ANSWERS ARE MARKED IN BOLD

Part A Multiple Choice Questions

Chapter 1 - Overview of Oracle9i Performance Tuning

1. Which statement about performance tuning is true?

A. Only application developers should be concerned with performance and tuning.
B. Only database administrators should be concerned with performance and tuning.
C. Application designers should think about performance and tuning when designing systems.
D. The system administrator should make the first attempt at solving any performance issues.

2. There are numerous roles assigned to individuals involved with an Oracle9i system.
Which four must be concerned with performance and tuning while working? (Choose four.)
A. database users
B. application users
C. system architects
D. application designers
E. application developers
F. database administrators

3. You have designed an application and are considering database configuration. You want to minimize the number of full
table scans. Which options could influence the number of full table scan?
A. indexes
B. fast disks
C. extra memory
D. cursor management
E. session management

4. You are tuning a DSS system and many full table scans are being performed. What should be your tuning goal for this
system?
A. Reads should be performed as quickly as possible.
B. Data should be kept current so reads will NOT take as long.
C. Read-only tablespaces should be stored on the same physical disks.
D. The MAXEXTENTS parameter for tables in this system should be set to a large value.

5. What should be of primary importance when tuning SQL statements?

A. Make sure they do NOT contain any WHERE clauses.
B. Make sure the SQL statements contain a CACHE hint.
C. Make sure they access the smallest number of Oracle blocks.
D. Make sure as many SQL statements as possible access only tables with indexes.

6. Which effect will pinning large and frequently used objects in the shared pool have on your database?
A. Users can share the same code.
B. Users will NOT have to execute ad hoc queries.
C. Operating system resources will not be overburdened.
D. The DBA will not have to load the DBMS_APPLICATION_PKG.

7. Which is a measurable tuning goal?

A. Minimize paging and swapping.
B. Increase the number of DBWn processes.
C. Minimize the number of user connections allowed.
D. Separate table data from its associated indexes.

8. Which statement about frequent incremental checkpointing and database performance is true?
A. Frequent incremental checkpointing has no affect on database performance.
B. Frequent incremental checkpointing makes the database safer while increasing database performance.
C. Frequent incremental checkpointing increases the amount of time required to recovery the database in case of instance
failure.
D. Frequent incremental checkpointing provides faster recovery time in the case of an instance failure, but has a
negative affect on performance.
9. You are concerned about the poor performance of the Sales application. You have ruled out any database configuration
issues, and you are now focusing on the application design and programming. You have determined that frequent full table
scans are performed, too many tables are being joined to retrieve data, and shared SQL statements are not being used
effectively. Which three tasks could you perform to help increase performance? (Choose three.)
A. Create indexes as needed.
B. Partition the larger tables.
C. Denormalize the data as needed.
D. Use bind variables in shared SQL statements.

Chapter 2 - Diagnostic and Tuning Tools

10. Which three statements about the alert log file are true? (Choose three.)
A. Use the alert log file to view information about incomplete checkpoints.
B. Use the alert log file to view the nondefault initialization parameters.
C. Check the alert log file regularly to detect internal errors and block corruption errors.
D. Disable logging to the alert.log file by setting the SQL_TRACE initialization parameter to FALSE.
E. Gather performance statistics by executing the utlbstat.sql and utlestat.sql scripts and reviewing the results in the
alert.log file.

11. You are tuning the database. You need to view all the operations that affected database structures and parameters,
including the STARTUP, SHUTDOWN, and RECOVER statements. Which file(s) could you use to view this information?
A. control file
B. alert log file
C. parameter file
D. user trace files
E. server trace files

12. Which file could you use to view information about deadlocks occurring in the database? (Choose two.)
A. server trace files
B. control file
C. alert log file
D. parameter file

13. How can you control the size of the Alert log file?
A. You set the file size in the header section of the Alert log file.
B. The Oracle server automatically trims the file to the size you specified in the parameter file.
C. The file size is set at the operating system level by the system administrator.
D. The file will continue to grow. You must manually control the size of the file.

14. Which statement about the Alert log file is true?

A. The creation of a user is recorded in the Alert log file.
B. The shut down operation is NOT recorded in the Alert log file.
C. The creation of a tablespace is recorded in the Alert log file.
D. The creation of rollback segments are NOT recorded in the Alert log file.

15. For which reason should you enable tracing for a user session?
A. System resources are being overburdened when user processing is at peak levels.
B. A user has complained about the time it is taking to execute an application process.
C. An unusually large number of redo log files are being archived during heavy transaction periods.
D. The system administrator has indicated that I/O is not being evenly distributed across the file system.

16. Which parameter defines where trace files can be created at the request of users?
A. SQL_TRACE
B. USER_DUMP_DEST
C. MAX_DUMP_FILE_SIZE
D. BACKGROUND_DUMP_DEST

17. You are troubleshooting to determine why the system has slowed down. You need to determine the total buffer busy
waits since instance startup for all sessions. Which view would you query to display this information?
A. V$EVENT_NAME
B. V$SESSION_WAIT
C. V$SYSTEM_EVENT
D. V$SESSION_EVENT
18. You have discovered that several users are running memory intensive reports and you want to identify the sessions that
use more than 40,000 bytes of PGA memory. Which three views would you join to display the username, statistic name,
and statistic value for all users who use more than 40,000 bytes of PGA memory? (Choose three.)
A. V$SESSTAT
B. V$SESSION
C. V$STATNAME
D. V$EVENT_NAME
E. V$SESSION_WAIT
F. V$SESSION_EVENT

19. Each day users complain that they experience slow times at the same time everyday. You know that the Sales
application runs several reports during this time. You query V$SYSTEM_EVENT by selecting all columns and rows.
Which information could you determine by the results of this query?
A. the number of locks currently held by the server
B. the number of busy buffer waits for a particular session
C. resources or events for which active sessions are waiting
D. the total waits for particular events since instance startup
E. the cursors that are currently opened and parsed by each session

20. You query the V$SYSTEM_EVENT dynamic performance view with this command:
SELECT event, total_waits, total_timeouts, time_waited, average_wait FROM v$system_event;
Which event would indicate contention in the database buffer cache?
A. latch free
B. process startup
C. buffer busy waits
D. buffer LRU length

21. Which dynamic performance view would you query to display all the calculated session statistics?
V$SESSTAT
V$SYSSTAT
V$PX_SESSTAT
V$SESSION_EVENT

22. You will use the STATSPACK to generate a report about database performance. Which three statements about using the
STATSPACK to generate performance statistics are true? (Choose three.)
A. To collect timing information, set TIMED_STATISTICS = TRUE.
B. To collect statistics using STATSPACK, execute the SPCREATE.SQL script.
C. It is not possible to specify the amount of information gathered by STATSPACK.
D. The current values for the performance statistics are stored in the STATSPACK tables.
E. To automate the process of collecting statistics using STATSPACK, use the SPREPORT.SQL script.
F. When producing a report, select the start and end periods from the same instance startup to generate accurate
statistics.

23. You need to gather statistics over time and compare snapshots of the collected data, provide permanent storage of
dynamic performance measurements, and identify SQL statements that exceed predefined thresholds. Which utility should
you use?
A. TKPROF
B. UTLESTAT
C. UTLBSTAT
D. SQLTRACE
E. STATSPACK

24. Which performance diagnostic tool provides various precalculated ratios to ease the diagnostic process?
A. TKPROF
B. UTLBSTAT
C. UTLESTAT
D. STATSPACK

25. You are monitoring SQL statement performance for the Sales application. You need to capture both the complete text of
a high-load statement and information on any SQL plans associated with the statement. Which diagnostic performance tool
or utility should you use?
A. STATSPACK
B. LOCK MANAGER
C. ORACLE EXPERT
D. UTLBSTAT/UTLESTAT

26. You are tuning an Oracle9i database. Which two statements about Performance Manager are true? (Choose two.)
A. Performance Manager captures, computes, and presents performance data in a graphical, real-time view.
B. Performance Manager will not allow you to pinpoint which session is using the highest amount database resources.
C. Performance Manager reports library cache, buffer busy wait, and rollback contention statistics in report.txt.
D. Performance Manager allows you to compare snapshots taken over the past few weeks to track the increase in database
resources.
E. Performance Manager allows you to monitor the key metrics required to use memory effectively, minimize disk
I/O, and avoid resource contention.

Chapter 3 Sizing the Shared Pool

27. You query V$LIBRARYCACHE using this query:

SELECT SUM(pins) Executions, SUM(reloads) Cache Misses, SUM(reloads)/sum(pins) FROM v$librarycache;
The results displayed indicate that the reloads-to-pins ratio is greater than 1 percent. Which statement is true?
A. You should add more memory to the computer.
B. You should configure the database to use multiple buffer pools.
C. You should increase the value of the LARGE_POOL_SIZE parameter to avoid frequent reloads.
D. You should increase the value of the SHARED_POOL_SIZE parameter to avoid frequent reloads.

28. What is a possible reasons for the library cache reloads-to-pins ratio being greater than 1 percent?
A. Shared parse areas are invalidated.
B. The appropriate tables are NOT cached in memory.
C. Frequently used SQL statements are not pinned in the KEEP buffer pool.
D. The corresponding execution plan is removed before the SQL statement ages out of the library cache.

29. You query your OLTP database using this query: SELECT namespace, gethitratio FROM v$librarycache
These results are returned by the query:
NAMESPACE GETHITRATIO
------------------------------ ----------------------
SQL AREA .76895960
TABLE/PROCEDURE .80029405
BODY .7
Which should you do first?
A. You should increase the size of the SGA.
B. You should increase the size of the library cache.
C. You should improve the efficiency of your application code.
D. You should increase the value of the SHARED_POOL_SIZE parameter.

