PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY AND BIOLOGY

Class II Medical Excel 2016-17

Solution to Practice paper - 01 Date 30-03-2017

PART I - PHYSICS
1. A body of mass 10 kg is moved with uniform speed on a rough horizontal surface for a distance of 2 m.
The work done is 150 J. The same body is moved over the inclined plane of inclination 30 with
horizontal for a distance of 2 m. The work done against friction will be (take g = 10 m/s2)
(A) 250 J (B) 50 J (C) 150 J (D) (75 3)J
Ans (D)
For motion on horizontal surface with uniform speed W = (mg)x
( work will be done against friction only)
150 = (10 10) 2 or = 0.75
When the surface is inclined, work done will be
W1 = (mg cos ) x
3
0.75 10 10 2 (75 3) J
2
2. An aeroplane requires for takeoff a speed of 81 km/hr, the run on ground being 100 m. The mass of
aeroplane is 10,000 kg and co-efficient of friction between the plane and ground is 0.2. Assume that the
plane accelerates uniformly during takeoff. The minimum force required by engine of the plane for
takeoff is (g = 10 m/s2)
(A) 4.53 N (B) 4.53 104 N (C) 4.53 102 N (D) 4.53 106N
Ans (B)
v2 u2
a 2.53 ms 1 , Fnet Ma Mg (g a)M 4.53 104 N
2s
3. A ball collides elastically with another ball of same mass. The collision is oblique and initially one of the
balls was at rest. After the collision, the two balls move with same speeds. The angle between the
velocity of balls after collision is
(A) 30 (B) 45 (C) 60 (D) 90
Ans (D)
From figure Mv cos 1 + Mv cos 2 = Mu
u
Mv sin 1 Mv sin 2 = 0 1 2 (say) cos
2v
1 2 1 2 1 2
Also mu mv mv u 2v
2 2 2
2v 1
cos 1 2 45
2v 2
4. A block of mass m is pulled along a horizontal surface by applying a force at an angle with the
horizontal. If the block travels with a uniform velocity and has a displacement d and the coefficient of
friction is , then the work done by the applied force is
mgd mgd cos mgd sin mgd cos
(A) (B) (C) (D)
cos sin cos sin cos sin cos sin

1
 Ans (B)
N = mg F sin
F sin
Block moves with uniform velocity. Hence net force = 0 F
N
or, F cos = N = (mg F sin )
mg F cos
F
cos sin
mgd cos
W Fs cos
cos sin mg
5. The density of a newly discovered planet is twice that of earth. The acceleration due to gravity at the
surface of the planet is equal to that at the surface of the earth. If the radius of the earth is R, the radius
of the planet would be
1 1
(A) 4 R (B) R (C) R (D) 2 R
4 2
Ans (C)
Acceleration due to gravity on the surface of earth is given by
GM
g 2 (1)
R
Also, mass M = volume density
4
R 3
3
4
Substituting the value in (1), we get g GR
3
g R
g R
(2)
g R
Since acceleration due to gravity on planet = acceleration due to gravity on surface of earth
that is, g = g
g R R
So, from (2), we have or
g R R
1
Substituting = 2, we get R R R
2
6. Four bodies of masses 2, 3, 5 and 8 kg are placed at the four corners of a square of side 2 m. The
position of CM of system [assuming 2 kg at the origin] will be
8 13 8 11
(A) , m (B) , m
9 9 9 9
11 13 11 8
(C) , m (D) , m
9 9 9 9
Ans (A)
The co-ordinates of the corners of the square are (0, 0), (2, 0), (2, 2), (0, 2). Hence,
m x m 2 x 2 m3x 3 m 4 x 4
x COM 1 1
m1 m 2 m 3 m 4
2 0 3 2 5 2 8 0 16 8
m
2358 18 9

2ME1617PCBPP1 2
 m1y1 m 2 y 2 m3 y3 m 4 y 4
y COM
m1 m 2 m 3 m 4
2 0 3 0 5 2 8 2 26 13
m
2 3 58 18 9
8 13
Coordinates of the centre of mass , m
9 9
7. A particle starting from rest moves with a constant angular acceleration in a circular path. The time at
which the magnitudes of tangential and radial acceleration are equal is
1 1
(A) (B) (C) (D)

Ans (C)
a t r,
v 2 r 2 2 t 2
an r 2 t 2 [ v = rt]
r r
1
When a t a n , r 2 t 2 r t

8. Certain amount of an ideal gas is contained in a closed vessel. The vessel is moving with a constant
velocity v. The molecular mass of gas is MO. The rise in temperature of the gas when the vessel is
C
suddenly stopped is P
CV
M0v2 M 0 v 2 ( 1) M0v2 M 0 v2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2R( 1) 2R 2R 2R( 1)
Ans (B)
When the vessel is suddenly stopped, the ordered motion of gas is converted into its disordered motion
i.e., internal energy of the gas increases. Hence,
1 1 M v2
U MV 2 nC V T (nM 0 )v 2 T 0
2 2 2C V
M 0 v2 M v 2 ( 1)
T 0
R 2R
2
1
9. During an adiabatic process, if the pressure of an ideal gas is proportional to the cube of its temperature,
C
then ratio P is (specific heat of constant volume = CV ; Specific heat of constant pressure = CP)
CV
1 4 5 3
(A) (B) (C) (D)
3 3 3 2
Ans (D)
As pressure is proportional to the cube of temperature,
That is P = kT3
PV
Also PV = RT T
R
kP3V 3
P
R3

3
 R3
P2
kV 3
PV3/2 = constant
3
Therefore,
2
10. A particle executes linear simple harmonic motion with an amplitude of 2 cm. When the particle is at 1
cm from the mean position the magnitude of its velocity is equal to that of its acceleration. The time
period in second is
1 2 3
(A) (B) 2 3 (C) (D)
2 3 3 2
Ans (C)
Velocity v A 2 x 2 and acceleration = 2x
Now given, 2 x A 2 x 2 2 1 22 12
2 2
3 T
3
11. When a wave travels in a medium, the particle displacement is given by the equation
y = a sin 2 (bt cx) where a, b and c are constants. The maximum particle velocity will be twice the
wave velocity if
1 1
(A) c (B) c = a (C) b = ac (D) b
a ac
Ans (A)
Equation of the harmonic progressive wave given y = a sin 2 (bt cx)
Here 2 = = 2 b = b
2 1
k 2c c

1
(Here c is the symbol given for and not the velocity)

1 b
Velocity of the wave b
c c
dy
a2bcos 2(bt cx) a cos t kx
dt
Maximum particle velocity = a = a2b = 2ab
b
given this is 2
c
2 1
i.e., 2a or c
c a
12. When a drop of water is sprinkled on a red hot iron plate, it forms into small spheres but does not
vapourise immediately because
(A) red hot iron is a poor conductor of heat
(B) a layer of water vapour in between the drop and the plate prevents the conduction of heat
(C) boiling point of water is raised
(D) boiling point of water decreases.

2ME1617PCBPP1 4
 Ans (B)
When the water droplet comes in contact with the plate, a part of it is initially vapourised. But the vapour
of water is locked between the plate and the drop. As the vapour is a poor conductor of heat, it prevents
the conduction of heat from the plate to the drop.
13. On the horizontal surface of a truck, a block of mass 1 kg is placed ( = 0.6) and truck is moving with
acceleration 5 ms2. Then the frictional force on the block will be
(A) 5 N (B) 0.588 N (C) 5.88 N (D) 8 N
Ans (C)
F = R = Mg = 0.6 1 9.8 = 5.88 N
14. An automobile of mass m is crossing over a convex upwards bridge with a speed v. If the radius of the
bridge is r, the thrust on the bridge at the highest point will be
mv 2 m v2 m2 v2 g v2 g
(A) mg (B) mg (C) (D)
r r r r
Ans (B)
Thrust = weight centrifugal force.
15. A rope of length 8 m and linear density 0.5 kg m1 is lying lengthwise on a horizontal smooth floor. It is
pulled by a force of 12 N. The tension at the mid-point would be
(A) 12 N (B) 8 N (C) 6 N (D) 4 N
Ans (C)
Mass of the rope = 8 0.5 = 4 kg
F 12
Acceleration = 3 ms 2
m 4
Mass upto 4 m or mid-point = 2 kg
Force used to pull 2 kg = 2 3 = 6 N
So tension at the mid-point = 6 N
x
16. The stationary wave produced on a string is represented by the equation y 5sin cos 40t where x
3
and y are in cm and t is in seconds. The distance between two consecutive nodes is
(A) 5 cm (B) 3 cm (C) 6 cm (D) 40 cm
Ans (B)
The given stationary wave produced on a string in represented by
x
y 5sin cos 40t (i)
3
The standard stationary wave produced on a string is represented by
y = 2A sin (kx) cos (t) ... (ii)
Compare (i) and (ii), we get
2
k or or 6 cm
3 3
6
The distance between two consecutive node is cm 3 cm
2 2

