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MCQ C Language

1 What is (void*)0?

A. Representation of NULL pointer


B. Representation of void pointer
C. Error
D. None of above

Answer: Option A

2. Can you combine the following two statements into one?


char *p;
p = (char*) malloc(100);

A. char p = *malloc(100);
B. char *p = (char) malloc(100);
C. char *p = (char*)malloc(100);
D .char *p = (char *)(malloc*)(100);

Answer: Option C

3. In which header file is the NULL macro defined?

A. stdio.h
B. stddef.h
C. tdio.h and stddef.h
D. math.h

Answer: Option C

4. How many bytes are occupied by near, far and huge pointers (DOS)?

A. near=2 far=4 huge=4


B. near=4 far=8 huge=8
C. near=2 far=4 huge=8
D. near=4 far=4 huge=8

Answer: Option A

5. If a variable is a pointer to a structure, then which of the following operator is used to access data
members of the structure through the pointer variable?
A. .
B. &
C. *
D.->

Answer: Option D

6. What would be the equivalent pointer expression for referring the array element a[i][j][k][l]
A. ((((a+i)+j)+k)+l)
B. *(*(*(*(a+i)+j)+k)+l)
C. (((a+i)+j)+k+l)
D. ((a+i)+j+k+l)

Answer: Option B

7. A pointer is

A. A keyword used to create variables


B. A variable that stores address of an instruction
C. A variable that stores address of other variable
D.All of the above

Answer: Option C

8. The operator used to get value at address stored in a pointer variable is


A. *
B. &
C. &&
D. ||

Answer: Option A

9. What will be the output of the program ?

#include<stdio.h>
int main()
{
static char *s[] = {"black", "white", "pink", "violet"};
char **ptr[] = {s+3, s+2, s+1, s}, ***p;
p = ptr;
++p;
printf("%s", **p+1);
return 0;
}
A .ink
B. ack
C. ite
D. let

10. What will be the output of the program ?

#include<stdio.h>
int main()
{
int i=3, *j, k;
j = &i;
printf("%d\n", i**j*i+*j);
return 0;
}
A. 30
B. 27
C. 9
D.3

Answer: Option A

11. What will be the output of the program ?

#include<stdio.h>
int main()
{
int x=30, *y, *z;
y=&x; /* Assume address of x is 500 and integer is 4 byte size */
z=y;
*y++=*z++;
x++;
printf("x=%d, y=%d, z=%d\n", x, y, z);
return 0;
}
A. x=31, y=502, z=502
B. x=31, y=500, z=500
C. x=31, y=498, z=498
D. x=31, y=504, z=504

Answer: Option D

12. What will be the output of the program ?

#include<stdio.h>
int main()
{
char str[20] = "Hello";
char *const p=str;
*p='M';
printf("%s\n", str);
return 0;
}
A. Mello
B. Hello
C. HMello
D. MHello

Answer: Option A

13. What will be the output of the program If the integer is 4bytes long?

#include<stdio.h>
int main()
{
int ***r, **q, *p, i=8;
p = &i;
q = &p;
r = &q;
printf("%d, %d, %d\n", *p, **q, ***r);
return 0;
}
A. 8, 8, 8
B. 4000, 4002, 4004
C. 4000, 4004, 4008
D. 4000, 4008, 4016

Answer: Option A

14. What will be the output of the program ?

#include<stdio.h>
void fun(void *p);
int i;
int main()
{
void *vptr;
vptr = &i;
fun(vptr);
return 0;
}
void fun(void *p)
{
int **q;
q = (int**)&p;
printf("%d\n", **q);
}
A. Error: cannot convert from void** to int**
B. Garbage value
C. 0
D. No output

Answer: Option C

15. What will be the output of the program ?


#include<stdio.h>
int main()
{
char *str;
str = "%s";
printf(str, "K\n");
return 0;
}
A. Error
B. No output
C. K
D. %s
Answer: Option C
16. What will be the output of the program ?

#include<stdio.h>
int *check(static int, static int);
int main()
{
int *c;
c = check(10, 20);
printf("%d\n", c);
return 0;
}
int *check(static int i, static int j)
{
int *p, *q;
p = &i;
q = &j;
if(i >= 45)
return (p);
else
return (q);
}
A. 10
B. 20
C. Error: Non portable pointer conversion
D. Error: cannot use static for function parameters

Answer: Option D

17. What will be the output of the program if the size of pointer is 4-bytes?

#include<stdio.h>
int main()
{
printf("%d, %d\n", sizeof(NULL), sizeof(""));
return 0;
}
A. 2, 1
B. 2, 2
C. 4, 1
D. 4, 2

Answer: Option C

18. What will be the output of the program ?

#include<stdio.h>
int main()
{
void *vp;
char ch=74, *cp="JACK";
int j=65;
vp=&ch;
printf("%c", *(char*)vp);
vp=&j;
printf("%c", *(int*)vp);
vp=cp;
printf("%s", (char*)vp+2);
return 0;
}
A. JCK
B. J65K
C. JAK
D. JACK

Answer: Option D

19. What will be the output of the program?

#include<stdio.h>
int main()
{
int arr[2][2][2] = {10, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8};
int *p, *q;
p = &arr[1][1][1];
q = (int*) arr;
printf("%d, %d\n", *p, *q);
return 0;
}
A. 8, 10
B. 10, 2
C. 8, 1
D. Garbage values

Answer: Option A

20. What will be the output of the program assuming that the array begins at the location 1002 and size of
an integer is 4 bytes?

#include<stdio.h>
int main()
{
int a[3][4] = { 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11, 12 };
printf("%u, %u, %u\n", a[0]+1, *(a[0]+1), *(*(a+0)+1));
return 0;
}
A. 448, 4, 4
B. 520, 2, 2
C. 1006, 2, 2
D. Error

Answer: Option C
21. What will be the output of the program?
#include<stdio.h>
int main()
{
int arr[3] = {2, 3, 4};
char *p;
p = arr;
p = (char*)((int*)(p));
printf("%d, ", *p);
p = (int*)(p+1);
printf("%d", *p);
return 0;

A. 2, 3
B. 2, 0
C. 2, Garbage value
D. 0, 0
Answer: Option B

22. What will be the output of the program ?


#include<stdio.h>
int main()
{
char *str;
str = "%d\n";
str++;
str++;
printf(str-2, 300);
return 0;
}
A. No output
B. 30
C. 3
D. 300

Answer: Option D

23. What will be the output of the program ?

#include<stdio.h>
int main()
{
printf("%c\n", 7["IndiaBIX"]);
return 0;
}
A. Error: in printf
B. Nothing will print
C. print "X" of IndiaBIX
D. print "7"
Answer: Option C
24. What will be the output of the program ?

#include<stdio.h>
int main()
{
char str[] = "peace";
char *s = str;
printf("%s\n", s++ +3);
return 0;
}
A. peace
B. eace
C. ace
D. ce

Answer: Option D

25. What will be the output of the program ?

#include<stdio.h>
int main()
{
char *p;
p="hello";
printf("%s\n", *&*&p);
return 0;
}
A. llo
B. hello
C. ello
D. h

Answer: Option B

26. What will be the output of the program assuming that the array begins at location 1002?

#include<stdio.h>
int main()
{
int a[2][3][4] = { {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 1, 1, 2},
{2, 1, 4, 7, 6, 7, 8, 9, 0, 0, 0, 0} };
printf("%u, %u, %u, %d\n", a, *a, **a, ***a);
return 0;
}
A. 1002, 2004, 4008, 2
B. 2004, 4008, 8016, 1
C. 1002, 1002, 1002, 1
D. Error

Answer: Option C
27. What will be the output of the program ?

#include<stdio.h>
power(int**);
int main()
{
int a=5, *aa; /* Address of 'a' is 1000 */
aa = &a;
a = power(&aa);
printf("%d\n", a);
return 0;
}
power(int **ptr)
{
int b;
b = **ptr***ptr;
return (b);
}
A. 5
B. 25
C. 125
D. Garbage value

Answer: Option B

28. What will be the output of the program ?

#include<stdio.h>
int main()
{
char str1[] = "India";
char str2[] = "BIX";
char *s1 = str1, *s2=str2;
while(*s1++ = *s2++)
printf("%s", str1);
printf("\n");
return 0;
}
A. IndiaBIX
B. BndiaBIdiaBIXia
C. India
D. (null)

Answer: Option B

29. What will be the output of the program ?

#include<stdio.h>
#include<string.h>
int main()
{
int i, n;
char *x="Alice";
n = strlen(x);
*x = x[n];
for(i=0; i<=n; i++)
{
printf("%s ", x);
x++;
}
printf("\n", x);
return 0;
}
A. Alice
B. ecilA
C. Alice lice ice ce e
D. lice ice ce e

Answer: Option D

30. What will be the output of the program ?

#include<stdio.h>
int main()
{
int i, a[] = {2, 4, 6, 8, 10};
change(a, 5);
for(i=0; i<=4; i++)
printf("%d, ", a[i]);
return 0;
}
void change(int *b, int n)
{
int i;
for(i=0; i<n; i++)
*(b+1) = *(b+i)+5;
}
A. 7, 9, 11, 13, 15
B. 2, 15, 6, 8, 10
C. 2 4 6 8 10
D. 3, 1, -1, -3, -5

Answer: Option B

31. If the size of integer is 4bytes, What will be the output of the program?

#include<stdio.h>
int main()
{
int arr[] = {12, 13, 14, 15, 16};
printf("%d, %d, %d\n", sizeof(arr), sizeof(*arr), sizeof(arr[0]));
return 0;
}
A. 10, 2, 4
B. 20, 4, 4
C. 16, 2, 2
D. 20, 2, 2

Answer: Option B

32. Point out the compile time error in the program given below.

#include<stdio.h>
int main()
{
int *x;
*x=100;
return 0;
}
A. Error: invalid assignment for x
B. Error: suspicious pointer conversion
C. No error
D. None of above

Answer: Option C

33. Point out the error in the program

#include<stdio.h>
int main()
{
int a[] = {10, 20, 30, 40, 50};
int j;
for(j=0; j<5; j++)
{
printf("%d\n", a);
a++;
}
return 0;
}
A. Error: Declaration syntax
B. Error: Expression syntax
C. Error: LValue required
D. Error: Rvalue required

Answer: Option C

34 Which of the following statements correctly declare a function that receives a pointer to pointer to a
pointer to a float and returns a pointer to a pointer to a pointer to a pointer to a float?

A. float **fun(float***);
B. float *fun(float**);
C. float fun(float***);
D. float ****fun(float***);

Answer: Option D

35. Which of the statements is correct about the program?

#include<stdio.h>
int main()
{
int i=10;
int *j=&i;
return 0;
}
A. j and i are pointers to an int
B. i is a pointer to an int and stores address of j
C. j is a pointer to an int and stores address of i
D j is a pointer to a pointer to an int and stores address of i

Answer: Option C

36.Which of the statements is correct about the program?

#include<stdio.h>
int main()
{
float a=3.14;
char *j;
j = (char*)&a;
printf("%d\n", *j);
return 0;
}
A. It prints ASCII value of the binary number present in the first byte of a float variable a.
B. It prints character equivalent of the binary number present in the first byte of a float variable a.
C. It will print 3
D. It will print a garbage value

Answer: Option A

36 In the following program add a statement in the function fun() such that address of a gets stored in j?
#include<stdio.h>
int main()
{
int *j;
void fun(int**);
fun(&j);
return 0;
}
void fun(int **k)
{
int a=10;
/* Add a statement here */
}
A. **k=a;
B. k=&a;
C. *k=&a
D. &k=*a
Answer: Option C
37 Which of the following statements correct about k used in the below statement?

char ****k;

A. k is a pointer to a pointer to a pointer to a char


B. k is a pointer to a pointer to a pointer to a pointer to a char
C k is a pointer to a char pointer
D. k is a pointer to a pointer to a char
Answer: Option B

38 Which of the statements is correct about the program?

#include<stdio.h>
int main()
{
int arr[3][3] = {1, 2, 3, 4};
printf("%d\n", *(*(*(arr))));
return 0;
}
A. Output: Garbage value
B. Output: 1
C. Output: 3
D. Error: Invalid indirection
Answer: Option D

39. Which statement will you add to the following program to ensure that the program outputs "IndiaBIX"
on execution?

#include<stdio.h>
int main()
{
char s[] = "IndiaBIX";
char t[25];
char *ps, *pt;
ps = s;
pt = t;
while(*ps)
*pt++ = *ps++;

/* Add a statement here */


printf("%s\n", t);
return 0;
}
A. *pt='';
B. pt='\0';
C. pt='\n';
D. *pt='\0';
Answer: Option D

40 In the following program add a statement in the function fact() such that the factorial gets stored in j.

#include<stdio.h>
void fact(int*);
int main()
{
int i=5;
fact(&i);
printf("%d\n", i);
return 0;
}
void fact(int *j)
{
static int s=1;
if(*j!=0)
{
s = s**j;
*j = *j-1;
fact(j);
/* Add a statement here */
}
}

A. j=s;
B. *j=s;
C. *j=&s;
D. &j=s;
Answer: Option B

41 Are the expression *ptr++ and ++*ptr are same?


A. True
B. False
Answer: Option B

42 Will the program compile?


#include<stdio.h>
int main()
{
char str[5] = "IndiaBIX";
return 0;
}
A. True
B. False
Answer: Option A
43 The following program reports an error on compilation.
#include<stdio.h>
int main()
{
float i=10, *j;
void *k;
k=&i;
j=k;
printf("%f\n", *j);
return 0;
}
A. True
B. False
Answer: Option B

44 . Are the three declarations char **apple, char *apple[], and char apple[][] same?