30. What does Oracle use to manage the SQL and PL/SQL in the library cache?
A. PGA
B. clusters
C. LRU algorithm
D. database buffer cache

31. Which statement about the data dictionary cache is true?

A. If the GETHITRATIO is higher than 90, increase the SHARED_POOL_SIZE parameter.
B. If there are too many cache misses, increase the value of the SHARED_POOL_SIZE parameter.
C. If the reloads-to-pins ratio is less than 1 percent, increase the value of the SHARED_POOL_SIZE parameter.
D. If the ratio of the sum of GETMISSES to the sum of GET is less than 15 percent, decrease the value of the
SHARED_POOL_SIZE parameter.

32. You query V$ROWCACHE using this statement: SELECT parameter, getsmisses/gets FROM v$rowcache
These results are returned by the query:
PARAMETER GETMISSES/GETS
-------------------------------------- -------------------------------
dc_objects .26400495
dc_synonyms .19909809
Which statement is true?
A. Do nothing. These values are optimal.
B. The hit ratio for the data dictionary should also be acceptable.
C. You should consider increasing the value of SHARED_POOL_SIZE parameter.
D. You should consider decreasing the value of the SHARED_POOL_SIZE parameter.
33. You query your OLTP database using this query: SELECT namespace, gethitratio FROM v$librarycache;
This result is returned by the query:
NAMESPACE GETHITRATIO
------------------------------ -----------------------
SQL AREA .97958699
TABLE/PROCEDURE .98586968
BODY .99875868
Which statement is true?
A. The hit ratio for the data dictionary should also be acceptable.
B. You should consider increasing the value of SHARED_POOL_SIZE parameter.
C. You should consider decreasing the value of the SHARED_POOL_SIZE parameter.
D. You should consider increasing the value of the SHARED_POOL_RESERVED_SIZE parameter.
E. You should consider decreasing the value of the SHARED_POOL_RESERVED_SIZE parameter.

34. You are tuning the data dictionary cache. You query V$ROWCACHE and discover that the ratio of GETMISSES to the
sum of GETS is less than 15 percent during normal operation. What should you do?
A. Increase the LARGE_POOL_SIZE.
B. Increase the SHARED_POOL_SIZE.
C. Tune the data dictionary cache until you achieve a zero value for GETMISSES.
D. Do nothing. This is optimal.

35. Which two statements about the data dictionary cache are true? (Choose two.)
A. Tune the data dictionary cache immediately after instance startup.
B. Size the dictionary cache directly using the SHARED_POOL_SIZE parameter.
C. Use the GETS and GETMISSES columns in V$ROWCACHE to determine the data dictionary cache hit ratio.
D. Increase the SHARED_POOL_SIZE if the sum of all GETMISSES to the sum of all GETS in V$ROWCACHE is less
than 15 percent.
E. The GETMISSES column in the V$ROWCACHE can almost never be zero because object definitions are loaded
into the shared pool after instance startup.

36. Evaluate this statement: EXECUTE dbms_shared_pool.keep ('DIUTIL');

What does this statement accomplish?
A. prevents the DIUTIL package from being aged out of the shared pool
B. creates KEEP buffer pool
C. increases the size of the shared pool
D. removes a pinned object from the shared pool

37. Evaluate this statement: EXECUTE dbms_shared_pool.keep ('DIUTIL');

When is the best time to execute this statement?
A. immediately after database startup
B. immediately after executing the CATPARR.SQL script
C. immediately after removing unnecessary buffers
D. immediately before using the ANALYZE. . .ESTIMATE STATISTICS statement

38. At which time should you pin large objects in the shared pool to prevent fragmentation?
A. at instance startup
B. at instance shutdown
C. during peak hours only
D. when needed by the application process

39. Which three should you pin in the shared pool? (Choose three.)
A. user privileges
B. any dynamic SQL statement
C. a sequence on the LINE_ITEM table
D. the definition of the LINE_ITEM_VU view
E. an INSERT trigger on the LINE_ITEM table
F. any large procedural object that is frequently used

40. Due to operating system memory limitations, you need to set the SHARED_POOL_RESERVED_SIZE. Which
additional parameter should you also increase by the same amount?
A. SHARED_POOL_SIZE
B. SHARED_POOL_KEEP
C. SHARED_POOL_RESERVED_SPACE
D. SHARED_POOL_RESERVED_MIN_ALLOC

41. When should you consider increasing the value of both the SHARED_POOL_SIZE and
SHARED_POOL_RESERVED_SIZE parameters?
A. The reloads-to-pins ratio in the report.txt file is greater than 1 percent.
B. The value of REQUEST_MISS in V$SHARED_POOL_RESERVED is equal to zero and is not increasing.
C. The value of REQUEST_FAILURES in V$SHARED_POOL_RESERVED is greater than zero and is always
increasing.
D. The value of FREE_MEMORY in V$SHARED_POOL_RESERVED is equal to or greater than 50 percent of the
SHARED_POOL_RESERVED_SIZE minimum.

42. Which three statements about the shared pool reserved space are true? (Choose three.)
A. Use the V$SHARED_POOL_RESERVED view to tune the shared pool reserved space parameters.
B. Set the SHARED_POOL_RESERVED_SIZE parameter larger than the SHARED_POOL_SIZE parameter.
C. Use the SHARED_POOL_SIZE parameter to control the amount of size reserved for large allocations.
D. Use the DBMS_SHARED_POOL package to limit the amount of shared pool to flush prior to reporting an ORA-
4031 error.
E. Increase the SHARED_POOL_RESERVED_SIZE parameter when the value of REQUEST_FAILURES is
greater than zero and increasing.

43. In the Oracle shared server environment, where does the UGA reside if the large pool is NOT configured?
A. in the large pool
B. in the shared pool
C. in the library cache
D. in the database buffer cache

44. Which parameter may need to be increased to run Oracle Shared Server?
A. OPEN_CURSORS
B. SHARED_POOL_SIZE
C. SESSION_CACHED_CURSORS
D. CLOSE_CACHE_OPEN_CURSORS

45. Which two views can be queried to gather information about UGA space usage for all Oracle Shared Server users?
(Choose two.)
A. V$MYSTAT
B. V$SESSTAT
C. V$SGASTAT
D. V$STATNAME
E. V$DB_OBJECT_CACHE

46. Users in an Oracle Forms application repeatedly parse the same statements. This occurs because users often switch
between multiple forms. The SESSION_CACHED_CURSORS value is set to the default.
You are tuning for performance and issue this query:
SELECT session cursor cache hits, parse hits FROM v$sesstat WHERE user = 'jane'
Jane is a typical user of the application. Which statement is true?
A. Decrease the value of the SESSION_CACHED_CURSORS parameter to cause open cursors to be cached within the
session.
B. Increase the value of the SESSION_CACHED_CURSORS parameter to cause closed cursors to be cached within
the session.
C. Decrease the value of the CURSOR_SPACE_FOR_TIME parameter to ensure shared SQL areas are aged out when the
cursor referencing them are closed.
D. Increase the value of the CURSOR_SPACE_FOR_TIME parameter to ensure shared SQL areas are NOT aged out until
the cursor referencing them is closed.

47. You are tuning the database for you application that uses cursors. The value of RELOADS in V$LIBRARYCACHE is
consistently zero. You want to use space to gain time. To which value could you set the CURSOR_SPACE_FOR_TIME
parameter to achieve this goal?
A. 0
B. TRUE
C. FALSE
D. DEFAULT
E. an integer value

48. The PARALLEL_AUTOMATIC_TUNING initialization parameter is set to 'TRUE'. Which statement is true?
A. Parallel execution buffers are allocated from the shared pool only.
B. Oracle automatically computes a value for the LARGE_POOL_SIZE initialization parameter when it is unset.
C. Parallel execution buffers are allocated from the large pool first, then from the shared pool if necessary.
D. Oracle automatically sets it to a value of 2 megabytes when the LARGE_POOL_SIZE initialization parameter is unset.

49. You are configuring the large pool and must first determine its current size. Which dynamic performance view will you
query to view this information?
A. V$SGA
B. V$SGASTAT
C. V$SHARED_SERVER
D. V$SHARED_POOL_RESERVE

Chapter 4 Sizing the Buffer Cache

50. What could you do to improve the buffer cache hit ratio for your OLTP database?
A. Cache tables in memory.
B. Disable session tracing.
C. Increase the LOG_BUFFER value.
D. Increase the SHARED_POOL_SIZE value.

