Listening Section

In this section of the test, you will have the chance to show how well you understand spoken English. There are four
parts to this section with special directions for each part.

PART I
Question 1 to 3.
Directions:
In this part of the test, you will hear some dialogues and questions spoken in English. The questions and the
dialogues will be spoken twice. They will not be printed in your test book, so you must listen carefully to understand
what the speakers are saying.
After you listen to the dialogue and the question about it, read the five possible answers, and decide which one
would be the best answer to the question you have heard. Now listen to a sample question.

You will hear:

Boy : Do you use the internet very often?
Girl : Yes, I do. I use it for communication.
Boy : How do you communicate with it?
Girl : I send and receive emails, and I speak with my friends using voice mail.

Narrator: What is the main topic of the conversation?

Sample answer
You will read in your test book:
A. How to use email.
B. Receiving emails.
C. Communication.
D. Internet usage.
E. Voice mail.
The best answer to this question is Internet usage. Therefore you should choose answer (D)

1. A. Parking area.
B. Looking for parking.
C. Parking the car in the lot.
D. Walking across the street.
E. Taking the car to the mechanic.

2. A. To copy it.
B. To recheck it.
C. To throw it away.
D. To show it to Mrs. Hiroko.
E. To submit it to the director.

3. A. Meat.
B. Butter
C. Lettuce.
D. Tomato.
E. Mustard.

PART II
Questions: 4 to 8.

Directions:
In this part of the test, you will hear some incomplete dialogues spoken in English, followed by five responses, also
spoken in English. The dialogues and the responses will be spoken twice. They will not be printed in your text book,
so you must listen carefully to understand what the speakers are saying. You have to choose the best response to
each question.

Now listen to a sample question.

Man : Where are we going to stay?
Woman : At the Sun Hotel, near the beach.
Man : Why there?
Woman : .
Narrator: What will the woman most likely reply?
Sample answer
You will hear:

BAHASA INGGRIS 12 / IPA / IPS / IPB 1 TRY_OUT_ 2_ PAKET B

 A. Staying there.
B. Its on the beach.
C. Living in the hotel.
D. Theres a hotel there.
E. It provides excellent service.

The best answer to the question is choice E It provides excellent service. Therefore, you should choose answer E.

4. Mark your answer on your answer sheet.

5. Mark your answer on your answer sheet.
6. Mark your answer on your answer sheet.
7. Mark your answer on your answer sheet.
8. Mark your answer on your answer sheet.

PART III
Question: 9 to 11.

Directions:
In this part of the test, you will hear some dialogues and a monologue spoken in English. The dialogues and
monologues will be spoken twice. They will not be printed in your text book, so you must listen carefully to
understand what the speakers are saying. After you listen to a dialogue or monologue, look at the five pictures
provided in your test book, and decide which one would be most suitable with the dialogue or monologue you have
heard.

9.

1 2

3 4

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 A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5

10.

1 2

3 4

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5

11.

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 1 2

3 4

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5

PART IV
Question 12 to 15.
Directions:
In this part of the test, you will hear several monologues. Each monologue will be spoken twice. They will not be
printed in your text book, so you must listen carefully to understand what the speakers are saying.
After you hear the monologue and the question about it, read the five possible answers and decide which one would
be the best answer to the question you have heard.

12. A. Tropical regions.

B. Sunshine.
C. Bananas.
D. Rain.
E. Fruit.

13. A. In the world.

B. In the regions.
C. In the high trees.
D. In the small root.
E. In tropical regions.

14.A. How to get the gift.

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 B. How to make a doll.
C. How to make gift-wrap paper.
D. What boxless candies or chocolate is.
E. How to wrap a doll or some boxless candies.

15.A. Dipping the bottom.

B. Stampping the crepe paper.
C. Spreading some crepe papers.
D. Cutting a piece of crepe paper.
E. Waiting until the bleach is dry.

This is the end of the listening section

Reading Section

The following text is for questions 16 and 17.