5
17. On sounding turning fork A with another tuning fork B of frequency 384 Hz, 6 beats are produced per
second. After loading the prongs of A with some wax and then sounding it again with B, 4 beats are
produced per second. The frequency of the tuning fork A is
(A) 388 Hz (B) 382 Hz (C) 380 Hz (D) 390 Hz
Ans (D)
Frequency of A = 384 + 6 or 384 6
= 390 Hz or 378 Hz
When A is loaded its frequency decreases. That is it becomes 388 Hz. Hence initial frequency is 390 Hz.
18. The length, breadth and thickness of a block are given by l = 12 cm, b = 6 cm and t = 2.45 cm. The
volume of the block according to the idea of significant figures should be
(A) 1 102 cm3 (B) 2 102 cm3 (C) 1.763 102 cm3 (D) 1 102 cm3
Ans (B)
Volume of the block is given by
V=lbt
Substituting l = 12 cm, b = 6 cm and t = 2.45 cm, we get
V = 176.4 cm3 = 1.764 102 cm3
Since minimum number of significant figures is 1 in breadth, therefore volume will contains only one
significant figure
V = 2 102 cm3
19. A heavy uniform chain lies on horizontal table top. If the coefficient of friction between the chain and
the table surface is 0.25, then the maximum fraction of the length of the chain that can hang over one
edge of the table is
(A) 20 % (B) 25 % (C) 35 % (D) 15 %
Ans (A)
The force of friction on the chain lying on the table should be equal to the weight of the hanging chain.
Let = mass per unit lengths of the chain
= coefficient of friction
l = length of the total chain
x = length of hanging chain
Now (l x) g = xg or (l x) = x
l
or l ( 1)x or x
( 1)
0.25 l 0.25 l
x 0.2 l
(0.25 1) 1.25
x
or 0.2 20%
l
20. Two particles P1 and P2 are separated by a horizontal distance d. They are projected at the same instant
towards each other with speeds u 3 and u at angles of projections 30 and 60 respectively (see figure).
The time after which the horizontal distance between them becomes zero is
d 2d
(A) (B)
u u
d 4d
(C) (D)
2u u

2ME1617PCBPP1 6
 Ans (C)
3 1 d
d u 3 cos30 u cos 60 t u u t t
2 2 2u
21. A bomb of 12 kg explodes into two pieces of masses 4 kg and 8 kg. The velocity of 8 kg mass is 6 m/s.
The kinetic energy of the other mass is
(A) 48 J (B) 32 J (C) 24 J (D) 288 J
Ans (D)

From conservation of (OR) momentum | P1 | | P2 |
P12 P2
KE 2 2
2m1 2m1
(8 6) 2
288 J
24
22. A negatively charged oil drop is prevented from falling under gravity by applying a vertical electric field
of 100 Vm1. If the mass of the drop is 1.6 103 g, the number of electrons carried by the drop is
(g = 10 ms2)
(A) 1018 (B) 1015 (C) 106 (D) 1012
Ans (D)
qE = mg
q = 1.6 107 C
q
q ne n 1012
e
23. Out of two copper spheres of the same size, x is hollow while y is solid. If they are charged at the same
potential, then
(A) Sphere y will have more charge (B) Sphere x will have more charge
(C) Charge on both the spheres is zero (D) Charge on both the spheres is equal
Ans (D)
Charge on both the spheres is equal (charge resides only on the surface of both spheres).
24. Electric current through a conductor varies with time as I (t) = 50 sin (100 t). Here I is in ampere and t
1
in second. Total charge that passes through any point form t = 0 to t s is
200
(A) 1.2 C (B) 0.36 C (C) 0.16 C (D) 0.02 C
Ans (C)
1/200
q idt 50sin(100t)
0

50 1/200
cos(100t)0
100
1 1
cos 100 cos 0
2 200
1
cos 1
2 2
1
0.16 C
2

7
25. A thick spherical shell has inner radius a and outer radius b. The material has resistivity . When a
potential difference is applied between the inner and outer surfaces, its resistance is
ab (b a) 4ab (b a)
(A) (B) (C) (D)
4 (b a) 4ab (b a) 2ab
Ans (D)
dr
Resistance of thin elementary shell of radius r is dR
2r 2 dr
b
dr a
Thus, R dR
2 a r 2
b

b
r 21 [b a]
R R
2 2 1 a 2ab

26. A charge q moves with a velocity 2 ms1 along X-axis in a uniform magnetic field B i 2j 3k T.
The charge will experience a force that lies
(A) along y axis (B) along z axis
(C) along + z axis (D) in yz plane
Ans (D)

Since we know that F q v B q 2i i 2j 3k

F 2q 3j 2k
So, this force lies in the yz plane.

27. A proton experience a force F1 e j k N in a magnetic field B when it has a velocity v1 1i ms 1 .

The force becomes F e i k N when the velocity is changed to v 2 1j ms 1. The magnetic induction
vector at that point is
(A) i j k T (B) i j k T (C) i j k T (D) i j k T
Ans (D)

Let B xi yj zk T. since F q v B , So we get
i j k
e j k e 1 0 0 e zj yk z = 1, y = 1
x y z
i j k
Also, we have e i k e 0 1 0 e zi xk
x y z

z = 1, x = 1 B i j k

28. The I H curve for a ferromagnetic material is as shown in the figure. In this figure
(A) OC is a measure of the retentivity.
(B) OB is a measure of coercivity.
(C) Area enclosed by the curve ABCDEA represents the energy lost
during one cycle of magnetisation.
(D) Area enclosed by the curve ABCDEA represents the work done
in orientating the molecular dipoles along the direction of the external field.
Ans (C)

2ME1617PCBPP1 8
29. When the rate of change of current in a circuit is unity, the induced emf is equal to (numerically)
(A) total flux linked with the coil (B) induced charge
(C) number of turns in the circle (D) coefficient of self induction
Ans (D)
dI dI
| | L , when 1 unit , || = L (numerically)
dt dt
30. A circuit contains two inductors of self-inductance L1 and L2 in series. If M is the mutual inductance
then the effective inductance of the circuit shown will be
(A) L1 + L2
(B) L1 + L2 2M
(C) L1 + L2 + M
(D) L1 + L2 + 2M
Ans (D)
31. The correct graph between the resistance of a conductor with frequency is
Y Y Y Y

(A) (B) (C) (D)

R R R R

X X X X
f f f f

Ans (A)
Resistance does not vary with frequency. i.e., R f .
32. A capacitor of capacity C is connected in A.C. circuit. If the applied emf is V = V0 sin t, then the
current is
V V
(A) I 0 sin t (B) I 0 sin t
L C 2

(C) I = V0 C sin t (D) I V0C sin t
2
Ans (D)
C
In pure capacitor, current leads voltage by and on checking dimensional analysis.
2
Only option (D) is valid.
33. One requires 11 eV of energy to dissociate a carbon monoxide molecule into carbon and oxygen atoms.
The minimum frequency of the appropriate electromagnetic radiation to achieve the dissociation lies in
(A) Visible region (B) Infrared region (C) Ultraviolet region (D) Microwave region.
Ans (C)
hc 1242
E (in eV) =
e (nm)
1242 3 108
(in nm) 113 nm Frequency, 7
2.65 1015 Hz
11 1.13 10
This lies in ultraviolet region