A. True
B. False
Answer: Option B

45 Is there any difference between the following two statements?

char *p=0;
char *t=NULL;
A. Yes
B. No
Answer: Option B

46 Is this a correct way for NULL pointer assignment?

int i=0;
char *q=(char*)i;
A. Yes
B. No
Answer: Option B

46 Is this a correct way for NULL pointer assignment?


int i=0;
char *q=(char*)i;
A. Yes
B. No
Answer: Option B

47 Is the NULL pointer same as an uninitialised pointer?

A. Yes
B. No
Answer: Option B
48 Will the program compile in Turbo C?

#include<stdio.h>
int main()
{
int a=10, *j;
void *k;
j=k=&a;
j++;
k++;
printf("%u %u\n", j, k);
return 0;
}
A. Yes
B. No
Answer: Option B

49. Will the following program give any warning on compilation in TurboC (under DOS)?
#include<stdio.h>
int main()
{
int *p1, i=25;
void *p2;
p1=&i;
p2=&i;
p1=p2;
p2=p1;
return 0;
}
A.Yes
B.No
Answer: Option B

50 What function should be used to free the memory allocated by calloc() ?

A. dealloc();
B. malloc(variable_name, 0)
C. free();
D. memalloc(variable_name, 0)
Answer: Option C

51 The maximum combined length of the command-line arguments including the spaces between adjacent
arguments is
A. 128 characters
B. 256 characters
C. 67 characters
D. It may vary from one operating system to another
Answer: Option D
52 According to ANSI specifications which is the correct way of declaring main when it receives command-
line arguments?

A. int main(int argc, char *argv[])


B. int main(argc, argv)
int argc; char *argv;
C. int main()
{
int argc; char *argv;
}
D. None of above
Answer: Option A

53 What do the 'c' and 'v' in argv stands for?


A. 'c' means argument control 'v' means argument vector
B. 'c' means argument count 'v' means argument vertex
C. 'c' means argument count 'v' means argument vector
D. 'c' means argument configuration 'v' means argument visibility
Answer: Option C

54 . What will be the output of the program (myprog.c) given below if it is executed from the command
line?

cmd> myprog one two three


/* myprog.c */
#include<stdio.h>
int main(int argc, char **argv)
{
printf("%c\n", **++argv);
return 0;
}
A. myprog one two three
B. myprog one
C. o
D. two
Answer: Option C

55 What will be the output of the program (myprog.c) given below if it is executed from the command
line?

cmd> myprog one two three


/* myprog.c */
#include<stdio.h>
#include<stdlib.h>
int main(int argc, char **argv)
{
printf("%s\n", *++argv);
return 0;
}
A. myprog
B. one
C. two
D. three
Answer: Option B

56 What will be the output of the program (sample.c) given below if it is executed from the command line
(Turbo C in DOS)?
cmd> sample 1 2 3
/* sample.c */
#include<stdio.h>
int main(int argc, char *argv[])
{
int j;
j = argv[1] + argv[2] + argv[3];
printf("%d", j);
return 0;
}
A. 6
B. sample 6
C. Error
D. Garbage value
Answer: Option C

57 What will be the output of the program (sample.c) given below if it is executed from the command line
(turbo c under DOS)?
cmd> sample Good Morning
/* sample.c */
#include<stdio.h>
int main(int argc, char *argv[])
{
printf("%d %s", argc, argv[1]);
return 0;
}
A. 3 Good
B. 2 Good
C. Good Morning
D. 3 Morning

Answer: Option A

58 . What will be the output of the program (sample.c) given below if it is executed from the command
line?

cmd> sample monday tuesday wednesday thursday


/* sample.c */
#include<stdio.h>
int main(int argc, char *argv[])
{
while(--argc>0)
printf("%s", *++argv);
return 0;
}
A. sample monday tuesday wednesday thursday
B monday tuesday wednesday thursday
C. monday tuesday thursday
D. tuesday
Answer: Option B

59 If the following program (myproc.c) is present in the directory "C:\TC" then what will be output of the
program if run it from DOS shell?
/* myproc.c */
#include<stdio.h>
int main(int argc, char *argv[])
{
printf("%s", argv[0]);
return 0;
}
A. SAMPLE.C
B. C:\TC\MYPROC.EXE
C. C:\TC
D. Error
Answer: Option B

60 What will be the output of the program?


#include<stdio.h>
int main()
{
int a = 300, b, c;
if(a >= 400)
b = 300;
c = 200;
printf("%d, %d, %d\n", a, b, c);
return 0;
}

A. 300, 300, 200

B. Garbage, 300, 200

C. 300, Garbage, 200

D. 300, 300, Garbage


Correct Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Step 1: int a = 300, b, c; here variable a is initialized to '300', variable b and c are declared, but not initialized.
Step 2: if(a >= 400) means if(300 >= 400). Hence this condition will be failed.
Step 3: c = 200; here variable c is initialized to '200'.
Step 4: printf("%d, %d, %d\n", a, b, c); It prints "300, garbage value, 200". because variable b is not initialized.

61. It is not possible to create an array of pointer to structures.


A. True

B. False
Correct Answer: Option B

62 A preprocessor directive is a message from programmer to the preprocessor.


.
A. True

B. False
Correct Answer: Option A
Explanation:
True, the programmer tells the compiler to include the preprocessor when compiling.

63. A macro must always be defined in capital letters.


A. True

B. False
Correct Answer: Option B
Explanation:
FALSE, The macro is case insensitive.

64. Are the following declarations same?


char far *far *scr;
char far far** scr;

A. Yes

B. No
Correct Answer: Option B

65. Point out the error in the program.


#include<stdio.h>
#include<stdlib.h>

union employee
{
char name[15];
int age;
float salary;
};
const union employee e1;

int main()
{
strcpy(e1.name, "K");
printf("%s", e1.name);
e1.age=85;
printf("%d", e1.age);
printf("%f", e1.salary);
return 0;
}

A. Error: RValue required

B. Error: cannot modify const object


C. Error: LValue required in strcpy

D. No error
Correct Answer: Option B

66. Assunming, integer is 2 byte, What will be the output of the program?
#include<stdio.h>

int main()
{
printf("%x\n", -1>>1);
return 0;
}

A. ffff

B. 0fff

C. 0000

D. fff0
Correct Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Negative numbers are treated with 2's complement method.

1's complement: Inverting the bits ( all 1s to 0s and all 0s to 1s)


2's complement: Adding 1 to the result of 1's complement.

Binary of 1(2byte) : 0000 0000 0000 0001


Representing -1:
1s complement of 1(2byte) : 1111 1111 1111 1110
Adding 1 to 1's comp. result : 1111 1111 1111 1111
Right shift 1bit(-1>>1): 1111 1111 1111 1111 (carry out 1)
Hexadecimal :f f f f
(Filled with 1s in the left side in the above step)
Note:
1. Fill with 1s in the left side for right shift for negative numbers.
2. Fill with 0s in the right side for left shift for negative numbers.
3. Fill with 0s in the left side for right shift for positive numbers.
4. Fill with 0s in the right side for left shift for positive numbers.

67. What will be the output of the program?


#include<stdio.h>

int main()
{
char c=48;
int i, mask=01;
for(i=1; i<=5; i++)
{
printf("%c", c|mask);
mask = mask<<1;
}
return 0;
}
A. 12400

B. 12480

C. 12500

D. 12556
Correct Answer: Option B

68. What is the output of the program in Turbo C (in DOS 16-bit OS)?
#include<stdio.h>
int main()
{
char *s1;
char far *s2;
char huge *s3;
printf("%d, %d, %d\n", sizeof(s1), sizeof(s2), sizeof(s3));
return 0;
}

A. 2, 4, 6

B. 4, 4, 2

C. 2, 4, 4

D. 2, 2, 2
Correct Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Any pointer size is 2 bytes. (only 16-bit offset)
So, char *s1 = 2 bytes.
So, char far *s2; = 4 bytes.
So, char huge *s3; = 4 bytes.
A far, huge pointer has two parts: a 16-bit segment value and a 16-bit offset value.
Since C is a compiler dependent language, it may give different output in other platforms. The above program works
fine in Windows (TurboC), but error in Linux (GCC Compiler).

69. Which of the following sentences are correct about a switch loop in a C program?
1: switch is useful when we wish to check the value of variable against a particular set of values.
2: switch is useful when we wish to check whether a value falls in different ranges.
3: Compiler implements a jump table for cases used in switch.
4: It is not necessary to use a break in every switch statement.

A. 1,2

B. 1,3,4

C. 2,4

D. 2
Correct Answer: Option B
70. What will be the output of the program ?
#include<stdio.h>
#include<string.h>

int main()
{
char str1[5], str2[5];
int i;
gets(str1);
gets(str2);
i = strcmp(str1, str2);
printf("%d\n", i);
return 0;
}

A. Unpredictable integer value

B. 0

C. -1

D. Error
Correct Answer: Option A
Explanation:
gets() gets collects a string of characters terminated by a new line from the standard input stream stdin.
The gets(str1) read the input string from user and store in variable str1.
The gets(str2) read the input string from user and store in variable str2.
The code i = strcmp(str1, str2); The strcmp not only returns -1, 0 and +1, but also other negative or positive values.
So the value of i is "unpredictable integer value".
printf("%d\n", i); It prints the value of variable i.

71. What will be the output of the program ?


#include<stdio.h>

int main()
{
char *names[] = { "Suresh", "Siva", "Sona", "Baiju", "Ritu"};
int i;
char *t;
t = names[3];
names[3] = names[4];
names[4] = t;
for(i=0; i<=4; i++)
printf("%s,", names[i]);
return 0;
}

A. Suresh, Siva, Sona, Baiju, Ritu

B. Suresh, Siva, Sona, Ritu, Baiju

C. Suresh, Siva, Baiju, Sona, Ritu

D. Suresh, Siva, Ritu, Sona, Baiju


Correct Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Step 1: char *names[] = { "Suresh", "Siva", "Sona", "Baiju", "Ritu"}; The variable names is declared as an pointer
to a array of strings.
Step 2: int i; The variable i is declared as an integer type.
Step 3: char *t; The variable t is declared as pointer to a string.
Step 4: t = names[3]; names[3] = names[4]; names[4] = t; These statements the swaps the 4 and 5 element of the
array names.
Step 5: for(i=0; i<=4; i++) printf("%s,", names[i]); These statement prints the all the value of the array names.
Hence the output of the program is "Suresh, Siva, Sona, Ritu, Baiju".

72. va_list is an array that holds information needed by va_arg and va_end
A. True

B. False
Correct Answer: Option A

73. What will be the output of the program ?


#include<stdio.h>

int main()
{
char str[] = "peace";
char *s = str;
printf("%s\n", s++ +3);
return 0;
}

A. peace

B. eace

C. ace

D. ce
Correct Answer: Option D
Discuss about this problem : Discuss in Forum
74. Is there any difference between the two statements?
char *ch = "IndiaBIX";
char ch[] = "IndiaBIX";
A. Yes

B. No
Correct Answer: Option A
Explanation:
In first statement the character pointer ch stores the address of the string "IndiaBIX".
The second statement specifies the space for 7 characters be allocated and that the name of location is ch.

75. What will be the output of the program?


#include<stdio.h>
int main()
{
float a=0.7;
if(a < 0.7f)
printf("C\n");
else
printf("C++\n");
return 0;
}

A. C

B. C++

C. Compiler error

D. Non of above
Correct Answer: Option B
Explanation:
if(a < 0.7f) here a is a float variable and 0.7f is a float constant. The float variable a is not less than 0.7ffloat
constant. But both are equal. Hence the if condition is failed and it goes to else it prints 'C++'
Example:
#include<stdio.h>
int main()
{
float a=0.7;
printf("%.10f %.10f\n",0.7f, a);
return 0;
}
Output:
0.6999999881 0.6999999881

76. The modulus operator cannot be used with a long double.


A. True

B. False
Correct Answer: Option A
Explanation:
fmod(x,y) - Calculates x modulo y, the remainder of x/y.
This function is the same as the modulus operator. But fmod() performs floating point or long doubledivisions.

