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Mock IIT Advanced Test - 3/2013/Paper-1

12/05/2013 M.M. : 240

TEST CODE : ACEG
10:00 AM - 01:00 PM TIME : 3.00 Hrs

Read the following Instructions very carefully before you proceed.

1. Blank spaces and blank pages are provided in this booklet for your rough work.
2. Using a black ball point pen, darken the bubbles on the upper original sheet. Apply sufficient pressure
so that the impression is created on the bottom sheet.
3. Write your Name, Registration Number and the name of examination centre and sign with pen in the
boxes provided on the right part of the ORS. Do not write any of this information anywhere else. Darken
the appropriate bubble UNDER each digit of your Registration Number.
4. The question paper consists of 3 parts (Chemistry, Physics and Mathematics). Each part consists of three
sections.
5. Section I contains 12 Straight objective type questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
6. Section II contains 4 Multiple type questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of
which ONE or MORE are correct.
7. Section III contains 7 Integer (Subjective) type questions. Each question has an integer answer lying
between 0 and 9.
8. For each question in Section I, you will be given 3 Marks if you have darkened only the bubble
corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases,
minus ONE (1) marks (NEGATIVE MARKING) will be given.
9. For each question in Section II, you will be given 4 Marks if you have darkened only the bubbles
corresponding to the correct answers and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. There is NO Negative
Marking.
10. For each question in Section III, you will be given 4 Marks if you have darkened only the bubble
corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases,
minus one (1) marks (NEGATIVE MARKING) will be given.

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PART - I (CHEMISTRY) 80 MARKS

SECTION - I
STRAIGHT OBJECTIVE TYPE
This Section contains 12 Multiple Choice Questions. Each Question has 4 choices A, B, C & D, out of which
Only One is Correct :

1. Acetic acid (CH3COOH) can form a dimer (CH3COOH)2 in the gas phase.

The dimer is held together by two H-bonds with a total strength of 66.6 kJ per mol of dimer
(under standard conditions). If at 27C, the equilibrium constant for dimerisation is 103, calculate S
(approximately) for the reaction given below:






2CH3COOH(g)




(CH3COOH) 2 (g)
(A) 165 J/K (B) +279 J/K (C) 387 J/K (D) 501 J/K

2. A plot of PVm vs P is drawn for three gases as shown below:

Which of the following statement is correct?

(A) Gas 1 has minimum critical temperature and is the easiest to liquify
(B) Gas 1 has maximum critical temperature and is the easiest to liquify
(C) Gas 3 has maximum critical temperature and is the easiest to liquify
(D) Gas 3 has minimum critical temperature and is the easiest to liquify

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3. Three different solutions of oxidising agents K2Cr2O7 (M0 = 294), I2 (M0 = 254) and KMnO4 (M0 = 158)
is titrated separately with 0.19 g of K2S2O3 (M0 = 190). The molarity of each oxidising agent is 0.1 M and
the reactions are:

Cr2 O72 + S2 O32 Cr 3+ + SO 24

I 2 + S2 O32
I + S4 O62

MnO4 + S2 O32 MnO 2 + SO 42

Which of the following statements is(are) correct?

I. All three oxidising agents can act as self-indicators.
II. Volume of I2 used is minimum.
III. Volume of K2Cr2O7 used is maximum.
IV. Weight of KMnO4 used in the titration is maximum.
(A) I, IV (B) I, II, IV (C) I, III, IV (D) I, III

4. Which of the following is true about Castner Kellner Cell ?

I. Na+ ions are discharged instead of H+ ions due to high over voltage
II. Sodium metal discharged at the anode combines with mercury to form sodium amalgam
III. The sodium-mercury amalgam is treated with water to give sodium hydroxide and hydrogen gas
IV. The concentration of the brine solution used remains constant during the whole process
The correct choice is :
(A) I, II, III, IV (B) I, II, III (C) I, III (D) II, III

5. 4 HNO3 + P4 O10
4 HPO3 + Product(s), the product(s) is(are) :

(A) NO2, N2O3 and O2 (B) N2O3 and O2

(C) N2O3, O2 and N2O5 (D) Only N2O5

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For Question 6 - 7:
MeOH MeOH
D -Glucopyranose
dry HCl
(A) (B)
H SO (140C)
2 4

6. Compound (A) is :

(A) (B)

(C) (D) Both (A) and (B)

7. Compound (B) is :

(A) (B)

(C) (D) None of these

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8. Which of the following compounds show optical isomerism?

