All Questions transferred from the

relevant "old" sub-module exam banks

26/06/08.
Aeroplane Aerodynamics Structures
and Systems
11 Lev 132Q

11.1 2 (6Q) Theory of Flight

Aeroplane Aerodynamics and Flight
11.1.1 2 Controls
11.1.1 2 Operation and effect of:
11.1.1 2 - roll control: ailerons & spoilers;
The function of the ailerons during flight is to change the pitch altitude direction
11.1.1 c
aircraft's
11.1.1 The control surfaces with differential control are ailerons rudders elevators a
11.1.1 A "balance cable" would form part of the: aileron system elevator system rudder system a
Rotating the control wheel to the left will cause the right-hand aileron to elevator to deflect left-hand aileron to
11.1.1 c
deflect upwards downwards deflect upwards
In a control system with differential control, the down travel is more up and down travel are the up travel is more
11.1.1 than the up travel both the same than the down travel c

A frise aileron has its hinge line on the assists with aircraft minimizes adverse yaw.
11.1.1 c
leading edge. longitudinal control.
A frise aileron maximizes adverse yaw produces parasite drag has the hinge point as
11.1.1 when the aileron is far forward as possible b
raised.
Large aircraft often have two ailerons on each wing to low-speed flight high altitude flight speed of rotation on
11.1.1 a
enhance characteristics characteristics take-off
 In a turn, the aileron of the down-going wing is deflected upwards by a greater angle than downwards
11.1.1 the elevator on the up- a
going wing
In a dual aileron system: dual slots are used to smaller controls are smaller controls are
11.1.1 smooth the airflow inboard operated outboard, due b
to high airspeeds

- pitch control: elevators, stabilators, variable

11.1.1 2
incidence stabilisers & canards;
The "vertical stabiliser" of an aircraft is the airfoil section located to flight control, forward of airfoil section forward of
11.1.1 the rear (aft) of the the airfoil section the rudder c
rudder
11.1.1 Elevators provide rotation about an aircraft's longitudinal axis lateral axis vertical axis b
Moving the control column forward or rearwards will aileron elevator rudder
11.1.1 b
activate the:
The purpose of "stabilators" is to rotate aircraft about stabilise longitudinal alter the amount of lift
11.1.1 c
their vertical axis pitch at the tail of an aircraft
11.1.1 The elevator provides pitch control directional control roll control a
The elevator downspring assists in preventing approach to landing approach to landing Dutch rolls
stalls caused by the stalls caused by the
11.1.1 centre of gravity being centre of gravity being b
too far forward too far back
Directional changes in control cables are achieved by bellcranks pulleys fair leads
11.1.1 b
using
A tension regulator in the flight control cable system of a maintain a set tension. provide a means of increase the cable
11.1.1 large all-metal aircraft is used primarily to: changing cable tension tension in cold weather. a
in flight.
A horizontal tail surface that combines the function of a a stabilator. an elevon. a ruddervator
11.1.1 a
stabilizer and elevator is called
If the trailing edge of the elevator is moved down the aircraft's nose will the aircraft's nose will the aircraft's nose will
11.1.1 stay level, due to pitch down pitch up b
stability of ailerons

11.1.1 2 - yaw control, rudder limiters;

11.1.1 "Yaw" is controlled by the rudder control column elevators a
An aircraft is controlled directionally about its vertical rudder elevators ailerons
11.1.1 a
axis by the:
The rudder should be aligned with the: horizontal stabilizer vertical fin centre section of the
11.1.1 b
wing
11.1.1 The rudder provides pitch control yaw control roll control b
Moving the left rudder pedal will deflect the rudder upwards to starboard to port
11.1.1 c
control surface

11.1.1 2 Control using elevons, ruddervators;

Control surfaces that are designed to control both pitch elevons ruddervators ailerons
11.1.1 a
and roll are termed
Ruddervators control pitch by deflecting both in conjunction with the in opposite directions in conjunction with the
11.1.1 b
ruddervators rudder elevators
11.1.1 2 High lift devices, slots, slats, flaps, flaperons;
What is the most common design for a trailing edge flap Kreuger Droop Fowler
11.1.1 c
on modern transport-category aircraft?
The purpose of slots on the leading edges of wings is to spoil the airflow over reduce drag increase the airfow over
11.1.1 c
the wings the wings
On dual aileron aircraft, the inboard ailerons can also be used as are used only at high cannot be used at the
11.1.1 flaps altitude same time as the flaps a

Drag inducing devices, spoilers, lift dumpers, speed

11.1.1 2
brakes;
The primary purpose of stall strips is to: provide added lift at provide added lift at stall the inboard portion
11.1.1 slow speeds. high angles of attack. of the wings first. c

Devices that are designed to reduce lift on an aircraft drag inducers flaps. spoilers.
11.1.1 c
are commonly known as
11.1.1 Spoilers are used primarily to control roll pitch yaw a
During flight, the spoilers may operate in conjunction elevators ailerons rudder
11.1.1 b
with the
In a turn, the spoiler on the up-going wing will remain flush with the lower with the aileron. rise with the aileron.
11.1.1 a
wing.
 In a turn, the spoiler on the down-going wing will remain flush with the lower with the aileron. go up.
11.1.1 c
wing
What is the purpose of the aircraft's ground spoilers? The two outboard The ground spoilers To reduce lift and
spoilers are ground operate in conjunction increases the
spoilers, causing with the flaps using the aerodynamic drag after
11.1.1 induced drag to slow induced drag to slow touch down. c
the aircraft down on the A/C down after
landing. touch down.

At lower aircraft speeds the ailerons and spoilers on be locked out to prevent be in use together. operate differentially
11.1.1 b
one wing, on most aircraft, will movement. (opposite directions)
Spoilers are hinged at the leading edge of their panels on the upper surface of on the lower surface of on the upper surface of
and are located the horizontal the wing, forward of the the wing, forward of the
11.1.1 stabilizer's surface trailing edge trailing edge c
forward of the trailing
edge
Spoilers on modern transport aircraft are designed to downwards only upwards only in either direction
11.1.1 b
deploy
11.1.1 Spoiler panels may also be referred to as speed brake panels slots diffusers a
In the flight mode, when aileron control is commanded raise lower remain flush with the
11.1.1 about the longitudinal axis, the spoiler on the down- wing's surface a
going wing will
In the flight mode, when aileron control about the raises lowers remains flush with the
11.1.1 longitudinal axis is commanded, the spoiler on the up- wing's surface c
going wing
During flight, what unit receives input from both spoiler Spoiler mixer Ratio changer Reduction gearbox
11.1.1 and roll channels and sums the inputs to produce a a
revised signal?
Which cockpit setting on the speed brake lever will allow Flight Up Armed
11.1.1 for maximum in-flight deployment of the spoilers? a

What position on the speed brake cockpit control lever Down Armed Up
11.1.1 will provide for maximum spoiler panel deployment after c
landing?

11.1.1 2 Effect of wing fences, saw tooth leading edges;

 Spanwise airflow across wings can be reduced by fitting winglets wing fences vortex generators
11.1.1 b
Boundary layer control using vortex generators,
11.1.1 2
stall wedges or leading edge devices;
Vortex generators are used to prevent stalls caused by excessive angle of shock-induced turbulent atmospheric
b
attack separation conditions

Operation and effect of trim tabs, balance and anti-

balance (leading) tabs, servo tabs, spring tabs,
11.1.1 2 mass balance, control surface bias, aerodynamic
balance panels;
The lift/drag characteristics of an aircraft are controlled secondary flight primary flight controls. airbrakes and
11.1.1 a
by the controls. liftdumpers.
Trim tabs are used to assist flap movement control a spoiler input alter the camber of
11.1.1 primary flight control c
surfaces
A balance tab: moves in the same deflects in the same is controlled by the
11.1.1 direction to the control direction as the control aircraft trim system b
surface tab
The purpose of the spring tabs is to: Assist the pilot in Contribute to the static Make in-flight trim
11.1.1 moving the control balancing of the control adjustments possible a
surfaces surfaces
Trim tabs are moved by the may be fitted to any of perform the same
11.1.1 control wheel and the primary flight control function as balance b
rudder pedals surfaces. tabs
Which way does an anti-servo tab move, relative to the In the opposite direction It does not move, it is In the same direction
11.1.1 c
control surface that it is fitted to? fixed
An adjustable trim tab on the elevator, can be adjusted by bending trim the aircraft so it will also be called an
11.1.1 the fixed tab fly hands-off, at any aerodynamic balance b
airspeed panel
A fixed trim tab on the rudder can be adjusted by the can be adjusted by the is bent so it will deflect
pilot in flight movement of a the rudder to
11.1.1 jackscrew compensate for an out c
of trim condition
11.1.1 The spring of a spring tab is compressed at high airspeeds high altitudes low airspeeds a
 Fixed trim tabs cannot be adjusted are adjusted by trial and can be adjusted in flight
11.1.1 b
error by the pilot
Incorrect rigging of the elevator trim tab will affect the lateral axis longitudinal axis vertical axis
11.1.1 a
balance of an aircraft about its:

11.1.2 2 High Speed Flight

Speed of sound, subsonic flight, transonic flight,
supersonic flight, Mach number, critical Mach
11.1.2 2 number, compressibility buffet, shock wave,
aerodynamic heating, area rule;
The effects of aerodynamic compressibility become transonic speeds supersonic speeds hypersonic speeds
11.1.2 a
most apparent at
Large, high-speed aircraft are normally fitted with the weight of cable- of their size and weight the air loads acting on
11.1.2 power-operated flight control systems because operated systems their control surfaces c
would be too great are very high
At higher aircraft speeds with a lower angle of attack parasite drag the induced drag is low the induced drag is high
11.1.2 b
decreases by 4
A factor of great importance in the study of high-speed location of C of G. attitude of flight and the speed of sound
11.1.2 c
flight is the centre of lift
11.1.2 The speed of sound varies with air temperature turbulence pressure a
Under standard atmospheric conditions, the speed of 678.9 mph 663.9 mph 761.9 mph
11.1.2 c
sound at sea level is approximately
Under standard atmospheric conditions, at 60,000 ft., 761.9 mph 660.7 mph 735.4 mph
11.1.2 where the temperature is approximately -69F, the speed b
of sound would be
An aircraft's forward air speed that is below Mach 1 is subsonic transonic hypersonic
11.1.2 a
considered to be
An aircraft's forward air speed that is between 1.2 M hypersonic transonic supersonic
11.1.2 c
and 5.0 M is termed
What is one common disadvantage with the formation Both speed-up the Both cause erratic, Both are wasteful of
11.1.2 of both an oblique and normal shock wave? airstream uncontrollable energy c
vibrations
 The aerodynamic term "area rule" means: the area of cross- the planform of the wing the mean chord of the
section should increase should match the tail plane must be 1/2
11.1.2 gradually to a maximum planform of the the thickness of the a
and then decrease empennage tail plane mean chord of the wing.
gradually. surface.
An aircraft's forward air speed that is between 0.75 M subsonic transonic hypersonic
11.1.2 b
and Mach 1.2 is considered to be
An aircraft's forward air speed that is above 5.0 M is hypersonic supersonic transonic
11.1.2 a
considered to be
An important design technique used to minimise drag at use of titanium for use of diffusers on supersonic area rule
11.1.2 c
transonic speeds is the control surfaces engine inlets

Factors affecting airflow in engine intakes of high

11.1.2 2
speed aircraft;

11.1.2 2 Effects of sweepback on critical Mach number.

An undesirable feature of a sweptback wing design is reduced forward air increased tendency for extreme tail plane down
11.1.2 b
speed a wingtip stall forces
Wingtip stalling of a sweptback wing can be prevented wing fences differential ailerons aileron upfloat
11.1.2 a
by using
11.2 2 20Q Airframe Structures - General Concepts
11.2a 2 (10Q) General
Airworthiness requirements for structural strength;
11.2a 2
Aircraft structures must be designed to withstand for a minimum of 3 without deformation at that exceed the elastic
11.2a specified ultimate loads seconds without failure any time limits of the materials a
used
The structural requirements for a "large aircraft" are JAR 23 JAR 25 JAR 27
11.2a b
contained in
Structural classification, primary, secondary,
11.2a 2 tertiary;
Fixed surfaces of an aircraft, include Ailerons, rudder and Wings,horizontal Wings, elevators and
11.2a control tabs stabilizer and vertical ailerons b
stabilizer
 Aircraft structures whose inherent strength greatly primary structures secondary structures fail safe structures
11.2a exceeds the design safety requirements may be b
classified as
Aircraft seat rails are normally classified as primary structures secondary structures damage-tolerant
11.2a a
structures
11.2a 2 Fail safe, safe life, damage tolerance concepts;
"Fail safe construction" is a method of aircraft design high-stress aerobatic longer periods between loads to be transferred
that enables aircraft manoeuvres maintenance to other components if
11.2a a part of the structure c
fails
Aircraft may be allowed to continue flying with some primary structures safe structures fail safe structures
11.2a structural damage provided that the damage is c
restricted to
11.2a 2 Zonal and station identification systems;
Fuselage station No. 137 is located 137 centimetres aft of 137 inches aft of station 137 inches forward of
11.2a the nose or fixed 0 or datum the empennage b
reference line
Stress, strain, bending, compression, shear,
11.2a 2 torsion, tension, hoop stress, fatigue;
11.2a What type of stress is carried by rivetted joints? Shear Tension Shear and tension a
When tension exceeds the elastic limit of a material it remain permanently shear bend
11.2a a
will deformed
Metal fatigue is caused by notches in aircraft repetitive stresses flying through high
11.2a b
structures turbulence
11.2a When a load is applied to a metal It will have no effect A stress is produced It will always fracture b
The maximum stress that can be applied to a material yield point elastic limit ultimate stress
11.2a c
is known as its
11.2a Deformation caused by stress is known as hoop stress thermal stress strain c
11.2a Compression forces could also be described as a Crushing force Twisting force Stretching force a
The term used to define the twisting force applied to a Shear Strain Torsion
11.2a c
component is
Torsional stresses comprise compression and shear compression and bending and shear
11.2a b
loads tensile loads loads
 The two primary stresses that act on a structure, are tension and torsion tension and torsion and shear
11.2a b
compression
Tension is a stress that pushes a body together pulls the body apart squeezes the part and
11.2a b
collapses it
The shear strength of a rivetted joint should be slightly less than the slightly higher than the the same as the
11.2a a
bearing strength bearing strength bearing strength
Excessive shear stress applied to a rivetted panel would break twist compress
11.2a a
tend to cause the rivet shanks to
An example of a torsional load, would be The twisting force of The crankshaft of an The tensile load
11.2a bending loads engine when it spins a supplied by a Gas b
propeller Turbine
The cracking of structural members under low repeated fatigue failure stress cracking reversal stress
11.2a a
stresses is termed.
According to Hooke's Law, the strain on a structural ultimate tensile strength limit of plasticity limit of elasticity
11.2a member is proportional to the stress applied to it until it c
reaches its
The load exerted on the skin of a monocoque structure hoop stress torsion compression
11.2a a
by cabin pressurisation is mainly
Large circular stresses in a pressurized fuselage tension stress shear stress hoop stress
11.2a c
structure are termed.
Hoop stress on the fuselage of an aircraft is caused by thermal heating pressurization cycles hard landings
11.2a b
On a semi-cantilever wing. all of the wing loads are the spar is designed in the wing strut is under
11.2a carried in the wing spar a semi circular shape. tension in flight c

The fatigue life of an aircraft fuselage is based on the pressurisation cycles flying hours landings
11.2a a
number of
A twisting load applied to the structure during certain T-tail ruddervator low mounted tailplane
11.2a a
manoeuvres is greater on aircraft with a
Failures of the aircraft structure that occur under fatigue failures the modulus of elasticity corrosion failures
11.2a conditions of dynamic loading are referred to as: of the material a

11.2a 2 Drains and ventilation provisions;