9
34. A light beam is traveling from Region I to Region IV (Refer Figure). The refractive index in regions I,
n n n
II, III and IV are n 0 , 0 , 0 and 0 , respectively. The angle of incidence for which the beam just
2 6 8
misses entering region IV is
3 1
(A) sin 1 (B) sin 1
4 8
1 1
(C) sin 1 (D) sin 1
4 3
Ans (B)
As the beam just suffers TIR at interface of region III and IV
n n n
n 0 sin 0 sin 1 0 sin 2 0 sin 90
2 6 8
1 1
sin sin 1
8 8
35. A ray of light enters from a rarer to a denser medium. The angle of incidence is i. Then the reflected and
refracted rays are mutually perpendicular to each other. The critical angle for the pair of media is
(A) sin1 (cot i) (B)cos1(tan i) (C) sin1 (tan i) (D) tan1 (sin i)
Ans (A)
90 i + 90 r = 90 degrees
sin i sin i
i r 90 tan i
sin r sin(90 i)
sin 90 1
sin C cot i
sin C tan i
C, the critical angle = sin1(cot i)
36. Two identical metal plates show photoelectric effect by a light of wavelength A falling on plate A and
B on plate B (A = 2B) . The maximum kinetic energies related as
K K
(A) 2KA = KB (B) KA< B (C) KA = 2KB (D) KA > B
2 2
Ans (B)
hc hc
W0 K max W0 K A ... (i)
A
hc
and W0 K B ... (ii)
B
1 1
Subtracting (i) from (ii), hc KB KA
B A
1 1 hc
hc K B K A 2 K B K A ... (iii)

B 2 B B

From (ii) and (iii), 2KB 2KA = W0 + KB

KB 2KA = W0
K W K
K A B 0 which gives KA< B
2 2 2

2ME1617PCBPP1 10
 o
37. The threshold wavelength for photoelectric effect of a metal is 6500 A . The work function of the metal
is approximately
(A) 2 eV (B) 1 eV (C) 0.1 eV (D) 3 eV
Ans (A)
12375
W0(eV) 1.9 eV = 2 eV
6500
38. If R is the Rydbergs constant for hydrogen, the wave number of the first line in the Lyman series will
be
R 3R R
(A) (B) (C) (D) 2R
4 4 2
Ans (B)
For Lyman series
1 1 1
R 2 2 here n = 2, 3, 4, 5.
1 n
1 1 1 3R
For first line R 2 2 R 1
1 2 4 4
39. At what rate must the 235U nuclei undergo fission reaction to generate energy at the rate of 3.0 W.
Assume the Q-value of fission to be 200 MeV.
(A) 1023 (B) 1019 (C) 1011 (D) 106
Ans (C)
3
No. of fissions 1011
200 MeV
40. The radioactivity of a sample is X at a time t1 and Y at a time t2. If the mean life of the specimen is , the
number of atoms that have disintegrated in the interval (t2 t1) is
(X Y) (X Y)
(A) (B) (C) (X Y) (D) none of these
2
Ans (C)
N1 N0et 0
dN1
X .N1
dt
Similarly Y .N 2
XY
N1 N 2 (X Y).

41. A common emitter amplifier is designed with npn transistor ( = 0.99). The input impedance is 1 K
and load is 10 k. The voltage gain in common emitter configuration is
(A) 9.9 (B) 99 (C) 990 (D) 9900
Ans (C)
Voltage gain = resistance gain
0.99
99
1 (1 0.99)
10 103
Resistance gain = 10 voltage gain = 99 10 = 990
103

11
42. The current through the ideal diode as shown in the figure is

(A) 0 A (B) 0.02 A (C) 0.04 A (D) 0.06 A

Ans (B)
Here, p-n junction is forward biased. The current flowing through p-n junction is
6V 3V 3V
I 0.02 A
150 150
[ For ideal diode, resistance and pd in forward bias are equal to zero]
10
43. The resonance frequency of the LCR circuit of an oscillator when L mH and C 0.04 F are
2
connected in parallel is
(A) 250 kHz (B) 25 kHz (C) 2.5 kHz (D) 25 MHz
Ans (B)
1 1 1
v 25 kHz
2 LC 2 10 3 6
10 0.04 10
2
44. A beam of natural light falls on a system of 6 polaroids, which are arranged in succession such that each
polaroid is turned through 30 with respect to the preceding one. The percentage of incident intensity
that passes through the system will be
(A) 100 % (B) 50 % (C) 30 % (D) 12 %
Ans (D)
If I is the final intensity and I0 is the initial intensity then
10
I I 1 3
I 0 (cos 2 30) 5 or 0.12
2 I 0 2 2
45. In Youngs experiment, the distance between slits is 0.28 mm and distance between slits and screen is
1.4 m. distance between central bright fringe and third bright fringe is 0.9 cm. What is the wavelength of
used light
(A) 5000 (B) 6000 (C) 7000 (D) 9000
Ans (B)
3D
Position of 3rd bright fringe x 3
d
x 3d (0.9 102 ) (0.28 103 )
6000
3D 3 1.4

PART II - CHEMISTRY
46. All ligands are
(A) Lewis acid (B) Lewis base (C) neutral (D) none of these
Ans (B)
Ligands are electron pair donor.

2ME1617PCBPP1 12
47. The structure of iron pentacarbonyl is
(A) square planar (B) trigonal bipyramidal
(C) triangular (D) none of these
Ans (B)
Electronic configuration of Fe in Fe(CO)5 is
3d 4s 4p

dsp3

Electron pair donated by CO.

48. The decreasing order of boiling points of the following hydrides is
(A) H2O > SbH3 > AsH3 > PH3 > NH3 (B) H2O > NH3 > SbH3 > AsH3 > PH3
(C) H2O > SbH3 > NH3 > AsH3 > PH3 (D) H2O > PH3 > AsH3 > SbH3 > NH3
Ans (C)
H2O and HN3 have abnormally high boiling points because of their tendency to from hydrogen bonds.
NH3 has higher boiling point than phosphine and then boiling point increases down the group because of
increase in size. Hence, the order of boiling point will be
H2O > SbH3 > NH3 > AsH3 > PH3
49. Only two isomeric monochloro derivatives are possible from
(A) n-pentane (B) 2,4-Dimethylpentane(C) benzene (D) 2-methylpropane
Ans (D)
Cl
CH3 C CH3 and CH3 CH CH2 Cl
CH3 CH3
50. Identify Z in the sequence
X
2 5 PO
2 H O/H
CH 3COONH 4
Y Z
(A) CH3CH2CONH2 (B) CH3CN (C) CH3COOH (D) (CH3CO)2O
Ans (C)
P2O5 H O/H
2
CH 3COONH 4 CH3CONH 2
CH3CN CH 3COOH
acetamide ( H2O) methyl cyanide acetic acid
(X) (Y) (Z)

51. In Cannizzaros reaction

(A) aldehyde is converted into alcohol
(B) alcohol is converted into aldehyde
(C) a primary amine is converted into isocyanide
(D) aldehyde is converted into alcohol and sodium carboxylate
Ans (D)
Silver-mirror test. See oxidation reactions of aldehydes.
52. An example of thermoplastic polymer is
(A) nylon (B) bakelite (C) PAN (D) buna-s
Ans (A)
As it softens and melts on heating and becomes hard on cooling.

13
53. Among the following the one that is used as a food preservative is
(A) Sodium sulphate (B) Butylated hydroxyanisole
(B) Saccharin (D) Sodium benzoate
Ans (D)
Among the four preservatives, it is sodium benzoate which prevents undesirable change that occurs in
flavour, texture, colour or appetitic appeal. Also salts of propionic acid and sorbic acid can be used.
54. Among the following fibres polyamide is
(A) Dacron (B) Orlon (C) Nylon 6 (D) Rayon
Ans (C)
Nylons are polyamides.
55. Hydrogen has three isotopes, the number of possible diatomic molecules will be
(A) 3 (B) 6 (C) 9 (D) 12
Ans (B)
The number of possible diatomic molecules for three isotopes of hydrogen will be
1
H 1H, 1H D, 1H T, DD, DT, TT
56. Among the following one that is not an oxide ore
(A) Corundum (B) Zincite (C) Calamine (D) Chromite
Ans (C)
Corundum Al2O3, Zincite ZnO
Calamine ZnCO3, Chromite Cr2O3.FeO
57. Among the following the one that is not the correct name of the formula of the ore given below is
(A) MgSO4.7H2O Epsom salt (B) CuCO3.Cu(OH)2 Malachite
(C) KA1Si3O8 Feldspar (D) KCl.MgCl2.6H2O Dolomite
Ans (D)
KCl.MgCl2.6H2O is carnallite
58. Among the following the correct order of interactions is
(A) Covalent < hydrogen bonding < van der Waals < dipole-covalent
(B) van der Waals < hydrogen bonding < dipole-dipole < covalent
(C) van der Waals < dipole-dipole < hydrogen bonding < covalent
(D) Dipole-dipole < van der Waals < hydrogen bonding < covalent
Ans (C)
The strength of the interactions follows the order:
van der Waals < hydrogen bonding < dipole dipole < covalent.
59. The main demerits of Mendeleevs periodic table are
(i) Hydrogen has been placed in group I though it resembled to group VII as well.
(ii) Position of some elements was not justified.
(iii) Isotopes were not given separate places.
(iv) Lanthanides and actinides were not included in the table.
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii) (B) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(C) (ii) and (iv) (D) (i), (iii) and (iv)
Ans (B)
All are the demerits of Mendeleevs periodic table.