77. Will the following program give any warning on compilation in TurboC (under DOS)?
#include<stdio.h>

int main()
{
int *p1, i=25;
void *p2;
p1=&i;
p2=&i;
p1=p2;
p2=p1;
return 0;
}

A. Yes

B. No
Correct Answer: Option B
78. Point out the error, if any in the for loop.
#include<stdio.h>
int main()
{
int i=1;
for(;;)
{
printf("%d\n", i++);
if(i>10)
break;
}
return 0;
}

A. There should be a condition in the for loop

B. The two semicolons should be dropped

C. The for loop should be replaced with while loop.

D. No error
Correct Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Step 1: for(;;) this statement will genereate infinite loop.
Step 2: printf("%d\n", i++); this statement will print the value of variable i and increement i by 1(one).
Step 3: if(i>10) here, if the variable i value is greater than 10, then the for loop breaks.
Hence the output of the program is
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10

79 Point out the error in the following program.


.
#include<stdio.h>
struct emp
{
char name[20];
int age;
};
int main()
{
emp int xx;
int a;
printf("%d\n", &a);
return 0;
}

A. Error: in printf

B. Error: in emp int xx;


C. No error.

D. None of these.
Correct Answer: Option B
Explanation:
There is an error in the line emp int xx;
To overcome this error, remove the int and add the struct at the begining of emp int xx;
#include<stdio.h>
struct emp
{
char name[20];
int age;
};
int main()
{
struct emp xx;
int a;
printf("%d\n", &a);
return 0;
}

DATA STRUCTURES

1. Which if the following is/are the levels of implementation of data structure

A) Abstract level
B) Application level
C) Implementation level
D) All of the above
2. A binary search tree whose left subtree and right subtree differ in hight by at most 1 unit is called

A) AVL tree
B) Red-black tree
C) Lemma tree
D) None of the above
3. . .. level is where the model becomes compatible executable code

A) Abstract level
B) Application level
C) Implementation level
D) All of the above

4. Stack is also called as

A) Last in first out


B) First in last out
C) Last in last out
D) First in first out

5. Which of the following is true about the characteristics of abstract data types?

It exports a type.
ii) It exports a set of operations
A) True, False
B) False, True
C) True, True
D) False, False

6. is not the component of data structure.

A) Operations
B) Storage Structures
C) Algorithms
D) None of above

7. Which of the following is not the part of ADT description?

A) Data
B) Operations
C) Both of the above
D) None of the above

8. Inserting an item into the stack when stack is not full is called . Operation and deletion of
item form the stack, when stack is not empty is called ..operation.

A) push, pop
B) pop, push
C) insert, delete
D) delete, insert

9. . Is a pile in which items are added at one end and removed from the other.

A) Stack
B) Queue
C) List
D) None of the above

10. is very useful in situation when data have to stored and then retrieved in reverse order.

A) Stack
B) Queue
C) List
D) Link list

11. Which data structure allows deleting data elements from and inserting at rear?

A) Stacks
B) Queues
C) Dequeues
D) Binary search tree

12. Which of the following data structure can't store the non-homogeneous data elements?

A) Arrays

B) Records
C) Pointers

D) Stacks

13. A ....... is a data structure that organizes data similar to a line in the supermarket, where the first
one in line is the first one out.

A) Queue linked list

B) Stacks linked list

C) Both of them

D) Neither of them

14. Which of the following is non-liner data structure?

A) Stacks

B) List

C) Strings

D) Trees

15. Herder node is used as sentinel in .....

A) Graphs

B) Stacks

C) Binary tree

D) Queues

16. Which data structure is used in breadth first search of a graph to hold nodes?

A) Stack

B) queue

C) Tree

D) Array

17. Identify the data structure which allows deletions at both ends of the list but insertion at only one
end.

A) Input restricted dequeue

B) Output restricted qequeue

C) Priority queues

D) Stack
18. Which of the following data structure is non linear type?

A) Strings

B) Lists

C) Stacks

D) Graph

19. Which of the following data structure is linear type?

A) Graph

B) Trees

C) Binary tree

D) Stack

20. To represent hierarchical relationship between elements, Which data structure is suitable?

A) Dequeue

B) Priority

C) Tree

D) Graph

5. Answers:
6. 1. D) All of the above
2. A) AVL tree
3. C) Implementation level
4. A) Last in first out
5. C) True, True
6. D) None of above
7. D) None of the above
8. A) push, pop
9. B) Queue
10. A) Stack
11. B) Queues
12. A) Arrays
13. A) Queue linked list
14. D) Trees
15. C) Binary tree
16. B) queue
17. A) Input restricted dequeue
18. D) Graph
19. D) Stack
20. C) Tree

1. A directed graph is . if there is a path from each vertex to every other vertex in the digraph.
2. A) Weakly connected

B) Strongly Connected

C) Tightly Connected

D) Linearly Connected
3. 2. In the .. traversal we process all of a vertexs descendants before we move to an adjacent
vertex.

A) Depth First

B) Breadth First

C) With First

D) Depth Limited

3. State True of False.

i) Network is a graph that has weights or costs associated with it.

ii) An undirected graph which contains no cycles is called a forest.

iii) A graph is said to be complete if there is no edge between every pair of vertices.

A) True, False, True

B) True, True, False

C) True, True, True

D) False, True, True

4. Match the following.

a) Completeness i) How long does it take to find a solution


4. b) Time Complexity ii) How much memory need to perform the search.
c) Space Complexity iii) Is the strategy guaranteed to find the solution when there in one.

A) a-iii, b-ii, c-i

B) a-i, b-ii, c-iii

C) a-iii, b-i, c-ii

D) a-i, b-iii, c-ii


5. 5. The number of comparisons done by sequential search is

A) (N/2)+1

B) (N+1)/2

C) (N-1)/2

D) (N+2)/2

6. In , search start at the beginning of the list and check every element in the list.

A) Linear search

B) Binary search

C) Hash Search

D) Binary Tree search

7. State True or False.

i) Binary search is used for searching in a sorted array.

ii) The time complexity of binary search is O(logn).

A) True, False

B) False, True

C) False, False

D) True, True

8. Which of the following is not the internal sort?

A) Insertion Sort

B) Bubble Sort

C) Merge Sort

D) Heap Sort

9. State True or False.

i) An undirected graph which contains no cycles is called forest.

ii) A graph is said to be complete if there is an edge between every pair of vertices.

A) True, True
B) False, True

C) False, False

D) True, False

10. A graph is said to be if the vertices can be split into two sets V1 and V2 such there are
no edges between two vertices of V1 or two vertices of V2.

A) Partite

B) Bipartite

C) Rooted

D) Bisects

11. In a queue, the initial values of front pointer f rare pointer r should be .. and ..
respectively.

A) 0 and 1

B) 0 and -1

C) -1 and 0

D) 1 and 0

12. In a circular queue the value of r will be ..

A) r=r+1

B) r=(r+1)% [QUEUE_SIZE 1]

C) r=(r+1)% QUEUE_SIZE

D) r=(r-1)% QUEUE_SIZE

13. Which of the following statement is true?

i) Using singly linked lists and circular list, it is not possible to traverse the list backwards.

ii) To find the predecessor, it is required to traverse the list from the first node in case of singly linked list.

A) i-only

B) ii-only

C) Both i and ii

D) None of both
14. The advantage of .. is that they solve the problem if sequential storage representation. But
disadvantage in that is they are sequential lists.

A) Lists

B) Linked Lists

C) Trees

D) Queues

15. What will be the value of top, if there is a size of stack STACK_SIZE is 5

A) 5

B) 6

C) 4

D) None

16. is not the operation that can be performed on queue.

A) Insertion

B) Deletion

C) Retrieval

D) Traversal

17. There is an extra element at the head of the list called a .

A) Antinel

B) Sentinel

C) List header

D) List head

18. A graph is a collection of nodes, called . And line segments called arcs or .. that connect
pair of nodes.

A) vertices, edges
B) edges, vertices

C) vertices, paths

D) graph node, edges

19. A .. is a graph that has weights of costs associated with its edges.

A) Network

B) Weighted graph

C) Both A and B

D) None A and B

20. In general, the binary search method needs no more than . comparisons.

A) [log2n]-1

B) [logn]+1

C) [log2n]

D) [log2n]+1

6. Answers:
7.
1. B) Strongly Connected

2. A) Depth First

3. B) True, True, False

4. C) a-iii, b-i, c-ii

5. B) (N+1)/2

6. A) Linear search

7. D) True, True

8. C) Merge Sort

9. A) True, True10. B) Bipartite

11. B) 0 and -1

12. C) r=(r+1)% QUEUE_SIZE

13. C) Both i and ii


14. B) Linked Lists

15. C) 4

16. D) Traversal

17. B) Sentinel

18. A) vertices, edges

19. C) Both A and B

20. D) [log2n]+1
8. 1. Which of the following is not the type of queue?
9. A) Ordinary queue

B) Single ended queue

C) Circular queue

D) Priority queue

2. The property of binary tree is

A) The first subset is called left subtree

B) The second subtree is called right subtree

C) The root cannot contain NULL

D) The right subtree can be empty

3. State true or false.

i) The degree of root node is always zero.

ii) Nodes that are not root and not leaf are called as internal nodes.

A) True, True

B) True, False

C) False, True

D) False, False

4. Any node is the path from the root to the node is called

A) Successor node
B) Ancestor node

C) Internal node

D) None of the above

5. State true of false.

i) A node is a parent if it has successor nodes.

ii) A node is child node if out degree is one.

A) True, True

B) True, False

C) False, True

D) False, False

6. . is not an operation performed on linear list

a) Insertion b) Deletion c) Retrieval d) Traversal

A) only a,b and c

B) only a and b

C) All of the above

D) None of the above

7. Which is/are the application(s) of stack

A) Function calls

B) Large number Arithmetic

C) Evaluation of arithmetic expressions

D) All of the above

8. A is an acyclic digraph, which has only one node with indegree 0, and other nodes have in-degree 1.

A) Directed tree

B) Undirected tree

C) Dis-joint tree

D) Direction oriented tree

9. . Is a directed tree in which outdegree of each node is less than or equal to two.
A) Unary tree

B) Binary tree

C) Trinary tree

D) Both B and C

10. State true or false.

i) An empty tree is also a binary tree.

ii) In strictly binary tree, the out-degree of every node is either o or 2.

A) True, False

B) False, True

C) True, True

D) False, False

11. Which of the following data structures are indexed structures?

A. Linear arrays

B. Linked lists

C. Queue

D. Stack

12. Which of the following data structure store the homogeneous data elements?

A. Arrays

B. Records

C. Pointers

D. Lists

13. When new data are to be inserted into a data structure, but there is not available space; this situation is usually
called ....

A. Underflow

B. overflow

C. houseful

D. saturated

14. A data structure where elements can be added or removed at either end but not in the middle is called ...
A. linked lists

B. stacks

C. queues

D. dequeue

15. Operations on a data structure may be .....

A. creation

B. destruction

C. selection

D. all of the above

16. The way in which the data item or items are logically related defines .....

A. storage structure

B. data structure

C. data relationship

D. data operation

17. Which of the following are the operations applicable an primitive data structures?

A. create

B. destroy

C. update

D. all of the above

18. The use of pointers to refer elements of a data structure in which elements are logically adjacent is ....

A. pointers

B. linked allocation

C. stack

D. queue

19. Arrays are best data structures

A. for relatively permanent collections of data

B. for the size of the structure and the data in the structure are constantly changing

C. for both of above situation


D. for non of above situation

20. Which of the following statement is false?

A. Arrays are dense lists and static data structure.

B. Data elements in linked list need not be stored in adjacent space in memory

C. Pointers store the next data element of a list.

D. Linked lists are collection of the nodes that contain information part and next pointer.

Answers:
1.
1. B) Single ended queue
2. D) The right ..... empty
3. C) False, True
4. B) Ancestor node
5. B) True, False
6. D) None of the above
7. D) All of the above
8. A) Directed tree
9. B) Binary tree
10. C) True, True
11. A. Linear arrays
12. B. Records
13. B. overflow
14. D. dequeue
15. D. all of the above
16. B. data structure
17. D. all of the above
18. B. linked allocation
20. C. Pointers store the next data element of a list.