 Drain holes are fitted to aircraft structure to reduce drag. allow cooling air to prevent corrosion.
11.2a enter the cabin, through c
the drains.
Fluids are prevented from collecting in small corners by fitting drain holes filling them with fitting fluid traps
11.2a b
rubberised compound
11.2a 2 System installation provisions;
Sensitive electronic equipment is generally installed on anti-vibration inside pressurised at the rear of the aircraft
11.2a a
mountings cabins
11.2a 2 Lightning strike protection provisions;
Damage to non-conductive aircraft components due to static dischargers conductive strips bonding straps
11.2a b
lightning strikes is minimised by fitting them with
11.2a 2 Aircraft bonding (electrical).
The purpose of bonding straps fitted to bulkheads is to secure the bulkhead in secure electrical cables ensure a common
position whilst allowing and connectors to the electrical potential
11.2a some movement. bulkhead between the bulkhead c
and its securing points
Static electricity built up during flight is discharged on static dischargers conductive tyres bonding straps
11.2a b
landing by (static wicks)
Electrical resistance between aircraft structures is less than 0.5 ohms greater than 500 500 ohms
11.2a a
typically megohms
When refuelling aircraft, precautions must be taken to getting rain into the fuel tilting due to uneven build up of static
11.2a c
avoid fuel flow electricity
Bonding tests on fuel systems must be carried out with the components a special Safety all fuel removed from
11.2a b
disconnected Ohmmeter the tanks
11.2b 2 (10Q) (Construction Methods/Techniques)
Construction methods of: stressed skin fuselage,
formers, stringers, longerons, bulkheads, frames,
doublers, struts, ties, beams, floor structures,
11.2b 2 reinforcement, methods of skinning, anti-corrosive
protection, wing, empennage and engine
attachments;

The diameter of a monocoque fuselage is determined formers stringers the guage of metal
11.2b a
by used for the skin
A stressed skin structure with no internal reinforcement truss semi monocoque monocoque
11.2b c
is called a
 A monocoque structure uses a truss design carries all of the has a substucture of
11.2b b
stresses in the skin formers and stringers
A dent in the surface of a monocoque structure will reduce its resistance to reduce its rigidity not affect its structural
11.2b b
corrosion strength
Two types of construction used in aircraft fuselages are truss and unstressed truss and stressed skin stressed skin and
11.2b b
skin monocoque
The main longitudinal strength carrying member of the stringer longeron main spar
11.2b b
fuselage , is the
Compartments in the fuselage of an aircraft are frames. bulkheads. beams.
11.2b b
separated by
The main limitation of a monocoque structure is its corrosion heavy loads dents and deformation
11.2b c
vulnerability to
"Neutral Holes" in aircraft structures are most commonly drain holes windows bulkheads
11.2b b
used for
Failures of the aircraft structure that occur under fatigue failures stress fractures corrosion failures
11.2b a
conditions of dynamic loading are referred to as:
The "keel beam" of an aircraft runs along the centreline of next to the wheel well across the centreline of
11.2b a
the fuselage the wings
The purpose of stringers in an aircraft fuselage is to withstand shear absorb longitudinal minimise torsion-
11.2b stresses tension and induced stresses b
compression stresses
The 'Double Bubble' shape of a fuselage is maintained the stringers in the main frames tension in the floor
11.2b c
by frame beams
11.2b Stringers are cord-wise members span-wise members width-wise members b

Structure assembly techniques: riveting, bolting,

11.2b 2 bonding;
Structures that are designed with multiple load paths to monocoque structures fail safe structures hybrid structures
11.2b b
minimise the effects of cracks are termed
During the adhesive curing process, the materials used hydraulic rams clamps vacuum bags
11.2b in bonded aircraft structures are squeezed together by c

11.2b Bonded structures are held together by mechanical fasteners glue rivets b
 A core material bonded between two thin face sheets is impregnated epoxy construction sandwich construction
11.2b c
termed construction
3 common types of composite material are Glass fibre, carbon fibre Kevlar ,Ceramic fibre Kevlar, Borox and
11.2b and Aluminium alloy and carbon fibre Ceramic fibre b

Moisture entering a honeycomb or foam core in a will drain away through may cause must be dried out
11.2b b
sandwich composite material. the drain holes. delamination before the next flight
Before repairing composite materials, paint should be chemical paint stripper. water based abrasive epoxy resin
11.2b b
removed with paste.
The major dis-advantage of Kevlar material is that it is vulnerable to impact. heavy hygroscopic
11.2b c

Methods of surface protection such as chromating,

11.2b 2
anodising, painting;

11.2b 2 Surface cleaning.

Airframe symmetry: methods of alignment and

11.2b 2
symmetry checks.
An aircraft's "water line" is a horizontal line ,from spanwise measurement measurement taken
which vertical from the zero datum
11.2b measurements can be point a
taken
The Butt line is the vertical measurement horizontal point nearest the zero
from the ground measurements from the datum point
11.2b centre line of the b
fuselage
Wing stations are measured from the centre line of the wing tip wing root
11.2b a
fuselage
Longtitudinal points along an aircraft fuselage are Butt line Water line Zero datum line
11.2b c
determined by reference to a
The zero datum line is usually located as close to the ground near the forward portion at the rear pressure
11.2b b
as possible of the fuselage bulkhead
 If the surface of a monocoque structure is dented, its increase decrease rermain the same
11.2b b
rigidity will
When carrying out a symmetry check on large aircraft, all measurements a plumb bob is all measurements
should be taken from suspended from the should be carried
11.2b the mainwheels reference point and the out,outside the hangar b
position marked with
chalk
The dihedral angle of a wing is measured with a steel tape and spring the aircraft in the an angle of incidence
11.2b b
balance rigging position board
An alignment check is recommended, if. The pilot reports that Wrinkled or buckled All flight characteristics
11.2b the aircraft is flying is aircraft skin is observed are normal b
O.K , after rigging
When preparing an aircraft for a symmetry check, carry out an alignment level the aircraft with a ensure that chocks are
11.2b check before levelling plumb bob and target properly fitted to the b
the aircraft main wheels
If an aircraft is "out of rig" then the total drag of the unaffected decreased increased
11.2b c
aircraft, will be
Special nut plates and screws are located on the side of The engineer locate the To establish that the Adjust the wing angle of
11.2b b
some aircraft, to help. centre of gravity. aircraft is level. incidence
Aircraft symmetry and alignment checks should be each scheduled a heavy landing flying through heavy
11.2b b
carried out after maintenance turbulence
If the wing chord line is not properly aligned to the increased drag at all decreased drag at all decreasing drag with
11.2b a
fuselage longitudinal axis, the aircraft will experience speeds speeds increasing speed
When levelling a large aircraft, using a plumb bob. The aircraft is level, Measurements must be Always check the
when the plumb bob taken from chalk marks aircraft symmetry
11.2b lines up with the 0 on the ground. (alignment) first. a
degree mark, on the
levelling scale.
Aircraft symmetry and alignment checks should be every 5 years annually after a heavy landing
11.2b c
carried out after
Symmetry checks are carried out to ensure that: if any corrosion exists points on both sides of all wheels are correctly
on the aircraft, that the the aircraft are the aligned to ensure even
11.2b corrosion is equal on same distance from the tyre wear b
both sides centre line
 11.3 2 (12Q) Airframe Structures - Aeroplanes
11.3.1 2 Fuselage (ATA 52/53/56)
11.3.1 2 Construction and pressurisation sealing;
Two types of truss design, are the Warren and Pratt Pratt and Whitney Tubular and
11.3.1 a
Monocoque
The "Warren Truss" has a tensiometer fitted uses a combination has diagonal members
11.3.1 to adjust the steel design of steel tubes attached to longerons c
tubes. and semi monocoque
Because of the tremendous loads placed on a fuselage, be of the maximum have maximum withstand the maximum
11.3.1 they are designed to weight and minimum strength, with minimum weight for the minimum b
strength weight expense
The main advantage of a stressed skin fuselage corrosion resistance clean, aerodynamic ability to withstand
11.3.1 b
compared to the truss design, is its shape damage.
Aircraft fuselage stringers are usually constructed from pre-formed sheet metal extruded aluminium forged steel
11.3.1 b
Repairs to a fuselage former must be reinforced with a by stop drilling In an area that will
11.3.1 a
doubler strengthen the spar.
Repairs to pressurised aircraft skin should use a doubler that is ensure that all corners have a coating of
11.3.1 stronger material than are stop drilled to sealant applied c
the aircraft skin prevent cracks
A ventral fin is added to the bottom of a fuselage to improve longitudinal decrease longitudinal improve lateral stability.
11.3.1 a
stability. stability

Wing, stabiliser, pylon and undercarriage

11.3.1 2 attachments;
The main landing gear is normally attached to an tertiary structure secondary structure primary structure
11.3.1 c
aircraft's

11.3.1 2 Seat installation and cargo loading system;

11.3.1 Seat tracks are part of an aircraft's primary structure secondary structure tertiary structure a
When cargo is loaded into a passenger cabin, the 9g 4.5g 5000lb
11.3.1 restraints must be capable of withstanding a forward a
load of
 Seat tracks fitted to the floor beam of an aircraft are primary structures primary structures on secondary structures
classed as large aircraft and
11.3.1 secondary structures on a
small aircraft
The purpose of tie-down points in cargo compartments secure cargo in keep the cargo door in lock the cargo door in
11.3.1 a
is to position. the open position. the closed position.
The function of the Door Sill Latches in a cargo loading secure cargo containers prevent a cargo door activate the cargo
system is to: in position inside the from being closed loading system
11.3.1 aircraft during the loading a
phase
A Power Drive Unit in a cargo control system is cargo conveyance guidance and latching control component.
11.3.1 a
classified as a component. component.
In cargo loading systems, containers can be moved in roller tracks ball mats lateral rollers
11.3.1 both transverse and longitudinal directions by using b

On board cargo loading systems are designed to deal fragile cargo all passenger luggage pallets and containers
11.3.1 c
with
Restraining nets in the cargo compartment are fixed and cannot be are used to secure the keep the door area free
11.3.1 c
removed easily. cargo to the floor. for door opening.

Doors and emergency exits: construction,

11.3.1 2 mechanisms, operation and safety devices;
The ideal shape for openings in a pressurised fuselage elliptical circular oblong
11.3.1 a
is
Plugged-type passenger doors open outwards as soon are kept in place during are not used on
11.3.1 as the door handle is flight by air pressure pressurised aircraft b
moved
Non-electrical emergency exit signs on aircraft are nickel-cadmium tritium gas combined optical prisms and
illuminated by batteries with a phosphorescent mirrors that concentrate
11.3.1 material the ambient light b

To safeguard the aircraft structure against the effects of safety valves. outflow valves. decompression panels.
11.3.1 explosive decompression, the passenger and cargo c
compartments are fitted with:
 For safety in a pressurized aircraft Doors must be smaller The door is designed to The door is always a
11.3.1 b
than the door opening act as a plug vertical retracting door.
A "plug" type door is smaller than the larger than the opening, larger than the
11.3.1 opening, with pressure with pressure pushing opening,with pressure b
pushing outward outward pushing inward
Stair type doors Are for use on Are found on Are always a one piece
11.3.1 unpressurized aircraft pressurized and design b
only unpressurized aircraft
An illuminated cabin door warning light indicates that not properly locked to be used only in properly locked
11.3.1 a
the door is emergencies
If the cabin door warning light is off, this means The door is not The door is safe The locking mechanism
correctly closed mechanically, and this is safe electrically, but
can be confirmed by should also be
11.3.1 cycling the electrical confirmed visually that it c
toggle switch. is mechanically locked

Cabin doors and emergency exits are normally sealed silicone seals double seals to prevent inflatable rubber seals
11.3.1 c
by air leakage

Windows and windscreen construction and

11.3.1 2
mechanisms.
Control cabin windows are normally constructed of between the inner glass between the outer glass that heats the window
11.3.1 layers of glass and vinyl with a conductive coating layer and interlayer layer and interlayer only in flight b

Windows fitted in the passenger cabin of pressurised three panes, two of two panes, one of three panes, all of
aircraft consist of which can withstand full which can withstand full which can withstand full
11.3.1 pressurisation force pressurisation force presssurisation force a

On a pressurised aircraft, scratches on acrylic plastic can be repaired by cannot be repaired. The can be repaired if it
windows polishing without any window must be does not reduce the
11.3.1 limitations replaced. windows minimum c
thickness
When installing windshields, all screws should be then backed off by one to a specified torque then backed off by 1/8
11.3.1 b
tightened full turn of a turn
 Crazing can be removed from an acrylic windshield With a soap and water With a combination of With abrasives
11.3.1 c
solution hot oil and water
The windows of pressurised aircraft are normally a micrometer ultrasonic measuring feeler gauges
11.3.1 b
checked for thickness with instruments
Dirt should be removed from aircraft windows and a dry cloth bare hands and soapy aircraft fuel
11.3.1 b
windshields with water
Oil and grease can be removed from an acrylic plastic Soap and water Petroleum solution Dry cloth
11.3.1 a
window solution
11.3.1 Passenger cabin windows are located between stringers fuselage frames ribs b
An acetate type of plastic window Is used on most Is a synthetic resin Turns a yellow colour
11.3.1 c
modern aircraft over a period of time.
Using hot water to "form" plastic prevents cracking when causes the plastic to causes the plastic to
11.3.1 b
formed turn cloudy turn yellow
Acrylic sheets should be stored horizontally vertically in an purpose-built
11.3.1 b
clean room
A network of fine cracks found in the surface of a Chemical etching Crazing Fretting
11.3.1 b
material, is known as
Small pieces of acrylic plastic can be heated for Dry ice bucket Water bath Oil bath
11.3.1 c
forming, in a
The main differences when working with aluminium The poorer heat Snap point The poorer heat
11.3.1 compared to acrylic plastics, is conduction of conduction of acrylic c
aluminium plastic
"Thermoplastic" materials can be heated and re- can be heated and must be stored
11.3.1 shaped many times shaped once only vertically in a heated a
room.
11.3.1 Acrylics and rubber should be cleaned with aliphatic naptha. methyl ethyl ketone. soapy water a

11.3.2 2 6Qs Wings (ATA 57)

11.3.2 2 Construction;
A wing that does not need any external struts or braces truss type unilever cantilever
11.3.2 c
is known as a
A multi spar metal wing is capable of carrying shear and torsional bending and torsional torsional loads only
11.3.2 b
loads loads
 A wing spar is the principal structural member of a wing chord-wise longitudinally spanwise
11.3.2 c
Wing ribs are structural members structural members hinged, pivoted or
11.3.2 running spanwise which give a wing its sliding plates that run b
aerodynamic shape chord-wise
The skin of the wing forms part of the basic is just a covering for the is made from steel for
11.3.2 structure of the wing basic structure of the strength a
wing
The "auxilary structures" of a wing includes its wing tips, leading edge spars and stringers ribs and wing skin
11.3.2 a
and trailing edge

11.3.2 2 Fuel storage;

Flexible fuel tanks that are fitted and removed via small rubber balloon tanks integral tanks bladder tanks
11.3.2 access panels in the aircraft structure are called c

Landing gear, pylon, control surface and high

11.3.2 2
lift/drag attachments.
The landing gear trunnion is normally supported by the wing rear spar only wing front and rear wing rear spar and
11.3.2 spars landing gear suppport c
beam

11.3.3 2 Stabilisers (ATA 55)

11.3.3 2 Construction;

11.3.3 2 Control surface attachments.

11.3.4 2 Flight Control Surfaces (ATA 55/57)

11.3.4 2 Construction and attachment;

11.3.4 2 Balancing - mass & aerodynamic.

 After completing "Range of Movement" checks on cable fully extended in each in the neutral position at the mid point of their
11.3.4 operated control surfaces, the cable tension should be direction travel in each direction b
checked with the flying controls

11.3.5 2 Nacelles/Pylons (ATA 54)

11.3.5 2 Construction;
Hinged blow-out panels are provided on the pylons to indicate pylon show a fully fractured relieve pressure caused
11.3.5 movement midspar fuse pin by a leaking airduct c

A turbine engine nacelle may have aluminium alloy sheet cowling doors fitted with cowl flaps fitted
11.3.5 metal mounts quick disconnect b
fasteners
On swept back wings, the ribs that support the pylon perpendicular to the parallel to the aircraft at right angles to the
11.3.5 b
mounts are wing rear spar centre line front wing spar

11.3.5 2 Firewalls;
11.3.5 Engines are isolated from the rest of the aircraft by isolators nacelles firewalls c
Firewalls should be constructed allow hazardous air, are not required if a
of stainless steel, fluids and flame to pass nacelle is provided
11.3.5 inconel or titanium between compartments a

11.3.5 2 Engine mounts.