2ME1617PCBPP1 14
60. The system does not exchange heat with the surroundings, then the process is
(A) isothermal (B) adiabatic (C) thermal (D) isochoric
Ans (B)
In adiabatic process, system does not exchange heat with surroundings and temperature keeps
increasing.
61. A process is called reversible when
(A) surrounding and system change are same
(B) there is no boundary between system and surrounding
(C) surrounding is always in equilibrium with system
(D) system changes into surroundings spontaneously
Ans (C)

Each of the following questions consists of a statementI and a StatementII. Examine

both of them and select one of the options using the following codes
(A) Statement-I and Statement-II are true and Statement-II is the correct explanation of Statement-I.
(B) Statement-I and Statement-II are true, but Statement-II is not the correct explanation of
Statement -I
(C) Statement-I is true, but Statement -II is false
(D) If both Statement-I and Statement -II are false
62. Statement-I: The presence of reactants in a closed vessel made of conducting material Is an example of
a closed system
Statement-II: In a closed system, there is no exchange of matter but exchange of energy is possible
between the system and the surroundings.
Ans (A)
63. Arrange the following elements in the order of the increasing electropositive character.
Li, Na, K, Rb, Cs
(A) Li > Na > K > Rb > Cs (B) Li < Na < K < Rb < Cs
(C) Li > Na < K < Rb < Cs (D) Na > Li > K < Rb < Cs
Ans (B)
As ionisation energy decreases from Li to Cs, electropositive character increases from Li to Cs.
64. The reaction H2 (g) + I2(g) 2 HI (g) does not proceed to completion because it is
(A) exothermic (B) endothermic (C) reversible (D) HI formed is unstable
Ans (C)
Reversible reactions do not proceed to competion
K 1
65. The ratio of p for the reaction CO(g) O 2 (g) CO 2 (g)is
Kc 2
1 1
(A) 1 (B) RT (C) (RT) 2 (D) (RT) 2
Ans (D)
3 1
n 1
2 2
1 1

2
Kp
K p K c (RT) or (RT) 2
Kc

15
66. In which of the following reaction, Kp is equal to Kc?
1 1
(A) N 2 3 H 2 N 2 (g) O 2 (g) (B) H 2 (g) I2 (g) 2 HI (g)
2 2
(C) CO(g) H 2O(g) CO 2 (g) H 2 (g) (D) Both B and C
Ans (D)
67. Photochemical smog is formed due to presence of
(A) oxides of sulphur (B) oxides of nitrogen
(C) oxides of carbon (D) oxides of lead.
Ans (B)
Photochemical smog is formed due to photochemical reaction taking place when air contains NO2 and
hydrocarbons.
68. The oxidation number of Cr in CrO5 is
(A) + 3 (B) + 5 (C) + 6 (D) 0
Ans (C)
O O
The structure of CrO5 is O Cr O
O
i.e., it has four peroxide bonds each having an O.N. of 1 and one double bond in which O.N. of O is
2. Therefore, the O.N. of Cr in CrO3 is x + 4 (1) + 1 (2) = 0 or x = + 6
69. The radius of first Bohr orbit in hydrogen atom is
(A) 52.9 cm (B) 52.0 m (C) 52.9 nm (D) 52.9 pm
Ans (D)
Radius of 1st orbit = 0.529 = 52.9 pm.
70. Among the following the one that does not show similarity between boron and aluminium is
(A) Both form oxides of type M2O3 when heated with oxygen at high temperature
(B) Both dissolve in alkalies and evolve hydrogen
(C) Hydroxides of both the elements are basic in nature
(D) Both form nitrides of MN type when heated with N2
Ans (C)
B(OH)3 is a weak acid while Al(OH)3 is amphoteric in nature
71. The compound which will give only acetaldehyde on ozonolysis is
(A) but-1-ene (B) ethylene (C) but-2-ene (D) propylene
Ans (C)
Symmetrical alkenes give single product on ozonolysis.
72. The IUPAC name of the compound, CH3COCH CH COOH is
Cl I
(A) 2-iodo-3-chloro-4-pentanoic acid (B) 4-oxo-3-chloro-2-iodo pentanoic acid
(C) 4-carboxy-4, 3-chloro-2-butanone (D) 3-chloro-2-iodo-4-oxo pentanoic acid
Ans (D)
73. The CC bond length of the following molecules is in the order.
(A) C2H6 > C2H4 > C6H6 > C2H2 (B) C2H2 < C2H4 < C6H6 < C2 H6
(C) C6H6 > C2H2 > C2H6 > C2 H4 (D) C2H4 > C2H6 > C2 H2 > C6H6

2ME1617PCBPP1 16
 Ans (B)
CC, C=C and CC bond lengths are 1.54 , 1.34 and 1.20 respectively. in benzene C=C is 1.40 .
74. Among the following statements the one that is not true w.r.t. micelles is
(A) Surfactant molecules or ions can cluster together as micelles
(B) Micelles are colloid sized cluster of molecules or ions
(C) Micelles are formed only above the Critical micelle concentration (CMC)
(D) none of these
Ans (D)
75. Calculate the mass of urea (NH2CONH2) required to prepare 0.25 molal aqueous solution in 2.5 kg of
water.
(A) 37.5 g (B) 73.5 g (C) 53.7 g (D) 75.3 g
Ans (A)
mass
molar mass
molality
mass of solvent (in kg )
mass
0.25 60 ( molar mass of urea = 60)
2 .5
or Mass = 0.25 2.5 60 = 37.5 g
76. The relative lowering of the vapour pressure of an aqueous solution containing a nonvolatile solute is
0.0125. The mole fraction of the solvent is
(A) 0.875 (B) 0.25 (C) 0.125 (D) 1.25 103
Ans (A)
x1 = 1 x2
= 1 0.125
= 0.875
77. Number of water molecules present in a drop of water weighing 0.018g is
(A) 6.022 1026 (B) 6.022 1023 (C) 6.022 1019 (D) 6.022 1020
Ans (D)
18 g water = 6.022 1023 molecules
0.018 g water = 6.022 1020
78. The volume of water to be added to 40 cm3 of 0.25 N oxalic acid solution in order to make it exactly
decinormal is
(A) 40 cm3 (B) 100 cm3 (C) 60 cm3 (D) 80 cm3
Ans (C)
V1N1 V2 N 2
40 0.25
V2 100 ml
0 .1
Volume after dilution = 100 ml
Amount of water to be added to 40 ml of oxalic acid = 100 40 = 60 ml
79. Number of moles of Al atoms needed to combine with 1.58 moles of O2 to make aluminium oxide,
Al2O3 is
(A) 4.22 (B) 1.36 (C) 2.11 (D) 1.2

17
 Ans (C)
4Al 3O 2
2Al2 O3
4 moles of Al required for 3 moles of O2
4
Moles of Al required for 1.58 moles of O2 1.58 2.106 2.11
3
80. Among the following reagents the one that is not able to reduce an ester into an alcohol i
(A) H2, Pt (B) LIAlH4 (C) NaBH4 (D) Na, C2H5OH
Ans (C)
81. 102 g atom of Ag can be oxidized to Ag+ during the electrolysis of AgNO3 solution using silver
electrode by
(A) 965 coulomb (B) 96500 coulomb
(C) 9650 coulomb (D) 96.500 coulomb
Ans (A)
m it

