(a) A- ectoparasites, B-radially, C- psedocolomate
(b) A- endoparasites, B-radially, C- coelomate
(c) A freeliving, B-bilaterally, C-coelomate
(d) A-endoparasites, B-bilaterally, C-acoelomate
149. Which of the following group of animals belong to same phylum?
(a) Doliolium, Dentalium, Delphinus. (b) Asterias, Ascidea, Antedon
(c) Pila, Chaetopleura & Pinctada (d) Pleurobrachia, Planaria, Physalia
150. Animal shown in the given figure

(a) Is a reptile with dry & cornified skin (b) Is an amphibian with scale less skin
(c) Is terrestrial with four chambered heart (d) Has pneumatic bones & breathe through lungs
151. Mark the correct labelling w.r.t given diagram.

(a) 1- Lateral oesophageal heart, 2-Ventral vessel, 3-Lateral heart, 4-Commissural vessel
(b) 1- Anterior loops, 2-Ventral vessel, 3-Commissural vessel, 4-Lateral oesophageal hearts
(c) 1-Dorsal hearts, 2-Dorsal vessel, 3-Subneral vessel, 4-Lateral oesophageal hearts
(d) 1-Lateral hearts, 2-Lateral oesophageal vessel, 3-Lateral oesophageal hearts, 4-Anterior loops.
152. Botryoidal tissue is found in
(a) Pinworm (b) Leech (c) Cockroach (d) Cuttle fish
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 Medical Major Test - 01

153. In the given figure, the structure labelled _______ has an outer layer of thick circular muscles and thick inner
cuticle forming six highly chitinous plates called teeth.

(a) B (b) D (c) A (d) C

154. Mark the correct match w.r.t alimentary canal of Pheretima
(a) Gizzard between segment number 5 7
(b) Typhlosole Between segment number 26 35
(c) Oesophagus Between segment number 8 9
(d) Intestinal caecae 15th segment.
155. This tissue is found lining the blood vessels
(a) Simple squamous epithelium (b) Simple cuboidal epithelium
(c) Stratified squamous epithelium (d) Simple columnar epithelium
156. Which cells are excitable and, therefore, able to carry electrical impulses?
(a) Neuroglial and muscular (b) Neuroglial and nervous
(c) Nervous and epithelial (d) Muscular and nervous
157. Haversian canal is found in
(a) Femur of rabbit (b) Femur of frog
(c) Femur of pigeon (d) Both (a) & (c)
158. Main function of dense connective tissue is
(a) Storage of minerals (b) Forms stroma of organs
(c) Reducing heat loss (d) Strong attachment between structures
159. Which type of epithelium is found in proximal convoluted tubules?
(a) Simple squamous (b) Simple cuboidal
(c) Transitional epithelium (d) Keratinised epithelium
160. Which of the following are examples of tessellated epithelium?
(a) Endothelium (b) Mesothelium
(c) Pseudostratified Epithelium (d) Both (a) & (b)
161. Which of the following is not a major function of muscular tissue?
(a) Moving blood throughout the body (b) Generating heat through contractions
(c) Stopping the movement of joints (d) Storing energy

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 Medical Major Test - 01

162. Which of the below mentioned tissues has more than one nucleus and is voluntary?
(a) Skeletal muscles (b) Smooth muscles (c) Cardiac muscles (d) Nervous tissue
163. This is a band of connective tissue that surrounds fasciculus of muscle fibres.
(a) Tendon (b) Endomysium (c) Epimysium (d) Perimysium
164. Which neuroglia forms blood brain barrier?
(a) Astrocytes (b) Oligodendrocytes (c) Microglial cells (d) Ependymal cells
165. Schwann cells begin to form myelin sheaths around axons
(a) When neurons are injured (b) During foetal development
(c) After birth (d) Only in response to a disorder
166. Connective tissues does not include
(a) Osteocytes (b) Phagocytes (c) Chondrocytes (d) Hepatocytes
167. Which is NOT a major function of the blood?
(a) Transportation of nutrients (b) Protection against diseases and infection
(c) Transportation of heat (d) Production of oxygen
168. How much of blood plasma is water (approximately)?
(a) 95% (b) 91% (c) 55% (d) 60%
169. A red blood cells function is
(a) Nutrient transport (b) Haemoglobin transportation
(c) Gas transportation (d) Disease resistance
170. Which of the following performs coagulation of blood?
(a) Erythrocytes (b) Platelets (c) Lymphocytes (d) Basophils
171. Which cartilage is present at ends of long bones?
(a) Yellow elastic cartilage (b) White fibrous cartilage
(c) Hyaline cartilage (d) Calcified cartilage
172. Which of the following is replacing bone?
(a) Humerus (b) Clavicle (c) Vertebra (d) All of these
173. Where is it most likely to find transitional epithelial cells?
(a) Lining of oesophagus (b) Outer layer of skin
(c) Urinary bladder (d) Covering of skull bones
174. Common polysaccharide found in ground substance of connective tissue include
(a) Hyaluronic acid (b) Melatonin (c) Cholesterol (d) All of the above
175. Which fibres are seen embedded in the matrix of connective tissue?
(a) Elastic (b) Reticular (c) Collagen (d) All of the above

Assertion and Reason

176. A : The upper layers of the stratified squamous epithelium are periodically shed.
R : Cells of superficial layers are farthest from nutrient source and these become dehydrated, shrunken
and finally die.
177. A : Skeletal muscle fibres are also called striated muscle fibres.
R : These are called striated because when viewed under simple microscope these show alternate light
and dark bands due to arrangement of myosin and actin filaments.
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178. A : Many diploblastic animals are radially symmetrical

R : Animals in which the cells are arranged in two embryonic layers, an external ectoderm and an internal
endoderm, are called diploblastic animals.
179. A : All vertebrates are chordates but all chordates are not vertebrates.
R : Notochord is a mesodermally derived rod-like structure formed on the dorsal side during embryonic
development in some animals.
180. A : The epithelium of proximal convoluted tubules (PCT) of nephron in the kidney has microvilli
R : Function of microvilli is to increase absorptive surface area so the tubular reabsorption in PCT can be
enhanced.

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