51. Which four values are required to calculate the cache hit ratio? (Choose four.)
A. db_block_gets
B. physical reads
C. consistent_gets
D. session logical reads
E. physical reads direct
F. physical reads direct (lob)

52. The buffer cache hit ratio is 59 percent. What should the optimal value be during normal processing of your OLTP
system?
A. at least 10 percent
B. at least 90 percent
C. less than 90 percent
D. less than 10 percent

53. The database is using the Oracle Real Application Clusters option. Which view can you query to analyze the database
buffer cache?
A. V$CACHE
B. V$LOGFILE
C. V$SYSTEM_EVENT
D. V$SESSION_WAIT

54. Why would you query V$BUFFER_POOL_STATISTICS?

A. to diagnosis free list contention problems
B. to determine the default buffer pool for an object
C. to determine the hit ratio for multiple buffer pools
D. to monitor the number of buffer pool blocks by object

55. Why would you query V$BUFFER_POOL?

A. to diagnosis free list contention problems
B. to determine the default buffer pool for a table
C. to determine the number of blocks allocated to a buffer pool
D. to display consistent gets statistics for multiple buffer caches

56. Which buffer pool in the buffer cache always exists and is equivalent to a single buffer cache?
A. KEEP
B. REUSE
C. RETAIN
D. DEFAULT
E. RECYCLE

57. Which buffer pool in the buffer cache is used to retain objects in memory that are likely to be reused and helps to
reduce I/O operations?
A. KEEP
B. REUSE
C. PINNED
D. RECYCLE
E. DEFAULT

58. Which buffer pool in the buffer cache eliminates blocks from memory that are NOT likely to be reused and enables
space to be allocated to other objects?
A. KEEP
B. REUSE
C. RETAIN
D. DEFAULT
E. RECYCLE

59. Which type of buffer pool retains objects that are likely to be reused?
A. KEEP
B. SAVE
C. DEFAULT
D. RECYCLE

60. Which guideline should you use to size the RECYCLE buffer pool?
A. It should hold all data blocks.
B. It should hold active blocks only.
C. It should hold inactive blocks only.
D. It should NOT hold any database blocks.

61. Which information can be used to size the RECYCLE pool?

A. total number of buffer cache blocks used by the object
B. total number of buffer cache blocks used by all objects in the KEEP pool
C. total number of buffer cache blocks assigned to the database
D. total number of buffer cache blocks assigned to both the KEEP and RECYCLE pools

62. Why would you query V$CACHE?

A. to view I/O statistics by session
B. to determine the default buffer pool for a table
C. to determine the number of blocks in the RECYCLE buffer pool
D. to display consistent gets statistics for multiple buffer caches

63. What should you do to determine an appropriate size for the KEEP buffer pool? (Choose two.)
A. Calculate the cache hit ratio.
B. Set the DB_BLOCK_BUFFERS parameter.
C. Query V$CACHE to determine the number of buffer pool blocks required.
D. Issue the ANALYZE ESTIMATE STATISTICS command to determine the size of each object.
E. Query the DBA_TABLES, DBA_INDEXES, and DBA_CLUSTERS views to determine the total number of
blocks required.

Chapter 5 Sizing other SGA structures

64. You are tuning the redo log buffer. Which view contains the SECONDS_IN_WAIT values that indicate the time spent
waiting for space in the redo log buffer because a log switch did NOT occur?
A. V$SESSTAT
B. V$WAITSTAT
C. V$SESSION_WAIT
D. V$SYSTEM_EVENT

65. You are tuning the redo log buffer. Which view would you query to determine the number of times a user process waits
for space in the redo log buffer before copying new entries over the entries that have been written to disk?
A. V$SYSSTAT
B. V$SESSTAT
C. V$SYSTEM_EVENT
D. V$SESSION_WAIT

66. You query V$SYSSTAT and find that the value of Redo Buffer Allocation Retries is greater than 1 percent of the Redo
Entries. The archiving and checkpointing processes are running optimally. What should you do?
A. Increase the size of the redo log buffer.
B. Add members to each of the existing log groups.
C. Lower the value of the LOG_BUFFER initialization parameter.
D. Do nothing. This value is optimal.

67. You have determined that the value of Redo Buffer Allocation Retries is significantly greater than zero. It is NOT
possible to increase the size of the redo log buffer. What should you do?
A. Add members to each of the existing log groups.
B. Improve the checkpointing and archiving processes.
C. Decrease the value of the LOG_BUFFER initialization parameter.
D. Do nothing. This value is optimal.

68. You query V$SESSION_WAIT and find that a significant amount of time is spent waiting for space in the redo log
buffer. You CANNOT increase the size of the redo log buffer. What should you do?
A. Enable archiving.
B. Move the redo log files to faster disks.
C. Increase the value of the LOG_BUFFER parameter.
D. Do nothing. This value is optimal.

69. In the Alert log file, there are several CHECKPOINT NOT COMPLETE messages. What does this indicate?
A. The archiving process is NOT efficient.
B. There is contention on the redo log files.
C. The DB_BLOCK_CHECKSUM parameter is set to TRUE.
D. LGWR had to wait for a file that was being checkpointed by DBWn.

70. To which value should you set the JAVA_POOL_SIZE initialization parameter for large applications?
A. to 0
B. to 20 MB
C. to 50 MB or lower
D. to 50 MB or higher

71. What is the maximum number of database writer processes that can be deployed using the
DB_WRITER_PROCESSES initialization parameter?
A. 8
B. 5
C. 16
D. 10

Chapter 6 Database Configuration and I/O Issues

72. The TRANSACTIONS table in your OLTP system is accessed heavily on a daily basis. The table's index is based on
the primary key. Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. The index and table should be stored on the same disk.
B. The index should share the same tablespace as the table.
C. The index should be stored on a separate disk from the table.
D. The index should be stored in a separate tablespace from the table.

73. Which two statements concerning object and file storage are true? (Choose two.)
A. The ARCn process must write to the same disk that the LGWR process wrote to.
B. Redo logs belonging to the same group should be placed on the same device.
C. The DBWn process should write to a different disk than the ARCn process reads from.
D. Index and table data should be stored in the same tablespace on the same device.
E. Redo logs belonging to the same group should each be placed on a separate device.

74. Which four statements about tablespaces usage are true? (Choose four.)
A. Undo segments can only exist in UNDO tablespaces.
B. You should create dictionary-managed tablespaces to avoid space management issues.
C. Each application should have a separate tablespace.
D. The SYSTEM tablespace should contain only data dictionary objects owned by SYS.
E. Very large database objects should be stored in their own tablespace.
F. Rollback segments should be stored in the corresponding application tablespace.

75. A default temporary tablespace has NOT been assigned. Where are temporary segments created in a default user setup?
A. DATA
B. USERS
C. SYSTEM
D. TEMPORARY

76. If a user attempts to create an object without specifying a tablespace, what will happen?
A. The object will be created in the DATA tablespace.
B. The object will be created in the SYSTEM tablespace.
C. The object will be created in the user's default tablespace.
D. The statement will fail.

77. Why would you query V$SYSTEM_EVENT?

A. to monitor full table scans
B. to monitor the I/O of the redo log files
C. to monitor possible I/O problems with the log files
D. to determine the status of the online redo log files

78. Which statement about tablespaces is NOT true?

A. The NOLOGGING option can be set at the tablespace level.
B. Rollback segments should be stored in a separate tablespace.
C. The SYSTEM tablespace should only contain objects owned by the SYSTEM user.
D. The SYSTEM tablespace is used as the temporary tablespace if a temporary tablespace is not specified.

79. When a checkpoint occurs, which process updates the control file to record the details of the checkpoint?
A. CKPT
B. ARCn
C. LWGR
D. DBWn

80. What affect does small log files have on checkpoint activity?
A. increases checkpoint activity
B. eliminates checkpoint activity
C. has no affect on checkpoint activity
D. decreases the amount of checkpoint activity, but does eliminate checkpoint activity

81. Fast instance recovery is more important to your organization than optimal performance. Which statement is true?
A. You should increase the number of checkpoints.
B. You should decrease the number of checkpoints.
C. You should decrease the number of redo log groups.
D. You should increase the number of redo log groups.
E. You should increase the number of redo log members.
F. You should decrease the number of redo log members.

82. You view the Alert log file and see this message: Checkpoint not complete; unable to allocate file.
What does this indicate?
A. DBWn could NOT write to the data files.
B. LGWR waited for the checkpoint to finish.
C. CKPT could not update the data file headers.
D. LGWR overwrote the previous checkpoint before it was completed.

83. You are planning the redo log file placement for the Sales database. Your system has three disks, 'Disk1', 'Disk2', and
'Disk3'. You have the minimum number of redo log groups, Group1 and Group2. There are the members in each group:
Group1 Log1A Log1B Log1C
Group2 Log2A Log2B Log2C
Group3 Log3A Log3B Log3C
Which represents a recommended redo log file configuration?
Disk Group1 Group2 Group3
A.
Disk1 Log1A Log1B Log1C
Disk2 Log2A Log2B Log2C
Disk3 Log3A Log3B Log3C
B.
Disk1 Log1A Log2A Log3A
Disk2 Log1B Log2B Log3B
Disk3 Log1C Log2C Log3C
C.
Disk1 Log1A Log2A Log3A
Log1B Log2B Log3B
Disk2 Log1B Log2B Log3B
Log1C Log2C Log3C
Disk3 Log1C Log2C Log3C
Log1A Log2A Log3A

Chapter 7 Optimizing Sort Operations

84. Which SQL statement would require a sort?

A. SELECT * FROM item;
B. SELECT DISTINCT cost FROM item;
C. SELECT part_no, part_desc FROM item;
D. SELECT part_no, part_desc, cost FROM item WHERE part_no = 345;

85. Which SQL statement would require a sort?

A. SELECT * FROM parts;
B. SELECT part_no, part_desc FROM parts ORDER BY part_no;
C. SELECT part_no FROM parts WHERE part_no BETWEEN 1190 AND 1200;
D. SELECT part_no, part_desc, cost FROM parts WHERE part_no = 1190;

86. Evaluate this statement: CREATE INDEX ord_ind ON order(ord_id);

Which statement about this CREATE INDEX statement is true?
A. This index CANNOT be rebuilt.
B. The statement requires a sort.
C. The statement has a syntax error.
D. Redo generation will NOT be generated for this index.

