PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY AND BIOLOGY

Class II Medical Excel 2016-17 Max. Marks 720

Practice paper 04 Duration 3 Hours
Date 04-04-2017
Instructions
1. The test paper contains 180 multiple choice questions under four parts: Part I - Physics, Part II - Chemistry,
Part III - Botany and Part IV - Zoology. Answer all the questions.
2. Each question carries four marks for correct answer and one negative mark for wrong answer. Multiple markings
for the same question will be treated as wrong answer and will carry one negative mark.
3. For each question there are four options of which one option is correct. Choose the correct option and darken the
appropriate circle in the response sheet.
4. Rough work can be done on the question paper itself.
5. Calculator / Log table is not allowed.
OMR Instructions
1. Complete the particulars on side 1 of the OMR response sheet.
2. Ensure that the student ID is written on both sides of OMR response sheet.
3. Marking of more than one option for the same question will render the answer invalid.

PART I PHYSICS
1. A particle is projected with a velocity v, so that its range on a horizontal plane is n times the greatest
height attained. If g is acceleration due to gravity, then its range is
8V 2 n 8V 2 4V 2 n 8V 2 n 2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
9 16 n 2 n(16 n 2 ) 9[16 n] 9[16 n]

2. The dimensions of capacitance are (where Q is the dimension of charge)

(A) M1L2T2Q2 (B) MLT2Q2 (C) M1L1T2 (D) M1L1T2Q
3. Two masses A and B of 10 kg and 5 kg respectively are connected with a string passing over a
frictionless pulley fixed at the corner of a table as shown in figure. The
C
coefficient of friction of A with the table is 0.2. The minimum mass of
A
C that may be placed on A to prevent it from moving is equal to
(A) 15 kg
(B) 10 kg
(C) 5 kg B

(D) zero

4. A block of mass m is in contact with the cart C as shown in the figure. The coefficient of static friction
between the block and the cart is . The acceleration of the cart that will prevent the block from falling
satisfies.
mg g
(A) (B)
m
g g
(C) (D)

1
5. A motor cyclist is trying to jump across a path as shown by driving horizontally off a cliff at a speed
5 m s1. Ignore air resistance and take g = 10 m s2. The speed with which he touches peak B is . ms1.

(A) 2.0 (B) 12 (C) 15 (D) 20

6. A rod of mass m and length l is lying on a horizontal table. Work done in making it stand on one end
will be
mgl mgl
(A) mgl (B) (C) (D) 2 mgl
2 4
7. A ball is released from the top of a tower. The ratio of work done by force of gravity in first, second and
third second of the motion of the ball is
(A) 1 : 2 : 3 (B) 1 : 4 : 9 (C) 1 : 3 : 5 (D) 1 : 5 : 3

8. If the system of blocks shown in figure is released, then the acceleration of the centre of
mass of the system is
g
(A)
4
g
(B)
2
(C) g
(D) 2g
9. A thin hollow cylinder open at both ends (i) slips without rolling ; (ii) rolls without slipping with the
same velocity. The ratio of the kinetic energies in both the cases will be
(A) 1 : 2 (B) 2 : 1 (C) 2 : 3 (D) 3 : 2
10. A wire of length L and radius r fixed at one end and a force F applied to the other end produces an
extension l. The extension produced in another wire of the same material of length 2L and radius 2r by a
force 2F is
l
(A) l (B) 4l (C) 2l (D)
2
11. The pressures inside two soap bubbles are 1.01 and 1.02 atmospheres respectively. The ratio of their
respective volumes is
(A) 16 (B) 8 (C) 4 (D) 2
12. If gas molecules undergo inelastic collision with the walls of the container
(A) the temperate of the gas will decrease
(B) the pressure of the gas will increase
(C) neither the temperature nor the pressure will change
(D) the temperature of the gas will increase

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13. An ideal gas is made to go through a cyclic thermodynamical process in four steps. The amount of heat
involved are Q1 = 600 J, Q2 = 400 J, Q3 = 300 J and Q4 = 200 J respectively. The corresponding work
involved are W1 = 300 J, W2 = 200 J, W3 = 150 J and W4. The value of W4 is
(A) 50 J (B) 100 J (C) 150 J (D) 50 J

14. The potential energy of a particle executing S.H.M is 2.5 J, when its displacement is half of amplitude.
The total energy of the particle be
(A) 18 J (B) 10 J (C) 12 J (D) 2.5 J
t x
15. If the equation of transverse wave is y 5sin 2 , where distance is in cm and time in
0.04 40
second, then the wavelength of the wave is
(A) 60 cm (B) 40 cm (C) 35 cm (D) 25 cm

16. An iron meter stick is allowed an error of 1 part per million. If the coefficient of linear expansion of iron
is 1 105 C1, the maximum variation in temperature over which the stick can be used is
(A) 0.01 K (B) 0.10 K (C) 1.00 K (D) 10.0 K
17. A projectile moves from the ground such that its horizontal displacement is x k1t and vertical
displacement is y k1t 1 k 2 t , where k1 and k2 are constants and t is time. The total time of flight (T)
and maximum height attained (ymax) respectively are
k1 1 2k1 1 k1 1 k1
(A) T k 2 , y max (B) T , y max (C) T , y max (D) T , y max
2k 2 k2 k2 k2 6k 2 k2 4k 2

18. The moment of inertia of a thin rod of mass M and length L about an axis perpendicular to the rod at a
L
distance from one end is
4
ML2 ML2 7ML2 7ML2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
6 12 24 48
19. Heat required by 2 g of helium gas in the process A to B is

9
(A) 1.5 p0V0 (B) 4 p0V0 (C) 6 p0V0 (D) p 0 V0
2
20. A machine gun is mounted on a 2000 kg vehicle on a horizontal smooth road (friction negligible). The
gun fires 100 bullets per sec with a velocity of 500 ms1. If the mass of each bullet be 10 g, the
acceleration produced in the vehicle is
(A) 25 cm s2 (B) 25 ms2 (C) 50 cm s2 (D) 50 ms2