AMINEF Program
American Indonesian Assistant Position
Exchange Foundation

AMINEF is seeking to hire a dynamic, motivated, team player for one position to assist the American Program
Officers in the administration, processing and monitoring of American Fulbright grantees here in
Indonesia/Jakarta.
Qualifications for the American Program Assistant position are:
Completion of S-1 is required. However, completion of S-2 from U.S. institution is preferred.
Excellent English language skills (oral and written). Minimum 575 TOEFL required.
Excellent analytical skills, critical reading skills, detail oriented, and VERY organized.
Excellent interpersonal communication, and time management skills.
A statement letter expressing your interest in the position and addressing the qualifications you have listed above,
a complete resume, and a recent 4x6 photograph and copy of KTP should be submitted by close of business
January 15th, 2013 to :
The Executive Director
AMINEF
Gedung CIMB Niaga Plaza 3rd Floor
Jl. Jend. Sudirman Kav.25
Jakarta 12920

16. The text is mainly about ....

A. a job vacancy
B. the site of AMINEF
C. an exchange foundation
D. American Fulbright grantees
E. the qualifications for a candidate

17. We know that the text can be found in ....

A. the radio
B. the internet
C. the television
D. the bus station
E. the newspaper

The following text is for questions 18 to 20.

BAHASA INGGRIS 12 / IPA / IPS / IPB 5 TRY_OUT_ 2_ PAKET B

 An eagle made her nest at the top of a lofty oak. A Cat, having found a convenient hole, moved into the
middle of the trunk. And a Wild Sow, with her young, took shelter in a hollow at its foot.
The Cat cunningly resolved to destroy this chance-made colony. To carry out her design, she climbed to the
nest of the Eagle, and said, "Destruction is preparing for you, and for me too, unfortunately. The Wild Sow, whom
you see daily digging up the earth, wishes to uproot the oak, so she may on its fall seize our families as food for her
young." Having thus frightened the Eagle out of her senses, she crept down to the cave of the Sow, and
said, "Your children are in great danger; for as soon as you go out with your litter to find food, the Eagle is prepared
to pounce upon one of your little pigs."
Having instilled these fears into the Sow, she went and pretended to hide herself in the hollow of the tree.
When night came she went forth with silent foot and obtained food for herself and her kittens, but feigning to be
afraid, she kept a lookout all through the day.
Meanwhile, the Eagle, full of fear of the Sow, sat still on the branches, and the Sow, terrified by the Eagle,
did not dare to go out from her cave. And thus they both, along with their families, perished from hunger, and
afforded ample provision for the Cat and her kittens.

18. What is the story about?

A. An eagles life.
B. An eagles fear.
C. An eagles food.
D. An eagles brave.
E. An eagles children.

19. What happened to the eagles families?

A. They didnt believe in their neighbor.
B. They lost their families.
C. They lost their shelter.
D. They were starving.
E. They died.

20. The Cat cunningly resolved to destroy this chance-made colony. (Paragraph 2)
The underlined word has the similar meaning to .
A. slowly
B. sharply
C. cleverly
D. quickly
E. roughl

The following text is for questions 21 to 22.

Hi Bruce!
I am sorry. I recently tried to call you but was unable to get a hold of you. I wanted to give
you the information you requested about earning extra income from home.
I need you to call me back in my home office at 021-7303841 or reply to this e-mail with
2 days/ times to reach you.
Im looking forwards to showing you business that not only makes, but it works. Standing
by and wishing you well
John Adam

21. What is the text about?

A. Earning extra income from home.
B. Giving the information to Bruce.
C. Sorry to have missed Bruce.
D. Replying to Johns e-mail.
E. Showing the business.

22. How can Bruce call John Adam?

A. By sending letter.
B. By sending SMS.
C. By sending mailbox.
D. By calling Adam in line 021-7303841.
E. By giving information through mailbox.

The following text is for questions 23 and 24.

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 ANNOUNCEMENT

All members of English Squad

Today (Wednesday, January 9, 2013) we are going to have a meeting at the AV room at
3.30 P.M.
Dont forget to bring the list of the members of your group in your class
The meeting is expected to last for one and half hours
Dont miss it!

23. what is announcement about ?

A. The list of group.
B. The length of meeting.
C. The members of group.
D. The English Squads meeting.
E. The establishment of English Squad.