87. In which instance would a sort operation be performed?

A. A SELECT statement is issued with a WHERE clause.
B. A table is created using a CREATE TABLE statement.
C. A query uses the BETWEEN operator to retrieve data.
D. Two tables are joined based on two non-indexed columns.

88. What would happen if the sort size required is greater than the SORT_AREA_SIZE parameter value?
A. An error would be returned.
B. The sort would be written to disk.
C. The sort area size would be extended.
D. The sort area size would be temporarily increased.

89. Which view can you query to display the value of TOTAL_EXTENTS for the TEMPORARY tablespace?
A. V$SQLTEXT
B. V$TYPE_SIZE
C. V$SORT_SEGMENT
D. V$DB_OBJECT_CACHE

90. Which view would you query to determine the number of disk sorts performed since instance startup?
A. V$SYSSTAT
B. V$SESSTAT
C. V$SESSION
D. V$SORT_USAGE

91. Which view would you query to determine the number of users with active individual sort segments?
A. V$SYSSTAT
B. V$SESSION
C. V$SESSTAT
D. V$SORT_SEGMENT

92. You query V$SYSSTAT and find that the ratio of disk sorts to memory sorts is 15%. What should you do?
A. Increase the value of the SORT_AREA_SIZE parameter.
B. Decrease the value of the SORT_AREA_SIZE parameter.
C. Decrease the value of the SORT_AREA_RETAINED_SIZE parameter.
D. Increase the value of the SORT_MULTIBLOCK_READ_COUNT parameter.
93. Which statement about temporary segments is true?
A. Temporary segments CANNOT extend.
B. Sorts and SQL parsing occur in temporary segments.
C. Temporary segments can contain temporary and permanent objects.
D. Temporary segments are created at the time of the first sort larger than the SORT_AREA_SIZE.

94. Which change can you make to ensure that sorting is done in memory?
A. Decrease SORT_AREA_SIZE.
B. Increase SORT_AREA_SIZE.
C. Increase SORT_AREA_RETAINED_SIZE.
D. Decrease SORT_AREA_RETAINED_SIZE.

95. Which initialization parameter will determine if the Oracle server can perform a sort operation in memory?
A. SORT_AREA_SIZE
B. SORT_DIRECT_WRITES
C. SORT_WRITE_BUFFER_SIZE
D. SORT_AREA_RETAINED_SIZE

96. For a single server process, the ______ parameter determines the amount of sort space in the PGA.
A. SORT_AREA_SIZE
B. SHARED_POOL_SIZE
C. SORT_AREA_RETAINED_SIZE
D. SORT_MULTIBLOCK_READ_COUNT

97. After a sort completes, which parameter determines the size for the sort area?
A. LOG_BUFFER
B. SORT_AREA_SIZE
C. SORT_AREA_RETAINED_SIZE
D. SORT_MULTIBLOCK_READ_COUNT

98. How could you dynamically increase the sort area size for the database?
A. Use the ALTER DATABASE command.
B. Use the ALTER SYSTEM DEFERRED command.
C. Use O/S commands to allocate additional memory.
D. The sort area size for a database cannot be dynamically set.

99. Which two statements about sorting are true? (Choose two.)
A. Reduce the amount of sorting required when creating indexes by using the NOSORT option if the table is already
in the required sort order.
B. Reduce the amount of sorting required by using the DISTINCT keyword in SELECT statements.
C. Use the COMPUTE clause rather than the ESTIMATE clause with the ANALYZE command to avoid sort operations.
D. Reduce the amount of sorting required when querying tables by creating indexes on the join condition columns
in tables that are frequently joined.

100. Evaluate this formula: SORT_AREA_SIZE * 2 * degree of parallelism

When would you use this formula?
A. when setting the SORT_AREA_RETAINED_SIZE parameter
B. when determining the amount of memory required for Oracle Shared Server
C. when determining the size of the database buffer cache
D. when determining the amount of memory required for a parallel query that will perform a sort

101. You are tuning the sort process. Too many I/Os per second are occurring and the CPUs are relatively idle. What
should you do?
A. Increase the SORT_AREA_SIZE parameter.
B. Decrease the SORT_AREA_SIZE parameter.
C. Increase the SORT_MULTIBLOCK_READ_COUNT parameter.
D. Decrease the SORT_MULTIBLOCK_READ_COUNT parameter.

Chapter 8 Diagnosing Contention for Latches

102. Which statement about latches is true?

A. GETS are the number of successful Immediate requests for a latch.
B. Latches are simple, low-level serialization mechanisms to protect shared data structures in the SGA.
C. You can query V$SESSION_EVENT to display statistics for each category of latch.
D. The three modes of requesting a latch are Immediate, Willing-To-Wait, and Until-Time.

103. Which column in V$LATCH indicates the number of successful Willing-To-Wait requests for a latch?
A. GETS
B. MISSES
C. IMMEDIATE GETS
D. IMMEDIATE MISSES

104. Which three columns in V$LATCH reflect Willing-To-Wait requests? (Choose three.)
A. GETS
B. MISSES
C. SLEEPS
D. IMMEDIATE GETS
E. IMMEDIATE MISSES

105. Which column in V$LATCH indicates the number of times a process waited and requested a latch after an initial
Willing-To-Wait request was unsuccessful?
A. GETS
B. MISSES
C. SLEEPS
D. IMMEDIATE GETS

106. Which column in V$LATCH indicates the number of unsuccessful immediate requests for a latch?
A. GETS
B. MISSES
C. IMMEDIATE GETS
D. IMMEDIATE MISSES

107. Which option would cause shared pool and library cache latch contention?
A. There are excessive full table scans.
B. There is excessive buffer cache throughput.
C. Some specific blocks (hot blocks) are accessed repeatedly.
D. SQL statements are NOT using bind variables and are causing unnecessary parsing.

Chapter 9 Tuning Rollback Segments

108. Which three views could you query to identify contention on the rollback segment header? (Choose three.)
A. V$ROLLSTAT
B. V$WAITSTAT
C. V$ROLLSEGS
D. V$ROLLNAME
E. V$SYSTEM_EVENT

109. If you query V$ROLLSTAT and the ratio of the sum of waits to the sum of gets is greater than 5 percent, what does
this indicate?
A. There is contention for the redo log buffer.
B. There is no contention for the redo log buffer.
C. There is contention on the rollback segment headers.
D. There is no contention on the rollback segment headers.

110. If you query V$ROLLSTAT and the ratio of the sum of waits to the sum of gets is greater than 5 percent, what should
you do?
A. Create more rollback segments.
B. Reduce the number of rollback segments.
C. Increase the size of the existing rollback segments.
D. Decrease the size of the existing rollback segments.

111. You are installing a new batch intensive application. What should be the basis for establishing the number of rollback
segments for this system?
A. number of users
B. number of servers
C. number of processors
D. number of concurrent jobs
112. How can you determine if your rollback segments are properly tuned? (Choose two.)
A. Readers rarely see read-consistent images.
B. Transactions do NOT run out of rollback space.
C. Rollback segments extend during normal operation.
D. Transactions do NOT have to wait for access to rollback segments.

113. Which two statements about rollback segments are true? (Choose two.)
A. The NEXT value should be greater than the INITIAL value for rollback segments.
B. Snapshot too old errors can be caused if developers code unnecessarily long transactions.
C. A snapshot too old error can occur if a transaction slot in a rollback segment header has been reused.
D. A large transaction can fail if the rollback segment cannot extend because it has reached its OPTIMAL value.
E. A snapshot too old error can occur if an Interested Transaction List (ITL) entry in a data block has been
reused.

114. You are using the Import utility to populate the EMPLOYEE table. If you set the COMMIT parameter to Y, which
task will this accomplish?
A. sizes the sets of rows
B. prevents a transaction from being set as read-only
C. reduces the amount of rollback capacity required for the Import
D. ensures that the COMMIT is not issued until the entire Import completes

115. When an insert is performed, which type of undo is generated?

A. only the ROWID
B. the actual row
C. the ROWID and new data value
D. the old data value and the new data value

116. You need to determine the number of bytes written to a rollback segment during an UPDATE statement. Which view
would you query before and after the statement is issued?
A. V$ROLLSTAT
B. V$WAITSTAT
C. V$TRANSACTION
D. V$SYSTEM_EVENT

117. When a delete is performed, which type of undo is generated?

A. only the ROWID
B. the actual row
C. the ROWID and the after image
D. both the before and after image

118. Evaluate this statement: SET TRANSACTION USE ROLLBACK SEGMENT rbs_01;
Which task will the statement accomplish?
A. ends the transaction explicitly
B. allows the RBS_01 rollback segment to autoextend
C. assigns a transaction to a specific rollback segment
D. prevents the following transaction from generating redo

119. Which statement about rollback segments is true?

A. The value of MINEXTENTS should be 2.
B. The value of PCTINCREASE should be 50.
C. An appropriate size for a rollback segment for large transactions is 16 KB.
D. The NEXT and INITIAL values should be equal for a rollback segment because rollback segment extents are
used in a circular fashion.

120. An application user receives this error: ORA-01555: snapshot too old (rollback segment too small)
Which corrective action should you take?
A. Add more rollback segments.
B. Have the user re-issue the SQL statement.
C. Decrease the size of the rollback segment.
D. Change the SQL statement that was executed.

121. Which command can you issue to assign a large rollback segment to a long transaction?
A. ALTER SYSTEM
B. SET TRANSACTION
C. ALTER TRANSACTION
D. CREATE TRANSACTION

122. Which statement about sizing rollback segments is true?

A. Prevent a rollback segment from extending by setting the OPTIMAL value.
B. Run the longest transaction expected to estimate the size of the rollback segment.
C. Set MINEXTENTS to 2 to minimize the probability that the rollback segment will extend.
D. Leave space in the rollback segment tablespace to allow the rollback segments to extend beyond their MAXEXTENTS
value.