E 96500
m
102 (Ag is monovalent)
E
q = i t = 96500 102 = 965 C
82. When 9.65 coulomb of electricity is passed through a solution of AgNO3 (atomic mass 108.0) the
amount of silver deposited is
(A) 10.8 mg (B) 5.4 mg (C) 16.2 mg (D) 21.2 mg
Ans (A)
E i t 108 9.65
m 0.0108 g
96500 96500
83. Among the following arrangements the one that does not represent the correct order of the property
stated against is
(A) Sc < Ti < Cr < Mn: number of oxidation states
(B) V2+ < Cr2+ < Mn2+ < Fe2+ : paramagnetic behaviour
(C) Ni2+ < Co2+ < Fe2+ < Mn2+ : ionic size
(D) Co3+ < Fe3+ < Cr3+ < Sc3+ : stability in aqueous solution
Ans (B)
Number of unpaired electrons in Fe2+ is less than Mn2+, so Fe2+ less paramagnetic then Mn2+.
84. Amongst TiF62 , CoF63 , CuCl 2 and NiCl 42 , which are the colourless species?
(atomic number of Ti = 22, Co = 27, Cu = 29, Ni = 28)
(A) CoF63 and NiCl42 (B) TiF62 and Cu 2Cl2 (C) Cu 2Cl2 and NiCl42 (D) TiF62 and CoF63
Ans (B)
In TiF62 titanium is in +4 oxidation state. In Cu2Cl2, the copper is in + 1 oxidation state. Thus in both
cases transition from one d-orbital to other is not possible.
Ti 3d2, 4s2 Ti4+ 3d0 4s0
Cu 3d10, 4s1 Cu1+ 3d10 4s0
85. The achiral amino acid is
(A) Alanine (B) Valine (C) Proline (D) None of the above

2ME1617PCBPP1 18
 Ans (D)
The only achiral amino acid is glycine (NH2CH2COOH)
d NH 3 d H 2
86. For the reaction N 2 3H 2 2NH3 , if 2.4 104 mol L1s 1 , the value of would
dt dt
be
(A) 4 104 mol L1 s1 (B) 6 104 mol L1 s1
(C) 1 104 mol L1 s1 (D) 3.6 104 mol L1 s1
Ans (D)
1 d H 2 1 d NH 3
Rate
3 dt 2 dt
d H 2 3 d NH 3 3
2.4 104 3.6 104 mol L1s 1
dt 2 dt 2
87. Pick the appropriate choice about the collision theory of reaction rates
I. It explains the effect of temperature on rate of reaction
II. It assumes that the reactants must be in correct orientation to react.
III. It says rate depends upon the frequency at which reactants collide
IV. The collisions having energy higher than the threshold value give successful reactions.
The correct points are
(A) I, III, IV (B) II, IV (C) I, IV (D) I, II, III, IV
Ans (D)
All the given statements are correct according to collision theory.
88. The electronic configuration of four atoms are given in brackets
L(1s2 2s2 2p1) ; M(1s2 2s2 2p5) ; Q(1s2 2p2 2p6 3s1) ; R(1s2 2s2 2p2)
The element that would most readily form a diatomic molecule is
(A) Q (B) M (C) R (D) L
Ans (B)
By sharing of 1 electron each both the atoms of M will get a completed octet.
89. In a bonded molecule, the order of repulsion between the bonded and non-bonded electrons is
(A) lone pair lone pair > bond pair bond pair > lone pair bond pair
(B) bond pair bond pair > lone pair lone pair > lone pair bond pair
(C) lone pair lone pair > lone pair bond pair > bond pair bond pair
(D) bond pair bond pair > lone pair bond pair > lone pair lone pair
Ans (C)
lp-lp repulsions > lp-bp repulsions > bp-bp repulsions
90. Among the following the incorrect statements is
(A) Intermolecular hydrogen bonds are formed between two different molecules of compounds
(B) Intramolecular hydrogen bonds are formed between two different molecules of the same compound
(C) Intramolecular hydrogen bonds are formed within the same molecule
(D) Hydrogen bonds have strong influence on the physical properties of a compound
Ans (B)
Intramolecular hydrogen bonds are formed within the same molecule.

19
 PART III - BOTANY
91. Analyse the following statements and identify the correct options given below
I. Two kingdom system of classification did not distinguish between the eukaryotes and prokaryotes,
unicellular and multicellular organism and green algae and fungi
II. The two kingdom classification used for a long time was found inadequate
(A) I is true, but II is false (B) I is false, II is true
(C) I and II are true (C) I and II are false.
Ans (C)
92. Identify and label A, B, C and D in the following diagram

(A) A Head, B Collar, C Sheath, D Tail fibres

(B) A Collar, B Head, C Sheath, D Tail fibres
(C) A Head, B Collar, C Tail fibres, D Sheath
(D) A Collar, B Tail fibres, C Head, D Sheath.
Ans (A)
93. From which of the following algae, agar-agar is commercially extracted
I. Gracilaria II. Fucus III. Sargassum IV. Gelidium
V. Chlorella
(A) III and V (B) II and III (C) I and IV (D) I and II.
Ans (C)
94. Identify the plants, their groups from the following
structure
(A) A-Funaria-Moss; B-Sphagnum-Moss
(B) A-Funaria-Liverwort: B-Sphagnum-Moss
(C) A-Selaginella-Bryophytes; B-Funaria-Liverwort
(D) A-Selaginella-Pteridophytes; B-Funaria-Moss.
Ans (A)

95. Angiospermic plants exhibit and possess

I. double fertilization
II. triploid endosperm
III. diploid endosperm
Choose the correct option from the following regarding above statements.
(A) I and II are correct (B) I and III are correct
(C) II and III are correct (D) I, II and III are correct.
Ans (A)

2ME1617PCBPP1 20
96. Regions of root from the root tip to base are
(A) Region of maturationRegion of elongation Region of meristematic activity
(B) Region of elongationRegion of maturation Region of meristematic activity
(C) Region of meristematic activity Region of elongationRegion of maturation
(D) Region of dividingRegion of maturationRegion of elongation.
Ans (C)
97. Match the following columns
Column I Column II
(a) Alternate phyllotaxy 1. China rose
(b) Opposite phyllotaxy 2. Calotropis
(c) Whorled phyllotaxy 3. Alstonia
Codes
(a) (b) (c)
(A) 3 2 1
(B) 3 1 2
(C) 1 2 3
(D) 1 3 2
Ans (C)
98. Identify types of aestivation in the given diagrams A to D

(A) A-Valvate, B-Imbricate, C-Twisted, D-Vexillary

(B) A-Valvate, B-Twisted, C-Imbricate, D-Vexillary
(C) A-Vexillary, B-Twisted, C-Imbricate, D-Valvate
(D) A-Vexillary, B-Imbricate, C-Twisted, D-Valvate.
Ans (B)
99. Our body gets acclimatized and stop experiencing altitude sickness. This is due to
(A) body compensates high oxygen availability by increasing erythrocyte count
(B) decreasing binding affinity of haemoglobin and increasing breathing rate
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Only (B).
Ans (D)

21
100. Identify A, B, C and D in the given figure and choose the correct option accordingly

(A) A Mesophyll cell, B fixation,

C Bundle sheath cell, D Decarboxylation
(B) A Mesophyll cell, B Decarboxylation,
C Bundle sheath cell, D fixation
(C) A Chloroplast, B Decarboxylation,
C Bundle sheath cell, D fixation
(D) A Chloroplast, B Fixation,
C Bundle sheath cell, D Fixation.