24. From the text above, we infer that the meeting will end at .
A. 3.30 p.m
B. 4.00 p.m
C. 4.30 p.m
D. 5.00 p.m
E. 5.30 p.m

The following text is for questions 25 to 27.

Scientists have discovered the bones of what may be the largest meat-eating dinosaur ever to walk the earth.
The discovery was made by a team of researchers from Argentina and North America in Pantagonia, a desert on the
eastern slopes of the Andes in South America. Besides the interesting fact that the dinosaur was huge and horrifying,
it is even more biggest meat-eaters lived as loners and instead indicates that they may have lived and hunted in
parks. The Tyrannosaurus Rex lived in North America and was believed to hunt and live a line.
The newly discovered meat-eaters appears to be related to the Giganotosaurus family, being as closely related to
as a fox would be to a dog. It is actually not of the same family, being as the Tyrannosaurus Rex, being as different
from of as a cat from a dog.
The fossilized remains indicate that the animals lived about 100 million years ago. With needle-shaped noses
and razor sharp teeth, they were larger than Tyrannosaurus Rex, although their legs were slightly hoarder, and their
jaws were designed to be better able to cut the body of their prey into pieces quickly and precisely.

25. The text is mainly about .

A. The discovery of dinosaurs
B. The research of dinosaurs
C. The bone of dinosaurs
D. The type of dinosaurs
E. The meat-eaters

26. The researchers found the bones of a new type of dinosaur in

A. Argentina
B. Andest Forest
C. North America
D. South America
E. East Pentagonia

27. From the text we may conclude that .

A. The jaws of dinosaurs were shaped the same
B. North America was the origin of all dinosaurs
C. Dinosaurs could not live together with their own kind
D. All dinosaurs have the same bones and the same heigh
E. Dinosaurs characteristics and way of lives are different

The following text is for questions 28 to 30.

BAHASA INGGRIS 12 / IPA / IPS / IPB 7 TRY_OUT_ 2_ PAKET B

 The film is Roland Emmerich's film which uses the Mayan calendar and other end-of-days prophecies for
their doomsday scenario. It imagines the world coming to an end in 2012.
Unfortunately, the crucial sequence is not filmed or edited with the requisite clarity. In this film, Emmerich
leaves us befuddled as to exactly what is happening to whom. However, Emmerich' film deserves credit for offbeat
casting. Cusack supplies his trademark hangdog charm. McCarthy has perhaps his best role ever as Peet's cocky.
Danny Glover lends dignity to the role of the tormented president. ChiwetelEjiofor, as the chief scientist, brings a
moving sense of anguish to a stock role. Platt has fun playing the villain of the piece, and Woody Harrelson also
chews the scenery as a bug-eyed radio prophet trying to warn his listeners about Armageddon.
All in one, the films cinematography, production design and visual effects are awards-worthy. Music also
propels the movie. It presents American Idol runner-up, Adam Lambert, who provides a rousing anthem over the end
credits.

28. Based on the reading passage above, we know that

A. McCarthy doesnt play role as Peet's cocky.
B. Chiwetel Ejiofor is not as the chief scientist.
C. Adam Lambert is not American Idol runner-up
D. Roland Emmerich releases the film by using the Mayan calendar.
E. Woody Harrelson doesnt chew the scenery as a bug-eyed radio prophet.

29. The climax of the film is that there is no ... in the world.
A. new lives
B. destruction
C. living things
D. living creatures
E. things and living creatures

30. Based on the first paragraph, which of the following statements is NOT mentioned?
A. Adam Lambert is not a singer.
B. Rolland is the author of the film.
C. There are not movie stars in this film.
D. The world is not coming to end of this year.
E. The visual effects of this film are not award-worthy.

The following text is for questions 31 to 33.