11.3.5 Engine mounts are normally made from steel alloys aluminum alloys titanium a
The structure that houses an externally mounted aircraft pylon cowl flap nacelle
11.3.5 c
engine is termed a
Engine mounts are designed to absorb thrust, moisture and thrust, vertical loads thrust and vibrations
11.3.5 c
vibrations and horizontal loads
The main design advantage of wing pylon mounted reduces the wing reinforces the upward creates a high upwash
11.3.5 engines is that it bending moment wing lift flow of air near the wing a
leading edge.
The complete housing used to protect and streamline cowling nacelle fan casing
11.3.5 b
an aircraft engine is called a
 Air Conditioning and Cabin Pressurisation
11.4 (7Q) (ATA 21)
11.4.1 2 (1Q) Air Supply
Sources of air supply including engine bleed, APU
11.4.1 2 and ground cart;
In a large, turbine-powered aircraft, the air used for a turbocharger bleed air from the ram air passed through
11.4.1 cabin pressurisation is normally supplied by compressor turbine compressors a pressure regulator b

Turbine engine air used for air-conditioning and compressed air ram air bleed air
11.4.1 c
pressurisation is generally called
Which type of compressor is most suitable for cabin Reciprocating type Roots blower type Vane type
11.4.1 b
pressurisation in large piston-engine aircraft?
On most small, reciprocating-engine powered aircraft, a turbocharger engine bleed air a flow-multiplier
11.4.1 a
the pressurising air is produced by

11.4.2 3 (6Q) Air Conditioning

11.4.2 3 Air conditioning systems;
For comfortable cabin conditions the air in the cabin 10 C and 35 C 21 C and 27 C 25 C and 40 C
11.4.2 b
should be maintained between

11.4.2 3 Air cycle and vapour cycle machines;

The type of cooling system used on reciprocating air cycle machine pack control systems freon vapor-cycle
11.4.2 c
engine and small turbo-prop engine aircraft is
The vapour-cycle air conditioning system is a closed system open system cyclic high pressure
11.4.2 a
system
The refrigerant used by vapor cycle air conditioning bleed air freon R12 precooler air
11.4.2 b
systems is
Large, turbine-powered transport aircraft use air-cycle machines to vapour-cycle air a combination of filtered
adjust the temperature conditioning systems outside air and a
11.4.2 of the air into the cabin vapour-cycle air a
conditioning system
 In a freon vapor-cycle cooling system, the condenser is ambient air. turbine engine pressurised cabin air.
11.4.2 a
cooled by the compressor.
The refrigerant used in the air-cycle machines air moly-glycote solution air freon R-22
11.4.2 b
conditioning system is
The principle theory of operation of the air cycle compression and reduction of heated evaporation and
11.4.2 machine air conditioning system is expansion of air gases through the condensation of the a
osmosis of heat refrigerant
The components of a vapor-cycle air conditioning compressor, condenser, compressor, compressor, expansion
system in order from the compressor are as follows: receiver/dryer, receiver/dryer, valve, condenser,
11.4.2 expansion valve, condenser, evaporator, receiver/dryer, a
evaporator expansion valve evaporator

In an air-cycle air conditioning system, the air is cooled heat exchanger receiver/dryer turbine
11.4.2 a
by a
The Air Cycle Machine (ACM) converts heat energy into compressor turbine flow of ram air
11.4.2 mechanical energy, as the air is expanded by the b

The air entering an ACM compressor is supplied from engine bleed air the ACM turbine cabin air temperature
11.4.2 a
control regulator
Baffles are fitted in ACM water separators to calibrate airflow send air to the give a swirling motion to
11.4.2 c
compressor inlet the air
The ACM secondary heat exchanger is located. between the turbine before the primary heat between the
11.4.2 and water separator exchanger compressor and the c
turbine
Refrigerant R12 is Blue in colour Rerigerant for air cycle colourless
11.4.2 c
machines
In a vapour-cycle system, oil used to lubricate the have a wax content always be replaced mix easily with other oil
11.4.2 b
compressor should during servicing types
The basic air-cycle cooling system consists of: A source of Heaters, compressors Ram air source,
compressed air, heat and coolers. compressors and
11.4.2 exchangers and a engine bleeds. a
turbine.
In a freon cooling system, the expansion valve acts as a reduces the pressure of increases the pressure reduces the pressure of
11.4.2 metering device and the gaseous freon. of the liquid freon. the liquid freon. c
 The principle theory of operation of the vapor-cycle air compression and reduction of heated evaporation and
11.4 conditioning system is expansion of air gases through the condensation of the c
osmosis of heat refrigerant
The vapor cycle receiver/ dryer is located on the high pressure side of low pressure side of the compressor
11.4 a
the system system
The purpose of ventilating air in a combustion heater provide combustion air carry heat to the places provide the air required
11.4 system is to for the ground blower. where needed. to support the flame. b

In a vapour-cycle cooling system, freon changes its condenser. evaporator. expansion valve.
11.4 a
state from gas to liquid in the

11.4.2 3 Distribution systems;

Flow, temperature and humididity control system

11.4.2 3
At which component in an air-cycle cooling system does Expansion turbine. Primary heat Refrigeration bypass
11.4.2 a
air undergo a pressure and temperature drop? exchanger. valve.
In the air cycle machine, both the primary and the water separator ram air turbine discharge gases
11.4.2 b
secondary heat exchangers are cooled by coalesce sock
To prevent the extracted water droplets in the water 20 C 10 C 3 C
11.4.2 separator from freezing, warm air is added to maintain a c
temperature of approximately
The vapor cycle receiver/dryer contains a dessicant sends high pressure allows cool air to flow to absorbs any moisture in
11.4.2 c
which liquid to the condensor the expansion valve the system

11.4.3 3 Pressurisation
11.4.3 3 Pressurisation systems;
A pressurised aircraft must be pre-pressurised before unpressurised before pressurised when
11.4.3 a
take-off take-off landing
At take-off point, the cabin pressure is the same as the outside higher than the outside lower than the outside
11.4.3 b
air pressure air pressure air pressure
Uncontrolled leakage is air that escapes through or outflow valve cabin doors and control cables only
11.4.3 b
around the windows
 Control and indication including control and safety
11.4.3 3
valves;
In an aircraft pressurisation system, the safety valve closes if the cabin closes when the weight opens if the cabin
11.4.3 pressure exceeds its of the aircraft is on the pressure exceeds its c
safe limit landing gear safe limit
Cabin pressurisation is maintained at specified levels by outflow valve safety valve negative relief valve
11.4.3 a
the
In an aircraft pressurisation system, the negative relief into the aircraft when out of the aircraft when between different zones
valve allows air to flow ambient pressure is ambient pressure is of the aircraft to
11.4.3 higher than cabin lower than cabin maintain constant a
pressure pressure pressure
11.4.3 During cruise, the outflow valve will be open closed modulating c
In a pneumatic cabin pressure control system, the rate controller spring and diaphragm solenoid controlled by
11.4.3 safety valve is normally activated by a inside the valve the landing gear safety c
switch

11.4.3 3 Cabin pressure controllers.

The rate controller of a cabin pressurisation system is 500 ft/min climb 500 ft/min descend 300 ft/min climb
11.4.3 a
normally set at
As a general rule, pressurised aircraft are built to 16 000 Ft 14 000 Ft 8000 Ft
11.4.3 c
provide a cabin pressure altitude of not more than
With a cabin pressure of 10.92 psi and an ambient 10.92 psi 8.20 psi 13.64 psi
11.4.3 pressure of 2.72 psi, the reading on the pressure b
differential gauge will be

11.4.4 3 Safety and Warning Devices

11.4.4 3 Protection and warning devices

11.5 (10Q) Instruments/Avionic Systems

11.5.1 2 (6Q) Instrument Systems (ATA 31)
 The "tolerance" of an aircraft instrument is a measure how well it can tolerate the level of inaccuracy the accuracy of the
of different levels of allowed before it needs readings shown on the
11.5.1 vibration. to be recalibrated instrument face. c

Differences between instrument readings taken as an hysteresis instrument "lag" friction

applied parameter is increasing and those taken when
11.5.1 the same parameter is decreasing, is generally due to a

What category of instrument is an aircraft Attitude Symbolic Straight Scale Circular or clock scale
11.5.1 a
Indicator display?
Which of the following terms describes a standard Basic "4". Basic "L". Basic "6".
11.5.1 c
layout for the aircraft flight instruments?
When installing an instrument in an aircraft, pilot instrument installer. instrument
11.5.1 responsibility for ensuring it is properly marked lies with manufacturer. b
the
The number and size of the marks on instrument dials provide a quick ensure that the entire reduce instrument zero
are designed to:- accurate interpretation range of the instrument error.
11.5.1 of the readings. can be displayed on the a
instrument dial.

Which of the following instruments could be described EGT (Engine Exhaust Attitude Indicater Altimeter.
11.5.1 as a High-Range or Long-Scale instrument? Gas Temperature) c
gauge.
Straight scale instruments are usually chosen for their:- accuracy. space saving. ability to display large
11.5.1 ranges of information b
such as altitude.
The Graduation Marks on an Instrument refer to:- The marks provided to The marks on the Amount of possible
assist in disassembling instrument scale which positions the instrument
the instrument. enable the instrument pointer may stop at.
11.5.1 to display a value for b
the parameter being
monitored.
 Information on the limits and range markings on an engine manufacturers aircraft flight manual. instrument
11.5.1 engine instrument is contained in the specifications. manufacturer's b
specifications.
"Flight Instruments" are classified as those instruments indicate the altitude of are connected to the provide the pilot with a
11.5.1 that the aircraft Pitot Static system. picture of the aircraft's c
flight condition.
Engine instruments refer to those instruments which are True. The set of instruments The set of instruments
associated with the monitoring and display of engine will depend on the size will vary depending on
11.5.1 parameters. All aircraft have the same standard set of of the powerplant the type powerplant c
Engine Instruments:- installed. installed.
Manifold pressure gauges are normally used with piston engines only gas turbine engines both piston and gas
11.5.1 a
only turbine engines.
Instruments associated with guiding the aircraft from navigation instruments. flight instruments. aircraft attitude
11.5.1 a
one point on the earth to another are classified as indicators
Annunciators:- Are always colored May annunciate a Are always located on a
Red. certain condition or central warning panel
11.5.1 mode of operation of a that the pilot can easily b
system. see.
Aircraft instruments generally use the following Temperature, Pressure, Altitude, Attitude, Airspeed, Distance,
principles to measure and display information:- Acceleration, Heading. Groundspeed, Bearing.
11.5.1 Magnetism, a
Gyroscopic.

11.5.1 Correction charts are commonly used with compasses attitude indicators. altimeters. a
Which of the following would be considered a sensitive Hydraulic pressure Altimeter. Brake pressure gauge.
11.5.1 b
instrument? gauge.
Flight instruments normally conform to a standard layout ensure consistency of simplify maintenance comply with Civil
11.5.1 to information between and fault diagnosis Aviation regulations a
aircraft types
Shock mountings on aircraft instrument panels are all frequencies low frequencies and low high frequencies and
11.5.1 a
designed to absorb vibration at amplitude high amplitude
An aircraft instrument panel is electrically bonded to the Act as a restraint strap. Provide a positive Provide current return
11.5.1 aircraft structure to power supply for the paths. c
panel lighting
 How would an airspeed indicator be marked to show the A red radial line. A blue radial line. A green arc.
11.5.1 best rate-of-climb speed (one engine inoperative)? b

The green arc on an aircraft temperature gauge The instrument is not The desirable A low, unsafe
11.5.1 b
indicates:- calibrated. temperature range. temperature range.
A red radial line on the face of an engine instrument Normal operating Caution range. Maximum or minimum
11.5.1 c
indicates:- range. safe operating limits.
What advantage do ratiometer measuring circuits have If the supply voltage If the supply voltage If there are any faulty,
compared with Wheatstone Bridge circuits? varies this will be varies there will be no dirty or loose
detected by the effect on the instrument connections in the
11.5.1 instrument. reading. Ratiometer circuit this b
will have no effect on
the instrument reading.

Pitot static: altimeter, air speed indicator, vertical

11.5.1 2 speed indicator;
Adjustable references on an altimeter allow the pilot to compensate for cabin ensure that both the set the reference
pressurization pilots and co-pilots pressure at any given
11.5.1 altimeters read exactly location, to ensure the c
the same. altimeter reads the
correct altitude
An example of an aircraft Instrument which measures altimeter hydraulic pressure airspeed Indicator
11.5.1 c
differential pressure is the gauge
Whilst an aircraft is parked, the pitot probe should be burns caused by insects and small items oxidation of the pitot
protected by a cover to prevent touching the probe from entering the pitot tube, thus reducing its
11.5.1 when the heater is tube and blocking the efficiency b
switched on lines.
Gauge pressure is :- read directly from the absolute pressure + pressure above
11.5.1 gauge measuring the atmospheric pressure atmospheric pressure. c
pressure.
Why is the front edge of a Pitot probe tube sharp To ensure minimum To prevent ice build-up To minimise the
around the opening? disruption to the airflow on the front of the ingestion of debris.
11.5.1 entering the tube. probe. a
 The difference between the Pitot pressure and the Rate of Climb (vertical Altitude Airspeed
11.5.1 c
Static pressure is used to calculate the aircraft's speed)
Atmospheric pressure is measured in absolute pressure gauge Pressure a vacuum millibars
11.5.1 b
which is referenced to
Static port position error is caused by movement of air across changing angles of the Static port not being
the face of the Static attack of the aircraft at aligned exactly with the
11.5.1 port causing a reduction slower speeds. center-line of the a
in pressure in the Static aircraft.
line.
Pitot Tubes measure outside air pressure. outside air temperature. ram air pressure.
11.5.1 c
"Air pressure" is defined as: the force exerted by the 14.69 pounds per the air pressure at sea
11.5.1 air on a unit of area square inch level a

A common unit used in aviation to measure air pressure kilopascal millibar newton
11.5.1 b
is the
An example of an Aircraft Instrument that reads Gauge Fuel Pressure gauge. Altimeter. Manifold Pressure
11.5.1 a
Pressure would be :- Gauge
Differential pressure is the resultant pressure the range of different the difference between
measured by pressures exerted on absolute and
11.5.1 comparing two different an aircraft in flight atmospheric pressure. a
pressures.
The system of pipes and tubes associated with the Pitot Static System. Aircraft Plumbing Aircraft Pressure
11.5.1 aircraft's flight instruments is called:- System Measurement System. a

An aircraft's "Static Ports" measure:- ram air pressure outside air pressure the difference between
the outside air pressure
11.5.1 and the cabin air b
pressure.
Pitot Tubes are normally heated to ensure:- Ram air temperature is The Pitot tube is not To help prevent insects
11.5.1 above freezing point. blocked by ice build-up crawling down the Pitot b
during flight. line.
 The Pitot probe is oriented so that in normal flight Ice to build-up and Pitot pressure error, of Pitot pressure error of a
attitude the probe is pointed directly into the air-stream. block the port. a lower than actual higher than actual
11.5.1 However at slower speeds and higher angles of attack value. value. b
can cause:-
Water is normally removed from Pitot Static lines by blowing down them with heating them to water drains
11.5.1 c
compressed air. evaporate the water
Pitot probes can sometimes contain both Pitot and False True Only on larger Air
11.5.1 b
Static ports:- Transport aircraft.
The Airspeed indicator measures:- Ground speed. Difference between the Airspeed
11.5.1 ground speed and the c
ram airspeed.
The airspeed indicator is connected to :- Both the Pitot pressure The Pitot pressure line The Static Pressure line
11.5.1 line and the Static only. only. a
pressure line.
Airspeed indicators are calibrated in :- Mph (Miles per Hour) Kph (Kilometers per Knots (Nautical miles
11.5.1 c
hour) per hour).
Indicated Airspeed refers to :- The airspeed reading Airspeed readings that Airspeed readings that
shown on an airspeed are contained in the have been corrected for
11.5.1 indicator. green arc of an position error. a
airspeed indicator.
Calibrated Airspeed refers to airspeed that:- Is shown on an Is shown on a Mach Has been corrected for
11.5.1 airspeed indicator that meter. position and instrument c
is calibrated. error.
True Airspeed equals :- Calibrated Airspeed + Mach Airspeed + Indicated Airspeed +
Altitude Correction + Temperature Correction Position Error
11.5.1 Temperature Correction correction a

A Machmeter indicates :- The speed of the airflow Calibrated airspeed Aircraft speed relative
11.5.1 over the top of the converted to Mach. to the speed of sound. c
aircrafts wing.
The speed of sound :- Decreases with an Increases with an Remains constant with
11.5.1 increase in altitude. increase in altitude. changes in altitude a

An aircraft altimeter measures:- Ram air Pressure Rate of change of Atmospheric pressure.
11.5.1 c
atmospheric pressure.
 The pilot is required to adjust Altimeter Barometric The aircraft's Air Data The control tower. A weather map of the
11.5.1 settings below approx. 10,000 ft. Where does the pilot Computer. area. b
get the setting information from?
The aircraft altimeter would be connected to the Static pressure source. Pitot pressure source. Both Pitot and Static
11.5.1 a
aircraft's :- pressure sources.
A Vertical Speed Indicator (VSI) measures the rate of change of airspeed. difference between the
11.5.1 altitude. pitot and static a
pressures
Instantaneous Vertical Speed Indicators contain :- A weighted piston in an A weighted piston in an A weighted piston in an
acceleration pump acceleration pump acceleration pump
which slows or which increases the which ensures the static
11.5.1 dampens the indicators indicators response to pressure line is always b
response to vertical vertical acceleration. clear of water.
acceleration.