OPERATING SYSTEM (MCQ)

1. Which of the following is/ are the part of operating system?


A) Kernel services
B) Library services
C) Application level services
D) All of the above

2. The system of ............... generally ran one job at a time. These were called single stream batch processing.
A) 40's
B) 50's
C) 60's
D) 70's
3. In ............. generation of operating system, operating system designers develop the concept of multi-programming in
which several jobs are in main memory at once.
A) First
B) Second
C) Third
D) Fourth

4. State True or False.


i) In spooling high speed device like a disk is interposed between running program and low-speed device in
Input/output.
ii) By using spooling for example instead of writing directly to a printer, outputs are written to the disk.
A) i-True, ii-False
B) i-True, ii-True
C) i-False, ii-True
D) i-False, ii-False

5. Which of the following is/are the functions of operating system?


i) Sharing hardware among users. ii) Allowing users to share data among themselves.
iii) Recovering from errors. iv) Preventing users from interfering with one another.
v) Scheduling resources among users.
A) i, ii, iii and iv only
B) ii, iii, iv and v only
C) i, iii, iv and v only
D) All i, ii, iii, iv and v
6. .................. executes must frequently and makes the fine grained decision of which process to execute the next.
A) Long-term scheduling
B) Medium-term scheduling
C) Short-term scheduling
D) None of the above

7. With ................ a page is brought into main memory only when the reference is made to a location on that page.
A) demand paging
B) main paging
C) prepaging
D) postpaging

8. ....................... provides a larger sized of virtual memory but require virtual memory which provides
multidimensional memory.
A) Paging method
B) Segmentation method
C) Paging and segmentation method
D) None of these

9. ............... is a large kernel containing virtually the complete operating system, including, scheduling, file system,
device drivers and memory management.
A) Multilithic kernel
B) Monolithic kernel
C) Micro kernel
D) Macro kernel

10. ............... is a large operating system core provides a wide range of services.
A) Multilithic kernel
B) Monolithic kernel
C) Micro kernel
D) Macro kernel
Answers:
1. D) All of the above 6. C) Short-term scheduling
2. B) 50's 7. A) demand paging
3. C) Third 8. B) Segmentation method
4. B) i-True, ii-True 9. B) Monolithic kernel
5. D) All i, ii, iii, iv and v 10. D) Macro kernel

1. The first batch operating system was developed in the ................. by General Motors for use on an IBM 701.
A) mid 1940's
B) mid 1950's
C) mid 1960's
D) mid 1970's

2. Process is ........................
A) A program in execution
B) An instance of a program running on a computer.
C) The entity that can be assigned to and executed
D) All of the above.

3. ................... is a facility that allows programmers to address memory from a logical point of view, without regard to
the main memory, physically available.
A) Visual memory
B) Real memory
C) Virtual memory
D) Secondary memory

4. ............ is a large kernel, including scheduling file system, networking, device drivers, memory management and
more.
A) Monolithic kernel
B) Micro kernel
C) Macro kernel
D) Mini kernel

5. A .................... architecture assigns only a few essential functions to the kernel, including address spaces, Inter
process communication(IPC) and basic scheduling.
A) Monolithic kernel
B) Micro kernel
C) Macro kernel
D) Mini kernel

6. State whether true or false.


i) Multithreading is useful for application that perform a number of essentially independent tasks that do not be
serialized.
ii) An example of multithreading is a database server that listens for and process numerous client request.
A) i-True, ii-False
B) i-True, ii-True
C) i-False, ii-True
D) i-False, ii-False

7. With ................ only one process can execute at a time; meanwhile all other process are waiting for the processer.
With .............. more than one process can be running simultaneously each on a different processer.
A) Multiprocessing, Multiprogramming
B) Multiprogramming, Uniprocessing
C) Multiprogramming, Multiprocessing
D) Uniprogramming, Multiprocessing

8. The two central themes of modern operating system are ...............


A) Multiprogramming and Distributed processing
B) Multiprogramming and Central Processing
C) Single Programming and Distributed processing
D) None of above
9. ............... refers to the ability of multiple process (or threads) to share code, resources or data in such a way that only
one process has access to shared object at a time.
A) Synchronization
B) Mutual Exclusion
C) Dead lock
D) Starvation

10. ................. is the ability of multiple process to co-ordinate their activities by exchange of information
A) Synchronization
B) Mutual Exclusion
C) Dead lock
D) Starvation

Answers:
1. 1. B) mid 1950's 6. 6. B) i-True, ii-True
2. 2. D) All of the above. 7. 7. C) Multi.......Multiprocessing
3. 3. C) Virtual memory 8. 8. A) Multiprogra ......processing
4. 4 A) Monolithic kernel 9. 9. B) Mutual Exclusion
5. 5 B) Micro kernel 10. 10. A) Synchronization

MCQ Questions On Memory Management In OS Part-3

1. With .................... a page is brought into main memory only when a reference is made to a location on
that page.
2. A) prepaging
B) demand paging
C) page buffering
D) precleaning

2. ................ exploits the characteristics of most secondary memory devices, such as disks, which
have seek times and rotational latency.
A) prepaging
B) demand paging
C) page buffering
D) precleaning

3. In most operating system texts, the treatment of memory management includes a section entitled
"...................", which deals with the selection of a page in memory to be replaced when a new page
must be brought in.
A) fetch policy
B) placement policy
C) replacement policy
D) cleaning policy

4. In .......................... some of the frames in main memory may be locked, which is called frame
locking.
A) fetch policy
B) placement policy
C) replacement policy
D) cleaning policy

5. Which of the following is/are the basic algorithms that are used for selection of a page to replace in
replacement policy.
i) Optional ii) Least recently used (LRU) iii) First in first out (FIFO) iv) Last in first out (LIFO)
A) i, ii and iii only
B) ii, iii and iv only
3. C) i, iii and iv only
D) All i, ii, iii and iv

6. The ................ selectors for replacement that page for which the time to the next reference is
longest.
A) Clock Policy
B) Optimal Policy
C) Least Recently Used (LRU) Policy
D) First in first out (FIFO) Policy

7. The ................. policy replaces the page in memory that has not been referenced for the longest
time.
A) Clock
B) Optimal
C) Least Recently Used (LRU)
D) First in first out (FIFO)

8. ................... policy treats the page frames allocated to a process as a circular buffer, as pages are
removed in round robin style.
A) Clock
B) Optimal
C) Least Recently Used (LRU)
D) First in first out (FIFO)

9. ................... policy does nearly as well as an optimal policy, it is difficult to implement and imposes
significant overhead.
A) Clock
B) Optimal
C) Least Recently Used (LRU)
D) First in first out (FIFO)
10. The ................... policy is very simple to implement but performs relatively poorly.
A) Clock
B) Optimal
C) Least Recently Used (LRU)
D) First in first out (FIFO)
4. 11. The simplest form of .................... requires the association of an additional bit with each frame,
referred to as the use bit.
A) Clock Policy
B) Optimal Policy
C) Least Recently Used (LRU) Policy
D) First in first out (FIFO) Policy

12. State whether the following statements about clock policy are True or False
i) The clock policy is similar to optimal policy
ii) In the clock policy, any frame with a use bit of 1 is passed over by algorithm
iii) The policy is referred to as a clock policy because we can visualize the page frames as laid out in
circle.
A) i and ii only
B) ii and iii only
C) i and iiii only
D) All i, ii and iii
13. With a ..................... policy in resident set management, whenever a page fault occurs in the
execution of a process, one of the pages of that process must be replaced by the needed page.
A) global replacement
B) local replacement
C) fixed-allocation
D) variable-allocation

14. .................... policy is suffering persistently high levels of page faults, indicating that the
principle of locality only holds in a weak form for that process.
A) Global replacement
B) Local replacement
C) Fixed-allocation
D) Variable-allocation

15. A .............. chooses only among the resident pages of the process that generated the page fault in
selecting a page to replace.
A) global replacement policy
B) local replacement policy
C) fixed-allocation
D) variable-allocation

16. A .............. considers all unblocked pages in main memory as candidates for replacement
regardless of which process owns a particular page.
A) global replacement policy
B) local replacement policy
C) fixed-allocation
D) variable-allocation

17. ................... are attractive because of their simplicity of implementation and minimal overhead.
A) global replacement policies
B) local replacement policies
C) fixed-allocation
D) variable-allocation

18. For .............. page to be replaced is chosen from all available frames in main memory.
A) Fixed allocation in Local Scope
B) Fixed allocation in Global Scope
C) Variable allocation in Local Scope
D) Variable allocation in Global Scope

19. In which of the following relation, page to replace is chosen from among the frames allocated to
that process.
i) Fixed allocation, Local Scope ii) Fixed allocation, Global Scope iii) Variable allocation, Local
Scope
iv) Variable allocation, Global Scope
A) i and ii
B) i and iii
C) iii and iv
D) ii and iii

20. For ................... the number of frames allocated to a process may be change from time to time.
A) Fixed allocation in Local Scope
B) Fixed allocation in Global Scope
C) Variable allocation in Local Scope
D) Variable allocation in Global Scope

Answers

1. B) demand paging
2. A) prepaging
3. C) replacement policy
4. C) replacement policy
5. A) i, ii and iii only
6. B) Optimal Policy
7. C) Least Recently Used (LRU)
8. D) First in first out (FIFO)
9. C) Least Recently Used (LRU)
10. D) First in first out (FIFO)
11. A) Clock Policy
12. B) ii and iii only
13. C) fixed-allocation
14. D) Variable-allocation
15. B) local replacement policy
16. A) global replacement policy
17. A) global replacement policies
18. D) Variable allocation in Global Scope
19. B) i and iii
20. C) Variable allocation in Local Scope
5. 1. ................... is a decision to add a new process to the set of processes that are currently active. It is
performed when a new process is created.
6. A) Long term scheduling
B) Medium term scheduling
C) Short term scheduling
D) I/O scheduling

2. ................... is a part of the swapping function in which the decision to add to he number of
process that are partially or fully in main memory.
A) Long term scheduling
B) Medium term scheduling
C) Short term scheduling
D) I/O scheduling

3. ................. is the actual decision of which ready process to execute next.


A) Long term scheduling
B) Medium term scheduling
C) Short term scheduling
D) I/O scheduling

4. State whether the following statements about long term scheduling are True or False.
i) It controls the degree of multi-programming
ii) It determines which programs are admitted to the system for processing.
iii) It is the part of swapping function.
A) i-False, ii-True, iii-False
B) i-True, ii-True, iii-False
C) i-True, ii-False, iii-True
D) i-False, ii-True, iii-True

5. ................... may limit the degree of multi-programming to provide satisfactory service of the
current set of process.
A) Long term scheduler
B) Medium term scheduler
C) Short term scheduler
D) I/O scheduler

6. State which of the following statements about medium term scheduling are correct.
i) Medium term scheduling is a part of swapping function
ii) The swapping in decision is based on the need to manage the degree of multi-programming.
iii) It is invoked whenever an event occurs that may lead to the suspension of the current process.
A) i and ii only
B) ii and iii only
C) i and iiii only
D) All i, ii and iii

7. .................. executes relatively infrequently and makes the coarse-grained decision of whether or
not to take on a new process.
A) Long term scheduler
B) Medium term scheduler
C) Short term scheduler
D) I/O scheduler

8. ................ also known as the dispatcher, executes most frequently and makes the fine grained
decision of which process to execute next.
7. A) Long term scheduling
B) Medium term scheduling
C) Short term scheduling
D) I/O scheduling

9. The .................. is invoked whenever an event occurs that may lead to the suspension of the
current process of that may provide an opportunity to preempt a currently running process in favor of
another.
A) Long term scheduling
B) Medium term scheduling
C) Short term scheduling
D) I/O scheduling

10. The short term scheduler is invoked, in which of the following event occurs.
i) clock interrupts ii) I/O interrupts iii) Operating system calls iv) Signals
A) i, ii and iii only
B) ii, iii and iv only
C) i, iii and iv only
D) All i, ii, iii and iv
8. 11. ................. includes actual execution time plus time spent waiting for resources, including the
processor.
A) Response time
B) Turnaround time
C) Deadlines
D) Throughput

12. .................. is the time from the submission of a request until the response begins to be received.
A) Response time
B) Turnaround time
C) Deadlines
D) Throughput

13. ................ is the measure of how much work is being performed which depends on the average
length of a process.
A) Throughput
B) Fairness
C) Enforcing priorities
D) Balancing resources

14. State whether the following statements about response time are True or False.
i) An example is response time in a interactive system
ii) It is visible to the user and is naturally of interest to the user
iii) In the case of response time, a threshold may be defined.
A) i-False, ii-True, iii-False
B) i-True, ii-True, iii-False
C) i-True, ii-False, iii-True
D) i-True, ii-True, iii-True

15. ...................may be based on priority, resource requirements or the execution characteristics of the
process.
A) Selection function
B) Decision mode
C) Throughput
D) Overhead

16. Preemptive policies incur greater ................. than non-preemptive ones but may provide better
service to the total population of process.
A) Selection function
B) Decision mode
C) Throughput
D) Overhead

17. The selection function of shortest process next (SPN) scheduling policy is ......
A) max[w]
B) constant
C) min[s]
D) min[s-e]

18. The selection function of first-come-first-served (FCFS) scheduling policy is ......


A) max[w]
B) constant
C) min[s]
D) min[s-e]