More than 500 vendors from three traditional markets on Jl. Fatmawati in South Jakarta protested against the
citys mass rapid transit (MRT) project plan on Tuesday, saying that when implemented, they would lose their
jobs.
The vendors, grouped in the Association of Indonesian Traditional Market Traders (APPSI) from the Mede,
Cipete and Blok A markets, lamented that the area would be designated as a park and ride location with an
elevated MRT track.
We want the administration to build a subway line here, not an elevated one so as not to interrupt market
activities, Blok A Market Traders Corporation (IPPSA) secretary Dagirsyah Dahlan said as quoted by kompas.com.
The protesting vendors then went to the East Jakarta mayors office to continue their rally.
The demonstration caused traffic congestion in the area because vehicles traveling along Jl. Fatmawati could not
be diverted, the police said.
The MRT line is expected to ease the massive daily traffic gridlock in the city.
However, the project, the cost of which will mostly be covered by a 120 billion (US$1.5 billion) soft loan from the
Japan International Cooperation Agency (JICA), remains uncertain with Jakarta Governor Joko Widodo remaining
unconvinced of the plans feasibility.
Jokowi recently failed to make a promised decision on the project, following a heated meeting with city-
owned PT MRT Jakarta officials, transportation experts and residents who would be affected by the construction
project.

31. What does the text mainly report?

A. MRT project plan in Jakarta.
B. The urgent need of MRT construction.
C. The vendors protest against MRT project plan.
D. Jakarta Governors doubt of the MRT plan feasibility.
E. Soft loan from the Japan International Cooperation Agency.

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32. From the text, we know that ...
A. Many endors would loose their job if the project implemented.
B. The cost of the project is less than 120 billion.
C. Joko Widodo participates in the demonstration.
D. Joko Widodo is not the governor of Jakarta.
E. Only some vendors hold a demonstraion.

33. ...transportation experts and residents who.... (Last paragraph)

The underlined word has closest meaning with ....
A. professionals
B. solumnists
C. activists
D. sentists
E. Riders

The following text is for questions 34 to 37.

Fast food nowadays is considered a normal eating venture. People are not just eating out on special
occasions or weekends anymore. It means that all the time they mostly eat fast foods. However, is fast food good for
health?
Fast food has its popularity in the 1940s. Within a few years, fast-food operations popped up everywhere.
With the compelling rise in fast-food restaurants since the 1940s, oddly it started the rise in obesity and cancer
during that same time period.
Fast food is highly processed with a wide array of additives. To ensure fast foods low cost, the fast food
products are made with highly-processed ingredients to give it shelf-life, to hold consistency, and to enhance flavor.
Fast food is altered from its original healthy form.
It is not the calories in fast food which damage health and waistline. It is the chemical additives such as
aspartame and MSG (monosodium glutamate). Studies show that the chemical additives lead to weight and disease
issues.
So, there is absolutely nothing nutritional about fast food. Fast food simply feeds hunger and craving.

34. Which one of the following arguments is NOT stated in the text?
A. Fast food is rich in nutrition.
B. Fast food contains additives.
C. Calories in fast food do not damage ones health.
D. Aspartame used in fast food can damage ones health.
E. It is assumed that fast food triggers obesity and cancer.

35. From the text we know that

A. We should eat fast food every day.
B. There are absolutely nutritional about fast food.
C. There are many chemical additives in fast food.
D. Calories in fast food are not good for human beings.
E. Fast food chemical additives are good for human beings.

36. What does the writer imply from the text above?
A. Fast food is not a special food.
B. Fast food contains a lot of calories.
C. Fast food makes people addicted eating.
D. Fast food restaurants can be found everywhere.
E. Eating fast food every day is not good for human health.

37. . . . fast food simply feed ones hunger and craving. (Last paragraph)
What is the synonym of the underlined word?
A. thirst
B. desire .
C. interest
D. appetite
E. starvation

The following incomplete text is for questions 38 to 40.

BAHASA INGGRIS 12 / IPA / IPS / IPB 9 TRY_OUT_ 2_ PAKET B

 Nusa Lembongan is a small beautiful island off the southeast coast of the main island of Bali. Fast
becoming one of Bali's most popular attractions, this island paradise offers (48) scenery; this is a fine place to
just put your feet up and relax. The island or Nusa can be accessed by regular public boat from Sanur Beach or by
luxury daily cruises from Benoa Harbour.
Nusa Lembongan is a beautiful island where u can find a numerous hotels, luxury villas and budget
accommodation. ...(49) and other tourism facilities are still developed.
Plenty of activities, main activities include surfing, ...(50) and snorkeling. The water is some of the
clearest you will find anywhere, and a perfect aqua blue in colour.