An Air Data Computer:- Is placed in the system Can automatically apply Converts the Pitot and
between the aircraft corrections for local Static pressures into
11.5.1 instruments and the Barometric pressure. electrical signals which c
aircraft servo in turn drives the
instruments. instruments.
The Total Air Temperature (TAT) probe provides Total Air Mach No. and True Altitude. Calibrated airspeed.
11.5.1 Temperature information to the Air Data Computer Airspeed. a
(ADC) for calculation of:-
The term "Servo Instruments" refers to those Have more than one Are driven by electrical Which show the
11.5.1 instruments which:- scale. signals from the Air position of the aircraft b
Data Computer. servos.
An "Encoding Altimeter" :- Contains both a digital Is the term given to an Contains an Altitude
and a analogue altitude Altimeter which is Encoding device which
scale. driven by the Air Data sends altitude
11.5.1 Computer (ADC). information to the c
aircraft's Air Traffic
Control (ATC)
transponder.
 Digital Air Data Computers (DADC) :- Convert Pitot and Static Convert Pitot and Static Contain only digital
pressure information pressure information outputs.
into digital signals for into analogue signals
processing inside the for processing inside
11.5.1 computer and then the computer and then a
output to the aircraft output to the aircraft
instruments. instruments.

The Total Air Temperature (TAT) provides information to Mach No. and True Altitude. Calibrated airspeed.
11.5.1 a
the Air Data Computer (ADC) for calculation of: Airspeed.

Gyroscopic: artificial horizon, attitude director,

direction indicator, horizontal situation indicator,
11.5.1 2 turn and slip indicator, turn co-ordinator.

One characteristic of a spinning gyroscope is rigidity in space. the ability to self erect. it always remains
11.5.1 oriented towards north. a

Real drift, or unwanted precession in a gyro is caused excessively long flights imperfections in the aircraft motion that
by gyro such as bearing includes both pitch and
11.5.1 friction and gimbal roll. b
system unbalance.
How many axis of freedom does a free or space gyro 2 3 1
11.5.1 b
have?
The gyroscope used in an Artificial Horizon has a banks left and right moves at 90 degrees to remains vertical.
11.5.1 vertical spin axis. As the aircraft banks left and right the also. the direction of the c
spin axis : aircraft bank.
IRS Ring Laser Gyros detect rate movement about displacement about an the difference in
11.5.1 an axis axis amplitude between two a
beams of light
One disadvantage of using a venturi vacuum system for a minimum speed must it is less efficient at it cannot be used on
pneumatic gyro instruments is that be maintained for the higher altitudes pressurized aircraft
11.5.1 system to remain a
operational.
 A free space gyro does not have : to be mounted in a friction in its bearings. an erection system.
11.5.1 c
Gimbal system.
If a force is applied to a spinning gyro, its effect will be 90 deg from the point of 180 deg from the point the point of application
11.5.1 felt at a point application in the of application in the in the direction of a
direction of rotation. direction of rotation. rotation.
An aircraft's attitude is always referenced to the earth's Be a free or space gyro. Have only one degree Be earth tied.
11.5.1 surface. Therefore where aircraft instruments are of freedom. c
concerned, the gyro must be:
Gyro topple can occur if the aircraft carries out an pitch or roll exceeds the gyro is not caged.
11.5.1 uncoordinated turn. limits of the gimbal b
system.
One method of providing vacuum for pneumatic gyro a static port. a venturi mounted on an engine driven
11.5.1 instruments is by the outside of the venturi. b
aircraft.
An engine driven vacuum pump system, used to It is capable of It is easier to maintain It requires less
provide pneumatic power to the aircraft gyros, has an providing a constant as it has fewer filters. plumbing in the aircraft.
11.5.1 advantage over a venturi system in that: vacuum supply, a
regardless of aircraft
speed.
Engine driven pressure pumps used to drive gyro air is blown through the they provide gyro power no filter is required on
instruments have an advantage over engine driven instruments instead of in emergency the regulator.
11.5.1 vacuum pumps in that: being sucked through. situations. c

When carrying out general maintenance on gyro Replace the filters at While the gyro is Ensure none of the
systems a common maintenance practice used on both regular intervals, as spinning at full speed pipes or fitting have
pneumatic and electric gyros is to: prescribed in the remove the driving become chaffed, or
maintenance manual. force and measure the bend radius is to tight.
time it takes for the gyro
11.5.1 b
to run down. Short
rundown times may
indicate worn bearings.

11.5.1 Electric gyros spin at approx: 20,000 - 23,000 rpm. 8,000 - 10,000 rpm 200 - 500 rpm a
 A simple check that can be carried out during Listen for any unusual Remove the air filters Remove power and
maintenance of an electric gyro system is to apply noise when the gyro is and check to see if the check the run down
power to the gyro and wait until it reaches full speed spinning. This may gyro speeds up, this time. A long run down
11.5.1 then: indicate worn bearings. indicates the filters may time indicates the a
be blocked. bearings may be getting
worn.

Which of the following pair of instruments operate on Artificial Horizon - Turn Turn and Bank - Altimeter - Artificial
11.5.1 a
gyroscopic principles : and Bank Altimeter Horizon
The aircraft symbol on a Artificial Horizon is : Is connected to the Fixed to the instrument Turns as the aircraft
11.5.1 outer Gimbal ring of the case. banks left and right. b
gyro.
During flight the pilot observes that the aircraft symbol Climbing. Diving. Banking left or right.
on the Gyro Horizon is centered in the blue section of
11.5.1 the instrument. This indicates to the pilot that the aircraft a
is:
The Directional Gyro indicates the heading of the It always shows the It does not suffer from It is not affected by
11.5.1 aircraft. It has some advantages over a compass in that: aircraft heading relative magnetic errors or precession. b
to North. oscillations.
With a Directional Gyro it is necessary for the pilot to Magnetic variation will Heading errors will be It will drift, due to the
check and reset its heading every 15 to 20 minutes as : introduce heading introduced by the earth's rotation, which
11.5.1 errors. earths magnetic dip. introduces heading c
errors.
The knob on the front of a Directional Gyro instrument is Cage the gyro when it Turn the aircraft symbol Adjust the aircrafts
used to: is not operating and to so that it aligns with the course.
11.5.1 adjust the heading magnetic heading. a
scale.
A co-ordinated turn refers to a turn in which: The amount of bank The amount of bank The amount of bank
ensures that the ensures that the ensures that the
resultant force of gravity resultant force of gravity resultant force of gravity
and centrifugal force is and centrifugal force is and centrifugal force is
11.5.1 acting downwards at acting downwards acting downwards at a
right angles to the towards the center of right angles to the
aircraft's wings. the earth. earth's surface.
 A common method for slip indication uses : A rate gyro and pointer. A free space gyro and A curved liquid filled
11.5.1 c
pointer. glass tube and a ball.
A standard 2 minute rate turn refers to : A co-ordinated turn. A turn at a rate of 3 A turn only used by
11.5.1 degrees per second. large, high speed, b
aircraft.
A Turn and Bank indicator contains two independent A ball mechanism which A gyro which detects A gyro which detects
mechanisms. One of these is: shows the rate at which the amount of slip or the rate at which the
11.5.1 the aircraft is turning. skid the aircraft is aircraft is turning. c
undergoing during the
turn.
A Rate Gyro differs from other gyros in that it has : Has only one Gimbal Has a spring Is a free or space
ring. interconnecting both gyroscope.
11.5.1 inner and outer Gimbal a
rings.
11.5.1 What gyroscopic principle do Rate Gyro's utilise: Turn error. Rigidity. Precession. c
Vertical Gyro erection systems are required to : Erect and maintain the Ensure that the Keep the gyro erect
gyro perpendicular to precession errors do when power is
11.5.1 the earth's surface at all not allow the gyro to removed, thus a
times. drift. protecting the gyro from
damage.
A common erection method used on an electric gyro Use pendulous vanes. To use mercury Use steel balls acted
11.5.1 is :- switches and torque upon by gravity. b
motors.
When referring to gyroscopes, Turn Error is described Centrifugal forces Incorrect aircraft bank. The aircraft turning at a
11.5.1 as errors introduced in the gyro during turns as a result acting on the gyro rate 4 turn. a
of: erection system.

11.5.1 2 Compasses: direct reading, remote reading;

The purpose of an aircraft compass system is to aircraft heading with aircraft bearing with direction of True North.
11.5.1 indicate the respect to Magnetic respect to a ground a
North.. station..
The longitudinal component (nose to tail) of an aircraft's Component P. Component Q. Component R.
11.5.1 a
magnetism is termed:
The angle between the aircraft's True heading and its compass heading. magnetic variation magnetic deviation.
11.5.1 b
Magnetic heading is referred to as the
 What is the purpose of a flux valve in a remote reading To couple the gyro to To detect the direction To provide magnetic
11.5.1 compass system ? the magnetic heading. of the earths magnetic heading display for the b
field. pilot to read.
A compass swing base is a platform used to a designated area an area designated by
support a compass where local magnetic any licenced aircraft
11.5.1 when it is being disturbances are within engineer as suitable for b
calibrated. specified limits compass swings.
In aircraft, the compass needle may point in a direction Magnetic Variation. Dip angle. Magnetic Deviation
11.5.1 at some angle to the actual magnetic north. This angle c
is referred to as:
The Earth's magnetic field can be represented by geographic North and magnetic poles and the magnetic North and
11.5.1 c
imaginary lines of force that radiate between the South poles equator South poles
Magnetic Variation changes in different areas of the True False It depends on the
11.5.1 a
earths surface: heading.
11.5.1 The magnetic variation in Doha Is approximately: 16 degrees West 2 degrees east 68 degrees East b
One simple method to check whether a proposed area a compass swing. the datum compass the survey pole method.
11.5.1 c
is suitable for a compass base is calibration method
During manufacture the earths magnetic field will soft iron effect hard iron effect. variation effect.
11.5.1 magnetize some components of the aircraft b
permanently, this magnerisation is termed:
Some aircraft parts are magnetised temporarily and lose Magnetic Variation. Hard Iron Effects Soft Iron effects.
11.5.1 their magnetism when the magnetizing force is c
removed. This magnetism is termed
11.5.1 Components P,Q, and R are caused by: Coefficient A. Soft Iron Effects Hard Iron Effects. c
The quantity (Deviation N - Deviation S) divided by 2 is Coefficient A. Coefficient C Variation
11.5.1 b
referred to as:
Fluid is used in direct reading compasses to improve visibility. dampen movement of allow for altitude
11.5.1 b
the compass card variations
In the base of a Direct reading compass are 4 magnets. Damp the movement. Correct for coefficient A. Correct for coefficients
11.5.1 c
The purpose of these is to: B and C.
When swinging a standby compass, errors on North are rotating the compass adjusting the adjusting the azimuth
11.5.1 b
usually removed by around its vertical axis compensator magnets card
 During a compass swing Coefficient 'A' is calculated so Deviation errors on Deviation errors on Mechanical miss -
that the compass can be adjused for: West and East. North and South. alignment of the
11.5.1 compass with the c
aircraft center-line.
When making correction adjustments on a Direct Use a tool made from a Ensure that the aircraft Ensure that all electrical
11.5.1 Reading compass you should always: non - magnetic is on a North heading. systems are switched a
material. off.
Compass swings are carried out to minimise the errors in eliminate all the errors ensure that the aircrafts
calibration of the aircraft in calibration of the compass system is
11.5.1 compass system. aircraft compass accurate on N,S,E,W a
system. only.
When carrying out a compass swing it is important to Only that the aircraft is Only that the control The aircraft is as close
ensure: fully fueled. locks are installed. as possible to its
11.5.1 normal level flying c
configuration.
When using a Datum/Landing compass to carry out a By checking its By observing a distant Datum/Landing
compass swing on the aircraft, how do you ensure the calibration date. object and taking a compasses are far
Datum/Landing compass is accurate ? reading and comparing more accurate than
11.5.1 that with the bearing on aircraft compass a
a chart. systems and therefore
they are accurate.

When carrying out a compass swing with a Lining up the Vertical Lining up the left Either (a) and (b)
Datum/Landing compass on a light aircraft it must be Stabilizer with the wingtip with the anti
11.5.1 aligned with the compass on every sighting.This can be center of the cockpit collision light in the a
achieved by: window in the sight. sight.
Compass Swing procedures for a Direct Reading Different in that remote Different in that a The same.
compass for a Remote Reading compass are: reading compass remote reading
11.5.1 swings, must be carried compass must be c
out using an electronic checked at intervals of
test set. 30 deg.
 A Compass Deviation (Steer by) card: Must be completed Must be completed Is used to record the
after a compass swing after a compass swing readings of the Datum
and stored away as a and attached to, or near compass as we carry
record of the compass the compass. out the compass swing.
11.5.1 swing and the compass These values are then b
accuracy. used to calculate
coefficients A, B, C.

Remote Reading compasses are so named as they Remote sensing units They are mounted They can be operated
11.5.1 have: called flux valves. remotely in the cockpit. remotely. a

Remote Reading Gyro - magnetic Compasses: Use a directional gyro Stabilise the gyro with Stabilise the magnetic
to stabilise the information from the compass with
11.5.1 magnetic heading standby compass. information from the a
information from the flux valve.
flux valve.
A Flux Valve can be described as a: A wheel shaped device A fluid filled device, with A valve that opens and
made of ferrous a magnet suspended closes causing a
material with three on a jewel pivot in the magnetic flux to be
11.5.1 spokes and the rim cut centre of the device. generated. a
into three equal parts.

In a fixed wing aircraft the Flux valves are typically At the wingtips In the avionics bay In the HSI (Horizontal
11.5.1 a
located. Situation Indicator)
A Compass Coupler, is designed to: Determine the aircraft Cross couple both Connect the output of
heading by measuring number one and the directional gyro to
the output of the flux number two compass the RMI (Radio
11.5.1 valve then precess the systems in the event of Magnetic Indicator) and a
directional gyro to a failure of one system. HIS (Horizontal
synchronies it with the Situation Indicator).
aircraft heading.
 The two adjustment screws in the front of a direct Moving the jewel pivot Moving the jewel pivot Moving two magnets
reading compass are used to calibrate the compass. up and down causing left and right causing under the compass and
11.5.1 These screws achieve this by: the compass card to be the compass card to be therefore causing the c
deflected. deflected. compass to be
deflected.
Which two common cockpit instruments receive heading R.M.I and H.S.I. A.D.I. and V.S.I. H.S.I. and A.D.I.
11.5.1 information signals from the flux valve/DG (remote) a
compass system?

Angle of attack indication, stall warning systems;

11.5.1 2
" Angle of attack" (AOA) probes are normally located: on the outside of the inside the cockpit of the on the horizontal
11.5.1 a
fuselage. aircraft. stabilizer.
Vibrating reed stall warning systems vibrate the control use air pressure to use accelerometers to
column to warn the pilot sense imminent stall sense imminent stall
11.5.1 of imminent stall conditions conditions b
conditions
Vane operated stall warning systems activate an electric the vibrating reed is the vane is pushed the vane is pushed
11.5.1 c
warning horn in the cockpit when energised downward upwards
11.5.1 An aircraft stalls when it reaches a critically low angle of attack. low flying speed high angle of attack. c
"Stick shakers" are used to warn the pilot of an automatically push only on swept-wing, T-
imminent stall down the aircraft nose tailed jets.
11.5.1 when approaching stall a
conditions.
Stall warning systems all work on the principle of angle of attack. airspeed. mach number.
11.5.1 a
measuring the aircraft's
As the aircraft's angle of attack increases the stagnation remains the same. moves up. moves down.
11.5.1 c
point on the wing:
"Vane-type" angle of attack sensors are usually found aircraft with limited small aircraft. large aircraft.
11.5.1 b
on: electrical power.
"Stick pushers" are designed to assist the pilot in warn the pilot of an prevent stalls from
11.5.1 c
recovering from a stall. impending stall developing.