19. Which of the following are the algorithms have been developed for making t he short-term-
scheduling decision.
i) Round robin ii) Shortest Process Next (SPN) iii) Shortest Remaining Time (SRT) iv) Feedback
A) i, ii and iii only
B) ii, iii and iv only
C) i, iii and iv only
D) All i, ii, iii and iv

20. ................. establish a set of scheduling queues and allocate processes to queues on execution
history and other criteria.
A) Round robin
B) Shortest Process Next (SPN)
C) Shortest Remaining Time (SRT)
D) Feedback

21. ................. algorithm use time slicing to limit any running process to a short burst of processor
time, and rotate among all ready processes.
A) Round robin
B) Shortest Process Next (SPN)
C) Shortest Remaining Time (SRT)
D) Feedback

22. ............... algorithm select the process that has been waiting the longest for service.
A) Round robin
B) Shortest Process Next (SPN)
C) First Come First Served (SCFS)
D) Feedback

23. Which of the following statements about first-come-first-serve algorithm are correct.
i) It tends to favor processor bound processes over I/O bound processes.
ii) It may result inefficient use of both the processor and I/O devices
iii) It is an attractive alternative on its own for a single processor system
A) i and ii only
B) ii and iii only
C) i and iiii only
D) All i, ii and iii

24. .............. is particularly effective in general purpose time sharing system or translation processing
system.
A) Round robin
B) Shortest Process Next (SPN)
C) First Come First Served (SCFS)
D) Feedback
25. ............... policy reduces the bias in favor of long processes inherent in first come first served
(FCFS).
A) Round robin
B) Shortest Process Next (SPN)
C) First Come First Served (SCFS)
D) Feedback
26. ................... is a non preemptive policy in which a short process will jump to the head of the
queue past longer jobs.
A) Round robin
B) Shortest Process Next (SPN)
C) Shortest Remaining Time (SRT)
D) Feedback

27. One difficulty with ............... is the need to know or at least estimate the required processing time
of each process.
A) SPN Policy
B) SRT Policy
C) SCFS Policy
D) Round robin Policy

28. With ................. the scheduler may preempt whenever a new process becomes ready.
A) SPN Policy
B) SRT Policy
C) SCFS Policy
D) Round robin Policy

29. .................... should also give superior turnaround time performance to SPN, because a short job is
given immediate preference to a running longer job.
A) SPN
B) SRT
C) SCFS
D) Round robin

30. ................. policy base the scheduling decision on an estimate of normalized turnaround time.
A) Round robin
B) Shortest Process Next (SPN)
C) Shortest Remaining Time (SRT)
D) Highest Response Ratio Next (HRRN)

Answers

1. A) Long term scheduling


2. B) Medium term scheduling
3. C) Short term scheduling
4. B) i-True, ii-True, iii-False
5. A) Long term scheduler
6. A) i and ii only
7. A) Long term scheduler
8. C) Short term scheduling
9. C) Short term scheduling
10. D) All i, ii, iii and iv
11. B) Turnaround time
12. A) Response time
13. A) Throughput
14. D) i-True, ii-True, iii-True
15. A) Selection function
16. D) Overhead
17. C) min[s]
18. A) max[w]
19. D) All i, ii, iii and iv
20. D) Feedback
21. A) Round robin
22. C) First Come First Served (SCFS)
23. A) i and ii only
24. A) Round robin
25. B) Shortest Process Next (SPN)
26. B) Shortest Process Next (SPN)
27. A) SPN Policy
28. B) SRT Policy
29. B) SRT
30. D) Highest Response Ratio Next (HRRN)

Top 20 MCQ On Multiprocessor And Real Time Scheduling


1. Which of the following are the proposals for multiprocessor thread scheduling and processor
assignment.
2. ) Load Sharing ii) Gang Scheduling iii) Dynamic Scheduling iv) Load Scheduling
A) i, ii and iii only
B) ii, iii and iv only
C) i, iii and iv only
D) All i, ii, iii and iv

2. In ..................... a set of related threads is scheduled to run on a set of processors at the same time,
on a one to one basis.
A) Load Sharing
B) Gang Scheduling
C) Dynamic Scheduling
D) Load Scheduling

3. In .................. approach for multiprocessor thread scheduling and processor assignment, processes
are not assigned to a particular processor.
A) Load Sharing
B) Gang Scheduling
C) Dynamic Scheduling
D) Load Scheduling

4. In ...................... approach, the scheduling routine of the operating system is run of that processor
to select the next thread.
A) Load Sharing
B) Gang Scheduling
C) Dynamic Scheduling
D) Load Scheduling

5. Which of the following is/are the advantages of load sharing.


i) Preempted threads are unlikely to resume execution on the same processor.
ii) The central queue occupies a region of memory that must be accessed in a manner that enforces
mutual exclusion.
iii) If all threads are treated as a common pool of threads, it is unlikely that all of the threads of a
program will gain access to processors at the same time.
3. A) i and ii only
B) ii and iii only
C) i and iiii only
D) All i, ii and iii
6. scheduling overhead may be reduced on ...................... because a single decision affects a number
of processors and processes at one time.
A) Load Sharing
B) Gang Scheduling
C) Dynamic Scheduling
D) Dedicated processor assignment

7. An ................ has a deadline by which it must finish or start, or if may have a constraint on both
and finish time.
A) hard real time task
B) soft real time task
C) aperiodic task
D) periodic task

8. An operating system is ......................... to the extent that it performs operations at fixed,


predetermined times or within predetermined time intervals.
A) deterministic
B) responsiveness
C) reliable
D) operative

9. .............. is concerned with how long, after acknowledgement, it takes an operating system to
service the interrupt.
A) Deterministic
B) Responsiveness
C) Reliable
D) Operative

10. ...................... is concerned with how long an operating system delays before acknowledging an
interrupt.
A) Determinism
B) Responsiveness
C) Reasonableness
D) Operatives
4. 11. State whether the following statements are True or False for the features of real time operating
system.
i) fast process or thread switch
ii) ability to respond to external interrupts quickly.
iii) minimization of intervals during which interrupts are enabled.
iv) preemptive scheduling based on priority
A) i, ii and iii only
B) ii, iii and iv only
C) i, ii and iv only
D) All i, ii, iii and iv

12. ....................... is a characteristic that refers to the ability of a system to fail in such a way as to
preserve a system to fail in such a way as to preserve as much capacity and data is possible.
A) User control
B) Responsiveness
C) Fail soft operation
D) Reliability
13. The result of the .................. in real time scheduling is a schedule that determines, at run time,
when a task must begin execution.
A) Static table driven approaches
B) Dynamic best effort approaches
C) Static priority driven preemptive approaches
D) Dynamic planning based approaches

14. No feasibility analysis is performed in ................... of real time scheduling.


A) Static table driven approaches
B) Dynamic best effort approaches
C) Static priority driven preemptive approaches
D) Dynamic planning based approaches

15. In ................. feasibility is determined at run time rather than offline prior to the start of execution.
A) Static table driven approaches
B) Dynamic best effort approaches
C) Static priority driven preemptive approaches
D) Dynamic planning based approaches

16. In ................. of real-time scheduling, the system tries to meet all deadlines and aborts any started
process whose deadline is missed.
A) Static table driven approaches
B) Dynamic best effort approaches
C) Static priority driven preemptive approaches
D) Dynamic planning based approaches

17. ................... is applicable to tasks that are periodic. Input to the analysis consists of the periodic
ending deadline, and relative priority of each task.
A) Static table driven scheduling
B) Dynamic best effort scheduling
C) Static priority driven preemptive scheduling
D) Dynamic planning based scheduling

18. ................... makes use of the priority driven preemptive scheduling mechanism common to most
non-real time multi-programming systems.
A) Static table driven scheduling
B) Dynamic best effort scheduling
C) Static priority driven preemptive scheduling
D) Dynamic planning based scheduling

19. With .................. after a task arrives, but before its execution begins, an attempt is made to create
a schedule that contains the previously scheduled tasks as well as new arrival.
A) Static table driven scheduling
B) Dynamic best effort scheduling
C) Static priority driven preemptive scheduling
D) Dynamic planning based scheduling

20. ...................... is the approach used by many real time systems that are currently commercially
available.
A) Static table driven scheduling
B) Dynamic best effort scheduling
C) Static priority driven preemptive scheduling
D) Dynamic planning based scheduling

Answers

1. A) i, ii and iii only


2. B) Gang Scheduling
3. A) Load Sharing
4. A) Load Sharing
5. D) All i, ii and iii
6. B) Gang Scheduling
7. C) aperiodic task
8. A) deterministic
9. B) Responsiveness
10. A) Determinism
11. C) i, ii and iv only
12. C) Fail soft operation
13. A) Static table driven approaches
14. B) Dynamic best effort approaches
15. D) Dynamic planning based approaches
16. B) Dynamic best effort approaches
17. A) Static table driven scheduling
18. C) Static priority driven preemptive scheduling
19. D) Dynamic planning based scheduling
20. B) Dynamic best effort scheduling

Top 20 MCQ On I/O Management And Disk Scheduling


Which of the following is/are the technique(s) for performing I/O management function.

A) Programmed I/O
B) Interrupt driven I/O
C) Direct Memory Access
D) All of the above

2. In ..................., the processor issues an I/O command, on behalf of a process, to an I/O module.
A) Programmed I/O
B) Interrupt driven I/O
C) Direct Memory Access
D) Virtual Memory Access

3. In ...................., the processor issues an I/O command on behalf of a process, continues to execute
subsequent instructions and interrupted by the I/O module when the latter has completed it's work.
A) Programmed I/O
B) Interrupt driven I/O
C) Direct Memory Access
D) Virtual Memory Access

4. A ................... module controls the exchange of data between main memory and an I/O module.
A) Programmed I/O
B) Interrupt driven I/O
C) Direct Memory Access
D) Virtual Memory Access

5. The .................. unit is capable of mimicking the processor and indeed of taking over control of the system
from the processor.
B) A) Programmed I/O
B) Interrupt driven I/O
C) Direct Memory Access
D) Virtual Memory Access

6. The ..................... module deals with t he device as a logical resource and is not concerned with the details
of actually controlling the device.
A) Directory Management
B) Logical I/O
C) Device I/O
D) Scheduling and control

7. In ........................, the requested operations and data are converted into appropriate sequences of I/O
instructions, channel commands and controller orders.
A) Directory Management
B) Logical I/O
C) Device I/O
D) Scheduling and control

8. At the layer of ........................, symbolic file names are converted to identifiers that either reference the file
directory or indirectly through a file descriptor or index table.
A) Directory Management
B) Logical I/O
C) Device I/O
D) Scheduling and control

9. ................... layer deals with the logical structure of files and with the operations that can be specified by
users such as open, close, read and write.
A) Physical organization
B) File system
C) Directory management
D) Scheduling and control

10. When a user process issues an I/O request, the operating system assigns a buffer in the system portion of
main memory to the operation is called ..............
A) Double buffer
B) Single buffer
C) Linear buffer
D) Circular buffer
C) 11. ................. may be inadequate if the process performs rapid bursts of I/O.
A) Double buffering
B) Single buffering
C) Linear buffering
D) Circular buffering

12. On a movable head system, the time it takes to position the head at the track is known as ............
A) seek time
B) rotational delay
C) access time
D) Transfer time

13. The time disk controller takes for the beginning of the sector to reach the head is known as .................
A) seek time
B) rotational delay
C) access time
D) Transfer time

14. The .................... consists of two key components: the initial startup time, and the time taken to traverse the
tracks that have to be crossed once the access arm is up to speed.
A) seek time
B) rotational delay
C) access time
D) Transfer time

15. The .................. policy is to select the disk I/O request that requires the least movement of the disk arm
from its current position.
A) Last in first out
B) Shortest service time first
C) Priority by process
D) Random scheduling

16. In ................... policy, when the last track has been visited in one direction, the arm is returned to the
opposite end of the disk and the scan begins again.
A) Last in first out
B) Shortest service time first
C) SCAN
D) Circular SCAN

17. Which of the following is/are the characteristics of RAID architecture.


i) RAID is set of physical disk drives viewed by the operating system as a single logical drive
ii) Data are distributed across the physical drives of an array
iii) It is used to store parity information, which guarantees data recoverability in case of disk failure.
A) i and ii only
B) ii and iii only
C) i and iiii only
D) All i, ii and iii

18. ................. is not a true member of RAID family, because it does not include redundancy to improve
performace.
A) RAID Level 0
B) RAID Level 1
C) RAID Level 2
D) RAID Level 3

19. .............. would only be an effective choice in a environment in which many disk errors occur.
A) RAID Level 0
B) RAID Level 1
C) RAID Level 2
D) RAID Level 3
20. In the ..................... scheme, two different parity calculations are carried out an stored in separate blocks on
different disks.
A) RAID Level 4
B) RAID Level 5
C) RAID Level 6
D) RAID Level 3
Answers
1. D) All of the above
2. A) Programmed I/O
3. B) Interrupt driven I/O
4. C) Direct Memory Access
5. C) Direct Memory Access
6. B) Logical I/O
7. C) Device I/O
8. A) Directory Management
9. B) File system
10. B) Single buffer
11. A) Double buffering
12. A) seek time
13. B) rotational delay
14. A) seek time
15. B) Shortest service time first
16. D) Circular SCAN
17. D) All i, ii and iii
18. A) RAID Level 0
19. C) RAID Level 2
20. C) RAID Level 6

Top 25 MCQ Questions On File Management In OS


1. A .................... is the basic element of data where individual field contains a single value, such as an
employees last name, a data or the value of the sensor reading.