3
 1
21. The amplitude of a wave disturbance propagating in the positive x-direction is given by y at
(1 x 2 )
1
time t = 0 and y at t = 2 seconds, where x and y are in metres. The shape of the wave
(1 (x 1)2 )
disturbance does not change during the propagation. The velocity of the wave is
(A) 1 ms1 (B) 0.5 ms1 (C) 1.5 ms1 (D) 2 ms1

22. A charge of 2C is placed on the x-axis at 1m from the origin along ve axis. Infinite number of charges
each of magnitude 2C are placed on x-axis at 1m, 2m, 4m, . from origin along +ve
x-axis. The first charge is positive and alternate charges are of opposite in nature. The electric field
intensity at the origin is
1 1
(A) along +ve x-axis (B) along ve x-axis
100 100
1 1
(C) along +ve x-axis (D) along ve x-axis
0 0

23. An electric field is acting vertically upwards. A small body of mass 1 g and charge 1 C is projected
with a velocity 10 m/s at an angle 45 with horizontal. If its horizontal range is 2 m, then the intensity of
electric field is (g = 10 m/s2)
(A) 20,000 N/C (B) 10,000 N/C (C) 40,000 N/C (D) 90,000 N/C

24. A bob of a simple pendulum of mass 40 g with a positive charge 4 106 C is oscillating with time
period T1. An electric field of intensity 3.6 104 N/C is applied vertically upwards now time period is
T
T2. The value of 2 is (g = 10 m/s2)
T1
(A) 1.6 (B) 0.64 (C) 1.25 (D) 0.8
25. A battery consists of variable number n of identical cells having internal resistances connected in
parallel. The terminals of battery are short circuited and current I is measured. The graph depicting the
relationship between total current I and n is
I I I I

(A) (B) (C) (D)

n n n n
O O O O

26. In the circuit shown in figure reading of voltmeter is V1 when only S1 is closed, reading of voltmeter is
V2 when only S2 is closed. The reading of voltmeter is V3 when both S1 and S2 are closed then

(A) V2 > V1 > V3

(B) V3 > V2 > V1
(C) V3 > V1 > V2
(D) V1 > V2 >V3

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27. The emf and internal resistance of a single battery which is equivalent to a combination of three batteries
as shown in figure is
(A) 3 V, 5
(B) 3 V, 2
(C) 7 V, 2
(D) 20 V, 5
28. A current carrying square loop is placed near an infinitely long current
carrying wire as shown in figure. The torque acting on the loop is . Then
equals
II a
(A) ZERO (B) 0 1 2
2
II a II a
(C) 0 1 2 (D) 0 1 2 log e (2)
2 2 2

29. Two semi infinite wires AO and OC coinciding at O carry equal currents I as shown in figure. Angle
AOC is . The magnitude of magnetic field at a point P on the bisector of these two wires at a distance r
from point O is
I I
(A) 0 cot (B) 0 cot
2r 2 4r 2
0 I 0 I
(C) cosec cot (D) sin
2r 2 2 4r 2

30. For the semi-infinite wire shown, a point P is taken at a distance r from its finite end as shown. Assume
that the current in the wire is I, the field at P is
I
(A) 0
4r
I
(B) 0 sin
4r
I
(C) 0 cot
4r 2
I
(D) 0 tan
4r 2
dB
31. The magnetic flux density B is changing in magnitude at a constant rate . A given mass m of copper,
dt
drawn into a wire of radius a and formed into a circular loop of radius r is placed perpendicular to the
field B. The induced current in the loop is i. The resistivity of copper is and density is d. Then
m dB m dB m dB m dB
(A) i (B) i 2
(C) i (D) i
4d dt 4a r dt 4ad dt 2d dt

32. An alternating voltage, given by V 300 2 sin(50t) is connected across a 1 F capacitor through an
AC ammeter. The reading of the ammeter is
(A) 10 mA (B) 15 mA (C) 40 mA (D) 100 mA

5
33. A charged particle oscillates about its mean equilibrium position with a frequency of 109 Hz. The
electromagnetic waves produced:
(A) will have frequency of 2 109 Hz. (B) will have speed of 30 ms1
(C) will have a wavelength of 0.3 m. (D) fall in the region of infrared waves.

34. Figure shows a mixture of blue, green and red coloured rays incident normally on a right angled prism.
The critical angles of the material of the prism for red, green and blue are 46, 44 and 43 respectively.
The arrangement will separate
(A) green colour from red and blue
(B) all the three colours
(C) red colour from blue and green
(D) blue colour from red and green
35. In an experiment of photoelectric effect the stopping potential was measured to be V1 and V2 volts with

incident light of wavelength and respectively. The relation between V1 and V2 may be
2
(A) V2 < V1 (B) V1 < V2 < 2V1 (C) V2 = 2V1 (D) V2 > 2V1
36. When the energy of the incident radiation is increased by 20%, the kinetic energy of the photoelectrons
emitted from a metal surface increased from 0.5 eV to 0.8 eV. The work function of the metal is
(A) 1.3 eV (B) 1.5 eV (C) 0.65 eV (D) 1.0 eV
37. The first line in the Lyman series has wavelength . The wavelength of the first line in Balmer series is
2 9 5 27
(A) (B) (C) (D)
9 2 27 5
1
38. An alpha nucleus of energy mv 2 bombards a heavy nuclear target of charge Ze. Then the distance of
2
closest approach for the alpha nucleus will be proportional to
1 1 1
(A) (B) v2 (C) (D) 4
Ze m v
39. The largest wavelength in the ultraviolet region of the hydrogen spectrum is 122 nm. The smallest
wavelength in the infrared region of the hydrogen spectrum (to the nearest integer is)
(A) 802 nm (B) 823 nm (C) 1882 nm (D) 1648 mn
2
40. In the reaction 1 H 13 H
4
2 He 10 n , if the binding energies of 2
1 H 13 H and 24 He are
respectively a, b and c (in MeV), then the energy (in MeV) released in this reaction is
(A) c + a b (B) c a b (C) a + b + c (D) a + b c
41. A reverse biased diode is

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

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42. Currents flowing in each of the circuits A and B respectively are

(A) 1 A, 2 A
(B) 2 A, 1 A
(C) 4 A, 2 A
(D) 2 A, 4 A

43. Two interfering waves of intensities I and 4I superimpose, then the ratio of maximum and minimum
intensities are
(A) 5 : 3 (B) 9 : 1 (C) 9 : 3 (D) 5 : 1