11.5.1 2 Other aircraft system indication.

 Level C warnings displayed on EICAS require immediate are accompanied by an are advisory
11.5.1 c
attention audible tone
Pressing the cap of the Master Caution light of a cancels the Master cancels the Master will switch off the
Centralised Warning System: Caution and the system Caution and resets it to Centralised Warning
11.5.1 fault light allow subsequent faults System a
to be shown
One of the critical settings monitored by the take-off pitch trim airspeed setting aileron trim
11.5.1 a
warning system is the
The purpose of a Ground Proximity Warning System alert the pilot if the alert Air Traffic Control initiate automatic
(GPWS) is to: aircraft is too close to when the aircraft is avoiding action when
11.5.1 the ground descending too rapidly the aircraft is in danger a
of crashing.
Ground Proximity Warning System (G.P.W.S.) alert the an aural warning such activating a warning a flashing red message
11.5.1 crew to unsafe flight conditions by a red warning light as "Pull Up", "Sink horn in the cockpit on the GPWS indicator. a
and Rate" etc.
A GPWS system requires light and bell aural signals only aural signals which may
11.5.1 be supplemented by c
visual signals
11.5.2 1 (4Q) Avionic Systems
Fundamentals of system layouts and operation of:
11.5.2 1
11.5.2 1 Basic Radio & Radar principles (1Q) (Not in 66)
Radio waves are magnetic fields only electro-static fields only a combination of both
11.5.2 magnetic and electro- c
static fields
Which type of radio waves are used for line - of - sight Sky waves Space waves Ground waves
11.5.2 b
communication?
The most common form of radio inteference on aircraft electrical noise. precipitation static. mutual radiation
11.5.2 b
radio systems is caused by:
Radio waves can be propagated by sky waves, sound ground waves, ground waves, sky
11.5.2 waves and power longitudinal waves and waves and space c
waves. transverse waves. waves.
With reference to antenna length: the higher the the higher the the greater the power
11.5.2 frequency, the shorter frequency the longer the longer the antenna. a
the antenna the antenna.
 Aircraft radio systems are used for communications between the cockit and between the aircraft and navigation
11.5.2 cabin crew and Air Traffic Control c
only
Which of the following services can be provided by Communication, Navigation, Weather Communications,
aircraft radio systems? Navigation and Avoidance and Height Navigation and
11.5.2 Temperature above ground Airspeed measurement. b
Measurement Measurement
For each frequency there is a particular length of the capacitive the capacitive the inductive reactance
conductor that will be resonant. This length is where: reactance is equal to reactance is equal to is equal to the
11.5.2 the inductive reactance. the resistance. resistance. a

Radio waves carry information (intelligence) by producing ground modulation of the producing space waves
11.5.2 b
waves. carrier wave.
Which of the following waves is used for long range Sky waves. Space waves. Ground waves.
11.5.2 a
radio communication?
The behavior of a radio wave when it leaves the Modulation. Propagation. Reflection.
11.5.2 b
antenna is called:
Radio waves travel at the speed of sound. the speed of light a speed that depends
11.5.2 b
on the wavelength.
A radio wave consists of: An electromagnetic An electrostatic wave Both an
wave only. only electromagnetic wave
11.5.2 and an electrostatic c
wave.
The Voltage Standing Wave Ratio (VSWR) of an efficiency peak power output modulation amplitude
11.5.2 a
antenna system is a measure of its
The ideal length for an antenna is: Half the wavelength of One eigth of the Equal to the wavelength
the radio wave it is wavelength of the radio of the radio wave it is
11.5.2 transmitting or wave it is transmittng or transmitting or a
receiving. receiving. receiving..

The VSWR of a fixed radio antenna system will change power. modulation. frequency.
11.5.2 c
with the transmitted wave's:
Faulty coaxial cables or connectors fitted to aircraft increase the VSWR and increase the VSWR and decrease the VSWR
11.5.2 radio antennae will increase the transmitted decrease the and decrease the b
power transmitted power transmitted power
 The area of metal surrounding the base of a 1/4 wave directional loop. parabolic reflector ground plane
11.5.2 c
antenna is termed a
An antenna that must be able to operate over a range of Antenna efficiency is The antenna The antenna VSWR is
frequencies such as VOR is designed so that: optimised as far as propagates ground above 6 : 1 over the
11.5.2 possible over the waves over the frequencies covered. a
frequency range frequencies covered.
required.
In a large transport aircraft which antennae are normally Localiser and Radio altimeter and ATC and DME.
11.5.2 located with the weather radar scanner inside the Glideslope antennae VOR. a
radome?
Static discharge wicks are located: On the nose of the On the nose and At the trailing edges of
aircraft. fuselage of the aircraft. the wing, horizontal and
11.5.2 vertical stabilizers. c

Antennas of radio systems transmitting on the same precipitation static induced EMF mutual radiation
11.5.2 frequency bands should be located as far apart as interference. interference c
possible.This is to reduce:

11.5.2 1 - Auto Flight (ATA 22)

11.5.2 The inputs required for a radio-coupled autopilot are ADF and ILS ADF and VOR ILS and VOR c
On a Fly By Wire system, the stabiliser trim is controlled ELAC ELAC and SEC SEC
11.5.2 b
by the
Fly By Wire systems in the fully active mode, the both be active one in active mode, one both be in damping
11.5.2 actuators will in damping mode mode, awaiting control b
inputs
Autopilots are normally classified as: Aircraft Flight Control Aircraft Instrument Aircraft Hydraulic
Systems, and are Systems, and are Systems, and are
therefore normally therefore normally therefore normally
11.5.2 serviced and serviced and serviced and b
maintained by Engine maintained by Avionics maintained by Engine
and Airframe technicians. and Airframe
technicians. technicians.
 An Autopilot computer for a particular Model of aircraft This is true as long as This is true as long as This is false. Autopilot
such as an A320-600 can be installed in any A320-600 the aircraft are the aircraft is the same computers are specific
aircraft: configured exactly the family i.e. any A320 to each aircraft. You
11.5.2 same and have the aircraft cannot interchange a
same type of engines. autopilot computers
between different
aircraft.

Autopilots are classified by: their complexity and the the size of aircraft they their complexity and the
11.5.2 number of axes of are fitted to. number of control a
rotation they control surfaces they control
Autopilots fitted to modern aircraft are designed to avoid mid-air collisions control pitch, roll and perform all aircraft
yaw. manoeuvering from
11.5.2 taxying out to taxying b
in.
Aircraft equipped with auto-throttle systems, must have: a Flight Management an Automatic Flight either an Automatic
System (FMS) Control System (AFCS) Flight Control System
11.5.2 installed. (AFCS) or a Flight c
Management System
(FMS) installed.
Which of the following components are part of an Servos Electronic Flight Both (a) and (b)
11.5.2 autopilot system? Instrument System a
(EFIS) displays.
Most modern large air-transport aircraft are fitted with one autopilot system three independent three Flight Director
capable of autopilot systems. systems driving one
11.5.2 automatically landing autopilot system. b
the aircraft.
In aircraft with hydraulic flight control systems, the electro-hydraulic mechanical-hydraulic vacuum operated
11.5.2 autopilot system operates the flight controls by means servos. servos. servos. a
of
In autopilot systems, the force needed to move the flight pilot computer servos
c
control surfaces is generally provided by the

11.5.2 1 - Communications (ATA 23)

 The primary voice communications system between an VHF Communications HF Communications satellite
11.5.2 aircraft and air traffic control is the system. system communications system a

The range of VHF communications is ground wave line of sight sky wave propagation
11.5.2 b
propagation distance distance
In a large aircraft with twin VHF systems, one antenna increase the range of balance the radio minimise mutual
11.5.2 is located on top of the fuselage and one below. This is communications. signals equally radiation between c
to antennae
H.F. radio antennae couplers are used to switch the antenna "tune" the electrical connect two sections of
signals between receive length of the antenna to antenna cable when
11.5.2 and transmit the frequency being they pass through an b
used aircraft bulkhead
The main components of a VHF communication system Transceiver Transceiver Transceiver
11.5.2 are: Antenna Antenna Antenna a
Control panel Indicator Antenna Coupler
11.5.2 The frequency range of an aircraft HF radio is 2 MHz to 30MHz 108 MHz to 135 MHz 2KHz to 30 KHz a
The No. 1 VHF communications control panel in the The No. 1 VHF radio The No. 1 VHF radio No. 1 VHF frequency in
cockpit is observed to have two frequency indication transmit frequency in active frequency in the the Left window and
11.5.2 windows. The numbers in these windows show: the Left window and its Left window and its No. 2 VHF frequency in b
receive frequency in the standby frequency in the right window.
right window. the right window.
On a large air transport aircraft the VHF The instrument panel. The aircraft cockpit. The Avionics Bay.
11.5.2 c
Transmitter/Receiver is located in:
Modern VHF tranceiver have an output power of 300 watts 5 - 20 watts 15 - 20 milli watts
11.5.2 b
approximately
Anyone operating HF equipment on the ground should have an observer in the ensure nobody is not operate VHF at the
11.5.2 cockpit working near the HF same time b
antenna
The main components of an H.F. communication system Tranceiver Receiver Tranceiver
are: Antenna Coupler Indicator Coupler
11.5.2 Control panel Antenna Control panel a
Antenna Control panel
HF voice communication systems are best used for long distances "line of sight" poor weather conditions
11.5.2 communications such as thunderstorms. a
 Airborne H.F. communication equipment use the band ground waves and sky ground waves and space waves and sky
11.5.2 a
of frequencies that produce a combination of waves. space waves. waves.
HF voice communication radios suffer from one H.F. radios cannot H.F radio is more H.F. radio transmission
disadvantage over VHF voice communication radios: communicate over long affected by atmospheric is line of sight.
distance. interference than V.H.F.
radio so that H.F.
11.5.2 communication may be b
totally lost during a
thunderstorm.

H.F. radio antennae couplers alter the apparent length capacitance and capacitance and inductance and
11.5.2 of antennae by varying the amount of inductance in the resistance in the resistance in the a
antenna system antenna system antenna system
HF communication systems typically have transmitters Lower than VHF Higher than VHF Similar to VHF
11.5.2 with output power: communication systems communication systems communication systems b

Selective calling systems (SELCAL) can be connected Only to the aircraft HF Only to the aircraft VHF Any of the HF and VHF
11.5.2 to: communication radios. communications radios. communication radios c

The aircraft Selective Calling system (SELCAL) Alerting the pilot that Alerting the pilot that Alerting the pilot that
operates by: there is an incoming there is an incoming there is an incoming
call on the ADF radios, call on the DME radios, call on either the HF or
11.5.2 by flashing a light and by flashing a light and VHF radios, by flashing c
sending a tone over the sending a tone over the a light and sending a
cockpit speakers. cockpit speakers. tone over the cockpit
speakers.

How does the SELCAL system on a particular aircraft Each aircraft is The SELCAL system The calling station is
know that the incoming call is for the aircraft? assigned a dedicated listens for a assigned a dedicated
code, the SELCAL transmission and when code. When the
11.5.2 system listens for this it is received alerts the SELCAL at the calling a
code and when it is pilot. station receives the
received alerts the pilot. code it alerts the pilot.
 What is the purpose of the aircraft Selective Calling To alert the pilot that To alert the ground To listen for voice
(SELCAL) system? someone is trying to station that a pilot is transmissions from
11.5.2 contact his aircraft. trying to contact them ground stations, freeing a
from an aircraft. the pilot from this task.

The Flight Interphone system on a passenger aircraft the flight crew and the ground staff when they flight crew members,
provides communication between passenger are servicing the aircraft and connects them to
11.5.2 compartment. the aircraft radio c
systems.
On large transport aircraft, maintenance staff can Service Interphone Cabin Interphone Flight Interphone
11.5.2 a
communicate with each other by using the system. system. system.
Emergency Locator Transmitters (ELT's) transmit signals to the are used by air-sea enable rescue teams to
control tower during rescue aircraft to locate find crashed aircraft
11.5.2 emergency landings. crashed aircraft under over land. c
water
Emergency Locator Transmitters (ELT's) are normally rear of the fuselage wingtips top of the tailplane
11.5.2 a
installed at the
Before testing an Emergency Locator Transmitter (ELT) inform the local Air inform local air/sea ensure there are no
11.5.2 on the ground, you must Traffic Control tower rescue service aircraft refueling nearby a

Aircraft Cockpit Voice Recorders (CVRs) record only communications only sounds made in sounds in the cockpit
made over the flight the cockpit. and communications
11.5.2 interphone and radio made over the flight c
systems. interphone and radio
systems.
The entire Cockpit Voice Recorder tape can be erased Pushing the 'Erase' Pushing the 'Erase' Pushing the 'Erase'
by: button on the control button on the control button on the control
panel when the aircraft panel anytime power is panel when the aircraft
11.5.2 is on the ground (weight on the aircraft. is airborne (Landing a
on the squat switch), Gear Up).
and the park brake is
set.

When immersed in water, Underwater Locating a flashing strobe light an acoustic signal of an emergency radio
11.5.2 b
Beacons (ULB's) emit 37.5 KHz signal of 121.5 MHz
 Cockpit Voice Recorders and Flight Data Recorders are avionics compartment cockpit rear of the fuselage
11.5.2 c
generally located in the
The "area microphone" in a Cockpit Voice Recorder cockpit sounds such as radio conversations announcements made
system records switches being moved between the flight crew over the Passenger
11.5.2 and aural warnings. and air traffic control. Address (PA) system. a

Flight Data Recorders (FDR's) record audible sounds in the multiple aircraft the cause of aircraft
11.5.2 b
cockpit parameters crashes.
Under normal operating conditions, the aircraft Flight one or more engines power is put on the the aircraft takes off.
11.5.2 a
Data Recorders starts to record data when have been started. aircraft.
Cockpit Voice Recorders and Flight Data Recorder blue orange black
11.5.2 b
cases are painted:

11.5.2 1 - Navigation Systems (ATA 34)

Area Navigation systems (RNAV), work by integrating IRU, GPS & machmeter EFIS, FMS & ADF DME, VOR & altimeter
c
information taken from the aircraft's
In typical light aircraft Area Navigation System the VOR and ILS receivers VOR receivers and ILS and Glideslope
11.5.2 b
sensors are: DME receivers. receivers.
The three segments of the Global Positioning System Ground Segment Control Segment Ground Segment
11.5.2 are Orbital Segment Space Segment Space Segment b
User Segment User Segment Airborne Segment
To determine 3-dimensional positioning with GPS, the 2 satellites 3 satellites. 4 satellites.
11.5.2 receiver must receive signals from a minimum of : c

Global Positioning Systems (GPS) are normally used to 2-dimensional position 3-dimensional position 4-dimensional position
11.5.2 b
determine an aircraft's
The Automatic Direction Finding A.D.F. radio system is Navigational radio Navigational radio Communicationl radio
a: system designed to system designed to find system which gives the
indicate to the pilot the the geographical pilot the ability to listen
Bearing of the ground position to broadcast band
11.5.2 station that the ADF Latitude/Longitude of Radio stations. a
receiver is receiving. the ground station the
ADF receiver is
receiving.
 In Automatic Direction Finding systems (ADF), the ground-based, Non Non Directional Beacon Navigation Data Bus
11.5.2 abbreviation NDB refers to the Directional Beacon. fitted to the aircraft fitted to the aircraft a

ADF systems receive transmissions from ground-based directional radio non-directional radio FM commercial radio
11.5.2 b
beacons beacons stations
In an aircraft ADF system which equipment determines The aircraft ADF The ground station The geographical
(calculates) the bearing of the received station ? equipment. equipment by its location of the ground
11.5.2 transmission. station on aeronautical a
charts.
An aircraft ADF antenna system consists of: A Loop Antenna only A Sense antenna only Both a Loop antenna
11.5.2 c
and a Sense antenna.
11.5.2 In an A.D.F. system, the directional antenna is the loop antenna sense antenna VHF antenna a
The pilot want to get the best possible reception of Tune the A.D.F. control Tune the A.D.F. control The A.D.F equipment is
weather information being broadcast from an A.D.F. panel to the frequency panel to the frequency unable to receive voice
ground station (N.D.B.). How would the pilot use his of the ground station of the ground station communication and
aircraft A.D.F. equipment to do this. and select the ADF and select the ADF would thus be useless.
11.5.2 antenna selector to the antenna selector to the b
LOOP antenna position. SENSE antenna (ANT)
position.