Ans (A)
101. Read the given statements and select the correct option
Statement 1: During photophosphorylation (of photosynthesis), light energy is utilized for the
production of proton gradient during ATP synthesis
Statement 2: In respiration, energy of oxidation reduction is utilized for the phosphorylation and thus
the process is called oxidative phosphorylation
(A) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1
(B) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1
(C) Statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is incorrect
(D) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.
Ans (B)
102. Select the correct statement
(A) when ATP is synthesized directly from metabolites, it is substrate level phosphorylation
(B) in Krebs cycle, citrate undergoes 2 decarboxylations and 4 dehydrogenations
(C) krebs cycle is an amphibolic process
(D) option A, B, and C are correct.
Ans (D)
103. Study the following and find correct statements
I Tapetum nourishes the developing pollen grain
II. Hilum represents the junction between ovule and funicle
III. In aquatic plants such as water hyacinth and lilly pollination is by water
IV. The primary endosperm nucleus is triploid
(A) I and II (B) I, II and IV (C) II, III and IV (D) II and IV.
Ans (B)

2ME1617PCBPP1 22
104. Syngamy and triple fusion is called ____ A _____. The central cell becomes _____ B ____ develop into
____ C _____ and zygote develops into ______ D _______
A, B, C, D in the above statement are
(A) Afusion, Bhaploid, Cdiploid cell, Dembryo
(B) Adouble fertilisation, BPEC, Cendosperm, Dembryo
(C) Aembryo, Bendosperm, CPEC, Ddiploid cell
(D) APEC, Bendosperm, Csyngamy, Dfertilization.
Ans (B)
105. Functional megaspore develops into ____ A ____ also called ____ B ______
A and B in the above sentence is
(A) AFemale gemetophyte; BEmbryo sac (B) AEmbryo sac; BMale gemetophyte
(C) AEndosperm; 5Nucellus (D) AMicrosporangium; BMegasporangium.
Ans (A)
106. Refer the given figure of nucleosome and select the option that correctly identifies the parts A, B and
A B C
(A) DNA Histone octamer H1 histone
(B) Histone octamer H1 histone DNA
(C) Histone octamer DNA H1 histone
(D) DNA H1 histone Histone octamer
Ans (C)
107. Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct option from the codes given below
Column I Column II
(i) F. Meischer (p) DNA double helix
(ii) Griffith (q) Nuclein
(iii) Hershey and Chase (r) S. pneumoniae
(iv) Watson and Crick (s) Bacteriophages
(v) Wilkins and Franklin (t) X - ray diffraction studies
(A) (i) (q), (ii) (r), (iii) (s), (iv) (p), (v) (t)
(B) (i) (t), (ii) (s), (iii) (r), (iv) (p), (v) (q)
(C) (i) (p), (ii) (r), (iii) (s), (iv) (q), (v) (t)
(D) (i) (p), (ii) (s), (iii) (r), (iv) (q), (v) (t).
Ans (A)
108. Study the following statements regarding Bt toxins produced by bacterium Bacillus thuringinesis and
select the correct one
(A) Most strains of Bacillus thuringiensis produce proteins that kill certain insects such as lepidopterans,
coleopterans and dipterans
(B) Bt toxin proteins do not kill the bacteria themselves because the toxin proteins occur in an inactive
form called protoxins
(C) When an insect ingests the inactive Bt toxin, it is converted to an active form of toxin due to alkaline
pH of the gut which solubilises the protein toxin crystals
(D) Statement A, B, and C.
Ans (D)

23
109. Read the given statements and select the correct option
Statement 1: Ti plasmid obtained from Agrobacterium tumefaciens is effectively used as a vector for
gene transfer in plant cells
Statement 2: The part of Ti plasmid transferred into the DNA of plant cells is called as T-DNA
(A) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1
(B) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1
(C) Statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is incorrect
(D) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.
Ans (B)
110. Which of following contains the key tools for recombinant DNA technology?
(i) Restriction endonucleases, ligases, vectors
(ii) Ligases, host organism, polymerase enzymes
(iii) Vectors, Taq polymerase, primers
(iv) Restriction exonucleases, ligases, primers, bioreactors
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii) (B) (i) and (ii)
(C) (i), (iii) and (iv) (D) (iii) and (iv).
Ans (B)
111. Viral genome incorporated into host DNA is called
(A) prophase (B) prophage
(C) bacteriophage (D) cyanophage
Ans (B)
112. Example for secondary meristem is/are
(A) dicot root cambium
(B) interfascicular cambium, cork cambium
(C) only B option is correct example
(D) both option A and B are correct examples.
Ans (D)
113. The meristem responsible for the production of secondary tissues is
(A) primary meristem
(B) root apical meristem
(C) shoot apical meristem
(D) secondary meristem.
Ans (D)
114. Within the cell, ribosomes are found in
(A) cytoplasm
(B) chloroplasts (in plants) and mitochondria
(C) rough ER
(D) option A, B, and C.
Ans (D)

2ME1617PCBPP1 24
115. Study the given chart carefully and identify A, B, C, D and E
Five Kingdoms
Characters
Monera Protista Fungi Plantae Animals
Cell type Prokaryotic A Eukaryotic Eukaryotic Eukaryotic
Cell wall Non-cellular Present in Present (without Present B
(polysaccharide some cellulose) (cellulose)
+ amino acid)
Nuclear C Present Present Present Present
membrane
Body Cellular Cellular Multicellular / D Tissue / organ
organisation loose tissues / organ system
Mode of Autotrophic E Heterotrophic Autotrophic Heterotrophic
nutrition (chemosynthetic tissues (photosynthetic) (holozoic /
and Heterotrophic saprophytic
photosynthetic (Saprophytic / etc.)
and parasite)
heterotrophic
and
heterotrophic
(saprophyte /
parasite

A B C D E
(A) Prokaryotic Present Absent Cellular Heterotrophic
(B) Eukaryotic Absent Absent Tissue / Organ Autotrophic and heterotrophic
(C) Prokaryotic Absent Present Cellular Autotrophic
(D) Eukaryotic Present Present Organ system Saprophytic.
Ans (B)
116. Among the following statements
I. Human RBC is about 7.0 m in diameter
II. Cytoplasm is the main arena of cellular activities
III. The shape of the cells may vary with the function they perform
IV. Various chemical reactions occur in cytoplasm to keep the cell in the living state
(A) I and IV are incorrect (B) I, IV and II are incorrect
(C) I, II, III and IV are correct (D) II is incorrect
Ans (C)
117. Choose the correct statement among the following
I. Mycoplasmas are the smallest cells
II. Nerve cells are some of the longest cells
III. Ribosomes are non-membrane bound organelles found only in eukaryotic cells
IV. The cytoplasm is the main arena of cellular activities only in plant cells
(A) I, II and III (B) I and II (C) II and III (D) I, II, III and IV.
Ans (B)

25
118. Select the correct statements among the following
I. A multicellular organism is composed of many types of cells
II. Undifferentiated cells are stem cells and are unspecialised cells, which usually possesses the power
of division
III. Differentiated cells are post-mitotic cells and are specialised to perform specific functions
IV. Dedifferentiated cells are differentiated cells which revert to undifferentiated state to take over the
function of division
(A) I, II and III (B) Only I (C) Except I (D) I, II, III and IV.
Ans (D)
119. The acid soluble pool, roughly represents
(A) chemical composition of cell (B) cytoplasmic composition of cell
(C) both (A) and (B) (D) none of the above.
Ans (B)
120. Water potential gradient can be best defined as
(A) pressure gradient minus water potential (B) the overall movement of water
(C) evaporation of water from stem and leaves (D) the overall movement of solutes.
Ans (B)
121. Study chart and identify a, b, c, d.
Population Interaction
Species Species Name of interaction
X Y
...a... Competition
+ ...b... Commensalism
0 ...c...
...d... Predation
Note: = determintal, + = beneficial, 0 = neutral
(A) a : \ b : 0 \ c : Amensalism \ d : + (B) a : + \ b : + \ c : Mutalism \ d :
(C) a : 0 \ b : + \ c : Competition \ d : (D) a : \ b : \ c : Mutation \ d : +.
Ans (A)
122. Mg2+ is an activator of
I. alcohol dehydrogenase
II. nitrogenase
III. ribulose bisphosphate carboxylase oxygenase
IV. phosphoenol pyruvate carboxylase
Choose the correct option.
(A) Only III (B) Only I (C) Only IV (D) III and IV.
Ans (D)
123. Nitrogen is present in the soil in the form of
I. nitrates II. Amino acids III. Trapped N2 gas IV. None of these
(A) Only I (B) Only III (C) I and III (D) Only IV.
Ans (C)