A) field
B) record
C) file
D) database

2. A ......................... is collection of related fields that can be treated as a unit by some application program.
A) field
B) record
C) file
D) database

3. .......................... communicate directly with peripheral devices or their controllers or channels.


A) Device drivers
B) Physical I/O
C) Basic I/O supervisor
D) Logical I/O

4. The ......................... is responsible for all file I/O initiation and termination.
A) Device drivers
B) Physical I/O
C) Basic I/O supervisor
D) Logical I/O

5. ............................. provides a general purpose record I/O capability and maintains basic data about files.
A) Device drivers
B) Physical I/O
C) Basic I/O supervisor
D) Logical I/O

6. In the ........................... file organization, data are collected in the order in which they arrive where each
record consists of one burst of data.
A) pile
B) sequential
C) indexed sequential
D) indexed

7. In .......................... file organization, a fixed format is used for records where all records are of the same
length, consisting of the same number of fixed length fields in a particular order.
A) pile
B) sequential
C) indexed sequential
D) indexed

8. The ........................... maintains the key characteristic of the sequential file: Records are organized in
sequence based on a key field.
A) pile
B) sequential file
C) indexed sequential file
D) indexed file

9. The ........................... retains one limitation of the sequential file: effective processing is limited to that
which is based on a single field of the file.
A) pile
B) sequential file
C) indexed sequential file
D) indexed file

10. ........................ are used mostly in applications where data are rarely processed exhaustively.
A) pile
B) sequential file
C) indexed sequential file
D) indexed file
11. Airline reservation systems and inventory control system are the examples of .......................... system.
A) pile
B) sequential file
C) indexed sequential file
D) indexed file

12. The ...................... greatly reduced the time required to access a single record, without sacrificing the
sequential nature of the file.
A) pile
B) sequential file
C) indexed sequential file
D) indexed file

13. In free space management, ....................... method has negligible space overhead because there is no need
for a disk allocation table, merely for a pointer to the beginning of the chain and the length of the first portion.
A) Bit tables
B) Chained Free Portions
C) Indexing
D) Free Block List

14. In .......................... method on free space management, each block is assigned in a reserved portion of the
disk.
A) Bit tables
B) Chained Free Portions
C) Indexing
D) Free Block List

15. A ..................... on free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to find one or a
contiguous group of free blocks.
A) Bit table
B) Chained Free Portion
C) Indexing
D) Free Block List

16. In ................................ method, the file allocation table contains a separate one level index for each file, the
index has one entry for each portion allocated to the file.
A) Chained allocation
B) Indexed allocation
C) Contiguous allocation
D) Variable allocation

17. ....................... is a preallocation strategy, using variable size portions where the file allocation table needs
just a single entry for each file, showing the starting block and the length of the file.
A) Chained allocation
B) Indexed allocation
C) Contiguous allocation
D) Variable allocation

18. Typically, ..................... is on an individual block basis where each block contains a pointer to the next
block in the chain.
A) Chained allocation
B) Indexed allocation
C) Contiguous allocation
D) Variable allocation

19. Which of the following is/are the types of operations that may be performed on the directory.
i) Search ii) Create file iii) Create directory iv) List directory
A) i, ii and iii only
B) ii, iii and iv only
C) i, ii and iv only
D) All i, ii, iii and iv
20. ...................... are often used where very rapid access is required, where fixed length records are used, and
where records are always accessed one at a time.
A) Indexed files
B) Direct files
C) Sequential files
D) Indexed Sequential files

21. An alternative is to organize the sequential file physically is a .................


A) List
B) Linked List
C) Queue
D) Stack

22. ........................ are typically used in batch applications and are generally optimum for such applications if
they involve the processing of all the records.
A) Indexed files
B) Direct files
C) Sequential files
D) Indexed Sequential files

23. Directories, pricing tables, schedules and name lists are the examples of ...................
A) Indexed files
B) Direct files
C) Sequential files
D) Indexed Sequential files

24. An interactive user or a process has associated with pathname is a current directory which is often referred
to as the .........................
A) update directory
B) list directory
C) working directory
D) create directory

25. ............................. are small fixed portions which provide greater flexibility which may require large tables
or complex structures for their allocation.
A) Blocks
B) Columns
C) Segments
D) Partitions

Answers
1. A) field
2. B) record
3. A) Device drivers
4. C) Basic I/O supervisor
5. D) Logical I/O
6. A) pile
7. B) sequential
8. C) indexed sequential file
9. C) indexed sequential file
10. D) indexed file
11. D) indexed file
12. C) indexed sequential file
13. B) Chained Free Portions
14. D) Free Block List
15. A) Bit table
16. B) Indexed allocation
17. C) Contiguous allocation
18. A) Chained allocation
19. C) i, ii and iv only
20. B) Direct files
21. B) Linked List
22. C) Sequential files
23. B) Direct files
24. C) working directory
25. A) Blocks

MCQ On Software Development Strategies Part-1


1. The .............. was an impressed version of an earlier process model called the Nine-phase, stage-wise models.
A) nine-phase model
B) waterfall model
C) incremental and iterative model
D) evolutionary development model

2. The .................. was a one-directional, sequential model that was enhanced by the warerfall model through
the introduction of bi-directional relations between the successive model stages.
A) nine-phase model
B) waterfall model
C) incremental and iterative model
D) evolutionary development model

3. .................... model also called phased development models that share the common objective of reducing the
cycle time for development.
A) Evolutionary Development Model
B) Incremental and Iterative Model
C) Prototyping Model
D) Spiral Model

4. The ................................. models might be compared to depth-first and breadth-first approaches.


A) nine-phase model
B) waterfall model
C) incremental and iterative model
D) evolutionary development model

5. In a ...................... approach, a new functional behavior of the system is implemented in detail at each state.
2. ) depth-first ii) breadth-first
iii) incremental iv) iterative
A) i and iii only
B) ii and iii only
C) i and iv only
D) ii and iv only

6. In a ..........................., the set of functions is initially implemented in a broad but shallow manner where
many functions are included but only tentatively realized.
i) depth-first ii) breadth-first
iii) incremental iv) iterative
A) i and iii only
B) ii and iii only
C) i and iv only
D) ii and iv only

7. In ......................... approach, increments of system capability are released with subsequent stages of
development based on user and developer experience with earlier releases.
A) Evolutionary Development Model
B) Incremental and Iterative Model
C) Prototyping Model
D) Spiral Model

8. The ........................... fixes requirements, costs and schedule at the earliest point in order to be able to meet
contractual restrictions.
A) waterfall approach
B) prototyping approach
C) spiral approach
D) incremental approach

9. The .......................... usually involves building a small version of the intended system prior to building a
small version of the intended system prior to building the proposed completed system.
A) waterfall approach
B) prototyping approach
C) spiral approach
D) incremental approach

10. Which of the following is/are the advantages of incremental development models for software
development.
i) Improved development team morale early solution of implementation problems.
ii) Improved maintenance
iii) Improved control of over engineering or gold-plating measurement of productivity estimation feedback
smoother staffing requirement.
A) i and ii only
B) ii and iii only
C) i and iii only
D) All i, ii and iii
3. 11. ............................ refers to the use of prototyping as a technique for gathering and clarifying requirements.
A) Exploratory prototyping
B) Experimental prototyping
C) Evolutionary prototyping
D) Embedded prototyping

12. .............................. is used to explore changing requirements incrementally and adapt a system to them.
A) Exploratory prototyping
B) Experimental prototyping
C) Evolutionary prototyping
D) Embedded prototyping

13. ................................ is used to explore changing requirements incrementally and adapt a system to them.
A) Exploratory prototyping
B) Experimental prototyping
C) Evolutionary prototyping
D) Embedded prototyping

14. ................................... refers to prototyping as a component of another software development strategy.


A) Embedded prototyping
B) Horizontal prototyping
C) Vertical prototyping
D) Exploratory prototyping

15. In .........................., most of the system functions are at least nominally accessible, but only a few are
actually operational.
A) embedded prototyping
B) horizontal prototyping
C) vertical prototyping
D) exploratory prototyping

16. In .............................., a narrow vertical slice of the system function is implemented.


A) embedded prototyping
B) horizontal prototyping
C) vertical prototyping
D) exploratory prototyping

17. ............................. gives the developer a better understanding of the user's work problems and needs and
helps the users to clarify their requirements as well.
A) Embedded prototyping
B) Horizontal prototyping
C) Vertical prototyping
D) Exploratory prototyping

18. Which of the following is/are the shortcomings of prototyping development model.
i) Leading users to overestimate the capabilities of a software product.
ii) Difficulties in project management and control.
iii) provide a tangible or visual expression of proposed system.
iv) Difficulty in applying the technique to large systems design.
A) i, ii and iii only
B) ii, iii and iv only
C) i, ii and iv only
D) All i, ii, iii and iv only

19. The .......................... allows one to incorporate other process models in an inclusive framework driven by
project requirements and the dual objective of maximizing user satisfaction while minimizing development
uncertainty.
A) waterfall model
B) spiral model
C) prototyping model
D) evolutionary development model

20. The .......................... illustrates how process models can be combined with one another to good effect, such
as by integrating prototyping in order to reduce risk.
A) waterfall model
B) spiral model
C) prototyping model
D) evolutionary development model

Answers
1. B) waterfall model
2. A) nine-phase model
3. B) Incremental and Iterative Model
4. C) incremental and iterative model
5. A) i and iii only
6. D) ii and iv only
7. A) Evolutionary Development Model
8. A) waterfall approach
9. B) prototyping approach
10. D) All i, ii and iii
11. A) Exploratory prototyping
12. B) Experimental prototyping
13. C) Evolutionary prototyping
14. A) Embedded prototyping
15. B) horizontal prototyping
16. C) vertical prototyping
17. D) Exploratory prototyping
18. C) i, ii and iv only
19. B) spiral model
20. B) spiral model

MCQ On Software Development Strategies Part-2


1The .................. uses a team oriented model that focuses on enforcing the use of theoretically sound engineering
processes and practices.
A) clean-room model
B) capability maturity model
C) prototyping model
D) spiral model

2. The ................... focuses on management of the entire development environment or process in a team or organized
context, emphasizing "process management and the principles and practices associated with software process maturity".
A) clean-room model
B) capability maturity model
C) prototyping model
D) spiral model

3. The testing process in ......................... is intended to demonstrate the validity of the system under expected usage,
rather than to detect and remove defects.
A) clean-room model
B) capability maturity model
C) prototyping model
D) spiral model

4. ......................... diagrammatic models or tools are used to define the objects, their properties and relations.
A) Static UML
B) Dynamic UML
C) UML sequence
D) Hybrid UML

5. .......................... diagrammatic models or tools are used to define the states of the objects, their state transitions, event
handling and message passing.
A) Static UML
B) Dynamic UML
C) UML sequence
D) Hybrid UML

6. .................... diagrams are used to illustrate the interactions between objects visually.
A) UML collaboration
B) UML sequence
C) System sequence
D) UML activity

7. ...................... diagrams are used to illustrate the interactions between objects arranged in a time sequence and to
clarify the logic of use cases.
A) UML collaboration
B) UML sequence
C) System sequence
D) UML activity

8. A ....................... diagram is a visual illustration for the system responses in the use case for a scenario, which
describes the system operations triggered by a use case.
A) UML collaboration
B) UML sequence
C) System sequence
D) UML activity

9. ....................... diagrams are used to understand the logic of use cases and business processes.
A) Traditional state machine
B) UML sequence
C) System sequence
D) UML activity

10. ................... diagrams illustrate the behavior of an object in response to events and as a function of its internal state.
A) Traditional state machine
B) UML sequence
C) System sequence
D) UML activity
11. A/An ........................ makes a detailed review of all existing business applications with respect to their longevity,
size, maintainability and critically.
A) reverse engineering
B) forward engineering
C) inventory analysis
D) data engineering

12. ...................... refers to the attempt to extract and abstract design information from the existing system's source code.
A) Reverse engineering
B) Forward engineering
C) Inventory analysis
D) Data engineering

13. .................. refers to the use of the process results or products from the reverse engineering phase to develop the
new system.
A) Reverse engineering
B) Forward engineering
C) Re-documentation
D) Data engineering