38. A. magnificent
B. important
C. significant
D. different
E. elegant

39. A. Cafe
B. Hotel
C. Cottage
D. Restaurant
E. Apartement

40. A. hiking
B. diving
C. jogging
D. jamping
E. swimming

The following text is for questions 41 to 43.

Mozart was born to Leopold and Anna Maria Pertl Mozart, in the front room of nine Getreidegasse in
Salzburg, the capital of the sovereign Archbishopric of Salzburg, in what is now Austria, then part of the Holy
Roman Empire. His only sibling who survived beyond infancy was an older sister: Maria Anna, nicknamed Nannerl.
Mozart was baptized the day after his birth at St. Rupert's Cathedral.
Mozart's father Leopold (17191787) was one of Europe's leading musical teachers. His influential textbook
Versuch einer grndlichen Violinschule, was published in 1756, the year of Mozart's birth (English, as "A Treatise
on the Fundamental Principles of Violin Playing", transl. E.Knocker; Oxford-New York, 1948). He was deputy
kapellmeister to the court orchestra of the Archbishop of Salzburg, and a prolific and successful composer of
instrumental music. Leopold gave up composing when his son's outstanding musical talents became evident. They
first came to light when Wolfgang was about three years old, and Leopold, proud of Wolfgang's achievements, gave
him intensive musical training, including instruction in clavier, violin, and organ. Leopold was Wolfgang's only
teacher in his earliest years. A note by Leopold in Nannerl's music book the Nannerl Notenbuch records that
little Wolfgang had learned several of the pieces at the age of four. Mozart's first compositions, a small Andante (K.
1a) and Allegro (K. 1b), were written in 1761, when he was five years old.
During his formative years, Mozart made several European journeys, beginning with an exhibition in 1762 at
the Court of the Elector of Bavaria in Munich, then in the same year at the Imperial Court in Vienna and Prague. A
long concert tour spanning three and a half years followed, taking him with his father to the courts of Munich,
Mannheim, Paris, London (where Wolfgang Amadeus played with the famous Italian cellist Giovanni Battista Cirri),
The Hague, again to Paris, and back home via Zrich, Donaueschingen, and Munich.

41. What does the text tell us about?

A. Mozart.
B. Mozarts father.
C. Mozarts journey in Europe.
D. The beginning of Mozart exhibition.
E. European leading musical teachers.

42. What is the best description of Leopolds personality?

A. Strict and honest
B. Diligent and smart
C. Obedient and faithful
D. Productive and caring
E. Temperamental and arrogant

43. What is the main idea of paragraph 2? It is about .

BAHASA INGGRIS 12 / IPA / IPS / IPB 10 TRY_OUT_ 2_ PAKET B

 A. Mozarts father is unsuccessful composer of instrumental music.
B. Mozarts entertainment is focused on the musical training.
C. Mozart is the Fundamental Principles of Violin Playing.
D. Mozarts father is the leader of Europe musical teacher.
E. Mozart is a writer in Nannerl's music book.

44. Rearrange the following sentences into the correct and meaningful paragraph!

(1) If you dont have an account yet, create one.

(2) Sign in to get into your account in your mail provider.
(3) Click compose message button to start writing your email.
(4) Type the message you want to send just like typing a letter.
(5) You may add a title for your email by typing it in the subject bar below the address.
(6) When you finish typing, click send button. Your email will be sent to the desired address.
(7) Prior to writing, decide the receiving mail address by typing it on the address bar or browsing it in your
contact database.

A. 1-2-4-5-7-3-6
B. 2-1-3-7-5-4-6
C. 3-7-4-5-1-2-6
D. 4-3-2-1-5-7-6
E. 7-3-4-2-1-5-6

The following text is for questions 45 to 47.