2ME1617PCBPP1 26
124. Increase in the girth of plant (organ) takes place by
(A) vascular cambium (B) cork cambium
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) root and shoot apical meristem.
Ans (C)
125. The cells in the root and shoot apex
(i) are rich is protoplasm
(ii) have conspicuous nuclei
(iii) have their cell wall which are primary in nature, thin and cellulosic with abundant plasmodesmatal
connections
Choose the correct suitable option
(A) i and ii (B) i and iii (C) ii and iii (D) i, ii, and iii.
Ans (D)
126. Toddy is made by ...A... of sap from palm tree by B. Here A and B refers to
(A) A-fermentation; B-yeast (B) A-fermentation: B-bacteria
(C) A-distilation; B-yeast (D) A-distilation: B-bacteria.
Ans (B)
127. Swiss cheese is formed by the bacterium
(A) Aspergillus niger (B) Lactobacillus
(C) Propionibacterium sharmanii (D) Penicillium .
Ans(C)
128. Percentage of photosynthetically active radiation (PAR) that is captured by plants in synthesis of organic
matter is
(A) 50 - 70% (B) 30 - 40% (C) 80-100% (D) 2-10%.
Ans (D)
129. Study the given flow chart and select the correct statements regarding this
(i) It represents phosphorus cycling in a terrestrial ecosystem
(ii) It represents phosphorus cycling in an aquatic ecosystem
(iii) Natural reservoir of phosphorus is phosphate rocks
(iv) There is no respiratory release of phosphorus into atmosphere
(v) Gaseous exchange of phosphorus between organisms and
environment occurs to a considerable extent
(A) (i), (ii) and (v) (B) (i), (iii) and (iv) (C) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (D) (i), (iii), (iv) and (v).
Ans (B)
130. If 10 joules of energy is available at the producer level, then amount of energy present at the level of
secondary consumers is
(A) 10 J (B) 1 J (C) 0.1 J (D) 0.01 J.
Ans (C)
131. Self-incompatibility is a device for
I. ensuring cross-pollination II. preventing self-fertilisation
III. ensuring self-fertilisation IV. genetic control for self-fertilisation
Choose the correct statements from those given above
(A) I, II and III (B) I, II, III and IV (C) I, III and IV (D) I, II and IV.
Ans (D)

27
132. Using code dictionary select the options which correctly fills up the blanks
DNA triplet mRNA codon Anticodon
3 5 5 3
. . UAC
. . GGA
TTC . .
. UAG .
Choose the correct option given below
(A) DNA triplet mRNA codon Anticodon
3 5 5 3
AUG TAC UAC
GGA CCU GGA
TTC UUG AAC
ATC UAG AUC
(B) DNA triplet mRNA codon Anticodon
3 5 5 3
TAC AUG UAC
GGA CCU GGA
AAG ATC UUC
TTC UAG AUC
(C) DNA triplet mRNA codon Anticodon
3 5 5 3
TAC AUG UAC
GGA CCT GGU
TTC AAG UUC
ATC UAG AUC
(D) DNA triplet mRNA codon Anticodon
3 5 5 3
TAC AUG UAC
GGA CCU GGA
TTC AAG UUC
ATC UAG AUC
Ans (D)

In the following question, a statement of Assertion (A) is given followed by a corresponding statement
of Reason (R) just below it. Of the statements, mark the correct answer
(A) if both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
(B) if both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
(C) if assertion is true but reason is false
(D) if assertion and reason are false
133. Assertion (A): Photorespiration does not decrease the rate of photosynthesis at any circumstances
Reason (R): Rate of respiration in C3 and C4 plants are same.
Ans (D)

2ME1617PCBPP1 28
134. Assertion (A): In apomixis, plants of new genetic variations are not produced
Reason (R): In apomixis, reductional division takes place.
Ans (C)
135. Assertion: Polycistronic mRNA, found in prokaryotes, specify a number of polypeptides.
Reason: Monocistronic mRNA, found in eukaryotes, specify only a single polypeptide.
Ans (B)
PART IV - ZOOLOGY
136. Third moulting of Ascaris larva takes place in
(A) lung (B) liver (C) heart (D) intestine.
Ans (A)
137. The common feature among planaria and hydra is
(A) both belong to phylum-coelenterata (B) both are diploblastic
(C) both have regenerative capacity (D) both have a water vascular system.
Ans (C)
138. Mark what is incorrect regarding to the phylum-Arthropoda
(A) Open type of circulatory system (B) Bilaterally symmetrical, coelomate animals
(C) Diploblastic with head, thorax and abdomen (D) Presence of Malpighian tubules and antennae.
Ans (C)
139. Find A and B in the figure
(A) ABlastocyst; BBlastomere
(B) ABlastula; BPlasma membrane
(C) ABlastomere; BZona pellucida
(D) AZona pellucida; BBlastomere.
Ans (C)
140. Label the following diagram which illustrates the fertilisation
followed by cleavage and the early stages of embryonic
development. Identify B, E, F, G and H
(A) BOvary, EMorula, FBlastocyst, GCervix, HVagina
(B) BOvary, EBlastocyst, FMorula, GCervix, HVagina
(C) BOvary, EBlastocyst, FMorula, GVagina, HCervix
(D) BOvary, EBlastocyst, FGastrula, GVagina,HCervix.
Ans (B)
141. Choose the correct statement in the following
(A) hCG, hPL and relaxin are produced in women only during pregnancy
(B) During pregnancy the level of other hormones like oestrogens, progestogens, cortisol, prolactin
thyroxine, etc., are increased several folds in the maternal blood
(C) Increased production of hcG, hPL, progesterone, etc., is essential for supporting the foetal growth,
metabolic changes in the mother and maintenance of pregnancy
(D) Statement A, B and C are correct.
Ans (D)

29
142. False statement about ZIFT is
(A) stands for Zygote Intra Fallopian Transfer
(B) follows IVF
(C) embryo with more than 8 blastomeres are used
(D) zygote or embryo with less than 8 blastomeres are used
Ans (C)
143. In sickle-cell anaemia, GAG is replaced by
(A) GGA (B) GUG (C) AAG (D) GGG
Ans (B)
144. Night blindness is
(A) genetic disease (B) nutritional deficiency disease
(C) generally found in male (D) generally found in female.
Ans (B)
145. Failure of cytokinesis after ___ A ___ stage of cell division results in an increase in a whole set of
chromosomes in an organism called ___ B ___
(A) Aprophase, Bpolyploidy (B) Ametaphase, Bpolyploidy
(C) Aanaphase, B-polyploidy (D) Atelophase, Bpolyploidy.
Ans (D)
146. The mutant haemoglobin molecule undergoes polymerisation under low oxygen tension causing the
change in the shape of RBC from biconcave to elongated structure. This feature is seen in
(A) Sickle cell anaemia (B) Colour blindness
(C) Phenylketonuria (D) -thalassaemia.
Ans (A)
147. Phenylalanine does not change to tyrosine. This condition is seen in
(A) sickle-cell anaemia (B) phenylketonuria
(C) thalassaemia (D) haemophilia.
Ans (B)
148. Syndrome stands for
(A) a group of symptoms (B) viral disease
(C) diseased condition (D) dwarf organism.
Ans (A)
149. Match the following columns.
Column I Column II
a. Genetic drift 1. Change in the populations allele
frequency due to chance alone
b. Natural selection 2. Difference in survival individuals
c. Gene flow 3. Immigration or emigration changes
the allele frequency.
d. Mutation 4. Source of the new alleles

2ME1617PCBPP1 30
 Codes
a b c d
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 1 2 4 3
(C) 1 4 2 3
(D) 4 2 1 3
Ans (A)
150. In which of the following situations would evolution occur.
Migration Selection pressure Variations due to mutation
I. Absent Low Low
II. Absent High High
III. High Low High
IV. High High Low
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(A) I and II (B) I and III (C) I and IV (D) II, III and IV
Ans (D)
151. In which of the following, metabolic reactions take place?
(A) in living organism only (B) Both in living and non-living organism
(C) in isolated cell free systems (D) Both (A) and (C).
Ans (D)
152. Squamous epithelium is found in the walls of
(A) air sacs of lungs (B) kidney (C) Fallopian tubes (D) salivary glands .
Ans (A)
153. The tissue which forms the glands in humans is
(A) muscular tissue (B) nervous tissue (C) epithelial tissue (D) connective tissue .
Ans (C)
154. While examining dividing cells under a light microscope, chromosomes become visible in
(A) interphase (B) S-phase (C) prophase (D) G1-phase.
Ans (C)
155. Mature nerve cells are incapable of cell division. These cell are probably considered in
(A) G2-phase (B) S-phase (C) Mitosis (D) G0-phase.
Ans (D)
156. Fever in malaria is due to
(A) release of merozoites from RBCs (B) entry of sporozoites into blood capillaries
(C) entry of cryptomerozoites into RBCs (D) entry of merozoites into liver cells.
Ans (A)
157. Common symptoms of typhoid are
(A) high fever and weakness (B) stomach pain and constipation
(C) headache and loss of appetite (D) statement (A), (B) and (C) are correct.
Ans (D)