14. ..................... uses the information about the system's scope and functionality provided by the inventory analysis.
A) Reverse engineering
B) Forward engineering
C) Re-documentation
D) Data engineering

15. ........................ refers to translation of the current model to the target data model.
A) Reverse engineering
B) Forward engineering
C) Re-documentation
D) Data engineering

16. ........................ creates new system documentation from legacy documentation according to an appropriate
documentation standard.
A) Reverse engineering
B) Forward engineering
C) Re-documentation
D)Re-structuring

17. .................... transforms the structure and source code for the system while preserving the system's external
functional behavior.
A) Reverse engineering
B) Forward engineering
C) Re-documentation
D)Re-structuring

18. State whether the following statements about re-engineering are True or False.
i) The advantage of re-engineering is that it can reverse aging symptoms.
ii) Re-engineered components can be constructed through the application of an externally provided re-engineering
service.
A) True, False
B) False, True
C) True, True
D) False, False

19. The ......................... phase of rational unified process model defines the vision of the actual use end product and the
scope of the project.
A) inception
B) construction
C) transition
D) elaboration

20. The ................... phase of rational unified process model builds the product, modifying the vision and the plan as it
proceeds.
A) inception
B) construction
C) transition
D) elaboration

Answers
1. A) clean-room model
2. B) capability maturity model
3. A) clean-room model
4. A) Static UML
5. B) Dynamic UML
6. A) UML collaboration
7. B) UML sequence
8. C) System sequence
9. D) UML activity
10. A) Traditional state machine
11. C) inventory analysis
12. A) Reverse engineering
13. B) Forward engineering
14. A) Reverse engineering
15. D) Data engineering
16. C) Re-documentation
17. D)Re-structuring
18. C) True, True
19. A) inception
20. B) construction
MCQ On Software Development Strategies Part-3
1. The ..................... refers to the often disappointing lack of improvement in software development productivity
despite the application of powerful new development techniques and automated support like CASE tools.
A) system dynamics model
B) capability maturity model
C) personal software process model
D) open source development model

2. ............................., closely and formally address the team and organizational context in which a development process
is embedded.
A) Human factor development model
B) Capability maturity model
C) Personal software process model
D) Open source development model

3. .......................... is the methodology used in agile software development model.


A) Incremental development of working software
B) Internet communication and distribution
C) Rapid linear sequence development and reuse
D) Aspect-oriented software architecture

4. The ................................. is a multi staged process definition model intended to characterize and guide the
engineering excellence or maturity of an organization's software development process.
A) system dynamics model
B) capability maturity model
C) personal software process model
D) open source development model

5. The ..................................... attempts to guide individual developers in sharpening the discipline with which they
approach software development.
A) system dynamics model
B) capability maturity model
C) personal software process model
D) open source development model
cientific development and radically challenges the existing technological paradigm.
A) System dynamics model
B) Human factor development model
C) Personal software process model
D) Open source development model

7. A major advantage of the ........................ is that it permits computerized, simulated controlled experiments to test the
impact of different development strategies.
A) system dynamics model
B) capability maturity model
C) personal software process model
D) open source development model

8. .................................. are compatible with an agile approach, but they are certainly not identical to agile models as
they stand.
A) Agile development model
B) Evolutionary development model
C) Rapid application development model
D) Open source development model

9. ............................. is based on iterative incremental delivery as a response to changing and emergent requirements.
A) Agile development model
B) Evolutionary development model
C) Rapid application development model
D) Open source development model
10. Which of the following is the methodology used in rapid application development model.
A) Incremental development of working software
B) Internet communication and distribution
C) Rapid linear sequence development and reuse
D) Aspect-oriented software architecture

11. The ............................ is a model for identifying the organizational processes required to ensure software process
quality.
A) system dynamics model
B) capability maturity model
C) personal software process model
D) open source development model

12. ....................... workflows involve human actors collaborating on a goal, but with few of any defined procedures for
interaction.
i) Ad hoc ii) Collaborative iii) Administrative iv) Production
A) i and iii only
B) ii and iv only
C) i and ii only
D) i and iv only

13. ..................... typically handle low business value activities such as scheduling an interview.
A) Ad hoc workflows
B) Collaborative workflows
C) Administrative workflows
D) Production workflows

14. ......................... workflows refer to how business value administrative domain chains of activities such as purchase
order processing.
A) Ad hoc
B) Collaborative
C) Administrative
D) Production

15. .................. typically handle high business value activities like preparing product documentation.
A) Ad hoc workflows
B) Collaborative workflows
C) Administrative workflows
D) Production workflows

16. .................. refer to high value core business process such as insurance claims handling or loan processing in the
case of a bank.
A) Ad hoc workflows
B) Collaborative workflows
C) Administrative workflows
D) Production workflows

17. ...................................... is a design strategy that tries to address the design and implementation complications
associated with such inter-dependencies by explicitly introducing aspects as system characteristics.
A) Agile development model
B) Evolutionary development model
C) Rapid linear sequence development model
D) Aspect-oriented development model

18. ....................... tends to be susceptible to performance problems that are not recognized until field tests, when they
are finally ..
A) Workflow system development
B) Evolutionary development
C) Rapid linear sequence development
D) Aspect-oriented development

Answers
1. A) system dynamics model
2. B) Capability maturity model
3. A) Incremental development of working software
4. B) capability maturity model
5. C) personal software process model
6. D) Open source development model
7. A) system dynamics model
8. B) Evolutionary development model
9. A) Agile development model
10. C) Rapid linear sequence development and reuse
11. B) capability maturity model
12. C) i and ii only
13. A) Ad hoc workflows
14. C) Administrative
15. B) Collaborative workflows
16. D) Production workflows
17. D) Aspect-oriented development model
18. A) Workflow system development
MCQ On Software Testing In Software Engineering Part-1
1. In .......................,internal and external interfaces are tested as each module is incorporated into the structure.
A) functional validity
B) information content
C) interface integrity
D) performance

2. ........................... tests designed to uncover functional errors are conducted.


A) functional validity
B) information content
C) interface integrity
D) performance

3. .................... tests designed to uncover errors associated with local or global data structures are conducted.
A) functional validity
B) information content
C) interface integrity
D) performance

4. ............................ tests the high levels of system before testing its detailed components.
A) Top-down testing
B) Bottom-up testing
C) Thread testing
D) Stress testing
2. 5. ............................ testing is appropriate for object-oriented systems in that individual objects may be tested
using their own test drivers they are then integrated and the object collection is tested.
A) Top-down
B) Bottom-up
C) Thread
D) Stress

6. The main disadvantage of ............................. is that test output may be difficult to observe.
A) Top-down testing
B) Bottom-up testing
C) Thread testing
D) Stress testing
7. ........................ involves testing the modules at the lower levels in the hierarchy and then working up the
hierarchy or modules until the final module is tested.
A) Top-down testing
B) Bottom-up testing
C) Thread testing
D) Stress testing

8. In ............................., the program is represented as a single abstract component with sub components
represented by stubs.
A) Top-down testing
B) Bottom-up testing
C) Thread testing
D) Stress testing

9. ......................... is a testing strategy, which was devised for testing real-time systems.
A) Top-down testing
B) Bottom-up testing
C) Thread testing
D) Back-to- back testing

10. ................................ testing may be used when more than one version of a system is available for testing.
A) Top-down
B) Bottom-up
C) Thread
D) Back-to- back
3. 11. .............................. is a testing strategy, which may be used after processes, or objects have been
individually tested and integrated into sub-systems.
A) Top-down testing
B) Bottom-up testing
C) Thread testing
D) Back-to- back testing

12. ....................... usually involves planning a series of tests where the load is steadily increased.
A) Top-down testing
B) Bottom-up testing
C) Stress testing
D) Back-to- back testing

13. .......................... is an event-based approach where tests are based on the events, which trigger system
actions.
A) Top-down testing
B) Bottom-up testing
C) Thread testing
D) Back-to- back testing

14. State whether the following statements about the functions of stress testing are True or False.
i) It tests the failure behavior of the system.
ii) It stresses the system and may cause defects to come to light, which would not normally manifest
themselves.
A) True, False
B) False, True
C) False, False
D) True, True

15. ........................... is particularly relevant to distributed systems based on a network of processors.


A) Top-down testing
B) Bottom-up testing
C) Stress testing
D) Back-to- back testing

16. Back-to-back testing is only usually possible in which of the following situations.
i) When a system prototype is available.
ii) When reliable systems are developed using N-version programming.
iii) When different versions of a system have been developed for different types of computers.
A) i and ii only
B) ii and iii only
C) i and iii only
D) All i, ii and iii

17. Which of the following is the correct order for the steps involved in back-to-back testing.
i) run one version then another version of the program.
ii) prepare a general-purpose set of test case.
iii) compare the files produced by the modified and unmodified program version.
A) 1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii
B) 1-ii, 2-iii, 3-i
C) 1-ii, 2-i, 3-iii
D) 1-i, 2-iii, 3-i

18. In ............................... , tests have to be designed to ensure that the system can process its intended load.
A) Top-down testing
B) Bottom-up testing
C) Thread testing
D) Stress testing

19. When using ............................. testing, test drivers must be written to exercise the lower-level components.
A) Top-down
B) Bottom-up
C) Thread
D) Back-to- back

20. Strict ............................ is difficult to implement because of the requirement that program stubs, simulating
lower levels of the system, must be produced.
A) Top-down testing
B) Bottom-up testing
C) Thread testing
D) Stress testing

4. Answers:
5. 1. C) interface integrity
2. A) functional validity
3. B) information content
4. A) Top-down testing
5. B) Bottom-up
6. A) Top-down testing
7. B) Bottom-up testing
8. A) Top-down testing
9. C) Thread testing
10. D) Back-to- back
6. 11. C) Thread testing
12. C) Stress testing
13. C) Thread testing
14. D) True, True
15. C) Stress testing
16. D) All i, ii and iii
17. C) 1-ii, 2-i, 3-iii
18. D) Stress testing
19. B) Bottom-up
20. A) Top-down testing

MCQ On Software Testing In Software Engineering Part-2


1.In ...................... , test cases are designed using only the functional specification of the software without any
knowledge of the internal structure of the software.
A) white-box testing
B) black-box testing
C) system testing
D) acceptance testing

2..................... of software is predicated on close examination of procedural detail.


A) white-box testing
B) black-box testing
C) system testing
D) acceptance testing

3. ....................... is sometimes performed with realistic data of the client to demonstrate the software working
satisfactorily.
A) System testingB) Acceptance testing
C) Regression testing
D) Black-box testing

4. .................... testing is the re-execution of some subset of tests that have already been conducted to ensure that
changes have not propagated unintended side-effects.
A) System
B) Acceptance
C) Regression
D) Unit

5. The .................... is white-box oriented, and the step can be conducted in parallel for multiple components.
A) unit testing
B) top-down integration testing
C) bottom-up integration testing
D) regression testing

6. In ......................, processing required for components subordinate to a given level is always available and the need
for stubs is eliminated.
A) unit testing
B) top-down integration testing
C) bottom-up integration testing
D) regression testing

7. ................... is a test case design method that uses the control structure of the procedural design to derive test cases.
A) white-box testing
B) black-box testing
C) system testing
D) acceptance testing

8. ................... is the activity that helps to ensure that changes do not introduce unintended behavior or additional errors.
A) System testing
B) Acceptance testing
C) Regression testing
D) Black-box testing

9. State whether the following statements about regression testing are True or False.
i) A representative sample of tests that will exercise all software functions.
ii) Additional tests that focuses on software functions that are likely to be affected by the change.
A) True, False
B) False, True
C) False, False
D) True, True10. State whether the following statements about software testing are correct.
i) White box testing is also known as glass-box testing.
ii) Black-box testing is also known as functional testing.
iii) White-box testing is also called the structural testing.
A) i and ii only
B) ii and iii only
C) i and iii only
D) All i, ii and iii

11. Designing .................. test cases requires thorough knowledge of the internal structure of software.
A) black-box
B) white-box
C) acceptance
D) regression

12. ..................... is an incremental approach to construction of program structure.