There are many dangers of smoking to the body. A number of chemical additives are found in cigarettes.
Some of them are classified as toxic and are not allowed in food.
One of the main dangers of smoking is due to nicotine. Nicotine is found naturally in tobacco. It has no odor
and no color. It is, however, both physically and psychologically addictive, and it causes those who use it to
want to smoke one cigarette after another. Nicotine enters the body as tiny droplets resting on particles of tar
in cigarette smoke. Inhaled into the lungs, the drug passes quickly into the bloodstream, reaching the brain
within about 10 seconds. In another 5 to 10 seconds the nicotine has spread to all parts of the body. The
nicotine raises both the heart rate and blood pressure. The smoker quickly feels more alert and relaxed. In less
than 30 minutes, however, about half of the nicotine has left the bloodstream, and the smoker starts feeling
less alert, more edgy.
There is another danger of smoking as well. The tar from tobacco smoke starts to accumulate on the
bronchial tubes leading to the lungs. The hot smoke burns the tiny hairlike projections (called cilia) that trap
harmful particles before they enter the lungs.
The other danger of smoking is carbon monoxide. Smoking also increases the level of carbon monoxide in
the lungs. This poisonous gas is quickly absorbed into the blood, reducing its capacity to carry oxygen. As a
result, the smoker has to exert more physical effort to attain a given task than does a nonsmoker. The heart in
particular must work harder, particularly during rigorous exercise. Increased levels of carbon monoxide in the
blood can impair vision, perception of time, and coordination.
In brief, these chemical additives are dangerous. They cause smokers to worsen their health. A great
number of smokers lose their lives because of the diseases resulting from smoking.

45. The main idea of the second paragraph is ....

A. Nicotine is dangerous.
B. Cigarette contains nicotine
C. Nicotine influences the brain
D. Nicotin has no odor and no color
E. Nicotine has spread up to all of the body

46. Which of the following statements is NOT mentioned in the text?

A. Its better not to smoke.
B. Nicotine is found naturally in tobacco.
C. They cause smokers to worsen their health.
D. The smoker quickly feels more alert and relaxed.
E. The other danger of smoking is carbon monoxide.

BAHASA INGGRIS 12 / IPA / IPS / IPB 11 TRY_OUT_ 2_ PAKET B

47. The tar from tobacco smoke starts to accumulate.... (Paragraph 3)
The synonym of the underlined word is ....
A. comes
B. begins
C. stimulates
D. completes
E. disappears

The following text is for questions 48 to 50.

Video games become a controversial issue for parents and educators. Those who are in favor of video games
believe that video games have some benefits. However, people who are against video games consider these games
have several negative effects.
In the proponents point of view, video game functions as a form of light entertainment. As part of a balanced
entertainment diet, the games can provide stress relief for kids, they can help with aspects of coordination and
concentration on visual details, and they help kids relate to one another in some forms of healthy competition.
On the contrary, the opponents of video games think that video games have some disadvantages. The video game
players are prone to aggressive thoughts, attitudes, and actions. Video games labeled as first person shooting games
cause children to be less sensitive to the pain and suffering others. Study also shows that these children are more
fearful of the world around them. In addition, video games make the players addicted. The games provide a high
level of quick gratification. Children are almost constantly being rewarded and, when they lose, they get to easily
start over to work on their goal. Furthermore, too much time on any video entertainment takes away from time spent
on school work. As a result, the games cause children to weaken their school achievement.
In conclusion, parents should limit their children's time on video games. It is helpful to consider a child's leisure
time diet and parents should think about how well balanced it is. Video games that are violent or of limited
instructional value can be thought of as treats.

48. Which one of the following statements is the benefit of video games?
a. Video games stress the relief for kids.
b. Video games can coordinate the kids help.
c. Video games do not function as a form of light amusement.
d. Video games can help the kids coordination and concentration.
e. Video games cant help kids to relate each other in forms of healthy competition.

49. The main idea of paragraph 3 is

A. the benefits of video games.
B. the weakness of video games.
C. the advantages of video games.
D. the amusement of video games.
E. the advantages and disadvantages of video games.

50. We imply that parents

A. should bound their kids time on video games.
B. shouldnt limit their childrens time to play video games.
C. cannot control their childrens leisure time on video games.
D. have to play games with their children because it is helpful.
E. mustnt control their children in spending their time on video games.

BAHASA INGGRIS 12 / IPA / IPS / IPB 12 TRY_OUT_ 2_ PAKET B