123. Which statement about rollback segments is true?

A. Assign large rollback segments to OLTP transactions.
B. Create one RBS for every 25 concurrent transactions up to 200 users.
C. Assign a specific rollback segment to batch jobs that will modify a large number of rows.
D. Include the SET TRANSACTION USE ROLLBACK SEGMENT command as the last line of a transaction.

124. Which condition must be true to switch your automatic undo tablespace to another tablespace while the database is
online?
A. No user transactions can be executing.
B. The database must be in a quiesced state.
C. The new tablespace must exist and be defined as an undo tablespace.
D. Switching undo tablespaces CANNOT be performed when the database is online.

125. A user reports receiving an ORA-1555: snapshot too old error. You are currently using automatic undo management
and have an ample amount of disk space. What should you do?
A. Decrease the undo retention.
B. Add additional rollback segments.
C. Increase the size of the undo tablespace.
D. Modify the size of the existing rollback segments.
E. Create a second undo tablespace to handle additional undo segments.

126. Which three statements regarding Automatic Undo Management are true? (Choose three.)
A. No undo segment information is stored in the SYSTEM tablespace.
B. The UNDO_MANAGEMENT initialization parameter should be set to AUTO.
C. Each instance in a Real Application Clusters environment must have its own undo tablespace.
D. All undo space is managed automatically, and undo segments CANNOT be manually created, dropped, or
altered.
E. If the initialization parameter file contains values for the ROLLBACK_SEGMENTS parameter, the instance will not
start.
F. The undo tablespace named in the UNDO_TABLESPACE initialization parameter is automatically created when the
instance starts.

127. Which background process automatically shrinks automatic-managed undo segments?

A. PMON
B. SMON
C. DBWR
D. LGWR
E. Automatic-managed undo segments must be shrunk manually using the ALTER ROLLBACK SEGMENT statement.

128. You are currently using Automatic Undo Management and have two undo tablespaces, UNDOT1 and UNDOT2,
defined. These initialization parameters are in effect:
UNDO_MANAGEMENT = AUTO
UNDO_TABLESPACE = UNDOT1
You execute this statement: DROP TABLESPACE undot2;
What is the result?
A. The UNDOT2 tablespace is dropped, but all its undo segments are kept.
B. The UNDOT2 tablespace is dropped, and all its undo segments are deleted.
C. The statement succeeds even if the undo tablespace is currently being used.
D. The statement fails if the tablespace contains undo information that has not expired.

129. You are estimating the amount of undo space needed for your instance. Which view would be most helpful?
A. V$ROLLSTAT
B. V$UNDOSTAT
C. DBA_UNDO_EXTENTS
D. DBA_ROLLBACK_SEGMENTS

130. You have two undo tablespaces created and you attempt to start your instance with these initialization parameter file
parameters:
ROLLBACK_SEGMENTS = (rb01, rb02, rb03, rb04, rb05)
UNDO_MANAGEMENT = AUTO
UNDO_TABLESPACE =
What is the result?
A. The instance starts and uses both of the undo tablespaces.
B. The instance starts and reverts to manual undo management.
C. The instance starts and uses only one of the undo tablespaces.
D. The instance will NOT start because the UNDO_TABLESPACE parameter is incorrectly specified.
E. The instance will NOT start because the rollback_segments parameter should NOT be specified.

131. You want to implement Automatic Undo Management. You have included these parameters in your initialization
parameter file:
UNDO_MANAGEMENT = AUTO
UNDO_TABLESPACE = 'undot1'
Which statement represents the correct syntax to create the undo tablespace?
A. CREATE UNDO TABLESPACE undot1;
B. CREATE TABLESPACE UNDO undot1;
C. CREATE UNDO_TABLESPACE undot1;
D. CREATE UNDO TABLESPACE AS undot1;
E. CREATE TABLESPACE undot1 AS UNDO;

Chapter 10 Monitoring and Detecting Lock Contention

132. What are the two types of locking? (Choose two.)

A. DDL
B. DML
C. DCL
D. DNL

133. Bob has an active database connection and is called away. He did not commit his work and the table he was accessing
had a table level lock placed on it. Which action should you take to release the lock so other users can access this table?
A. Kill Bob's session.
B. Shut down the instance and restart.
C. Commit Bob's transactions using SQL*Plus.
D. Kill Bob's session with an operating system command.

134. Why would you query V$LOCK?

A. to determine which row is causing contention
B. to display the ID of the session locking an object
C. to determine which transaction is causing a lock currently being held
D. to display the number and slot number of the rollback segment and the ID of the table being modified for a lock
currently being held

135. Why would you query V$LOCKED_OBJECT?

A. to determine the ID of the block for a lock being held
B. to determine a user's sid and serial# to terminate their session
C. to determine which transaction is causing a lock currently being held
D. to display the number and slot number of the rollback segment and the ID of the table being modified for a lock
currently being held

136. Which dynamic performance view can be queried to display outstanding requests for a lock?
A. V$LOCK
B. V$LOCK_ELEMENT
C. V$LOCKED_OBJECT
D. V$LOCK_ACTIVITY

137. Which two can be used to monitor locks? (Choose two.)

A. log files
B. Oracle Trace
C. OEM Top Sessions
D. V$LOCK and V$LOCKED_OBJECT
E. OEM Performance Manager

138. Which dynamic performance view can be queried to display the ID of the session locking a particular object?
A. V$LOCK
B. V$LOCK_ELEMENT
C. V$LOCKED_OBJECT
D. V$LOCK_ACTIVITY

139. Which utility provides the TopSessions lock monitoring application?

A. UTLBSTAT
B. Diagnostic Pack
C. Event Management
D. DBA Management Pack

140. You need to kill a user process. Which two values are required to perform this task and can be obtained by querying
V$SESSION? (Choose two.)
A. Sid
B. serial#
C. user name
D. process id
E. session name

141. You have been notified by a user that they received an ORA-00060 error, indicating a deadlock. What should you
have the user do?
A. Commit the transaction.
B. Stop and restart the user process.
C. Roll back the remainder of the transaction.
D. Roll back all the statements in the transaction.

142. A deadlock has occurred. What will have to be rolled back?

A. statement causing the deadlock
B. transaction causing the deadlock
C. statement detecting the deadlock
D. transaction detecting the deadlock

143. Which statement about deadlocks is NOT true?

A. Deadlock situations are recorded in a trace file and reported in the alert log.
B. The Oracle server automatically detects deadlocks.
C. Both the statement and transaction that detected a deadlock are rolled back.
D. The Oracle server returns an ORA-00060 error message when a deadlock is detected.

144. Which statement about locks is true?

A. Query V$SESSTAT to determine a user's sid and serial#.
B. Query V$SYSSTAT to determine which row is causing contention.
C. Roll back the transaction holding the lock using the ALTER DATABASE command.
D. Use the ALTER SYSTEM KILL SESSION statement to terminate a session holding a lock.

145. Which three can cause lock contention? (Choose three.)

A. Too many latches have been allocated.
B. Users are not committing changes regularly.
C. Too many locks have been allocated to an application.
D. Developers have coded in unnecessarily long transactions.
E. Developers have coded in unnecessarily high locking levels.

146. Which two statements about deadlocks are true? (Choose two.)
A. The resulting trace file can be used to diagnose a deadlock.
B. The user must roll back the statement that detects the deadlock.
C. Deadlocks will NOT occur if you explicitly override the default locking.
D. Deadlocks can occur if multiple users are waiting for data locked by each other.
E. Distributed deadlocks are NOT handled in the same manner as nondistributed deadlocks.

147. Which can be used to view deadlock information to determine if a particular application is having performance
problems?
A. TKPROF
B. log files
C. trace files
D. Oracle Expert

148. A deadlock occurs in Statement B of a large transaction. What is the state of the transaction?
A. The transaction is rolled back.
B. Statement A is rolled back and an error message is generated for Statement B.
C. Statement B is rolled back and an error message is generated for the transaction.
D. Statement A and Statement B are rolled back and an error message is generated for the transaction.

149. You want to review trace file information concerning a deadlock situation. Which initialization parameter is used to
define the location of the database trace files?
A. USER_DUMP_DEST
B. CORE_DUMP_DEST
C. ARCHIVE_LOG_DEST
D. BACKGROUND_DUMP_DEST

150. In which file can you locate the ROWID of the locking row in a deadlock?
A. alert file
B. trace file
C. config file
D. parameter file

151. How does the Oracle server resolve deadlocks?

A. by rolling back the statement that detected the deadlock
B. by rolling back all statements arising from the deadlock
C. by automatically killing the user process that detected the deadlock
D. by automatically killing all user processes involved in the deadlock

Chapter 11 Tuning the Oracle Shared Server

152. You OLTP system has a high overhead for a dedicated server and is approaching memory resource limits. Dedicated
server processes remain idle much of the day. Which statement is true?
A. Oracle shared server would be useful for this system.
B. Oracle shared server would have no effect on this system.
C. Oracle shared server would hinder the performance of this system.
D. Oracle shared server would only be useful for if the system has many batch users.