44. The central fringe of the interference pattern produced by light of wavelength 6000 is shifted to the
position of the fifth bright fringe by introducing a thin glass plate of refractive index 1.5. Then the
thickness of the glass plate is
(A) 6 10 8 m (B) 2 10 6 m (C) 6 10 6 m (D) 2 10 8 m
45. In Youngs double slit experiment, the separation between the slits is made 3 fold, the fringe width
becomes
1 1
(A) times (B) times (C) 3 times (D) 9 times
3 9

PART II CHEMISTRY
46. Complexes with halide ligands are generally
(A) high spin complexes (B) low spin complexes
(C) both (A) and (B) (D) none of these
47. The hybridization of [PtCl6]2 ion is
(A) d2sp3 (B) sp2d3 (C) sp3d (D) sp3d2
48. PCl3 on hydrolysis gives
(A) H3PO3 (B) HPO3 (C) H3PO4 (D) POCl3

49. Groves process is used for the preparation of

(A) CH3COOH (B) C2H5OH (C) C2H5Cl (D) all of A, B, C
50. Among the following the incorrect statement about primary amines is
(A) Alkly amines are stronger bases than ammonia
(B) Alkyl amines are stronger bases than aryl amines
(C) Alkyl amines react with nitrous acid to produce alcohols
(D) Aryl amines react with nitrous acid to produce phenols
51. Reductive ozonolysis of benzene produces
(A) acetone (B) maleic anhydride
(C) phthalic acid (D) glyoxal

7
52. Example of co-polymer is
(A) Buna-S (B) PAN (C) polythene (D) PTFE
53. Equanil is
(A) artificial sweetener (B) tranquilizer
(C) antihistamine (D) antifertility drug
54. At its melting point ice is lighter than water because
(A) H2O molecules are more closely packed in solid state
(B) ice crystals have hollow hexagonal arrangement of H2O molecules
(C) on melting of ice the H2O molecule shrinks in size
(D) ice forms mostly heavy water on first melting.

55. Among the following the one that is not a carbonate ore is
(A) Dolomite (B) Calamine (C) Siderite (D) Zincite
56. Among the following magnetite is
(A) Fe2CO3 (B) Fe2O3 (C) Fe3O4 (D) Fe2O3.3H2O
57. Aqueous tension of water (pressure exerted by the water vapours) depends upon
(A) the amount of the water taken
(B) the temperature only
(C) both on the amount of water and temperature
(D) neither the temperature nor the amount of water but on certain other factors

58. Among the following the incorrect statement for periodic classification of elements is
(A) The properties of elements are the periodic functions of their atomic number.
(B) Non-metallic elements are less in number than metallic elements.
(C) The first ionization energies of elements along a period do not vary in regular manner with increase in
atomic number.
(D) For transition elements, the last electron enters into (n 2) d-subshell.

59. For an isothermal reversible expansion process, the value of q can be calculated by the expression
V V
(A) q 2.303 nRT log 2 (B) q 2.303 nRT log 2
V1 V1
V V
(C) q 2.303 nRT log 1 (D) q Pexp nRT log 1
V2 V2

60. Reaction of methanol with dioxygen was carried out and U was found to be 726 kJ mol1 at 298 K.
The enthalpy change for the reaction will be
3
CO 2 g 2H 2 O l ; H 726 kJ mol1
CH 3OH l O 2 g
2
(A) 741.5 kJ mol1 (B) 727 kJ mol1
(C) +741.5 kJ mol1 (D) +727.2 kJ mol1

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61. Statement-I: In the process, H 2 g
2H g entropy increases

Statement-II: Breaking of bonds is an endothermic process.

(A) Statement-I and Statement-II are true and Statement-II is the correct explanation of Statement-I.
(B) Statement-I and Statement-II are true, but Statement-II is not the correct explanation of Statement-I
(C) Statement-I is true, but Statement-II is false
(D) If both Statement-I and Statement-II are false

62. BeO is insoluble but BaO is soluble. Give reason.

(A) Lattice energy of BeO is higher than BaO due to small size of Be2+ ion and its covalent nature
(B) Hydration energy of BeO is lower than BaO due to small size Be2+ ion
(C) BeO is amphoteric in nature while BaO is basic
(D) BeO forms hydrated salts while BaO forms anhydrous salts
63. The equilibrium constant, Kp for the reaction A 2 B is related to degree of dissociation of A and total
pressure P as
4 2 P 4 2 P 2 4 2 P 2 4 2 P
(A) (B) (C) (D)
1 2 1 2 1 1

64. In the case of gaseous homogeneous reaction, the active mass of the reactant is obtained by the
expression
PV P RT n
(A) (B) (C) (D) RT
RT RT P V

65. Calculate the partial pressure of carbon monoxide from the following data

CaCO3 CaO CO 2 , K p 8 102 , CO 2 C 2 CO ; K p 2
(s) (s) (g) (g) (s) (g)

(A) 0.2 (B) 0.4 (C) 1.6 (D) 4

66. Among the following the one that is not a common component of photochemical smog is
(A) peroxyacetyl nitrate (B) acrolein (C) formaldehyde (D) carbon dioxide

67. A redox reaction is

(A) exothermic (B) endothermic
(C) neither exothermic nor endothermic i.e., H = 0 (D) can be either exothermic or endothermic

68. The set of quantum numbers for the 19th electron in chromium is
1 1 1 1
(A) n 4, l 0, m 0,s or (B) n 3, l 2, m 1, s or
2 2 2 2
1 1 1 1
(C) n 3, l 2,m 1,s or (D) n 4, l 1, m 0, s or
2 2 2 2

69. Na 2 B4O7 .10H 2O X Y Z
X, Y and Z in the reaction are
(A) X = Na2B4O7, Y = NaBO2, Z = B2O3 (B) X = Na2B4O7, Y = B2O3, Z = H3BO3
(C) X = B2O3, Y = NaBO2, Z = B(OH)3 (D) X = NaBO2, Y = B2O3, Z = B(OH)3