I. cis-[Co(NH3)4Cl2]+ II. trans-[Co(en)2Cl2]+
+
III. cis-[Co(en)2Cl2] IV. [Co(en)3]3+
The correct choice is :
(A) I and II (B) II and III (C) III and IV (D) I, III and IV

9. Some reactions are given below:

I. FeO + SiO2
FeSiO3

II. FeS + 3O 2
2FeO + 2SO2

III. 2Cu 2S + 3O2

2Cu 2 O + 2SO2

IV. 2Cu 2 O + Cu 2SO2

6Cu + SO2
The reactions actually taking place during bessemerisation are:
(A) I, II, III, IV (B) I, III (C) I, III, IV (D) III, IV

10. Which of the following is correct :

O O OH
|| || |
I. B is Ph C C Ph II. D is Ph C COOH
|
Ph
O
||
III. F is Ph C CH 2 Ph
(A) I, II, III (B) I, II (C) II, III (D) None of these

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11. The major product of the reaction :

(A) (B) (C) (D)

12. Relate the following compounds :

(A) Identical (B) Enantiomers (C) Diastereomers (D) Different compounds

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SECTION - II
MULTIPLE CORRECT ANSWERS TYPE
This Section contains 4 Multiple Choice Questions. Each Question has 4 choices A, B, C & D, out of which one
or More Choices may be Correct:

13. The conductivity () of 103 M Na2SO4 solution is 2.6 104 Scm1 and increases to 8 104 Scm1 when
the solution is saturated with CaSO4. The molar conductivity/conductance values of Na+ and Ca2+ are
50 Scm2 mol1 and 120 Scm2 mol1 respectively and conductivity of water is ( H2O ) is 105 Scm1.
Neglecting the distance factor answer the following:
(A) Molar conductance of sulphate ions is 150 Scm2 mol1
(B) Solubility of CaSO4 in presence of 103 M Na2SO4 is 2 103 mol / L
(C) Solubility product of CaSO4 is 6 106
(D) If distance factor is neglected then molar conductance of a weak electrolyte is independent of
dilution

14. Thallium sulphide (Tl2S) is sparingly soluble in water, however whatever amount of sulphide ions get
dissolved, are almost completely hydrolysed to HS (assume that the further hydrolysis of HS to H2S is
neglected). The solubility of thallium sulphite (Tl2S) in water (under given conditions) is 106 M.
Which of the following of true? ( Given : (K 2 ) H2S = 1014 )
(A) pH of solution is 6
(B) Ksp of Tl2S is 41024
(C) Concentration of sulphide ions ([S2]) is 1012 M
(D) Tl exists in +1 oxidation state due to inert pair effect

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15. Which of the following is true about Mn2O7 ?

(A) It is a covalent green oil
(B) Each Mn is tetrahedrally surrounded by O's and it has a Mn O Mn bridge
(C) It is iso-structural w.r.t Cl2O7
(D) The ability of oxygen to stabilise high oxidation states exceeds that of fluorine which explains
that the highest fluoride which exists is MnF4 whereas the highest oxide which exists is Mn2O7

16. Styrene undergoes following reactions in acidic medium:

The various intermediate formed are:

(A) (B) (C) (D)

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SECTION - III
SUBJECTIVE TYPE
This Section contains 7 Subjective Questions. Each question has an integer answer between 0 and 9. Fill the
answer bubbles in OMR Sheet appropriately and CAREFULLY. [Please note that an answer 5 should be filled
as 5 in the OMR sheet]
dx dx
17. A straight line was obtained on plotting log10 vs log10 (a x ) n with an intercept on log axis
dt dt
n1 1 n 1
equal to 0.6021. The rate constant for the reaction is ....................litre mole t .

18. The quantum number n, corresponding to the excited state of He+ ion, if on transition from that state to
the ground state it emits two photons in succession with wave lengths 121.5 nm and 30.4 nm, is ........

19. The total number of iron atoms present in the Prussian Blue coloured precipitate is _______

20. The freezing point of 0.05 molal NaHSO4 is 0.198C. The percentage of HSO4 ions that transfers a
proton to water is 10x %. The value of x is _____. [Assume 100% ionization of NaHSO4
and (K f ) H2O = 1.8 K molality 1 ]

21. If 1-bromo-2-butene is treated with Br2/CCl4, how many pairs of diastereomers would result?

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22. Number of amphoteric species out of Na2O, MgO, PbO, Al2O3, SnO2, BeO2, SiO2 ZnO, Al(OH)3, CaO,
SO3 and NaHCO3 is _______ .