What is the MAIN purpose of the ADF Sense antenna ? To eliminate station To provide the ability to To indicate ground
11.5.2 direction Ambiguity listen to ground station station direction a
(180 error). information.
ADF information is displayed to the pilot as a heading on an deviation on an bearing information on
instrument with a lubber instrument with a an instrument with a
11.5.2 line and compass card. deviation bar and bearing pointer and c
compass card. compass card.
A pilot wishes to fly his aeroplane directly towards the The arrow of the The arrow of the The North of the
ground station N.D.B. his A.D.F. equipment is tuned to. bearing pointer must be bearing pointer must be azimuth card must be
11.5.2 What must be displayed on his R.M.I.? lined up with North on lined up with the lined up with the b
the azimuth card. instrument lubber line. instrument lubber line.
One of the main advantages of a VOR system It can receive normal It can operate over It is less affected by
compared with an ADF system is: broadcast stations, longer ranges. thunderstorms and
11.5.2 such as the local radio atmospheric conditions. c
station.
 Airborne VOR receivers determine which VOR radial By measuring the By measuring the By detecting the
the aircraft is on: Heading difference Phase difference difference in strength
between the reference between the reference between the 90 Hz and
11.5.2 and rotating signals and the rotating signals 150 Hz modulated b
transmitted by the transmitted by the signals.
ground station. ground station.

A VOR radial is a magnetic referenced line that radiates outwards from points towards a ground radiates in all directions
11.5.2 a ground station station. from an aircraft a

When discussing navigation, a Bearing is described as: A direction from a A distance from a A direction from a
certain place to another certain place to another certain place to another
11.5.2 place and is measured place and is described place and is described a
in degrees. in nautical miles. in nautical miles.

A Heading is described as: The path on which The direction in which The magnetic bearing
11.5.2 something is traveling. something is pointing. to or from some other b
point.
Without reference to any other airborne system or 1) Which VOR radial 1) Which VOR radial 1) Which VOR radial
equipment (ie with the V.O.R. In automatic mode) a the aircraft is presently the aircraft is presently the aircraft is presently
VOR receiver can determine and display on an R.M.I.: on. on. on.
2) If the aircraft is Left 2) If the aircraft is Left
or Right of a selected or Right of a selected
11.5.2 radial. radial. c
3) If the aircraft is
traveling to or from the
tuned VOR ground
station.

An R.M.I. (Radio Magnetic Indicator) displays: VOR Deviation and VOR and/or ADF D .M. E. Deviation and
11.5.2 To/From information. Bearing information. To/From information. b

VOR Deviation information provides the pilot with: Information showing the Information showing the Information showing the
pilot if he is flying Left pilot what radial he is pilot if he is Left or
11.5.2 or Right of a selected on from a selected Right of a selected a
VOR Radial. VOR station. Heading he is flying
along.
 Instrument Landing Systems I.L.S. assist the pilot to: See the runway ahead. Navigation from airport Land the aircraft in
11.5.2 to airport. conditions of low c
visibility.
Localiser signals Direct the pilot: Down the centerline of Down the glide path. To the Outer Marker
11.5.2 a
the runway. beacon.
An ILS (Instrument Landing System) receiver Detecting the difference By measuring the Detecting the difference
determines if the aircraft is Left or Right of the runway in strength between the Phase difference in strength between the
centerline by: localizer 90 Hz and 150 between the reference glide slope 90 Hz and
11.5.2 Hz modulated signals. and the rotating signals 150 Hz modulated a
transmitted by the signals.
ground station.

ILS Steering information is displayed on: The aircraft R.M.I. The aircraft H.S.I. The aircraft A.D.I.
11.5.2 (Radio Magnetic (Horizontal Situation (Attitude Director b
Indicator). Indicator). Indicator).
An airborne ILS system consists of the following 1) ILS Receiver 1) ILS Receiver 1) ILS Receiver
components: 2) VOR Control panel 2) ILS Control panel 2) VOR Control panel
3) Glideslope Antenna 3) ILS Antenna 3) Glideslope Antenna
11.5.2 4) Localiser Antenna 5) HSI for displaying 4) RMI for displaying a
5) HSI for displaying heading information. bearing information.
steering information.

Airport ILS systems and airborne ILS installations are What degree of training What degree of What degree of visibility
given different Categories. These categories define: the pilot must have to accuracy the system the pilot must have to
11.5.2 land the aircraft. must have to land the land the aircraft. c
aircraft.
Marker Beacon transmitters are: Only located at airports. Only located en-route to Located at reference
airports. points on the ground for
11.5.2 aircraft flying directly c
overhead.
Marker beacon receivers installed on aircraft: Are tuned to different Only receive on one A tuned to different
11.5.2 frequencies by the VOR frequency 75 Mhz. frequencies by the ILS b
control panel. control panel.
There are several different types of Marker Beacon Different modulation Different transmitter Different beam shapes.
11.5.2 transmitters. The difference between them is that they frequencies. frequencies. a
have:
 Outer and Middler Marker Beacons are: Located along the side Located along a Located along the
of the runway allowing navigation route approach to an airport,
11.5.2 an approach pattern to signifying the aircraft signifying that the c
be flown. has passed over certain aircraft is lined up with
waypoints. the runway.
An aircraft's Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) slant distance from the the surface distance bearing to a selected
measures and displays aircraft to a selected between the point on ground station.
ground station. the ground directly
11.5.2 below the aircraft and a a
selected ground station.

The Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) system low frequency band. radar frequency FM frequency band.
11.5.2 b
operates in the: (microwave) band.
A typical DME system on the aircraft consists of the DME Transceiver DME Receiverr DME Transceiver
following components: RMI Indicator DME Indicator DME Indicator
11.5.2 DME Antenna DME Antenna DME Antenna c
DME Control Panel DME Control Panel VOR Control Panel
11.5.2 DME Distance is displayed in: Nautical Miles Statute Miles Kilometers a
DME ground station transmitters are generally located on their own at airports alongside VOR on their own along
11.5.2 b
stations. navigation routes.
How does the pilot tune the DME transceiver to the By the tuning controls By the tuning controls By the tuning controls
11.5.2 different ground stations: on the ILS control on the DME control on the VOR control c
panel. panel. panel.
Most airborne DME systems include a DME Hold Enable the DME Enable the DME Enable the VOR
switch. The purpose of this switch is to: transceiver to remain transceiver to be tuned transceiver to remain
tuned to the present to a VOR ground tuned while altering the
11.5.2 ground station when the station. DME frequency. a
VOR is tuned to the
next VOR/DME ground
station.

DME distance is calculated by measuring the time taken the aircraft to a ground a ground station to the the aircraft down to a
11.5.2 for radar pulses to travel from station. aircraft and back to the ground station and back c
ground station. to the aircraft.
Typical useful range of a DME system is: 200 - 300 Nautical 500 - 800 Nautical 25 - 50 Nautical Miles
11.5.2 a
Miles Miles
 The aircrafts ATC system is a: Primary Radar system. Secondary Radar Altitude reporting
11.5.2 b
system. system.
The A.T.C system operates in the: Low frequency band. Radar frequency F.M. frequency band.
11.5.2 b
(microwave) band.
The A.T.C. system equipment on the aircraft consists of ATC Transceiver ATC Receiver ATC Transceiver
the following components: Antenna Antenna Antenna
11.5.2 ATC Control Panel ATC Control Panel VOR Control Panel a
Indicating Instrument .
The airborne A.T.C. system provides the ground Aircraft Position Aircraft Altitude Aircraft position
controllers with: Aircraft Track along a Aircraft Identification Aircraft Altitude
course Code Aircraft Identification
11.5.2 Aircraft Altitude Code b
Aircraft Identification
Code

Weather Radar is used: To Detect Weather To Detect other aircraft Only to provide a
ahead of the aircraft or that may be on a mapping facility for the
11.5.2 provide ground collision course with the pilot to aid navigation. a
mapping facilities. aircraft.
11.5.2 Weather Radar operates on what principle? Doppler Echo Radiation b
P Scan Weather Radar systems allow the pilot to see: Only the range and size Only the bearing of the Both the range and
11.5.2 of the weather target. weather target. bearing of the weather c
target and its size.
An airborne Weather Radar system consists of the Transmitter/Receiver Receiver Transmitter/Receiver
following components: Radar Antenna Radar Antenna Radar Antenna
11.5.2 Radar Indicator/ Display Coupler Coupler a
Radar Control Panel Radar Indicator or Control panel
Display
The Weather Radar Antenna is normally located: On the top of the On the nose of the Behind the leading
11.5.2 fuselage behind a aircraft behind a edge of the vertical b
fiberglass cover. fiberglass radome. stabiliser.
The Weather Radar Antenna is stabilised to: Enable the pilot to alter Compensate for Compensate for pitch
11.5.2 the antenna tilt. heading changes in the and roll changes of the c
aircraft. aircraft.
The Weather Radar Transceiver is connected to the Waveguide (Hollow Coaxial Cable. Antenna wiring.
11.5.2 a
Radar Antenna via a: rectangular tube)
 A Doppler Weather Radar Systems is more useful than Ground mapping Clear air turbulence and Turbulence associated
11.5.2 basic Weather radar because it is able to display: information. ground mapping. with storms. c

Longitudinal, aluminium strips are fitted to radomes to strengthen them protect them from improve detection of
11.5.2 b
lightning strikes weak radar signals
An aircraft Weather Radar systems must not be turned Only when the aircraft Only when aircraft is Whenever the aircraft is
ON: is in the hangar being refuelled or an in the hangar, when it is
11.5.2 aircraft nearby is being being refuelled or an c
refuelled. aircraft nearby is being
refuelled.
The ground mapping mode of a Weather Radar is landing the aircraft. general navigation flying low-level
11.5.2 b
normally used to assist the pilot in operations
The Weather Radar Gain Control : is used to Adjust the is used to Increase the Must never be used,
receiver gain manually range of the radar. the gain is always set to
so the pilot can detect the Auto position.
11.5.2 even the weakest a
signal, however it would
normally be left in the
Auto position.

Large Air Transport aircraft are normally fitted with dual The Number 1 system The Number 1 system One system is
Weather Radar systems: is usually set to detect is usually set to detect operational at a time
Weather while the Weather while the while the other system
11.5.2 Number 2 system is set Number 2 system is set is kept on standby, in c
to detect turbulence. to map mode. case of a failure.

On business Jets and other smaller type aircraft it is On the Weather Radar On the center pedestal In the instrument panel.
11.5.2 common to find the Weather Radar control panel Indicator. between the pilots. a
located:
Aircraft Radio Altimeter systems measure: Height above the Pressure Altitude in Height above whatever
11.5.2 beacon. thousands of feet. surface the aircraft is c
flying over.
Aircraft Radio Altimeter systems have a usable range of: the aircrafts maximum 2,500 ft 7500ft
11.5.2 b
operating altitude.
 An aircraft Radio Altimeter system consists of the Transmitter/Receiver Receiver Transmitter/Receiver
following components: Indicator Indicator Indicator
11.5.2 Transmit Antenna Control Panel Control Panel a
Receive Antenna Transmit Antenna Combined Transmit and
Receive Antenna Receive Antennas
Aircraft Radio Altimeter systems operate on the principle Bouncing radio waves Doppler effect, by Measuring the
of: off the surface below measuring the doppler barometric pressure
the aircraft and shift of radio waves outside the aircraft
measuring the time being reflected from the using radio waves and
11.5.2 taken for the radio wave ground below. converting this into a
to travel from the altitude information.
aircraft down to the
ground and back.

Aircraft Radio Altimeter Indicators are fitted with The Radio Altimeter The Radio Altimeter The Radio Altimeter
Decision Height (DH) setting knobs. When the aircraft system emits an aural system brings a red flag system turns ON the
reaches the Radio Altitude that has been set on the DH warning over the into view in the DH light on the
11.5.2 index: cockpit speakers indicator. indicator. c
repeating "Pull Up" "Pull
Up".

The purpose of a Ground Proximity Warning System alert the pilot if the alert Air Traffic Control initiate automatic
(GPWS) is to: aircraft is too close to when the aircraft is avoiding action when
11.5.2 the ground descending too rapidly the aircraft is in danger a
of crashing.
Ground Proximity Warning System (G.P.W.S.) alert the an aural warning such activating a warning a flashing red message
11.5.2 crew to unsafe flight conditions by a red warning light as "Pull Up", "Sink horn in the cockpit on the GPWS indicator. a
and Rate" etc.
Aircraft Traffic Alert and Collision Avoidance Systems alert the flight crew that alert the flight crew that alert the control tower
(T.C.A.S.) are designed to: the aircraft is in danger another aircraft is in the that two aircraft are on
11.5.2 of collision with the vicinity and it is a a collision course b
ground. potential hazard.
Traffic Collision and Avoidance Systems (TCAS) detect using Automatic primary radar systems interrogating other
other aircraft in the vicinity by Dircttion Finding (ADF) aircraft ATC and TCAS
11.5.2 receivers transponder equipment. c
 Aircraft Traffic Collision and Avoidance Systems (TCAS) a VSI indicator, by the ATC ground radar the aircraft weather
typically display detected aircraft on showing different indicator showing the radar indicator showing
11.5.2 shaped and colored codes and altitudes of the tracks of a
symbols representing surrounding aircraft. surrounding aircraft.
different threat levels.

11.6 3 (12Q) Electrical Power (ATA 24)

11.6 3 Electrical hardware (not in 66)
Electrical switches are rated by the force required to the maximum electrical the maximum voltage
operate them, power they can and current they can
11.6 measured in grams withstand, measured in withstand, measured in c
watts. volts and amps.
Micro switches generally require less than: 1/16 inch of movement 1cm of movement to 1 gram of force to
11.6 a
to operate. operate. operate.
Relays and solenoids are used to switch high currents by high currents by low currents by passing
passing only a small passing a high current a high current through
11.6 current through the through the the electromagnet coil. a
electromagnet coil. electromagnet coil.
Aircraft electrical switches are normally installed such upwards downwards towards the rear of the
11.6 that when they are switched to "ON," the direction of the aircraft a
toggle is
Slow blow fuses are designed to rupture when the continuous current high voltage "spikes" short surges of current
11.6 a
exceeds their rating occur occur
Slow blow fuses can be recognised by a spring located at one the rating stamped on the lack of a spring in
a
end of the fuse. the side of the fuse. the fuse.
Circuit breakers used in 3-phase aircraft power systems large transient voltages equipment or excess current occurs
are designed to trip when occur on the DC bus components become in any phase c
bar overheated
In circuits where system status is shown by a light in the Toggle switches are Relays and solenoids Push switches are
11.6 c
switch itself: usually used. are needed. usually used:
Aircraft circuit breakers are designed to protect avionics prevent overheating of enable power supplies
11.6 equipment from aircraft wiring to be switched on and b
excessive voltages off
 Electrical switches used to operate aircraft emergency guarded with a spring- illuminated push-type micro switches
11.6 a
systems are normally loaded cover switches

11.6 3 DC & AC Motors & Actuators (not in 66)

Compared with a "continuous-duty" motor of the same will be smaller will get hotter will be larger
11.6 a
power rating, an "intermittent-duty" motor
Limit switches are used in actuators to limit the speed of the remove power from the limit the current drawn
motor by limiting the motor when the by the actuator motor to
11.6 voltage applied actuator reaches the prevent overheating b
limit of its travel
Compared with commercial motors of equivalent power smaller and lighter the same size but smaller but slightly
11.6 c
rating, aircraft electric motors are significantly lighter heavier
Brakes and clutches are fitted to aircraft actuator motors disconnect the power control their initial rate counter the momentum
to supply when they reach of acceleration when of moving parts.
11.6 the limit of their travel. applying power c

The Primary purpose of the commutator in a D.C. Motor provide an electrical rectify the DC output of provide an AC output
11.6 is to: connection to the the armature. voltage from the a
rotating armature. armature.
Brakes and clutches fitted to aircraft motors are electromagnetic coils. relays inertial switches
11.6 a
operated typically by

11.6 3 Batteries installation and operation;

The electrolyte in an electric cell does not conduct conducts electric does not conduct
electric current. current and is electric current but is
11.6 chemically altered by chemically affected by b
the electric current. an electric current.
The state of charge of a Nicad battery cannot be detemined in can be found from the can be found from the
11.6 a
service. cell voltages. cell's specific gravity.
The electrolyte of a lead-acid battery in a fully lead sulphate water concentrated sulphuric
11.6 b
discharged state is mostly acid
 Service areas for Nicad batteries should be kept the gases emitted by a the chemicals used in the two types of battery
separate from Lead Acid batteries because the two types of battery the two types of battery require different room
11.6 can combine to form an can neutralise each temperatures for b
explosive mixture other charging.