9
70. The addition reaction of with HOCl gives

Cl OH

(A) (B)
OH Cl

OH OH

(C) (D)
Cl CH2Cl

71. The hybridization of carbon atoms in CC single bond of HCCCH=CH2 is

(A) sp3 - sp3 (B) sp2 - sp2 (C) sp - sp2 (D) sp3 - sp

72. The IUPAC name of the compound HO is

(A) 1, 1-dimethyl-3-cyclohexanol
(B) 1, 2-dimethyl-3-hydroxyhexane
(C) 3, 3-dimethyl-1-cyclohexanol
(D) 3, 3-dimethyl-1-hydroxyhexane
73. Statement I: For adsorption, G, S and H all have negative values.
Statement II: Adsorption is a spontaneous process accompanied by decrease in randomness.
(A) Statement-I and Statement-II are true and Statement-II is the correct explanation of Statement-I.
(B) Statement-I and Statement-II are true, but Statement-II is not the correct explanation of Statement-I
(C) Statement-I is true, but Statement-II is false
(D) If both Statement-I and Statement-II are false
74. Among the following the representation of Henrys law is
(A) m = KHp (B) xA = KHpA
(C) pA = KHxA (D) all of these
75. The vapour pressure of two liquids X and Y are 40 and 50 torr respectively. The total vapour pressure of
the solution obtained by mixing 2 moles of X and 3 moles of Y would be (assuming ideal behaviour)
(A) 10 torr (B) 18 torr (C) 68 torr (D) 46 torr
76. Which of the following contains highest number of molecules?
(A) 28 g of N2 (B) 1 g of H2
(C) 11 g of CO2 (D) 24 g of O2
77. 40 g of a sample of carbon on combustion left 10% of it unreacted. The volume of oxygen required at
STP for this combustion reaction is
(A) 22.4 L (B) 67.2 L
(C) 11.2 L (D) 44.8 L

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78. 400 mg of a capsule contains 100 mg of ferrous fumarate. The percentage of iron present in the capsule
is approximately
(A) 8.2 % (B) 25% (C) 16% (D) unpredictable
79. The order of reactivity of
F CH 2CHOHCH3 F CH 2CH 2CHOHCH3
I II

CH 3CHOHCH3 C6 H 5CH 2OH

III IV

Towards concentrated HCl is

(A) I > II > III > IV (B) I > III > II > IV (C) IV > III > II > I (D) IV > III > I > II

80. Standard electrode potential for Sn4+ / Sn2+ is + 0.15 V and that for the Cr3+ / Cr is 0.74 V. These two
electrodes are coupled. The cell potential will be
(A) + 1.83 V (B) + 1.19 V (C) + 0.89 V (D) + 0.18 V

81. A button cell used in watches functions as following,

Zn(s) Ag 2O(s) H 2O(l ) 2Ag(s) Zn 2 (aq) 2OH (aq)
If half cell potentials are,
Zn2+ (aq) + 2e Zn(s); E = 0.76 V
Ag2O(s) + H2O(l) + 2e 2Ag(s) + 2OH(aq);

E = 0.34 V
The cell potential will be
(A) 0.42 V (B) 0.84 V (C) 1.34 V (D) 1.10 V

82. The second and third row elements of transition resemble each other much more than they resemble the
first row because of
(A) lanthanoid contraction which results in almost same radii of second and third row metals
(B) diagonal relationship between second and third row elements
(C) similar ionisation enthalpy of second and third row elements
(D) similar oxidation states of second and third row metals.

83. Among the following the incorrect statement is

(A) An element of first transition series which has highest second ionisation enthalpy-Cu
(B) An element of first transition series with highest third ionisation enthalpy-Zn
(C) An element of first transition series with lowest enthalpy of atomisation-Zn
(D) Last element of third transition series-Cd
84. In an aqueous solution of D-glucose the percentages of - and -anomer at the equilibrium condition are
respectively
(A) 80% and 20% (B) 20% and 80% (C) 36% and 64% (D) 64% and 36%
85. In the sequence of reaction
k1 k2 k3
A B C D
k3 > k2 > k1, then the rate determining step of the reaction is:
(A) A B (B) B C (C) C D (D) A
D

11
86. The rate expression that suggests an over all order of 0.5 for the reaction involving substances X, Y, Z is
(A) Rate = K[X][Y][Z] (B) Rate = K[X]0.5[Y]0.5[Z]0.5
(C) Rate = K[X]1.5[Y]1[Z]0 (D) Rate = K[X][Y]0[Z]2
87. Among the following molecules the one that contains covalent and coordinate bonds is
(A) CCl4 (B) H2SO4 (C) NaCl (D) Mg(OH)2
88. The types of bonds present between two carbon atoms in acetylene molecule is
(A) Two sigma bonds and one pi bond (B) Three sigma bonds
(C) One sigma bond and two pi bonds (D) Three pi bonds
89. Among the following compounds the one that shows maximum hydrogen bonding is
(A) HF (B) H2O (C) NH3 (D) CH3OH

90. Solid CO2 is an example of

(A) molecular crystal (B) covalent crystal
(C) metallic crystal (D) ionic crystal

PART III BOTANY

91. State whether the given statements are true or false.
I. Bacteria shows both autotrophic and heterotrophic nutrition.
II. Some of the bacteria are autotrophic. They may be photosynthetic autotrophic or chemosynthetic
autotrophic.
III. Heterotrophic nutrition involves the obtaining of readymade organic. nutrients from outside sources.
(A) I and II are true III is false (B) I is true, II and III is false
(C) I, II and III are true (D) Only I is true
92. Given figure is of a filamentous blue-green algae.
Identify the algae and name A, B and C in the following figures.

(A) A Gelidium, B Vegetative cell, C Heterocyst

(B) A Volvox, B Somatic cell, C Mucilaginous sheath
(C) A Chara, B Mucilaginous sheath, C Heterocyst
(D) A Nostoc, B Heterocyst, C Mucilaginous sheath

93. I. Commonly known as sac-fungi.

II. Mycelium is branched and septate.
III. Conidiophore produces conidia exogenously in chain.
IV. The fructifications are edible and considered delicacies.
V. Neurospora crassa is often employed in studies conducted in experimental genetics.
The above statements are assigned to
(A) Ascomycetes (B) Phycomycetes
(C) Basidiomycetes (D) Deuteromycetes

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94. Identify the given figures of algae and select the correct option.