153. Which four are characteristics of the Oracle shared server? (Choose four.)
A. incurs some CPU overhead
B. enables users to share processes
C. supports Oracle Net functionality
D. increases the number of concurrent users
E. decreases the scalability of applications
F. is advantageous for database-intensive work

154. You execute this query at frequent intervals:

SELECT DECODE(SUM(totalq), 0, 'No Responses', SUM(wait)/SUM(totalq)) Average wait time
FROM v$queue q, v$dispatcher d WHERE q.type = 'DISPATCHER' AND q.paddr = d.paddr;
The returned value is steadily increasing. Which statement is true?
A. You may want to start up more dispatchers.
B. You may want to decrease the number of dispatchers.
C. No action is required because these results are optimal.
D. Increase the number of shared servers available to the database.

155. You issue this query in frequent intervals:

SELECT DECODE(totalq, 0, 'No Requests', wait/totalq || 'hundredths of seconds') Average Wait Time Per Requests
FROM v$queue;
The results returned are increasing. Which statement is true?
A. Increase the value of MAX_DISPATCHERS
B. Increase the value of LARGE_POOL_SIZE.
C. Increase the value of MAX_SHARED_SERVERS.
D. Increase the number of enqueue resources.
E. Increase the number of job queue processes.

156. When using Oracle shared server, which view would you query to display information about the shared server
processes?
A. V$MTS
B. V$QUEUE
C. V$SESSION
D. V$SHARED_SERVER

Chapter 12 Application Tuning

157. The DBA is not directly responsible for application tuning, but is available to provide developers assistance with the
tuning of their application(s). Which two tuning considerations must the DBA be aware of? (Choose two.)
A. query rewrites
B. application development
C. create database triggers
D. optimizer plan stability
E. create stored procedures

158. Which index can improve the performance of queries that select a very small percentage of rows from a table?
A. Bitmap
B. B-tree
C. Inverted
D. reverse key

159. Which statement about bitmap indexes is true?

A. Bitmap indexes perform well in OLTP environments.
B. DSS environments are appropriate for bitmap indexes.
C. Bitmap indexes require a large amount of storage space.
D. Bitmap indexes perform poorly on low-cardinality columns.

160. Which statement about bitmap indexes is true?

A. Locking is at the bitmap entry level.
B. Bitmap indexes require a lot of storage space.
C. Bitmap indexes are NOT suited for OLTP systems.
D. Bitmap indexes are extremely slow when used with multiple predicates on low-cardinality columns.

161. For which column would you create a reverse key index?
A. column populated by a sequence
B. column with only two possible values
C. column that contains many different values
D. columns accessed to retrieve a range of values

162. Which three statements about index-organized tables are true? (Choose three.)
A. Index-organized tables are faster for full table scans.
B. Index-organized tables have no duplication of primary key values.
C. Index-organized tables have an overflow area to store non-key values to keep the B-tree densely clustered.
D. Index-organized tables have fast primary-key access for queries searching for a range of values or exact matches.

163. You have a query intensive database. In addition to the availability of the database, which tuning goal would be of
primary importance?
A. Size
B. Speed
C. Concurrency
D. Recoverability

164. A mail order firm has a DML intensive order entry system. Which type of system would this be?
A. DSS
B. OLTP
C. HYBRID
D. Data Warehouse

165. Which statement about OLTP systems is NOT true?

A. Hash clusters could be used for stable tables.
B. Bitmap indexing is preferred to B-tree indexing.
C. Index clusters should NOT be used for growing tables.
D. Database constraints are preferred to enforce business rules.

166. Which two statements about index strategies for OLTP systems are true? (Choose two.)
A. A few B-tree indexes are preferred.
B. Reverse key indexes should be used for sequence columns.
C. Indexes in an OLTP system do NOT need to be regularly rebuilt.
D. There is no performance overhead for DML statements on indexed tables.

167. Which Oracle server option optimizes a Decision Support System, allowing it to utilize shared processing?
A. Parallel Query
B. Trusted Oracle
C. Distributed Option
D. Oracle Shared Server

168. What is one benefit of using bitmap indexes in a Decision Support System?
A. use very little storage space
B. good for use with small tables
C. updates to key columns are inexpensive
D. can be used for high cardinality columns

Chapter 13 Using Oracle Blocks Efficiently

169. Which statement about database block size is true?

A. A small block size provides better performance for index reads.
B. A large block size decreases the likelihood of block contention.
C. A database with a small block size can have relatively large overhead.
D. It is more favorable to use a small block size for sequential access to large amounts of data.

170. Why should you use larger extent sizes for database objects?
A. to prevent unused space
B. to avoid dynamic extension
C. to provide more free space
D. to help the Oracle server manage contiguous blocks

171. Which statement about database block sizes is NOT true?

A. Large blocks are good for very large rows.
B. Small blocks are very good for random access.
C. It is beneficial for DSS systems to use a small block size.
D. It is NOT beneficial for OLTP systems to use a large block size.

172. You are analyzing the needs of an OLTP system you are designing. Many tables in this system will have millions of
rows and will be accessed randomly. What should you do?
A. Give large objects multiple small extents.
B. Use a smaller block size for large objects.
C. Provide dynamic extent allocation for all large objects.
D. Use a data block size for large objects that is smaller than the O/S block size.

173. When the data in a table grows, exceeding its allocated space, a dynamic extent allocation occurs. Which physical
structure is enlarged?
A. block
B. table
C. segment
D. tablespace

174. Which two are benefits of using small blocks when building a database? (Choose two.)
A. less overhead
B. reduced contention
C. fewer index blocks reads
D. fewer large index levels
E. more efficient use of buffer cache for large rows
175. You are setting the space usage parameters for a table. Set _____ to zero if the table will NOT experience update
activity.
A. PCTFREE
B. PCTUNSED
C. INITRANS
D. MAXTRANS

176. Which statement would you use to deallocate all the blocks above the high-water mark in the EMPLOYEE table?
A. DELETE
B. TRUNCATE
C. ALTER TABLE
D. ALTER TABLESPACE

177. You issued the ANALYZE command against the ITEM table and detected row migration. Which storage parameter
should you increase to prevent further row migration in this table?
A. NEXT
B. PCTUSED
C. PCTFREE
D. MAXEXTENTS

178. How could you eliminate row migration that exists in the EMPLOYEE table?
A. Increase the extent size of the EMPLOYEE table.
B. Increase the value of PCTFREE for the EMPLOYEE table.
C. Run the ANALYZE TABLE . . . LIST COMPUTE STATISTICS command, export the table data, and import the data
back into the table.
D. Run the ANALYZE TABLE . . . LIST CHAINED ROWS command, copy the rows to a new table, delete the rows
from the EMPLOYEE table, and insert the rows from the new table back into the EMPLOYEE table.

179. Which command can be used to rebuild an index instead of dropping and recreating it?
A. ALTER INDEX
B. EXPLAIN INDEX
C. ANALYZE INDEX
D. REBUILD INDEX

180. Which keywords are NOT compatible in an ALTER INDEX REBUILD statement?
A. PARALLEL and LOGGING
B. NOPARALLEL and LOGGING
C. NOLOGGING and NOPARALLEL
D. LOGGING and UNRECOVERABLE

181. Which command can be used to monitor the space used by indexes?
A. ALTER INDEX
B. EXPLAIN INDEX
C. ANALYZE INDEX
D. REBUILD INDEX

182. If you issue the ANALYZE INDEX . . . VALIDATE STRUCTURE command, which view could you query to view
the statistics generated for the index?
A. INDEX_STATS
B. DBA_INDEXES
C. INDEX_HISTOGRAM

Chapter 14 SQL Statement Tuning

183. If you set cost-based optimization, how will SQL statements be processed?
A. Each statement is examined and the shortest path is taken.
B. Each statement's syntax is used to determine which execution path will be utilized.
C. Each statement's syntax is examined, and an alternate query is generated to take the least expensive path.
D. Each statement is examined using all possible access paths to the data, and the least expensive path is taken.

184. Which statement about Optimizer Plan Stability is NOT true?

A. SQL statements must match exactly for plan stability to work.
B. Optimizer plan stability is implemented using a stored outline consisting of hints.
C. Optimizer plan stability allows applications to force the use of a desired SQL access path.
D. Optimizer plan stability is unable to maintain a consistent execution if the database changes.

185. Where are stored outlines saved?

A. in the SYS schema
B. in the OUTLN schema
C. in the SYSTEM schema
D. in the SYSTEM tablespace

186. Which three statements concerning stored outline categories are true? (Choose three.)
A. Stored outlines can be grouped into categories.
B. A SQL statement can have only one stored outline.
C. Outlines without a specified category are placed in the DEFAULT category.
D. The stored outline for one SQL statement may exist in more than one category.
E. Stored outlines may only be grouped into an OLTP, DSS, or DEFAULT category.

187. Which utility would you use to format the trace file generated during a trace session?
A. TKPROF
B. UTLESTAT
C. UTLBSTAT
D. STATSPACK
E. SQL Trace

188. Which package would you use to copy statistics from an Oracle9i production database to a test database?
A. DBMS_STATS
B. DBMS_SPACE
C. OUTLN_PKG
D. DBMS_SHARED_POOL

189. When copying statistics between databases, which procedure would you use to copy table statistics from a user-
defined table to the data dictionary?
A. DBMS_STATS.CREATE_STAT_TABLE
B. DBMS_STATS.EXPORT_TABLE_STATS
C. DBMS_STATS.IMPORT_TABLE_STATS
D. DBMS_STATS.IMPORT_SCHEMA_STATS

Chapter 15 Tuning the Operating System and Using Resource Manager

190. Which statement about resource management is true?

A. DBMS_RESOURCE_MANAGER_PRIVS can be used by the DBA to define the initial consumer group for a user.
B. DBMS_RESOURCE_MANAGER can be used by the DBA to grant and revoke resource management privileges to
users.
C. Database Resource Manager can be used to limit the number of Parallel Query servers available to a set of users.
D. Database Enterprise Manager can be used to control the minimum amount of processing resources available to a user.