PRIMARY cell batteries can be recharged cannot be recharged can deliver much larger
11.6 currents than b
secondary cells.
"Cell imbalance" in NiCad batteries is the difference in the size of individual electrolyte levels in voltages produced by
11.6 c
cells individual cells individual cells
The capacity of a battery used for a large aircraft is total electrical load current required to turn power required by the
11.6 c
determined primarily by the the engine emergency loads
When discharging, the active materials of a secondary converted into other destroyed not affected
11.6 a
battery cell are materials
When working on aircraft batteries in the battery room, eye protection and hard hats. Ear defenders
11.6 which of the following safety items are required? approved full frontal a
apron
Batteries Convert: Electrical energy into Chemical Energy into Potential Energy into
11.6 b
Potential Energy. Electrical Energy. Electrical Energy.
Which of the following types of batteries are used in Only Nickel - Cadmium Only Lead - Acid Both Lead - Acid and
aircraft electrical systems? batteries are used in batteries are used in Nickel - Cadmium
11.6 aircraft. aircraft. batteries are used in c
aircraft.
The voltage produced by a battery cell is determined by the size of the cell. the type of electrolyte the chemicals used to
11.6 c
used in the cell only. form the cell.
The purpose of vent holes in the caps of battery cells is allow gases to escape enable the cells to be seal the cell so that
to from the battery cells re-filled with electrolyte. nothing can escape.
11.6 while preventing a
electrolyte from spilling
out.
The negative lead of a battery must always be connected last and connected last and connected first and
11.6 b
disconnected last disconnected first disconnected last
 If a Nicad battery begins to overheat what should you Disconnect it from the Pour cold water over it Move the aircraft away
do ? electrical system immediately. from any fuel
11.6 immediately. installation as fast as a
possible.
Approximately every 100 - 300 flight hours a Nicad Topped up with Inspected to ensure the Reconditioned (Deep
battery should be: electrolyte to ensure battery connections are Cycled) to ensure
11.6 continued performance tight and have no optimum performance c
and reduce the risk of corrosion. and to correct any cell
thermal runaway. imbalances.
The state of charge of a lead acid battery is determined current that flows in a off-load voltage specific gravity of the
11.6 c
by measuring the standard resistor electrolyte
11.6 Battery capacity is measured in: Its total Cell voltage Ampere Hours Cell Specific Gravity. b
A ni-cad battery should be topped up with water only fully charged fully discharged below 35C.
11.6 a
when it is
Constant current battery chargers operate by: Maintaining a fixed Maintaining a constant Supplying a fixed
voltage across the voltage output across current to the battery for
11.6 battery terminals for an the battery for a fixed a fixed period of time. c
unlimited period of time. period of time.

What precautions must be observed when charging a The battery must be The battery must be The battery vent caps
Lead Acid battery? charged in a well charged in a must be sealed to
ventilated area because temperature controlled prevent hydrogen and
11.6 hydrogen and oxygen room as hydrogen and oxygen gases from a
gases are emitted oxygen gases are escaping during the
during the charging emitted during the charging process.
process. charging process.

The closed circuit (on load) voltage of a Nicad battery. Drops gradually during Remains nearly Drops to zero after the
the entire discharge constant during the battery has been
11.6 cycle. entire discharge cycle. discharged for 80% of b
its rated capacity.
Nicad batteries can suffer from a condition known as Excessive consumption The battery voltage Eventual explosion of
11.6 thermal runaway. Left un-checked this may result in: of electrolyte. reducing to zero. the battery. c
 What is the main advantage of a Nicad battery over a It can deliver more It is cheaper and easier It has a much higher
Lead Acid battery? power for the same size to maintain than a Lead internal resistance and
and weight of a Lead Acid battery. will therefore provide
11.6 Acid battery. more power for a given a
weight than a Lead Acid
battery.

Nicad battery Cell Imbalance, if left un-checked, can be When assembling The electrolyte levels The Nicad battery is
a factor in causing a thermal runaway. How do we Nicad batteries only are frequently checked regularly put through a
address the problem of Cell Imbalance ? cells that are of exactly by the maintenance "Deep Cycle" process.
11.6 the same size and program and kept c
capacity are used. topped up as
necessary.

Which of the following aircraft batteries must always Lead Acid battery. Nicad Battery Both (a) and (b)
have a ventilated enclosure when installed on an
11.6 aircraft, either the battery case itself must be vented or a
a vented battery enclosure must be installed ?
When removing a battery from an aircraft, the _______ negative positive largest
11.6 a
terminal should be disconnected first.

11.6 3 DC power generation;

The current flowing in the armature of a DC (Direct alternating current (AC) direct current (DC) proportional to the
11.6 Current) generator is: diameter of the a
armature wiring.
Commutator brushes used on DC Generators are high grade carbon carbon steel copper
11.6 a
typically made from
How would you determine if a generator brush requires When the generators By examining the wear By pitting and marks on
replacement ? output voltage has indicators on the brush, the generator
dropped below limits. to see if the brush commutator.
11.6 needs replacing before b
the next inspection.

11.6 3 AC power generation;

 Aircraft AC generators employ the principles of electro- mechanical energy into DC power from the electrical energy into
11.6 magnetic induction to convert electrical energy aircraft battery into AC mechanical energy a
power
The frequency of an AC generator is kept constant by quill shaft GCU (Generator CSD (Constant Speed
11.6 c
the Control Unit). Drive) unit.

11.6 3 Emergency power generation;

In the event of failure of a single generator in a split-bus APU (Auxiliary Power RAT (Ram Air Turbine) aircraft batteries
11.6 system, alternative power can be supplied to all its Unit) a
loads by the

11.6 3 Voltage regulation;

Primary electrical supply systems on large commercial single phase AC DC three phase AC
11.6 c
aircraft are usually
An IDG (Integrated Drive Generator) is a single unit voltage regulator. QAD (Quick Access CSD (Constant Speed
11.6 c
which combines the generator and its associated Adapter) ring Drive).
The excitation current required to operate a brushless a permanent magnet the aircraft's essential the voltage regulator in
11.6 generator is provided by: located in the AC BUS the Generator Control c
generator. Unit (GCU).
A CSD (Constant Speed Drive) maintains a constant maintains a constant produces variable
11.6 output torque. output speed for output speeds from a b
varying input speeds constant input speed
The purpose of quill shafts in the drive mechanism of ensure a consant speed ensure the generator protect the engine
aircraft generators is to drive to the generator. output voltage is kept accessory gearbox from
11.6 within strict limits. damage if the generator c
armature seizes.

The difference between DC Alternators and DC D.C. Alternators only the field current in an D.C. Alternators do not
Generators is that produce AC current. A.C. Alternator is use brushes.
11.6 supplied to the rotor, b
not the stator.
How is a Constant Speed Drive (CSD) reconnected It cannot be By pushing the CSD By pulling the CSD
11.6 a
after being disconnected in flight? reconnected in flight. disconnect handle reconnect handle.
 One advantage of using brushless generators is reduced friction on the the elimination of arcing they don't need a CSD.
11.6 commutator. at high altitudes. b

11.6 3 Power distribution;

The term "Power Distribution System" relates to the to all electrical only to flight-critical and convert it to
system of bus bars and connectors used to transfer equipment fitted to the electrical equipment mechanical power for
11.6 electrical power from the aircraft generators and aircraft driving control surfaces, a
batteries undercarriage, etc.

Single-wire electrical distribution systems are commonly used on connect the positive have no earth return
both metallic and voltage to equipment by path.
composite-skinned insulated conductors
11.6 aircraft to save weight. and the negative return b
path is via the airframe.

The electrical power system is one of the most critical each generator must it is extremely important the requirements of the
systems found on a modern aircraft and a complete only be operated to that the generator electrical system are
11.6 electrical failure would be catastrophic. For this reason: 70% of its capacity. buses are cooled by specified by c
ram air. international regulatory
authorities
The electrical load of an aircraft is the sum of all the the sum of all the the total power
continuous loads that possible loads that can available from all the
11.6 can be operating at any be operating at any one generators and b
one time time. batteries fitted to the
aircraft
The continuous electrical load of an aircraft should 80% of the generator's 50% of the generator's the generator's rated
11.6 c
never exceed rated output. rated output. output.
On a large commercial aircraft, which of the following flight-essential emergency hydraulic emergency lighting
11.6 c
would be connected directly to the battery? communication radios pumps systems
Three phase current transformers in power distribution detect variances in detect variances in convert three phase AC
11.6 systems are used to phase current between frequency between into DC a
multiple generators multiple generators
 The purpose of a TRU (Transformer Rectifier Unit) is to convert AC power to isolate different AC smoothe the output
11.6 DC for specific circuits buses from each other. from DC generators a
on the aircraft.
Split-bus power distribution systems are more single engined, light large aircraft with three large, twin engined
11.6 c
commonly found on: aircraft. or more engines. aircraft.
Split-bus power distribution systems use a single generator can tolerate variance of use two generators
11.6 with the output split frequency better than driven by a single b
between two buses parallel systems engine
Standby buses are used to power the least critical aircraft the most critical aircraft emergency lighting
11.6 b
systems systems
In large transport aircraft, the power distribution system Bus Power Control Unit Generator Control Unit Transformer Rectifier
11.6 a
is typically controlled by a solid-state (BPCU) (GCU) Unit (TRU)

11.6 3 Inverters, transformers, rectifiers;

11.6 Static Inverters are solid state devices used to rectify AC voltages. convert AC to DC convert DC to AC c

11.6 3 Cicuit protection;

11.6 3 External/Ground power.

Equipment and Furnishings (ATA 26)

11.7 (8Q)
11.7a 2 (4Q) (Emergency Equipment & Seating)
11.7a 2 Emergency equipment requirements;
On large passenger aircraft, lifejackets are normally in the passenger in the lugage racks under passenger seats.
11.7a c
stowed: service units.
Emergency crank handles located in the cabin are red. yellow. black & white stripes
11.7a a
normally coloured:
 Cockpit escape ropes; Statement # 1: are located only statements 1, and only statements 1 is all statements are
above the cockpit side window areas for use by the 2 are correct. correct. correct.
11.7a flight deck crew, Statement # 2: are installed to a c
structural support member, Statement # 3:are usually of
sufficient quantity for each flight deck crew
Fight deck crew can evacuate an aircraft via removable panels in the escape ropes emergency exit doors in
11.7a b
windscreen the cockpit
Emergency escape hatches are usually designed to be only by crash rescue only from the inside of from both inside and
11.7a c
opened services the aircraft cabin. outside the aircraft.
Slip resistant walkways are incorporated on the upper passengers during maintenance over-wing gravity
11.7a surfaces of aircraft wings to assist emergency evacuation technicians when refuelling a
working on the wings
During an emergency evacuation, passengers can exit cabin windows. passenger entrance emergency exit doors
11.7a b
an aircraft through the doors. ONLY.
A door-mounted girt-bar: controls the actuation assists in opening opens the cockpit door
11.7a and deployment of the passenger entrance in an emergency. a
escape slide. doors.
Lifejacket manufacturers often recommend that a Inspected before further Rejected. Inspected, used once
11.7a lifejacket which has been subjected to abuse or has operational use. and then discarded. b
been immersed in sea water, should be:
Girt-bars are locked to the aircraft floor at all times whenever the door is whenever the door is
11.7a c
closed armed
Hydrostatic testing of gas cylinders used to inflate the manufacturer examining them for weighing them
11.7a a
lifejackets is carried out by exterior damage
Emergency escape hatches do not need an can only open from the can normally be opened
instruction plate inside of the aircraft from the inside and
11.7.a cabin outside of the aircraft c

During an emergency evacuation, passengers can exit cabin windows passenger entrance emergency exit doors
11.7.a b
an aircraft through the doors only
Emergency escape slides can be activated from outside the main cabin inside the main cabin either inside or outside
11.7.a b
only only of the main cabin
The escape slide pack consists of an inflation bottle is electrically activated can be inspected in situ is activated by a
11.7.a c
which lanyard
 A girt-bar is attached to the floor while the the floor of the aircraft the evacuation slide
passenger entry door is and an indication signal and must be secured to
11.7.a in the fully open is available to the pilot the aircraft floor during c
position flight
Emergency escape slides that are deployed before each flight annually on 10% of a at regular intervals of
11.7.a c
automatically must be functionally tested company's fleet less than 18 months

11.7a 2 Seats, harnesses and belts.

11.7a Seat harnesses used for flight deck crew are multi-point release three-point fixing single-point release c
Each crew seat on the flight deck must have: a four or five point an inertial reel at the the ability to swivel, or
harness and meet upper rear portion of turn 180 degrees and
11.7a strength requirements the seat as well as at lock in no fewer than a
the lower forward three positions
portion of the seat
Crew seats are never installed on are installed on rails, have seat travel stops,
11.7a tracks that are part of the c
secondary structure
Arm rests on the pilot and co-pilot seats are normally: fixed in one position. adjustable. electrically operated.
11.7a b
Passenger seats are secured to the floor seat rails by: bolts and nuts to ensure quick release locking locking wire
11.7a b
strong fitment. mechanisms.
Prior to installation, aircraft seat belts, lap belts, and cleaned with a strong tested for correct tested for correct
crew harnesses should be acidic soap and the operation and have operation and cleaned
attachment points to the their attachment points with a strong acidic
11.7a aircraft's structure to the aircraft's structure soap b
inspected for wear and inspected for wear and
security. security.

When re-stitching harnesses or lap belts, the new coincident with the at right angles to the parallel with the original
11.7a c
thread pattern must be original pattern original pattern pattern
Aircraft lap belts and harnesses should be cleaned with dilute washing up approved dry cleaning acid-free soap
11.7a c
detergent chemicals.
Each aircraft seat restraint must have a __________ single-point. dual-point. multi-point.
11.7a a
release for occupant evacuation.
11.7b 1 (4Q) (Furnishings & Equipment)
11.7b 1 Cabin layout;

11.7b 1 Equipment layout;

Passenger service units (PSU's) are normally mounted in a convenient central in the armrest of each in the roof above each
11.7b location for the cabin seat seat c
staff to operate them
Passenger Service Units (PSU's) on an aircraft provide audio and video provide a means of seat incorporate passenger
entertainment channels identification, cabin reading lights, light
assistant calling and switches, punkah
11.7b trays for meal louvres (air outlets) and c
consumption. oxygen drop-out masks
on pressurized aircraft

11.7b 1 Cabin Furnishing installation;

Information on cabin furnishings can be found in the QCAA Regulations Flight Operations Aircraft Maintenance
11.7b c
Manual Manual
Aircraft cabin components such as galleys, overhead shear ties tie rods high tensile bolts
11.7b storage bins and lavatories, are secured to the main b
structure by
The flight compartment, cabin and vestibule are To strengthen the For occupant comfort. To increase aircraft
11.7b b
soundproofed, trimmed and finished: aircraft fuselage. maximum weight.
Stowage compartment in the side consoles are normally Fiberglass. Steel. Aluminium-alloy.
11.7b a
constructed from:

11.7b 1 Cabin entertainment equipment;

Passenger entertainment systems must be fully serviceable at all overridden by the switched off during
11.7.b times passenger address thunderstorms b
system
 Passenger Service Units (PSU's) on pressurised aircraft provide audio and video provide a means of seat contain passenger
entertainment channels identification, cabin reading lights, light
assistant calling and switches, punkah
11.7.b trays for meal louvres (air outlets) and c
consumption. oxygen drop-out masks

11.7b 1 Galley installation;

The electrical supply to a galley must provide a high is always controlled by is permanently
current and is usually the cabin assistant who connected to allow use
turned on and off by a will switch it off in the of the galley to supply
11.7b galley master switch on event of electrical passengers with food a
the flight deck problems and drinks at all times

Special requirements for galley areas are oven temperature restricted access to sealed floors and
limiters to limit the allow only cabin drainage to prevent
11.7b temperature to assistants entry corrosion c
approximately 75% of
boiling point
Galley movement during flight is prevented by tie rods with built in tie rods with a multi-point point
11.7b mositure collectors temperature dissipation harness that resists a
properties heat and moisture
Aircraft galleys are particularly likely to be affected by electrical power corrosion caused by contamination of water
11.7.b b
interruptions spillage supplies
Galley movement during flight is prevented by tie rods with built-in tie rods with a multi-point harness
11.7.b moisture collectors temperature dissipation that is resistant to heat a
properties and moisture
The main electrical supply to an aircraft galley is a master switch on the thermal circuit breakers the main cabin staff
11.7.b a
normally controlled by flight deck in the oven

11.7b 1 Cargo handling and retention equipment;

Tie-down points in cargo compartments are provided: To secure cargo in To keep the cargo door To lock the cargo door
11.7b position. in the open position. in the close position. a
 The difference between a separation net and a is that a restraining net is that a separation net is none, they are
restraining net prevents cargo being provides for pressurised different names for the
loaded in restricted and unpressurised same cargo bay
11.7b areas but the cargo areas but the equipment b
separation net allows restraning net does not
flexible cargo stowage

11.7b Separation nets are used to secure cargo

11.7b The minimum load factor for cargo fittings is normally 12.6g 9g 4.5g c
Who is responsible for specifying the requirements The International Civil The National Aviation The aircraft
11.7b relating to fire protection qualities of cabin interiors? Aviation Authority Authority under which manufacturer b
the aircraft operates
The purpose of door sill latches in a cargo loading secure cargo containers prevent cargo doors activate the cargo
11.7b system is to: in position inside the from closing during the loading system. a
aircraft. loading phase.
A Power Drive Unit in a cargo control system is Cargo conveyance Guidance and Latching Control component.
11.7b a
classified as a: component. component.
In cargo loading systems roller tracks allow ball mats and ball strips roller tracks, ball mats
movement in transverse allow movement in and ball strips all allow
11.7b and longitudinal transverse and movement in one b
directions longitudinal directions direction only
On board cargo loading systems are designed to deal fragile cargo all passenger luggage pallets and containers
11.7b c
with
Restraining nets in the cargo compartment: Are fixed and cannot be Are used to secure the Keep the door area free
11.7b c
removed easily. cargo to the floor. for door opening.