(A) A-Volvox, B-Chlamydomonas, C-Chara, D-Porphyra

(B) A-Fucus, B-Polysiphonia, C-Porphyra, D-Dictyota
(C) A-Fucus, B-Dictyota, C-Porphyra, D-Polysiphonia
(D) A-Dictyota, B-Porphyra, C-Fucus, D-Polysiphonia
95. In angiospermic fertilization, one male gamete fuses with egg to form ...A..., this event is called B
Identify A and B and choose the correct option.
(A) A-endosperm; B-syngamy (B) A-zygote; B-syngamy
(C) A-embryo; B-triple fusion (D) A-endosperm; B-triple fusion

96. Choose the correct statement about liverworts.

I. In 1iverworts sexual reproduction occurs by the fusion of antherozoids and egg, which are produced
in antheridium and archegonium, respectively.
II. Both male and female sex organs may be present on same thalli or different thalli.
III. Zygote give rise to sporophyte, which is differentiated into foot, seta and capsule.
IV. Some cells of capsule undergoes meiosis and give rise to haploid spores.
(A) I, II and III (B) II, III and IV
(C) I, III and IV (D) I, II, III and IV
97. Match the following columns.
Column I Column II
(a) Tubercular storage roots 1. Tinospora
(b) Pneumatophores 2. Heritiera
(c) Haustoria 3. Asparagus
(d) Prop roots 4. Viscum
(e) Assimilatory roots 5. Screwpine
Codes
(a) (b) (c) (d) (d)
(A) 2 3 4 5 1
(B) 3 4 5 1 2
(C) 3 1 2 5 4
(D) 3 2 4 5 1

13
 98. Flowers with bracts, (reduced leaf found at the base of pedicel) are called ...A... and those without bracts,
are called ...B....
Complete the given statement by choosing appropriate options for A and B.
(A) A-bracteate; B-ebracteate
(B) A-ebracteate; B-bracteate
(C) A-pinnate; B-palmitate
(D) A-palmitate; B-pinnate

99. Fruit is
(A) mature ovary developed before fertilisation
(B) ripened ovary developed before fertilisation
(C) ripened ovary developed after fertilisation
(D) mature undeveloped ovary
100. Identify the position of gynoecium in the given diagrams A to D.

(A) A-Perigynous, B-Perigynous, C-Hypogynous, D-Epigynous,

(B) A-Epigynous, B-Perigynous, C-Hypogynous, D-Perigynous
(C) A-Hypogynous, B-Perigynous, C-Perigynous, D-Epigynous
(D) A-Hypogynous, B-Epigynous, C-Perigynous, D-Perigynous

101. Separate the given pigments into the accessory and main pigments involved during photosynthesis.
I. Chlorophyll-a II. Xanthophyll
III. Chlorophyll-b IV. Carotenoid
Main pigment Accessory pigment
(A) I II, III, IV
(B) II, III and IV I
(C) II and III I and IV
(D) I and IV II and III

102. Protons produced by the splitting of water in light reaction of photosynthesis accumulates within the
(A) lumen of thylakoids
(B) intermembrane of chloroplast
(C) stroma of chloroplast
(D) outside the lumen of thylakoids

2ME1617PCBPP4 14
103. Identify P, Q, R, S and Tin the given diagram of mitochondrial electron transport chain.

P Q R S T
(A) Matrix Outer chamber FM NH2 NADH2 2H
(B) Outer chamber Matrix NADH + NAD+ 2H+
H+
(C) Outer Cristae NAD+ NADH + H2 H2
chamber
(D) Cristae Outer chamber NADH + NAD+ 2H2
H+

104. Which step is called gateway step/link reaction in aerobic respiration?

(A) Glycolysis (B) Formation of acetyl coenzyme A
(C) Citric acid formation (D) ETS terminal oxidation

15
105. Identify the different stages in embryogenesis in the given diagram A, B, C and D.

(A) ATwo celled stage, BHeart-shaped,

CGlobular, DMature embryo
(B) ATwo celled stage, BMature embryo,
CHeart-shaped, DGlobular type
(C) ATwo celled stage, BGlobular type,
CHeart-shaped, DMature embryo
(D) AMature embryo, BHeart-shaped,
CGlobular type, DTwo celled stage

106. Xenogamy or cross-pollination is performed by

I. abiotic agencies.
II. biotic agencies.
III. insects only
Select the correct option for the given question.
(A) I and III (B) II and III (C) only III (D) I and II

107. Filiform apparatus are

(A) special cellular thickning at antipodal cell (B) special cellular thickning at micropylar end
(C) special cellular thickning at synergid cells (D) special cellular thickning at nuclear end

108. Polyembryony is reported in

I. Citrus
II. Mango
III. Gossypium
Correct name are
(A) I and II (B) II and III (C) I, II and III (D) I and II

109. Refer the given sequence of steps and select the correct option.

(i) (ii) (iii)

(A) Replication Transcription Translation
(B) Replication Processing Translation
(C) Transcription Splicing Translation
(D) Transcription Replication Translation

110. In E. coli the Iac operon gets switched on when

(A) lactose is present and it binds to the repressor
(B) repressor binds to operator
(C) RNA polymeiase binds to the operator
(D) lactose is present and it binds to RNA polymerase

2ME1617PCBPP4 16
111. Read the following statements and select the incorrect ones.
(i) The first transgenic buffalo, Rosie produced milk which was human alpha-lactalbumin enriched
(ii) Restriction enzymes are used in isolation of DNA from other macromolecules
(iii) Downstream processing is one of the steps of rDNA technology
(iv) Disarmed pathogen vectors are also used in transfer of rDNA into the host
(A) (ii) and (iii) (B) (iii) and (iv) (C) (i) and (iii) (D) (i) and (ii)
112. The term chimeric DNA refers to
(A) DNA with overhanging stretches (B) DNA with palindromic sequence
(C) a recombinant DNA (D) molecular scissors
113. RNA interference involves
(A) synthesis of cDNA and RNA using reverse transcriptase
(B) silencing of specific mRNA due to complementary
(C) interference of RNA in sysnthesis of DNA
(D) synthesis of mRNA from DNA
114. Regarding gene therapy the correct statement/s in the following is/are
(A) It is an application of biotechnology, in which a defective gene is manipulated by introduction of a
normal, healthy and functional gene.
(B) The genetic disorders that are being investigated for gene therapy, range from sickle-cell anaemia to
severe combined immuno-deficiency (SCID).
(C) The first clinical gene therapy was given in 1990 to a 4-year old girl with adenosine deaminase
(ADA) deficiency
(D) All of A, B, and C