191. Which two can be accomplished when using Oracle Resource Manager? (Choose two.)
A. sort operations tuning
B. lock activity monitoring
C. resource processing distribution
D. system wide statistics collection
E. resource allocation method configuration

192. Your system runs as an OLTP operation during the day and as a DSS operation during the night. What should be used
to reconfigure the allocation of system resources depending on the time of day?
A. Oracle Resource Manager
B. Oracle Enterprise Manager
C. Oracle Applications Manager
D. Oracle Performance Manager

193. You are using Resource Manager to administer your system. You have created a pending area, a resource consumer
group, a resource plan, a resource plan directives. You need to validate the changes stored in the pending area. Which
procedure should you use?
A. UPDATE_PLAN
B. UPDATE_PENDING_AREA
C. SUBMIT_PENDING_AREA
D. VALIDATE_PENDING_AREA

194. In SYSTEM_PLAN, which consumer group is used for all sessions that belong to consumer groups that are NOT part
of the active resource plan and avoids validation errors?
A. OTHER_GROUPS
B. SYS_GROUPS
C. LOW_GROUPS
D. ONLINE_GROUP
E. BATCH_GROUP

195. If you set the RESOURCE_MANAGER_PLAN parameter, which value must you provide?
A. resource plan
B. plan directive
C. consumer group
D. privilege user

196. You created a new resource object. Which procedure of the DBMS_RESOURCE_MANAGER package must you
execute prior to modifying a plan schema?
A. CREATE_PLAN
B. CREATE_PENDING_AREA
C. CREATE_CONSUMER_GROUP
D. CREATE_PLAN_DIRECTIVE

197. You want to switch an existing user into a new consumer group. Which procedure of the
DBMS_RESOURCE_MANAGER package would you use to switch all sessions for the user?
A. CREATE_CONSUMER_GROUP
B. UPDATE_CONSUMER_GROUP
C. SWITCH_CONSUMER_GROUP_FOR_SESS
D. SWITCH_CONSUMER_GROUP_FOR_USER
 PART B Flash Card Questions

Q. What are the four tuning phases?

application design and programming,
database configuration,
adding a new application,
and troubleshooting and tuning

Q. During the development of a new system, what are the six steps recommended for tuning implementation?
1. Design
2. Application
3. Memory
4. Input/Output
5. Contention
6. Operating system

Q. What are the four steps for tuning during production?

1. Locate the bottleneck by using tools.
2. Determine the reason for the bottleneck.
3. Resolve the cause.
4. Check that the bottleneck has been resolved.

Q. What is usually the trade-off for performance?

Recovery time. The safer the database administrator makes the database, the slower it performs.

Q. What do fully normalized tables often cause?

a high number of table joins

Q. Why is it sometimes necessary to denormalize the database?

to improve application performance by reducing the number of table joins

Q. Frequent incremental checkpointing provides faster instance recovery, but is detrimental to ______.
database performance

Q. What are the seven primary tuning goals?

reducing or eliminating waits, accessing the least number of blocks, caching blocks in memory, response time, throughput,
load, and recovery time

Q. What is the primary performance tuning concern when you install a new application?
Adding a new application to an existing system changes the workload and requires monitoring for bottlenecks.

Q. What affect could users frequently connecting and disconnecting from the database have on an application's
performance?
Users frequently connecting and disconnecting from the database could cause application performance to be degraded.

Q. Internal errors and block corruption errors are logged in the ______
alert log file

Q. Which file would you view to monitor checkpoint start and end times, incomplete checkpoints, time to perform
archiving, and crash recovery start and complete times?
alert log file

Q. The operations that affect database structures and parameters and non-default initialization parameters are logged in
which file?
alert log file

Q. Which dynamic performance view would you query to display the total waits for particular events?
V$SYSTEM_EVENT

Q. Which dynamic performance view would you query to display information on waits for an event by session?
V$SESSION_EVENT

Q. Which dynamic performance view would you query to display user session statistics?
V$SESSTAT
Q. Which utility or utilities would you use to collect statistics over a period of time if you didn't want to store the results in
the database?
UTLBSTAT and UTLESTAT

Q. Which utility would you use to collect performance figures over a period of time and store the statistics in the database?
STATSPACK

Q. In which tables are the STATSPACK output stored?

STATSPACK tables. The STATSPACK tables should be separated from production data in their own tablespace.

Q. Which Oracle application captures, computes, and presents performance data in a graphical, real-time view that allows
you to monitor the key metrics required to use memory effectively, minimize disk I/O, and avoid resource contention?
Performance Manager

Q. For which task would you use the Oracle Enterprise Manager TOPSESSIONS tool?
to pinpoint which session is using the highest amount of database resources

Q. Which dynamic performance query would you query to display the number of library cache misses on the execution
step, causing implicit reparsing of the statement and block also known as RELOADS?
V$LIBRARYCACHE

Q. What is the recommended value of the Library Cache GETHITRATIO for OLTP environments?
high 90s

Q. When tuning the Data Dictionary cache, what should the ratio of the sum of all GETMISSES to the sum of all GETS be
during normal running?
less than 15 percent

Q. When tuning the Data Dictionary cache, what should you do if the ratio of the sum of all GETMISSES to the sum of all
GETS during normal running is greater than 15 percent?
consider increasing the SHARED_POOL_SIZE parameter

Q. What is the SQL*Plus syntax to pin large objects in the library cache?
EXECUTE dbms_shared_pool.keep('package_name');

Q. Shared SQL and PL/SQL are stored in which component of the shared pool?
library cache

Q. Changing which two initialization parameters affect the value of REQUEST_FAILURES in the
V$SHARED_POOL_RESERVED data dictionary view?
SHARED_POOL_RESERVED_SIZE and SHARED_POOL_SIZE

Q. The size of the ______ is too small when the REQUEST_FAILURES value is greater than zero and increasing.
reserved pool

Q. If you are using Oracle Shared Server and the large pool is not configured, where is user session information and cursor
state information stored?
in the shared pool instead of the private user memory

Q. What should you do before setting the CURSOR_SPACE_FOR_TIME initialization parameter to TRUE?
Make sure that there is free memory and no cache misses.

Q. Using bind variables rather than constants helps to improve performance of which shared pool component?
library cache

Q. Why is tuning the shared pool more important that tuning the buffer cache?
A cache miss in the data dictionary cache or the library cache is more expensive than a miss in the buffer cache.

Q. You are using Oracle Shared Server and the large pool is not configured. Where is the UGA allocated?
in the shared pool

Q. Which action will have the greatest performance increase of the library cache?
Use bind variables rather than constants and as much generic code as possible.
Q. Which parameter specifies the size of the default buffer pool in bytes?
DB_CACHE_SIZE

Q. Which parameter specifies the size of the keep buffer pool in bytes?
DB_KEEP_CACHE_SIZE

Q. Which parameter specifies the size of the recycle buffer pool in bytes?
DB_RECYCLE_CACHE_SIZE

Q. Can the buffer pools in the Oracle9i be resized dynamically?

Yes

Q. What are the names of the two lists used to manage the blocks in the buffer cache?
LRU and the checkpoint queue

Q. In which three states can blocks in the buffer cache be?

free, dirty, or pinned

Q. What are the three buffer pools?

KEEP,
RECYCLE,
and DEFAULT

Q. Which dynamic performance view would you query to display statistics against the multiple buffer pools?
V$BUFFER_POOL_STATISTICS

Q. In Oracle9i, SGA components are allocated and deallocated in units of contiguous memory known as what?
Granules

Q. Which initialization parameter enables the buffer cache advisory?

DB_CACHE_ADVICE

Q. Which feature enables and disables statistics gathering for predicting behavior with different cache sizes?
buffer cache advisory

Q. Which statement would you use to dynamically enable the buffer cache advisory?
ALTER SYSTEM

Q. Which three initialization parameters would you set to create multiple buffer pools?
DB_CACHE_SIZE,
DB_KEEP_CACHE_SIZE, and
DB_RECYLE_CACHE_SIZE

Q. The unit of allocation for reSizing the Buffer Cache or shared pool within the SGA is defined by what?
the size of the granules in use from the current SGA

Q. When sizing the default buffer cache for the current workload, what should you do to determine the optimal size?
Enable the buffer cache advisory.