A) Unit testing
B) Top-down integration testing
C) Bottom-up integration testing
D) Regression testing
13. ...................... focuses verification effort on the smallest unit of software design, the software component or module.
A) Unit testing
B) Top-down integration testing
C) Bottom-up integration testing
D) Regression testing

14. .................... may be conducted manually by re-executing a subset of all test cases or using automated
capture/playback tools.
A) System testing
B) Acceptance testing
C) Regression testing
D) Black-box testing
15. Using ....................... methods, the software engineer can derive test cases that
i) Exercise all logical decisions on their true and false sides.
ii) Exercise external data structures to ensure their validity.
iii) Execute all loops at their boundaries.
A) i and ii only
B) ii and iii only
C) i and iii only
D) All i, ii and iii

16. ................... verifies that all elements mesh properly and that overall system function/performance is achieved.
A) System testing
B) Acceptance testing
C) Regression testing
D) Black-box testing

17. ........................ is usually relied on to detect the faults, in addition to the faults introduced during coding phase itself.
A) System testing
B) Acceptance testing
C) Regression testing
D) Black-box testing

18. In ........................ , modules are integrated by moving downward through t he control hierarchy, beginning with the
main control module.
A) unit testing
B) top-down integration testing
C) bottom-up integration testing
D) regression testing

Answers
1. B) black-box testing
2. A) white-box testing
3. B) Acceptance testing
4. C) Regression
5. A) unit testing
6. C) bottom-up integration testing
7. A) white-box testing
8. C) Regression testing
9. D) True, True
10. D) All i, ii and iii
11. B) white-box
12. B) Top-down integration testing
13. A) Unit testing
14. C) Regression testing
15. C) i and iii only
16. A) System testing
17. B) Acceptance testing
18. B) top-down integration testing

Top 20 Interview Questions on SDLC set-1


1) Which phase of the SDLC are information needs identified?
A. preliminary investigation
B. system analysis
C. system design
D. system development

2) How many steps are in the systems development life cycle (SDLC)?
A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 10

3) Actual programming of software code is done during the ....... step in the SDLC.
A. maintenance and evaluation
B. design
C. analysis
D. development and documentation

4) In the preliminary investigation phase of the SDLC, which on of the following tasks would not be included?
A. briefly defining the problem
B. suggesting alternative solutions
C. gathering the data
D. preparing a short report

5) The first step in the systems development life cycle(SDLC) is .. A. analysis


B. design
C. problem/opportunity identification
D. development and documentation

6) Enhancements, upgrades, and bug fixes are done during the ...... step in the SDLC.
A. maintenance and evaluation
B. problem/opportunity identification
C. design
D. development and documentation

7) The first task to complete in the design phase of the SDLC is to


A. design alternative systems
B. select the best design
C. examine hardware requirements
D. write a systems design report

8) Most modern software applications enable you to customize and automate various features using small custom-built
"miniprograms" called ....
A. macros
B. code
C. routines
D. subroutines

9) The .......... determines whether the project should go forward


A. feasibility assessment
B. opportunity identification
C. system evaluation
D. program specification

10) Determining whether expected cost savings and other benefits will exceed the cost of developing an alternative
system is related to
A. technical feasibility
B. economic feasibility
C. organizational feasibility
D. operational feasibility11) The organized process or set of steps that needs to be followed to develop an information
system is known as the
A. analytical cycle
B. design cycle
C. program specification
D. system development life cycle

12) Technical writers generally provide the ......... for the new system.
A. programs
B. network
C. analysis
D. documentation

13) The ...... approach conversion type simply involves abandoning the old system and using the new
A. direct
B. pilot
C. phased
D. parallel

14) How many steps are in the program development life cycle(PDLC)?
A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 10

15) ........ design and implement database structures.


A. programmers
B. project managers
C. Technical writers
D. Database administrators

16) The implementation approach that is the least risky would be the
A. direct approach
B. parallel approach
C. phased approach
D. pilot approach

17) The make or buy decision is associated with the ...... step in the SDLC.
A. analysis
B. design
C. problem/opportunity identification
D. development and documentation

18) ............. spend most of their time in the beginning stages of the SDLC, talking with end-users, gathering
information, documenting systems, and proposing solutions.
A. system analysts
B. project managers
C. Technical writers
D. Database administrators

19) State whether the following statements are True or False.


i) A systems analyst uses the six-phase systems life-cycle to improve and maintain information systems.
ii) During the preliminary investigation phase of the SDLC, you first suggest alternative and then define the problem.
A. i-True, ii-True
B. i-True, ii-False
C. i-False, ii-True
D. i-False, ii-False

20) In the analysis phase, the development of the ........ occurs which is a clear statement of the goals and objectives of
the project.
A. documentation
B. flowchart
C. program specification
D. design

Answers
1) A. preliminary investigation
2) C. 6
3) D. development and documentation
4) C. gathering the data
5) C. problem/opportunity identification
6) A. maintenance and evaluation
7) A. design alternative systems
8) C. routines
9) A. feasibility assessment
10) B. economic feasibility
11) D. system development life cycle
12) D. documentation
13) direct
14) B. 5
15) D. Database administrators
16) C. phased approach
17) B. design
18) A. system analysts
19) B. i-True, ii-False
20) C. program specification
Interview Questions on System Development Tools set-4
1) .......... helps prefer the easier to flow mapping of complex design, which should show branch points forks, but
not the details of the user dialogue.
2) A. System flowchart
B. Decision Tables
C. Decision Trees
D. Organization chart

2) Functionally ............ performs documentation only, in which variety of dictionary could be maintained as a
manual rather than an automated database.
A. passive data dictionaries
B. active data dictionaries
C. in-line data dictionaries
D. out-line data dictionaries

3) ........... in HIPO break a system or program down into increasingly detailed levels.
A. Visual Table of Contents(VTOC)
B. Input Process Output(IPO)
C. None of the above
D. Both of the above

4) ......... indicates the flow of work/system, document and operations in a data processing application.
3) . System flowchart
B. Decision Tables
C. Decision Trees
D. Organization chart

5) The ........... supports program and operations development by exporting database definitions and program
data storage definitions.
A. passive data dictionaries
B. active data dictionaries
C. in-line data dictionaries
D. All of the above

6) In a system flowchart .......... indicates that data will be put into a new order or sequence.
A. Flow Lines
B. Sort Symbol
C. Connector
D. Keying operation

7) Which of the following statements are True or False for the construction of data dictionary entries.
i) Each word must be unique, we cannot have two definitions of the same client name.
ii) Self-defining words should not be decomposed.
A. i-True, ii-False
B. i-True, ii-True
C. i-False, ii-True
D. i-False, ii-False

8) A/An ............. is active during program execution, performing such feats as transaction validation and editing.
A. passive data dictionaries
B. active data dictionaries
C. in-line data dictionaries
D. out-line data dictionaries

9) .......... are a good visual aid for communicating the logic or a system.
A. System flowcharts
B. Detail flowcharts
C. Organization chart
D. Data flow diagram

10) ........ are well documented, knowledge belongs to an organization and does not disappear with the departure of
analyst.
A. System flowchart
B. Decision Tables
C. Decision Trees
D. Organization chart

11) ........... are better documentation for users, tabular representation may be more compact and easy to understand.
A. System flowcharts
B. Data flow diagram
C. Decision Table
D. Decision Tree

12) When used to diagram a program, the ........ arranges the program modules in order of priority.
A. VTOC
B. IPO
C. TOC
D. ORR

13) The ........... is related to one database management system, which is global or organization wide.
A. stand alone dictionary
B. integrated dictionary
C. in-line dictionary
D. passive dictionary

14) In ........... alternatives are shown side by side to facilitate analysis of combinations.
A. System flowcharts
B. Data flow diagram
C. Decision Table
D. Decision Tree

15) In ............. aliases or synonyms are allowed when two or more entries show the same meaning.
A. Data Flow Diagrams
B. Data Dictionary
C. Data Table
D. Decision Table

16) The ............. is not tied to anyone DBMS, although it may have special advantages for one DBMS.
A. stand alone dictionary
B. integrated dictionary
C. in-line dictionary
D. passive dictionary

17) .............. helps prefer the easier to flow mapping of a complex design which should show branch point forks, but
not the details of the user dialogue.
A. System flowchart
B. Decision Tables
C. Decision Trees
D. Organization chart

18) Control information such as record counts, passwords and validation requirements are not pertinent to a ...........
A. System flowchart
B. Decision Table
C. Data Flow Diagram
D. HIPO

19) Both integrated and stand alone dictionaries can be identified by functions as
i) in-line
ii) out-line
iii) active
iv) passive
A. i, ii and iv
B. ii, iii and iv
C. i, iii and iv
D. All i, ii, iii and iv

20) .......... consists of two types of diagram, visual table of contents(VTOC) and Input Process Output(IPO).
A. System flowchart
B. Decision Tables
C. Data Flow Diagrams
D. HIPO

Answers
1) 1) C. Decision Trees
2) A. passive data dictionaries
3) A. Visual Table of Contents(VTOC)
4) A. System flowchart
5) B. active data dictionaries
6) B. Sort Symbol
7) B. i-True, ii-True
8) C. in-line data dictionaries
9) A. System flowcharts
10) A. System flowchart
11) C. Decision Table
12) A. VTOC
13) B. integrated dictionary
14) C. Decision Table
15) B. Data Dictionary
16) A. stand alone dictionary
17) C. Decision Trees
18) C. Data Flow Diagram
19) C. i, iii and iv
20) D. HIPO

Top 20 Objective Questions on SDLC set-5


1) The first step in preliminary analysis is to
2) A. purchase supplies
B. hire consultants
C. define the problem
D. propose changes

2) ........... carries out feasibility studies on existing and proposed systems to determine the economic
viability of computer processing within them.
A. Analyst
B. Chief System Analyst
C. System Analyst
D. All of the above

3) Understanding the nature, function and interrelationships of various subsystems involved in .....
A. system analysis
B. systems implementation
C. systems development
D. systems maintenance

4) Which of the following tasks is not part of the system design phase?
A. designing alternative systems
B. selecting the best system
C. writting a systems design report
D. suggesting alternative solutions

5) Investigating of the existing system by means of interviews, questionnaires and observations is the
main responsibilities of ......
A. Analyst
B. Chief System Analyst
3) C. System Analyst
D. All of the above

6) ......... assess the resources required for and total cost of preparing and installing the computer
procedures and supporting manual systems.
A. Analyst
B. Chief System Analyst
C. System Analyst
D. Data processing manager

7) Determining if employees, managers, and clients will resist a proposed new system is part of this
feasibility study
A. technical feasibility
B. economic feasibility
C. organizational feasibility
D. operational feasibility

8) System projects are initiated for the following reasons


i) capability
ii) control
iii) communication
iv) cost
A. i, ii and iv only
B. ii, iii and iv only
C. i, ii and iii only
D. All i, ii, iii and iv

9) ........... assesses the levels of control required and maintains liaison with auditors to ensure that the design meets their
needs.
A. Analyst
B. Chief System Analyst
C. System Analyst
D. Data processing manager

10) The first step in implementing a new system is to determine the


A. hardware requirements
B. software requirements
C. conversion type
D. best alternative

11) .......... consisting of key managers from various departments of the organization as well as members of information
systems group which is responsible for supervising the review of project proposals.
A. Steering committee
B. Information Systems committee
C. User Group Committee
D. All of the above

12) The limitation of ............... is that the documentation on any existing system is never complete and up to date.
A. Review of Documentation
B. Observation of the situation
C. Conducting Interviews
D. Questionnaire Administration
13) The .......... implementation approach is broken down into smaller parts that are implemented over time.
A. direct
B. parallel
C. phased
D. pilot

14) .......... approach is generally favored because systems projects are considered as business investments.
A. Steering committee
B. Information Systems committee
C. User Group Committee
D. Developer Group Committee

15) .......... has an inherent limitation of the fact that the analyst may never be able to observe the intricacies of the
system.
A. Review of Documentation
B. Observation of the situation
C. Conducting Interviews
D. Questionnaire Administration

16) A modifiable model built before the actual system is installed is called a(n)
A. sample
B. example
C. template
D. prototype

17) ........... approves or disapproves projects and sets priorities, indicating which projects are most important and should
receive immediate attention.
A. Steering committee
B. Information Systems committee
C. User Group Committee
D. Developer Group Committee

18) The limitation of .......... is that the user manager may not be able to explain the problem in detail.
A. Review of Documentation
B. Observation of the situation
C. Conducting Interviews
D. Questionnaire Administration

19) State whether the following statements are True or False.


i) Information problems or needs are discussed during the systems design phase of the SDLC.
ii) The first step of the systems design phase of the SDLC is to select the best alternative.
A. i-True, ii-True
B. i-True, ii-False
C. i-False, ii-True
D. i-False, ii-False

20) Defining the interfaces between various programs and designing tests for checking their interfaces is the basic
activity involved in .....
A. preliminary investigation
B. systems implementation
C. systems development
D. systems maintenance

Answers
1) 1) C. define the problem
2) B. Chief System Analyst
3) A. system analysis
4) D. suggesting alternative solutions
5) C. System Analyst
6) B. Chief System Analyst
7) D. operational feasibility
8) D. All i, ii, iii and iv
9) C. System Analyst
10) C. conversion type
11) A. Steering committee
12) A. Review of Documentation
13) C. phased
14) A. Steering committee
15) B. Observation of the situation
16) D. prototype
17) B. Information Systems committee
18) C. Conducting Interviews
19) D. i-False, ii-False
20) C. systems development

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