115. Chromosomes are made up of

(A) DNA and protein (B) RNA and DNA
(C) DNA and histone (D) Only histones

116. Outer surface of histones are rich in

(A) lysine and arginine (B) Iysine and histidine
(C) valine and histidine (D) arginine and histidine

117. A nucleoid represents the genetic material of prokaryotes. It is known as

(A) prochromosome (B) genophore (C) incipient nucleus (D) All of A, B, and C.
118. Bacterial flagellum consists of all of the following components except
(A) microtubule (B) filament (C) basal body (D) hook.
119. Which of the above following are simple tissues?
I. Parenchyma II. Collenchyma III. Sclerenchyma
(A) I and II (B) II and III (C) I and III (D) I, II and III
120. Simple permanent living tissues which are made up of thin-walled similar isodiametric cells are called
(A) parenchyma tissues (B) collenchyma tissues
(C) sclerenchyma tissues (D) meristematic tissues

17
121. Ascending or descending arrangement taxonomic categories is known as
(A) classification (B) key (C) taxonomy (D)hierarchy
122. Most of the bacterial cell envelope consists of
(A) only glycocalyx (B) a tightly bound three layered structure
(C) the cell membrane (D) cell wall and cell membrane
123. Read the given statements regarding the different stages of plasmolysis and choose the correct option.
I. First stage of plasmolysis, when osmotic concentration of cell sap is just equivalent to that of
external solution.
II. Protoplast withdraws itself from corners of the cell wall.
III. Protoplast gets detached from the cell wall and attains a spherical shape.
I II III
(A) Incipient plasmolysis Limiting plasmolysis Evident plasmolysis
(B) Limiting plasmolysis Incipient plasmolysis Evident plasmolysis
(C) Limiting plasmolysis Evident plasmolysis Incipient plasmolysis
(D) Evident plasmolysis Incipient plasmolysis Limiting plasmolysis

124. In a thistle funnel experiment, what will happen if sugar solution is added to a beaker after the process of
osmosis stops?
(A) The level of solution in thistle funnel will rise up
(B) The level of solution in thistle funnel will lower down
(C) The level of solution in beaker will drop
(D) The level of solution remain unaffected in beaker

125. Identify the A to D correctly in the given diagram of root nodule development and choose the correct
option accordingly.

(A) A Rhizobial bacteria, B cortex cell,

C outer cortex, D - infection thread
(B) A - Rhizobial bacteria, B- cortex cell,
C Inner cortex, D - Infection thread
(C) A - Rhizobial bacteria, B - Endodermal cell,
C - Inner endodermis, D - Infection thread
(D) A Nitrosomonasbactena. B-Cortex cell,
C - Inner cortex, D - Infection thread

126. Free living nitrogen fixing bacteria are

(A) Bacillus polymixa (B) Rhodoseudomonas
(C) E. coli (D) Anabaena

2ME1617PCBPP4 18
127. Diagram A and B indicate the shape of leaves in larkspur and buttercup respectively, choose the correct
option.

(A) The juvenile and adult leaf of larkspur differ in size due to genetic and plant growth regulator factors
(B) Leaf variation in larkspur is due to developmental plasticity and buttercup leaf variation is due to
habitat plasticity
(C) Both larkspur and buttercup leaf size variation is due to habitat plasticity
(D) Both leaf of buttercup differ in size due to genetic and intercellular factors

128. Which of them is not an extrinsic factor?

(A) Light, O2 (B) Temperature, CO2
(C) Nutrient, water (D) Growth regulator and genetic factor

129. Antiviral substances, produced by many vertebrates in response to viral infections for resisting the
multiplication of viruses as known as
(A) viroid (B) interferon (C) antivirin (D) antigen

130. Green revolution in India was possible due to

(A) exploitation of high yielding varieties
(B) intensive cultivation
(C) better irrigation, fertilisers and pesticide facilities
(D) All of A, B, and C
131. Choose the food items among the following which are produced through fermentation by the
microorganisms
I. Idli II. Dosa III. Toddy IV. Cheese
Choose the correct option.
(A) I and III (B) I, III and IV (C) II and IV (D) I, II, III and IV
132. One turn of B-DNA contains how many nucleotide pairs?
(A) 8 (B) 100 (C) 6 (D) 10
133. Many freshwater organisms cannot live for long in seawater because the surrounding water will be
__a___ to body cells and _____b____ may occur, a and b respectively are
(A) hypertonic, exosmosis (B) hypertonic, endosmosis
(C) hypotonic, exosmosis (D) hypotonic, endosmosis
134. The first class among the tetrapods that shows completely 4-chambered heart is
(A) amphibia (B) reptilia (C) aves (D) mammalia
135. Choose the kind of erythrocytes found in reptiles.
(A) Circular - biconvex - nucleated (B) Oval - biconcave - denucleated
(C) Circular- biconcave - denucleated (D) Oval - biconvex- nucleated

19
 PART IV ZOOLOGY
136. Select the prosimians from the given options.
(A) Lemurs, monkey and gibbons (B) Chimpanzee, monkey and loris
(C) Tarsius, lemur and loris (D) Chimpanzee, gibbons and orangutan
137. Choose the non-poisonous snake from the given options.
(A) krait and cobra (B) sea snake and coral snake
(C) viper and rattle snake (D) All of A, B, and C
138. Graafian follicle after releasing ovum is called
(A) corpus luteum (B) polar body (C) nucleur body (D) ootid
139. At which stage of the development, ovum is released from the ovary of the human female?
(A) Primary oocyte (B) Oogonium (C) Secondary oocyte (D) Ootid