23. How many moles of Grignard Reagent (CH3MgBr) will be required to react completely with 1 mole of
the following compound?

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PART - II (PHYSICS) 80 MARKS

SECTION - I
STRAIGHT OBJECTIVE TYPE
This Section contains 12 Multiple Choice Questions. Each Question has 4 choices A, B, C & D, out of which
Only One is Correct :

24. If an object is placed 20 cm in front of a half thin convex lens of focal

length 10 cm, as shown in figure, then co-ordinates of image taking p
as origin are:
(A) [20 cm, 0.2 cm] (B) [40 cm, 0.4 cm]
(C) [40 cm, 0.2 cm] (D) [20 cm, 0.4 cm]

25. The voltage shown in the figure is applied

to a 0.5 H inductor. The graph of current
in inductor ( iL ) versus time (t) is
represented best in:

(A) (B) (C) (D)

26. A rectangular bar of soap having density 800 kg/m3 floats in water
of density 1000 kg/m3. Oil of density 300 kg/m3 is slowly added,
forming a layer that does not mix with water. When top surface of
the oil is at the same level as the top surface of the soap, what is
the ratio of the oil layer thickness to the soaps thickness, x/L?
2 2 3 3
(A) (B) (C) (D)
10 7 10 8

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27. A particle performs simple harmonic oscillations along a straight line with a period T and amplitude a.
Magnitude of the mean velocity of the particle averaged over the time interval during which it travels a
a
distance starting from an extreme position is :
2
a 2a 3a a
(A) (B) (C) (D)
T T T 2T

28. A wire carrying a current of 3 A is bent in the form of a parabola y 2 = 4 x

as shown in figure, where x and y are in meter. The wire is placed in a
uniform magnetic field B = 5k tesla. The force acting on the wire is :
(A) 60i N (B) 60i N
(C) +30i N (D) 30i N

29. Figure shows a system of two blocks of masses 10 kg and 5 kg, connected by
ideal strings and pulleys. Here ground is smooth and friction coefficient
between the two blocks is = 0.5 . A horizontal force F is applied on lower
block as shown. The minimum value of F required to start sliding between the
blocks is: (Take g = 10 m/s2)
(A) 12.5 N (B) 25 N
(C) 50 N (D) 100 N

30. A screw gauge has 100 parts on circular scale and one rotation of a circular scale the screw advances a
distance of 1 mm. The L.C. of screw gauge is:
(A) 0.1 cm (B) 0.01 cm (C) 0.001 cm (D) 0.02 cm

31. A boy of mass 30 kg starts running from rest along a circular path of radius 6 m with constant tangential
acceleration of magnitude 2 m/s2. After 2 sec from start he feels that his shoes started slipping on ground.
The friction coefficient between his shoes and ground is: (Take g = 10 m/s2)
1 1 1 1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2 3 4 5

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32. The current in a circuit varies with time as I = 2 t . Then the rms value of the current for the interval
t = 2 to t = 4 sec is:
(A) 3A (B) 2 3A (C) 3/ 2A (D) (4 2 2) A

Paragraph Question 33 - 35
A uniform rod is lying at rest on a frictionless horizontal surface. A particle of
same mass as of the rod collides with the rod at its end at an angle from the
normal as shown in the figure. Assume that there is no friction between the rod
and particle and the collision is perfectly elastic.
33. The magnitude of the velocity of the centre of mass of the rod after collision is:
2 2
(A) v cos (B) v sin (C) v cos (D) v sin
5 5
34. The magnitude of change in angular momentum of the rod about the point O after collision is:
1 1 6
(A) zero (B) mv cos (C) mv sin (D) mv sin
5 5 5
35. The magnitude of the change in velocity of the particle after collision is:
8 2 8 2
(A) v cos (B) v cos (C) v sin (D) v sin
5 5 5 5

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SECTION - II
MULTIPLE CORRECT ANSWERS TYPE
This Section contains 4 Multiple Choice Questions. Each Question has 4 choices A, B, C & D, out of which one
or More Choices may be Correct:

36. The container containing some liquid shown in the diagram is given some small acceleration a . PA and
PB represent pressures at A and B (both are fixed in the reference from of vessel, inside the vessel)
respectively, and P0 = PA PB when the vessel is kept at rest in equilibrium:

(A) If a is directed upwards, PA PB > P0

(B) If a is directed towards right, PA PB < P0

(C) If a is directed down wards, PA PB = P0

(D) If a is directed towards left, PA PB = P0

37. A planoconvex lens ( = 1.5 ) of focal length 20 cm has its plane side silvered.
(A) The radius of curvature of its curved surface is half that of a surface of equiconvex lens of focal
length 20 cm made of same material
(B) An object placed at 15 cm on the axis on the convex side gives rise to a final image at a distance
of 30 cm from it
(C) An object placed at a distance of 20 cm on the axis on the convex side gives rise to an image at
40 cm from it
(D) It acts as a convex mirror

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4mg
38. A small block of mass m is fixed at upper end of a massless vertical spring of spring constant K =
L
and natural length 10L. The lower end of spring is free and is at a height L from fixed horizontal floor as
shown. The spring is initially unstretched and the spring block system is released from rest in the shown
position.
(A) When the speed of block is maximum, the magnitude of force
exerted by spring on the block is mg.
3
(B) The maximum speed attained by the block is gL
2
(C) The maximum compression of the spring is L / 8
(D) The time taken by the mass to move from the equilibrium
L
position to the maximum compression position is
4 g
39. In the figure shown R is a fixed conducting ring of negligible resistance and radius a. PQ is a uniform
rod of resistance r. It is hinged at the centre of the ring and rotated about this point in clockwise direction
with a uniform angular velocity . There is a uniform magnetic field of strength B pointing inwards.
r is a stationary resistance
(A) Current through r is zero.
2 Ba 2
(B) Current through r is
5r
(C) Direction of current in external r is from centre to circumference
(D) Direction of current in external r is from circumference to centre

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SECTION - III
SUBJECTIVE TYPE
This Section contains 7 Subjective Questions. Each question has an integer answer between 0 and 9. Fill the
answer bubbles in OMR Sheet appropriately and CAREFULLY. [Please note that an answer 5 should be filled
as 5 in the OMR sheet]

40. A thin double convex lens forms a real image of an object on a screen which is fixed. Now the lens is
given a constant velocity v0 along its axis and away from the screen. For the purpose of forming the
image always on the screen, the object is also required to be given an appropriate velocity. Find the
speed of the object (in m/s) at the instant its size is n times the size of image.
(Take n = 1 2 and v0 = 4 m s )

41. A circuits for the measurement of resistance by potentiometer is shown.

The galvanometer is connected at point A and zero deflection is observed at
length PJ = 30 cm . In second case the secondary cell is changed.
Take Es = 10V and r = 1 in 1st reading and Es = 5V and r = 2 in 2 nd
reading.In second case, the zero deflection is observed at length PJ = 10 cm .
What is the resistance R ( in ohm ) ?

42. A square loop of area 2.5 103 m 2 and having 100 turns with a total
resistance of 10,000 is moved out of a uniform magnetic field of 0.40 T in
1 sec with a constant speed. Then what is the work done, in pulling the loop
(in J ).

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43. Figure shows, in cross section, two solid spheres with uniformly
distributed charge throughout their volumes. Each has radius R. Point P
lies on a line connecting the centres of the spheres, at radial distance
R/2 from the center of sphere 1. If the net electric field at point P is
zero and Q1 is 8 C , what is Q2 (in C ).

44. Two bodies with a mass of 1kg each is hung on a spring of force constant 100 N/m
using an inextensible thread of length 10 cm shown. We burn the thread. If the distance
(in cm) between the two bodies when the top body first arrives at its highest position is
10x, then find x? 2 = 10

45. For hydrogen like atom, determine the number of lines in Paschen series which have a wavelength
greater than 1000 nm: [ R = 1.097 107 m 1 ]

46. A coil is connected to an alternating emf of voltage 24 V and of frequency 50 Hz. The reading on the
ammeter connected to the coil in series is 10 mA. If a 1 F capacitor is connected to the coil in series the
ammeter shows 10 mA again. What would be the approx reading on a dc ammeter (in A) if the coil was
connected to a 180 V dc voltage supply? (Take 2 = 10 )

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PART - III (MATHEMATICS) 80 MARKS