31
158. Malignant malaria is caused by
(A) Plasmodium falciparum (B) Plasmodium ovale
(C) Plasmodium vivax (D) Plasmodium malariae.
Ans (A)
159. The animals that we would expect in a dairy are
(A) cows, buffaloes, sheep (B) buffaloes, geese, goat
(C) Only (A) (D) Both (A) and (B).
Ans (C)
160. Feeling the tremors of an earthquake, a scared resident of seventh floor of a multistoryed building starts
climbing down the stairs rapidly. Which hormone initiated this action?
(A) Adrenaline (B) Glucagon (C) Gastrin (D) Thyroxine.
Ans (A)
161. Choose the correct match
Hormone Effect
(A) Oxytocin Milk ejection hormone
(B) Glucagon Decreases blood sugar level
(C) Adrenaline Decreases heart rate
(D) Thyroxine Decreases BMR.
Ans (A)
162. Read the following statements and select the incorrect ones.
(i) Homeostasis ensures constant internal environment
(ii) The famous Keolado National Park (Bharatpur) in Rajasthan hosts thousands of migratory birds
coming from Siberia, in every winter
(iii) 99% of animals and nearly all plants are regulators
(iv) The conformers are able to maintain their body temperature inspite of changes in ambient
temperature
(A) (i) and (ii) (B) (ii) and (iii) (C) (iii) and (iv) (D) (i) and (iv).
Ans (C)
163. Select the incorrect statement in the following
(A) Brunners glands are submucosal
(B) Irregular folds of gastric mucosa are rugae
(C) Glissons capsule is the connective tissue sheath of hepatic lobule
(D) Mesothelium or serosa lies in close proximity to the circular layer of muscularis.
Ans (D)
164. Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct option from the codes given below
Column I Column II
(Types of cells) (Secretions)
(a) Beta cells i. Lysozyme
(b) Mast cells ii. Mucus
(c) Paneth cells iii. Histamine
(d) Acinar cells iv. Insulin
v. Pancreatic enzymes

2ME1617PCBPP1 32
 (A) A (iv), B (ii), C (i), D (v) (B) A (v), B (ii), C (iii), D (iv)
(C) A (iv), B (iii), C (i), D (v) (D) A (i), B (iii), C (i), D (v).
Ans (C)
165. Read the given statements and select the correct, option
Statement 1: Respiration is most efficient in the insects, among the invertebrates.
Statement 2: In the insects, air is carried directly to the cells by tracheoles.
(A) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1
(B) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1
(C) Statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is incorrect
(D) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.
Ans (A)
166. Arrange the following statements in correct sequence to initiate inspiration
(i) The contraction of external intercostal muscles raises the ribs and sternum
(ii) Volume of thorax increases in the dorso-ventral axis
(iii) Intrapulmonary pressure decreases
(iv) Diaphragm contraction
(iv) Air rushes into lungs
(vi) Volume of thorax increases in the anterior-posterior axis
(A) (i), (ii), (iv), (v), (iii), (vi) (B) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), (vi), (v)
(C) (i), (ii), (iv), (vi), (iii), (v) (D) (vi), (v), (i), (ii), (iii), (iv).
Ans (C)
167. Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct option from the codes given below
Column I Column II
(a) Tidal volume i. 2500-3000 mL of air
(b) Inspiratory reserve volume ii. 1000 mL of air
(c) Expiratory reserve volume iii. 500 mL of air
(d) Residual volume iv. 3400-4800 mL of air
(e) Vital capacity v. 1200 mL of air
(A) a - (iii), b - (iv), c - (ii), d - (i), e - (v) (B) a - (iii), b - (i), c - (ii), d - (v), e - (iv)
(C) a - (iii), b - (i), c - (iv), d - (v), e - (ii) (D) A - (v), B - (i), C - (ii), D - (iii), E - (iv).
Ans (B)
168. Blood analysis of a patient reveals an unusually high quantity of carboxyhaemoglobin content. Which of
the following conclusions is most likely to be correct?
The patient has been inhaling polluted air containing unusually high content of
(A) carbon disulphide (B) chloroform
(C) carbon dioxide (D) carbon monoxide.
Ans (D)
169. Pneumotaxic centre which can moderate the functions of the respiratory rhythm centre is present at
(A) pons region of brain (B) thalamus
(C) spinal cord (D) right cerebral hemisphere.
Ans (A)

33
170. Which of the following match is correct?
Structure Percentage Function
(A)
0.3 0.5 Phagocytic

(B)
0.5 1.0 Secrete histamine and serotonin

(C)
30 40 Defence against parasites

(D)
30 40 Allergic reactions

Ans (B)
171. Consider the following four statements and select the correct option stating which ones are true (T) and
which ones are false (F)
(i) Proteins contribute 6-8% of the blood plasma
(ii) Plasma contains very high amount of minerals
(iii) Plasma without the clotting factors is called serum
(iv) Glucose, amino acids, lipids, etc. are also present in the plasma as they are always in transit in the
body
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(A) F F T T
(B) T F T T
(C) T T F F
(D) F F F F
Ans (B)
172. Select the correct statements in the following
(A) Water reabsorption in descending limb of loop of Henle and collecting duct occur under similar
conditions.
(B) Sodium reabsorption in ascending limb of loop of Henle and collecting duct occur under similar
conditions
(C) Water reabsorption in descending limb of loop of Henle and collecting duct occur under different
conditions
(D) Water reabsorption in descending limb and sodium reabsorption in ascending limb of loop of Henle
occur under similar conditions.
Ans (C)

2ME1617PCBPP1 34
173. The given figure represents the histology of a striped muscle. Which of these is anisotropic band?

(A) a (B) b (C) c (D) d.

Ans (A)
174. The figures given here represent three different conditions of sarcomeres. Identify these conditions and
select the correct option.

(a) (b)

(c)

a b c
(A) Contracting Relaxed Maximally contracted
(B) Relaxed Contracting Maximally contracted
(C) Maximally contracted Contracting Relaxed
(D) Relaxed Contracted Contracting
Ans (B)
175. Identify from the following list, the characteristics of red muscles (a) and white muscles (b) and select
the option that correctly segregates the characters
(i) Less number of mitochondria
(ii) More number of mitochondria
(iii) Sarcoplasmic reticulum is abundant
(iv) Myoglobin content high
(v) Sarcoplamic reticulum moderate
(vi) Aerobic muscles
(vii) Depend on anaerobic respiration for energy
(viii) Less myoglobin content

35
 a b
(A) (i), (iii), (vii), (vi) (ii), (iv), (v), (vi)
(B) (ii), (iv), (v), (vi) (i), (iii), (vii), (viii)
(C) (i), (iii), (iv), (vii) (ii), (v), (vi), (viii)
(D) (ii), (v), (vi), (viii) (i), (iii), (iv), (vii)
Ans (B)
176. Which of the following options illustrates the distribution Na+ and K+ ions in a section of non-
myelinated axon that is at resting potential?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Ans (A)
177. During the transmission of nerve impulse through a nerve fibre, the potential on the inner side of the
plasma membrane has which type of electric charge?
(A) first positive, then negative and continue to be negative
(B) first negative, then positive and continue to be positive
(C) first positive, then negative and again back to positive
(D) first negative, then positive and again back to negative
Ans (D)
178. During mitosis in somatic cells ______ is not seen
(A) spindle fibre (B) chromosome movement
(C) disappearance of nucleolus (D) synapsis
Ans (D)
179. GnRH stimulates two hormones from anterior lobe of pituitary
(A) FSH and GH (B) FSH and LH
(C) LH and testosterone (D) Testosterone and LH
Ans (B)
180. Assertion (A): Tapeworm, roundworm and pinworm are endoparasites of human intestine.
Reason (R): Improperly cooked pork is main cause of tape worm infections.
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(C) A is true, but R is false
(D) Both A and R are false
Ans (B)

***

2ME1617PCBPP1 36