140. Find out A, B and C in the figure given below.

(A) ASertoli cell, BTestosterone CInhibin

(B) AInhibin, BSertoli cell, CTestosterone
(C) ATestosterone, BSertoli cell CInhibin
(D) ATestosterone, BSertol cell, CTestosterone

141. Select the STDs caused by viruses among the following

I. AIDS
II. Hepatitis-B
III. Genital herpes.
(A) I, II and III (B) I and III (C) II and III (D) I and II
142. Harmful mutation does not get eliminated from the gene pool because they are mainly
(A) recessive, which have beneficial effect on population and carried by heterozygous individuals
(B) dominant, which have beneficial effect on population and carried by homozygous individuals
(C) carried from one generation to another generation through autosomal chromosomes
(D) they show genetic drift
143. Name the scientist who was known as fly man of genetics
(A) Sutton (B) Pasteur (C) Robert Hooke (D) T.H. Morgan

144. Among the following, the best suited option for codominance with respect to genes involved is
(A) both are recessive (B) both are dominant
(C) one is recessive (D) one is dominant

2ME1617PCBPP4 20
145. If two pea plant having red (dominant) coloured flowers with unknown genotype are crossed, 75% of the
flowers are red and 25% are white. The genotypic constitution of the parents having red coloured
flowers will be
(A) both homozygous (B) one homozygous and other heterozygous
(C) both heterozygous (D) both hemizygous
146. Strength of the linkage between the two genes is
(A) proportionate to the distance between them
(B) inversely proportionate to the distance between them
(C) depend on the chromosomes
(D) depend upon the size of chromosomes

147. Among the following, the correct combination of examples for the homologous organs is
I. vertebrate hearts
II. vertebrate brains
III. thorn and tendrils of Bougainvillea and Cucurbita
IV. vertebrate limbs
The correct combination is
(A) I and II (B) II and III (C) III and IV (D) I, II and III
148. Neuroglial cells. and .the neurons. Fill the blanks with the correct combination given below.
(A) protects and supports (B) start and stop
(C) activates and deactivates (D) start and support
149. Each muscle is made up of long, cylindrical fibres are arranged in parallel arrays. These fibres are
composed of numerous fine fibrils called
(A) myofibrils (B) microfilament (C) fibroblast (D) axial fibres
150. Keratin is present in the form of in human hair.
(A) Parallel -sheet (B) -helix
(C) Antiparallel -sheet (D) A and C
151. Spindle fibres of a cell is made up of . protein.
(A) tubulin (B) albumin (C) mucin (D) haemoglobin

152. The central part of cetriole is proteinaceous and called the (i) which is connected with (ii) of peripheral
triplet by radial (iii) made of (iv).
(A) (i) protein, (ii) hub, (iii) spokes, (iv) tubules
(B) (i) hub, (ii) tubules, (iii) spokes, (iv) protein
(C) (i) spokes, (ii) hub, (ii) tubules, (iv) protein
(D) (i) protein, (ii) tubules, (iii) hub, (iv) spokes

153. The process of removal and replacement of the damaged tissues or organs like heart, eye, liver, kidney
with healthy ones from a donar is called as
(A) transplantation (B) repair and replacement
(C) replacement therapy (D) transformation

21
154. Identify A, B and C is the given diagram choose the correct option.

(A) A-Sternum, B-Vertebral column, C-Ribs

(B) A-Ribs, B-Vertebral column, C-Sternum
(C) A-Ribs, B-Sternum, C-Coccyx
(D) A-Sternum, B-Ribs, C-Vertebral column

155. The alien species introduced into the lake Victoria that was responsible for the extinction of cichlid
fishes is
(A) water hyacinth (B) carrot grass
(C) nile perch (D) African catfish
156. Given is the diagram of ear. Identify A to H
(A) A-Temporal bone, B-Malleus, C-Incus, D-Stapes,
E-Cochlea, F-Eustachian tube, G-Tympanic membrane,
H-External auditory canal
(B) A-Tympanic membrane, B-Malleus, C-Incus, D-Stapes,
E-Cochlea, F-Eustachian tube, G-Temporal bone,
H-External auditory canal
(C) A-Tympanic membrane, B-Incus, C-Malleus, D-Stapes,
E-Cochlea, F-Eustachian tube, G-Temporal bone,
H-External auditory canal
(D) A-Temporal bone, B-Malleus, C -Incus, D-Cochlea,
E-Stapes, F-Eustachian tube, G-tympanic membrane,
H-External auditory canal
157. Choose the combinations of correct option among the following
I. Many xerophytic plants have thick cuticle on leaf epidermis and sunken stomata.
II. Some xerophytic plants have special photosynthetic pathway (CAM) that enables their stomata close
during day.
III. Opuntia has spines (modified leaves), photosynthetic phylloclade (stem).
IV. All adaptations are genetically fixed in all organisms.
V. All adaptation are genetically not fixed.
(A) I, II, III and IV (B) II, III, IV and V
(C) III, IV, V and II (D) I, II, III and V
158. An exotic species that is introduced to a new area, spreads rapidly and eliminates native species is called
(A) immigrant species (B) invasive species
(C) destructive species (D) none of these
159. Three mile island and chernobyl disasters are associated with accidental leakage of
(A) radioactive wastes (B) industrial wastes
(C) municipal wastes (D) hospital wastes

2ME1617PCBPP4 22
160. The diagram given below is of a duct system of liver, gall bladder and pancreas. Write the names of
ducts from A to D.
(A) A - Cystic duct, B - Common bile duct,
C - Pancreatic duct, D - Hepato-pancreatic duct
(B) A - Common bile duct, B - Cystic duct,
C - Pancreatic duct, D - Hepato-pancreatic duct
(C) A - Cystic duct, B - Bile duct,
C - Hepato-pancreatic duct, D - Pancreatic duct
(D) A - Cystic duct, B - Pancreatic duct,
C - Common bile duct, D - Hepato-pancreatic duct