SECTION - I
STRAIGHT OBJECTIVE TYPE
This Section contains 12 Multiple Choice Questions. Each Question has 4 choices A, B, C & D, out of which
Only One is Correct :
47. O is the vertex, P and Q are end points of focal chord of parabola y 2 = 4 x . Circles with OP and OQ as
diameter intersect at R. If equation of line OR is 2y = x then the point of intersection of tangents at P and
Q is :
(A) ( 1, 0 ) (B) ( 1, 1) (C) (1, 0) (D) ( 1, 1)
48. If A is a square matrix such that :
4 0 0
Adj ( Adj A )
A ( adj A) = 0 4 0 , then is equal to :
Adj A
0 0 4
(A) 256 (B) 64 (C) 32 (D) 16

1
49. lim x 2 1 + 2 + 3 + . . . is equal to, where [.] is greatest integer function :

x0
x
3 1
(A) 1 (B) (C) (D) 2
2 2

50. a, b, c are all different and non-zero real numbers which are in arithmetic progression. If the roots of the
1 1
quadratic equation ax 2 + bx + c = 0 are and such that + , + and 2 + 2 are in

a
geometric progression, then the value of is :
c
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

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ln a a x 2 ln bb
x

dx is equal to : (where a, b R + )
51. x +
3a 5 x 2 b3 x 2a 2 x b 4 x

1 a 2 x b3 x 1 1 1
(A) 2 3
a 2 x b3 x ln +k (B) 2 3 2x 3x
ln 2 x 3x
+k
6 ln a b e 6 ln a b a b ea b

(C)
1
6 ln a b a 2 3 2x
1
b 3x ( )
ln a 2 x b3 x + k (D)
1
2 3
6 ln a b a 2x
1
b3 x
( )
ln a 2 x b3 x + k

52. A coin is tossed 2n times. The chance that the number of times one gets head is not equal to the number
of times one gets tail is :
( 2n) ! 1 2 n ( 2n ) ! ( 2n) ! 1
(A) . (B) 1 (C) 1 . (D) None of these
( n!) 2 2 ( n!) 2 ( n!) 2 4n
1 3
log5 9
+3
log 6 3 2
53. N=
81
409


( ) 7 log25 7 (125)
log 25 6
, then log 2 N has the value :


(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 1 (D) None of these

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Paragraph for Q.54 - 55

The general solution of a differential equation of the form :
dny d n 1 y dn2y
+ a1 + a2 + . . . + an y = 0 (ais being constants) is given by the following rules :
dx n dx n 1 dx n 2
(i) If the roots of the corresponding auxiliary equation
D n + a1 D n 1 + a2 D n 2 + . . . + an = 0
in D has unequal real roots 1 , 2 , 3 , . . ., n then the general solution will be :

y = c1e1 x + c2 e 2 x + . . . + cn e n x , where ci s are arbitrary constants.

(ii) If the corresponding auxiliary equation has two equal roots (say, 1 = 2 ) and the rest are unequal real
roots then the general solution will be : y = ( c1 x + c2 ) e1 x + c3e3 x + . . . + cn e n x .
(iii) If two roots of the corresponding auxiliary equation are 1 = + i , 2 = i and the rest are real
and unequal then the general solution will be : y = ( A cos x + B sin x ) e x + c3e3 x + . . . + cn e n x .
d3y d2y dy
54. The general solution of the equation 3
7 2
+ 16 12 y = 0 is :
dx dx dx
(A) c1e 2x
+ c2 e 2 x
+ c3e 3 x
(B) ( c1 x + c2 ) e2 x + c3e3 x
(C) ( c1 x + c2 ) e3 x + c3e2 x (D) ( A cos x + B sin x ) e2 x + c3e3 x
55. y = ( c1 cos x + c2 sin x ) e x + c3e x is the general solution of the equation :
d3y d2y d3y
(A) + + 2y = 0 (B) y=0
dx3 dx 2 dx3
d3y d2y d2y
(C) + 2y = 0 (D) y=0
dx3 dx 2 dx 2

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56. Statement 1 : A triangle ABC right angled at A moves so that its perpendicular sides touch the curve
x2 y2
+ = 1 all the time. Then loci of the points A, B and C are circles.
a2 b2
Statement 2 : Locus of point of intersection of two perpendicular tangents to the conic is director
circle.
(A) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True and Statement-2 is a correct explanation for Statement-1
(B) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True and Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(C) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(D) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True

57. Let f ( x ) = max ( a, b, c ) , where

n | sin x | + n | cos x |
a = lim lim
n 1+ n + n
n | sin x | + n | cos x |
b = lim lim
n 1 n + n

c = lim
2 ( n 1) . Then :
1 + cos + cos + . . . . . + cos
n 4n 2n 2n 2n
Range of f (x) is :
1 1 1
(A) [0, 1] (B) 2 , 1 (C) , 1 (D) 2 , 2
2
Paragraph for Q.58
In a ABC , radii of escribed circles are r1, r2, r3 and inradius of the circle is r.