Q. In which three states can blocks in the buffer cache be in?

free, dirty, or pinned

Q. What would you enable to gather statistics to predict the behavior of different buffer cache sizes?
the buffer cache advisory

Q. How can you calculate the size of the recycle pool?

by totaling the buffer cache blocks used by the object or by using the physical reads statistics from a tracing pool

Q. When should you query the buffer cache hit ratio?

during normal working loads because the buffer cache is empty when the instance starts

Q. When an insert operation occurs on a table, in which component are server processes contending for the same free list?
the table header blocks
Q. What happens when data is written to the log buffer faster than LGWR can write the data to disk?
session waits in the log buffer

Q. The value of redo buffer allocation retries should be near ______.

Zero

Q. If the value of the redo buffer allocation retries is greater than 1% of the redo entries, what should you do?
increase the size of the redo log buffer or improve the checkpointing or archiving process

Q. If the SECONDS_IN_WAIT value for the Log Buffer Space event indicates that time is spent waiting for the redo log
buffer, what should you consider?
increasing the size of the redo logs or moving the log files to faster disks

Q. When the value of the JAVA_MAX_SESSIONSPACE parameter is exceeded, which error is returned?
ORA-29554: unhandled Java out of memory condition

Q. What is the maximum number of DBWn processes allowed?

up to 10

Q. How are multiple DBWn processes identified?

DBW0 to DBW9

Q. Which parameter specifies multiple DBWR processes?

DB_WRITER_PROCESSES

Q. Data is being written into the redo log buffer faster than LGWR can write it to the redo log files. What is occurring?
session waits in the log buffer

Q. What is controlled by the JAVA_POOL_SIZE initialization parameter?

the amount of memory allocated to Java in the SGA

Q. Which tablespace should be reserved for data dictionary information?

the SYSTEM tablespace

Q. Which type of tablespaces should you create to avoid space management issues?
locally managed tablespaces

Q. Creating which type of tablespaces eliminates the need to specify the PCTUSED or FREELIST parameters?
automatic space management

Q. Where is free space information maintained for locally managed tablespaces?

within the bitmap of the locally managed tablespace

Q. Which dynamic performance view would you query to display the number of redo blocks that need to be processed
during recovery to satisfy FAST_START_IO_TARGET?
V$INSTANCE_RECOVERY

Q. Does Oracle recommend the use of RAID 5 for redo logs?

No. You should avoid RAID 5 for redo logs.

Q. What is the recommended redo log file configuration?

Redo log files in the same group should be on separate, fast devices.
Which initialization parameter specifies the target aggregate PGA memory of all server processes attached to the instance?
PGA_AGGREGATE_TARGET

Q. What is created when the first sort that requires disk space occurs?
temporary segments

Q. To avoid sorts, you can use the ______ clause when creating indexes for already sorted data.
NOSORT

Q. Which dynamic performance view would you query to display the number of sorts in memory, sorts on disk, and rows
being sorted?
V$SYSSTAT
Q. What is a simple, low-level serialization mechanism to protect shared data structures in the SGA known as?
Latch

Q. What are the two latch request types?

willing-to-wait and immediate

Q. When are cache buffers LRU chain latches required?

when dirty blocks are written to disk or when a server process is searching for blocks to write to

Q. Which statistic is incremented when a willing-to-wait request is unsuccessful?

MISSES

Q. Which statistic is incremented when a immediate request is unsuccessful?

IMMEDIATE_MISSES

Q. Which two conditions provide read consistency?

1. a user's transactions are in progress and other sessions in the database should not see any uncommitted changes
2. a statement should not see any changes that were committed after the statement commenced execution

Q. To which value should you set the UNDO_MANAGEMENT parameter to enable automatic undo management?
AUTO

Q. Which Oracle9i feature simplifies the management of rollback segment?

Automatic Undo Management

Q. Which statement would you use to switch undo tablespaces?

ALTER SYSTEM SET UNDO_TABLESPACE = tablespace_name;

Q. How many undo tablespaces can be active at one time?

only one

Q. Can you take an undo segment in an active undo tablespace offline?

No

Q. Are undo tablespaces locally or dictionary managed?

locally managed

Q. What will happen if the UNDO_TABLESPACE initialization parameter is not specified when you start the database?
Oracle will use the first undo tablespace that was created in the database for automatic undo segments.

Q. What does the UNDO_RETENTION initialization parameter specify?

the time in seconds to retain undo information

Q. Which type of lock guarantees that the integrity of data being accessed concurrently by multiple users incorporating
changes?
DML

Q. What are the two types of DML or data locks?

table-level and row-level

Q. Which type of DML lock is automatically acquired for each row modified by INSERT, UPDATE, DELETE, or
SELECT. . .FOR UPDATE statements?
row-level

Q. Which type of lock protects the definition of a schema object while that object is acted upon or referred to by an
ongoing DDL operation?
DDL

Q. Which type of lock is held by a statement or PL/SQL object in the library cache for every object it references?
breakable parse locks

Q. Which initialization parameter specifies the location of the user trace files?
USER_DUMP_DEST
Q. Which script creates the DBA_LOCKS and DBA_BLOCKERS views used by the UTLLOCKT.SQL script?
CATBLOCK.SQL

Q. The condition that occurs when two or more users wait for data locked by each other is known as?
a deadlock

Q. What does the Oracle server do when it detects a deadlock situation before logging the situation in a trace files and
reporting an error in the alert log?
resolves the deadlock by rolling back the statement that detected the deadlock

Q. Which two types of locking mechanisms are used when an UPDATE statement modifies multiple rows?
a row-exclusive lock on all the updated rows and a shared lock on the table

Q. Which type of lock no longer requires an index on the foreign key column in the child table because the implementation
of referential integrity has changed?
Shared Row Exclusive lock

Q. When monitoring locks, which two dynamic performance views could you query to display the name of the table that
corresponds to a particular resource ID?
V$LOCK and V$LOCKED_OBJECT

Q. When monitoring locks, which two views, created by the CATBLOCK.SQL script displays information about who is
holding or waiting for which tables?
DBA_WAITERS and DBA_BLOCKERS

Q. Which type of locking does Oracle use by default?

row-level locking

Q. Does row-level locking minimize deadlocks?

Yes

Q. How can you calculate the maximum number of shared servers that can be added to the MAX_SHARED_SERVERS
parameter value?
by dividing the amount of free RAM by the amount of memory a shared server consumes

Q. When running Oracle Shared Server, which dynamic performance view would you query to display information about
user connections to the database?
V$CIRCUIT

Q. When running Oracle Shared Server, which parameter will Oracle dynamically adjust the value based on the length of
the request queue?
SHARED_SERVERS

Q. When running Oracle Shared Server, which initialization parameter should you increase if there is an increasing number
of items in the queue and the wait time is increasing?
MAX_SHARED_SERVERS

Q. Which seven data access methods can you use to enhance performance?
clusters, indexes, index-organized tables, materialized views, b-tree (normal or reversed-key), bitmap, and function-based

Q. What does a hash cluster use to calculate the location of a row, both for retrieval and for DML operations?
hash algorithm (either user-defined or system-generated)

Q. Should you use a hash cluster if the clusters are rarely updated?
Yes

Q. Do cluster indexes store null values?

Yes

Q. Do bitmap indexes use a lot of storage space?

No

Q. When would you use the OVERFLOW clause when creating an index-organized table?
to allow data that exceeds the index's PCTTHRESHOLD value to be stored in an OVERFLOW segment
Q. Which three initialization parameters control query rewrites?
OPTIMIZER_MODE,
QUERY_REWRITE_ENABLED, and
QUERY_REWRITE_INTEGRITY

Q. Could the use of hash clusters be beneficial for a data warehouse application?
Yes

Q. Do bitmap indexes increase or decrease the response time with multiple predicates that are combined with AND, OR, or
NOT operations?
Increase

Q. Which clause would you include in a CREATE TABLE statement to specify a column at which to divide an index
organized table row into index and overflow portions?
the INCLUDING clause

Q. Which statement should you issue to deallocate all the space above the high-watermark?
ALTER TABLE table_name DEALLOCATE UNUSED;

Q. Which dynamic performance view would you query to display the number of full table scans?
V$SYSSTAT

Q. If the high-water mark is beyond the minimum creation size of the table, which statement deallocates all the blocks
above the high-water mark?
ALTER TABLE table_name DEALLOCATE USED;

Q. Which statement would you issue to populate the INDEX_STATS view with statistics on the space used by a particular
index?
ALTER INDEX index_name VALIDATE STRUCTURE;

Q. Setting a high or lower PCTFREE value will reduce the possibility of row migration?
a high PCTFREE value

Q. What happens to the index segment blocks when you delete 100% of the entries from the index block?
The Oracle server puts the index segment blocks back on the free list.

Q. What are the two optimizer modes?

rule-based and cost-based

Q. At which three levels can the optimizer be set at?

instance, session, or statement level

Q. Can you group stored outlines into categories?

Yes

Q. Where are stored outlines saved?

in the OUTLN schema

Q. Is it possible to have several stored outlines for a single SQL statement?

Yes

Q. To which value should you set the CREATE_STORED_OUTLINES parameter to ensure the DEFAULT category is
used?
TRUE

Q. Which operating system utility takes output from a SQL TRACE session and formats it into a readable format?
TKPROF

Q. Which utility provides detailed information regarding the execution of SQL statements?
SQL Trace

Q. Which package could you use to copy statistics from an Oracle9i production database to a test database?
DBMS_STATS
Q. Which optimizer mode is statistics driven and always chooses the least-expensive path?
cost-based

Q. Which optimizer mode uses a ranking system and is syntax driven?

rule-based

Q. At which two levels can the USE_STORED_OUTLINES and CREATE_STORED_OUTLINES parameters be set?
instance level or session level

Q. Which procedure would you use to find the high-water mark and the number of blocks above the high-water mark if
analyzing the table is impossible?
DBMS_SPACE.USED_SPACE

Q. Which package allows you to gather statistics while saving the current statistics, and then restore the original statistics
with minimal or no database downtime?
DBMS_STATS

Q. Is it required that SQL statements match textually for plan stability to work?
Yes

Q. Which three concepts are used to administer the database using Database Resource Management?
Resource Consumer Group, Resource Plan, and Resource Plan Directives

Q. When using Database Resource Manager to administer systems, to what should you assign user groups to control
resource consumption?
resource consumer groups

Q. Which package would you use to assign users to resource groups?

DBMS_RESOURCE_MANAGER_PRIVS