161. Inactive enzymes of pancreatic juice are

(A) trypsin, carboxypeptidase, nucleases
(B) chymotrypsinogen, carboxypeptidase, trypsinogen
(C) procarboxypeptidase, pronuclease, trypsinogen
(D) trypsin, chymotrypsin, nuclease
162. Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct option from the codes given below.
Column I Column II
(a) Tidal volume i. 2500-3000 mL of air
(b) Inspiratory reserve volume ii. 1000 mL of air
(c) Expiratory reserve volume iii. 500 mL of air
(d) Residual volume iv. 3400-4800 mL of air
(e) Vital capacity v. 1200 mL of air
(A) a - (iii), b - (iv), c - (ii), d - (i), e - (v) (B) a - (iii), b - (i), c - (ii), d - (v), e - (iv)
(C) a - (iii), b - (i), c - (iv), d - (v), e - (ii) (D) a - (v), b - (i), c - (ii), d - (iii), e - (iv)

163. Complete the following sentences by selecting the correct option.

(a) Inspiratory capacity (IC) = (i) + IRV
(b) (ii) = TV + IRV + ERV
(c) Functional residual capacity (FRC) = ERV + (iii)
(i) (ii) (iii)
(A) Vital capacity Tidal volume Residual volume
(B) Expiratory capacity Residual volume Inspiratory reserve volume
(C) Tidal volume Vital capacity Residual volume
(D) Tidal volume Total lung capacity Expiratory capacity

164. Which statement is true for WBC?

(A) Non-nucleated (B) Its deficiency causes cancer
(C) Manufactured only in thymus (D) Can squeeze through blood capillaries

165. Conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin is catalysed by

(A) thrombin (B) prothrombin
(C) thromboplastin (D) thrombokinase

23
166. Renin is released by
(A) loop of Henle (B) collecting duct
(C) juxtaglomerular apparatus (D) renal pelvis.
167. Pick the odd ones in each of the following groups and select the correct option.
(i) Renal pelvis, Medullary pyramid, Renal cortex, Renal papilla
(ii) Afferent arteriole, Henles loop, Vasa recta, Efferent arteriole
(iii) Glomerular filtration, Antidiuretic hormone, Hypertonic urine, Collecting duct
(iv) Proximal convoluted tubule, Distal convoluted tubule, Henles loop, Renal corpuscle
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(A) Renal pelvis Henles loop Collecting duct Distal convoluted tubule
(B) Renal Afferent Antidiuretic Henles loop
papilla Arteriole Hormone
(C) Medullary Efferent Hypertonic Proximal
pyramid arteriole urine convoluted tubule
(D) Renal cortex Vasa recta Glomerular filtration Renal corpuscle

168. The given figure shows an actin (thin) filament. Identify the labelled parts A, B and C and select the
correct option.

A B C
(A) Tropomyosin Troponin F-actin
(B) Troponin Myosin Tropomyosin
(C) Troponin Tropomyosin Myosin
(D) Troponin Tropomyosin F-actin

169. Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct option from the codes given below.
Column-I Column-I
a Structural and functional unit of a myofibril (i) H-zone
b Protein of thin filament (ii) Myosin
c. Protein of thick filament (iii) Sarcomere
d. The central part of thick filament not overlapped (iv) Actin
(A) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (B) a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(iv)
(C) a(i), b(iv), c(iii), d(ii) (D) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)
170. Which of the following options illustrates the distribution Na+ and K+ ions in a section of non-
myelinated axon that is at resting potential?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

2ME1617PCBPP4 24
171. During the propagation of a nerve impulse, the action potential results from the movement of
(A) K ions from intracellular fluid to extracellular fluid
(B) Na ions from extracellular fluid to intracellular fluid
(C) K ions from extracellular fluid to intracellular fluid
(D) Na ions from intracellular fluid to extracellular fluid.
172. Sertoli cells are regulated by the pituitary hormone known as
(A) LH (B) FSH (C) GH (D) prolactin

173. Adrenal cortex secretes many hormones, commonly called ____ a___, among these the one which is
involved in carbohydrate metabolism are called ___ b____. a and b respectively are
(A) corticoids, glucocorticoids
(B) cortisol, glucocorticoids
(C) cortisol, aldoserone
(D) aldosterone, mineralocorticoids

174. Fragmentation, leaching and catabolism are some of the important steps of decomposition. Study the
following statements ((i), (ii) and (iii)) regarding these and select the correct option.
(i) Detritivores (e.g., earthworm) break down detritus into smaller particles.
(ii) Water soluble inorganic nutrients go down into so horizon and get precipitated as unavailable salts.
(iii) Decomposers (e.g., bacteria and fungi) excrete digestive enzymes and degrade detritus into simpler
inorganic substances.
Leaching Fragmentation catabolism
(A) (i) (ii) (iii)
(B) (iii) (ii) (i)
(C) (ii) (i) (iii)
(D) (ii) (iii) (i)

175. Given figure represents food chains of a deciduous woodland linked together to form a food web.

Which of the following constitute first trophic level of the grazing food chain and the detritus food chain
respectively?
(A) Living oak leaf and dead oak leaf
(B) Living oak leaf and earthworm
(C) Moth caterpillar and earthworm
(D) Living oak leaf in both

25
176. On a logarithmic scale, the species area relationship is a straight line described by the equation
log S = log C + Z log A.
What Goes S, C, Z and A represent in the given equation?
Select the correct answer from the codes given below.
Species richness = 1
Slope of the line = 2
Y intercept = 3
Area = 4

1 2 3 4
(A) C S Z A
(B) S Z C A
(C) Z S C A
(D) A C S Z

Each of the following questions consists of a assertion and a reason. Examine both of
them and select one of the options using the following codes
(A) Assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(B) Assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion
(C) Assertion is true, but reason is false
(D) Assertion is false, but reason is true
177. Assertion: The mechanism of DNA replication is semiconservative in nature.
Reason: Each of the complementary strands of the parental double helix is conserved during the process.
178. Assertion (A): Methane component of greenhouse gases contributing to global warming is about 20%.
Reason (R): Introduction of multi-point fuel injection engines in automobiles has decreased methane
content in the exhausts.
179. Assertion (A) Prokaryotes have one envelope system.
Reason (R) There is not even a single membrane that surrounds the prokaryotic cell.

180. Assertion (A): B-cells work chiefly by secreting substances called antibodies into the body fluids.
Reason (R): Antibodies ambush foreign antigen circulating in the blood stream.

***

2ME1617PCBPP4 26
- Space for rough work -

27