58. A(z1) ; B(z2) ; C (z3) are vertices of a ABC in Argand plane and | z1 | = |z2 | =|z3 | = 8 then
r1 + r2 + r3 r is :
(A) 8 (B) 16 (C) 24 (D) 32

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SECTION - II
MULTIPLE CORRECT ANSWERS TYPE
This Section contains 4 Multiple Choice Questions. Each Question has 4 choices A, B, C & D, out of which one
or More Choices may be Correct:

59. A forecast is to be made of the results of five cricket matches, each of which can be a win or a draw or a
loss for Indian team. Let,
p = number of forecasts with exactly one error
q = number of forecasts with exactly three errors and
r = number of forecasts with all five errors
Then the correct statement(s) is(are) :
(A) 2q = 5r (B) 8p = q (C) 8p = 5r (D) 2( p + r) > q

60. Let a function f satisfy f ( x ) f ( x ) = f ( x ) f ( x ) x R and f (0) = 3, which of the following

statements is correct ?
(A) The value of f ( x ) f ( x ) for all real x is 9
(B) The value of f ( x ) f ( x ) for all real x is 9
51 51
1 1
(C) 3 + f ( x)
dx equals 17 (D) 3 + f ( x)
dx equals 34
51 51

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61. Which of the following statements is(are) true ?

(A) The number of non zero complex roots of equation z = iz 2 is 3
6
(B) For k = 0, 1, 2, 3..6 ; zk be the root of (z + 1)7 + z7 = 0 then Re(zk) is 7
k =0

Im ( z1 )
(C) If z1 and z1 represents adjacent vertices of a polygon of n sides and = 2 1 then n is 8
Re ( z1 )
3 + 2i sin
(D) For real ( , ) if is purely real then number of values of is only one
1 2i sin
62. Let P, A, B, C be four collinear points in order, the distances of A, B, C from P being a, b, c respectively.
If the equation :
(b a ) x2 + ( a c ) x + c b = 0 has one root double the other then
(A) B divides AC in the ratio 2 : 1 internally
(B) C divides AB in the ratio 2 : 1 externally
(C) B divides AC in the ratio 1 : 2 internally
(D) None of these

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 Vidyamandir Classes

SECTION - III
SUBJECTIVE TYPE
This Section contains 7 Subjective Questions. Each question has an integer answer between 0 and 9. Fill the
answer bubbles in OMR Sheet appropriately and CAREFULLY. [Please note that an answer 5 should be filled
as 5 in the OMR sheet]
100
63. If z 0 , then [ arg | z |] dx is where [ . ] denotes the greatest integer function :
x =0
         
64.

( ) ( ) ( ) (
If a + 2b + 3c = 0 and a b + b c + c a is equal to b c then is equal to _____. )
a1
1
1/ a a
k . n a + k a

n
65. lim
n
na + 1
is equal to _____.
k =1

66. If f (x) be a twice differentiable function from R R such that t 2 f ( x ) 2tf ( x ) + f ( x ) = 0 has two
f ( x) 1 t
equal values of t for all x and f (0) = 1, f ( 0) = 2 . Find lim .
x0 x 2
67. Let f (x) be a polynomial of degree six divisible by x3, and having a point of extremum at x = 2. If f ( x )
3 f ( 2)
is divisible by 1 + x2, find the value of .
4 f (1)
68. If r N and z = x + iy, then find number of positive integral solutions of z (i.e. both x and y are positive

integers) satisfying the equations | z + 8 | = 2 r and arg ( z 8) = is _______.
4
n
Cr + 5 n Cr + 1 + 10 n Cr + 2 + 10 n Cr + 3 + 5 nCr + 4 + n Cr + 5 n+k
69. If = . Find the value of k.
n
Cr + 4 Cr + 1 + 6 Cr + 2 + 4 Cr + 3 + Cr + 4
n n n n
r+k

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VMC/2013 24 Mock IIT Advanced Test-3/Paper-1

 Vidyamandir Classes

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End of Mock IIT Advanced Test - 3/Paper-1/2013

VMC/2013 25 Mock IIT Advanced Test-3/Paper-1