11.7b 1 Airstairs.
The pressure for hydraulically-operated airstairs on a DC hydraulic pump a manually operated three phase AC
11.7b a
large transport aircraft is normally generated by pump hydraulic generator

11.8 (6Q) Fire Protection (ATA 26)

 Fire and smoke detection and warning
11.8a 3 (5Q) systems;
Thermal switches used for fire detection are heat- emit an audible alarm complete electrical automatically shut down
sensitive units that are designed to when exposed to circuits at a pre- electrical power when
11.8a smoke determined temperature triggered by flames. b

Thermal switches used for fire detection are connected in series with each in parallel with each in parallel with each
other and in parallel other and with the other and in series with
11.8a with the indicator lights. indicator lights. the indicator lights. c

The Kidde continuous-loop detection system utilizes one wire two wires three wires
11.8a ________ embedded in a special ceramic core within b
an inconel tube.
The Fenwal continuous-loop detection system dual single triple
11.8a surrounds a _______ wire with a continuous string of b
ceramic beads in an inconel tube.
In both the Kidde and Fenwal detection systems, the drops rises remains the same
resistance of the ceramic or eutectic salt core material
11.8a prevents electrical current from flowing at normal a
temperatures. In case of a fire or overheat condition, the
core resistance ________ and current
Smoke detection devices are classified by their method Construction Maintenance Detection
11.8a c
of
When a carbon monoxide detector that contains a green blue orange
11.8a a
yellow silica gel detects carbon monoxide it will turn
A contaminated carbon monoxide indicator should be replaced replenished by heating replenished by flowing
the chemicals until they oxygen through the
11.8a return to their normal chemicals until they a
colour return to their normal
colour
The fire detection system that senses temperature rise Fenwal continuous loop Lindberg continuous Thermocouple system
11.8a c
is called loop
 Thermocouple fire detection systems activate the generating a voltage a decrease in its expanding when heated
warning system by when heated resistance when heated to close a switch in an
11.8 electrical circuit a

Light refraction smoke detectors measure a reduction in sense light reflected use radiation induced
the amount of visible or from smoke particles ionization to detect the
11.8 infrared light in the passing through a presence of smoke. b
surrounding area. chamber.

The most common cause of false fire warnings in improper routing or moisture. dents, kinks, or crushed
11.8 continuous-loop fire-detection systems is clamping of loop. sensor sections. c

Which fire detection system operates on the principle Kidde continuous-loop Lindberg continuous- Thermal switch system
11.8 that the buildup of gas pressure within a tube is system element system b
proportional to its temperature?
Which of the following is NOT used to detect fires in the Smoke detectors Rate-of-temperature- Flame detectors
11.8 a
reciprocating engine nacelles? rise detectors
Which of the following fire detection systems measure Thermocouple Thermal switch Lindberg continuous
11.8 temperature rise compared to a reference temperature? element a

Two continuous-loop fire detection systems that will not Kidde and Lindberg Kidde and Fenwal Thermocouple and
11.8 b
test due to a broken detector element are the system system Lindberg system
Which of the following fire detection systems will detect Kidde and Kidde and Fenwal Thermocouple and
11.8 a fire when an element is inoperative but will not test thermocouple systems systems Lindberg systems b
when the test circuit is energized?
After a fire is extinguished, or overheat condition Must be manually reset Automatically resets Sensing component
11.8 removed in aircraft equipped with a Systron-donner fire must be replaced b
detector, the detection system
Smoke in the cargo and/or baggage compartment of an chemical reactor. photo-electric cell. gas sniffer.
11.8 b
aircraft is commonly detected by a
Engine fires are sensed by spot detectors continuous-loop either of the above
11.8 c
detectors
The Edison thermocouple-type fire detector system a preset high a preset rate of a preset infrared level is
11.8 triggers when temperature is reached temperature rise is detected b
detected
 Smoke detectors which use a measurement of light Electromechanical Photoelectrical devices Visual devices
11.8 b
transmission are called devices
What is the principle of operation of the continuous loop Fuse material which Core resistance A bimetallic
fire detector system sensor? melts at high material which prevents thermoswitch which
11.8 temperatures current flow at normal closes when heated to b
temperatures a high temperature

11.8a 3 Fire extinguishing systems;

The types of fire-extinguishing agents for aircraft interior water, carbon dioxide, water, dry chemical, water, carbon
fires are dry chemical, and methyl bromide, and tetrachloride, carbon
11.8 halogenated chlorobromomethane. dioxide, and dry a
hydrocarbons. chemical.
Built-in aircraft fire-extinguishing systems are ordinarily carbon monoxide halogenated sodium bicarbonate
11.8 b
filled with hydrocarbons
In reference to aircraft fire-extinguishing, only No. 2 is true. both No. 1 and No. 2 neither No. 1 nor No. 2
1) during removal or installation, the terminals of are true. is true.
discharge cartridges should
11.8 be grounded or shorted. b
2) before connecting cartridge terminals to the electrical
system, the system should be checked with a

A carbon dioxide fire extinguisher may be used on an metallic non metallic non magnetic
11.8 b
electrical fire if its horn is
What retains the nitrogen charge and fire-extinguishing Breakable disk and Pressure switch and Pressure gauge and
11.8 agent in a high rate of discharge (HRD) container? fusible disk check tee valve cartridge a

How is the fire-extinguishing agent distributed in the Spray nozzles and fluid Nitrogen pressure and Spray nozzles and
11.8 c
engine section? pumps slinger rings perforated tubing.
The most satisfactory extinguishing agent for a Carbon dioxide Dry chemical Methyl bromide
11.8 a
carburetor or intake fire is
 In the dual container aircraft fire extinguishing system, yellow red green
the safety discharge connection is capped with a
_______ indicating disk. If the temperature rises beyond
11.8 a predetermined safe value, the disk will rupture, b
dumping the extinguishing agent overboar

In the dual bottle, aircraft fire extinguishing system, a yellow red green
_______ disk discharge indicator port is used to
11.8 indicate that the system was fired from the cockpit. If a
the system was fired from the cockpit, this disk will be
missing.
Aircraft fire extinguishers are normally charged with carbon monoxide and freon and nitrogen sodium bicarbonate and
11.8 b
nitrogen carbon dioxide
What method is used to detect the thermal discharge of Discoloring of a yellow Rupture of a red plastic A thermal plug missing
11.8 a built in fire extinguisher system plastic disk in the side disk on the side of the on the side of the bottle b
of the fuselage fuselage
How are most aircraft turbine engine fire-extinguishing Electrically discharged Manual remote control Pushrod assembly
11.8 a
systems activated? cartridges valve
What is the operating principle of the spot detector Resistant core material A conventional A bimetallic
sensor in a fire detection system? that prevents current thermocouple that thermoswitch that
11.8 flow at normal produces a current flow closes when heated to c
temperatures a high temperature
The explosive cartridge in the discharge valve of a fire- A life-dated unit Not a life-dated unit Mechanically fired
11.8 a
extinguisher container is
The pulling out of an illuminated fire handle in a typical Closes all firewall Closes fuel shutoff, Closes fuel shutoff,
large jet aircraft fire protection system commonly shutoff valves, closes hydraulic shutoff, closes hydraulic shutoff,
accomplishes what events? disconnect the disconnect the closes oxygen shutoff,
11.8 generator and generator field, and disconnect the b
discharge a fire bottle arms the fire generator field and
extinguishing system arms the fire
extinguishing system

The colour coding for plumbing lines that carry fire Brown Yellow Red and Green
11.8 a
extinguishing agent is
The most satisfactory extinguishing agent for an Carbon tetrachloride Carbon dioxide Methyl bromide
11.8 b
electrical fire is
 A squib as used in a fire protection system is a A temperature sensing A device for causing the Probe for installing a
11.8 device extinguishing agent to frangible disk in the b
be released bottle

11.8a 3 System tests.

In some fire-extinguishing systems, evidence that the red disk on the side of green disk on the side yellow disk on the side
11.8 system has been intentionally discharged is indicated the fuselage. of the fuselage. of the fuselage. c
by the absence of a
On a periodic check of fire-extinguisher containers, the Release pressure if Replace the Increase pressure if
pressure was not between minimum and maximum above limits. extinguisher container. below limits.
11.8 limits. What procedure should be followed? b

Carbon dioxide extinguishes engine fires by lowering the displacing oxygen smothering the flames
11.8 b
temperature
Maintenance of a fire extinguishing system includes the Repair of damaged Removal of excessive Replacement of
11.8 c
sensing elements element material damaged elements
During a walk around inspection the fire bottle red disk the bottle was The bottle was The bottle is
11.8 is missing this means discharged to the discharged to overpressurized b
engine atmosphere
How would you know that the pressure in an engine fire by referring to the AMM by reading the pressure if the pressure rises too
bottle is correct? to correct the pressure gauge mounted on the high the safety disc will
11.8 for ambient temperature bottle blow out a

11.8b 1 (1Q) Portable fire extinguishers.

The charge in a portable fire extinguisher is checked by pressure testing weighing it hydrostatic testing
11.8 b

11.8 A fuel or oil fire is defined as a Class B fire Class A fire Class C fire a
If fuel is ignited in an engine nacelle it would be class A fire class B fire class D fire
11.8 b
classified as a
The correct way to shut an engine down if a fire occurs pull the fire handle move the throttle to idle move the start lever to
11.8 c
cutoff
While an engine is being started the most important EGT oil pressure RPM
11.8 a
parameter to monitor is
 In the event of a hung start, without exceeding EGT ignition exciter box starter power source engine run-down time
11.8 b
limits, you would check the
In the event of a tail-pipe fire during an attempted pull the fire handle and stop the engine and shut off fuel to the
ground run rotate it to discharge discharge a CO engine but leave the
11.8 the engine fire extinguisher into the starter engaged to c
extinguisher intake continue cranking
Water-based fire extinguishers must not be used on electric shock further spreading of the exploding pieces of
11.8 Class D fires because they can result in fire through fuel spillage metal c

11.9 3 (8Q) Flight Controls (ATA 27)

Primary controls: aileron, elevator, rudder, spoiler;
11.9 3
In a typical fly-by-wire system, the primary flight control hydraulic actuators electric motors control cables
11.9 a
surfaces are physically moved by
Using the fly-by-wire load alleviation function during only the ailerons to both ailerons and only the spoilers to
turbulent conditions causes move symmetrically spoilers to move move symmetrically
11.9 upwards symmetrically upwards upwards b

The front spar of a horizontal stabiliser is generally lighter heavier more flexible
11.9 a
__________ than its rear spar
11.9 3 Trim control;
Changes in aircraft fuel and weight distribution are balance weights trim tabs trim control systems
11.9 c
compensated for by
11.9 3 Active load control;

11.9 3 High lift devices;

Fowler flaps produce the greatest increase in lift at the beginning of their at the mid point of their when fully extended
11.9 a
extension extension
11.9 3 Lift dump, speed brakes;

System operation: manual, hydraulic, pneumatic,

11.9 3 electrical, fly-by-wire;
 Catastrophic failures of fly-by wire systems is avoided separate computers for multiple-redundancy mechanical backup
by using each control surface computing devices systems in parallel with
11.9 the electrical systems b

What type of flight control system is used mostly on Power-assisted Power-operated Manual
11.9 c
small, light aircraft such as the Piper Archer?
Fly by wire high speed protection is designed to prevent high speed stall increase the pitch angle prevent tuck under
11.9 as speed increases c

11.9 Pitch control of a fly-by-wire system is achieved by elevators only stabilizer and elevator stabilizer only b

Artificial feel, Yaw damper, Mach trim, rudder limiter,

11.9 3 gust locks systems;
The output of the Dutch Roll filter in a simple yaw shaper/processor circuit fixed-gain servo variable-gain servo
11.9 c
damper system is fed to the rudder controls via a amplifier amplifier
11.9 Dutch roll is minimized on many aircraft by the mach trim system yaw damper speed control system b
The gain of the yaw damper computer is varied by the airspeed altitude output from the gyro
a
A "series" yaw damper system moves both the rudder and the both the rudder and only the rudder
11.9 c
rudder pedals ailerons
In a power-assisted flight control system, what benefit It can provide a means It will engage When engaged it will
does a "feel" system provide to the pilot other than the of manual backup in the automatically to relieve provide the pilot with a
11.9 sense of actually moving the control surfaces without event of normal system the autopilot system definite impulse on a
hydraulic assistance? failure during critical touchdown
maneuvers
"Feel" is designed into an aircraft's flight control system during turbulent flying on touchdown avoid over-controlling
11.9 c
to help the pilot conditions the aircraft

11.9 3 Balance and rigging;

If ailerons are rigged to move the same degree up as they will overcome the aircraft would it is termed upfloat
down: adverse yaw attempt to turn right
11.9 when the control is b
moved to the left
 When rigging large aircraft, static balance is achieved tab devices. static dischargers counter-weights
11.9 by fitting _________ to the control surfaces. c

Following repairs on a flight control system, the system checked for washout balanced checked to ensure that
must be: the same amount of
11.9 weight is added to the b
opposite surface.
When rigging an aircraft, the protractor should be aircraft in a level flight aileron in the fully down aileron in the neutral
11.9 c
zeroed with the attitude position position
"Rigging" checks are carried out on aircraft control the rigging pins can be moving parts are friction moving parts do not
11.9 surfaces to ensure that correctly fitted before free excxeed their limits of c
flight travel
11.9 3 Stall protection/warning system.
The main parameter monitored in stall warning systems airspeed angle of attack altitude
11.9 b
is

11.10 3 (8Q) Fuel Systems (ATA 28)

11.10 3 Basic properties of aircraft fuel (not in 66)
11.10 Volatility is the property of a liquid to vaporise solidify ignite a
Detonation of fuel can occur when a low rating of fuel is its lead content is too the engine r.p.m. is too
11.10 a
used high high
In fuel with an octane rating of 80/87, the number 80 lean mixture rich mixture operating mixture
11.10 a
indicates its anti-knock rating for a
The 'octane rating' of AVGAS relates to its waxing point ability to disperse water anti-knock value
11.10 c

11.10 Avgas 100 is dyed red blue green c

11.10 Avgas 100 LL is dyed red blue green b
11.10 Jet A-1 aircraft fuel is red green colourless c
Compared with petrol used in cars, the volatility of "Jet higher lower the same
11.10 b
A" fuel is
Water occurs in aviation fuel in two forms, diluted and free free and dissolved dissolved and
11.10 b
vapourised
 The density of fuel increases with a increases with an is not affected by
11.10 decrease in increase in temperature temperature a
temperature
11.10 Vapour locks in fuel lines could be caused by heat evaporation pressure a
Carburettor icing can be caused by high volatility of the fuel low outside temperature engine cooling air
11.10 entering the carburettor b

Fuels for turbine engines are susceptible to increased viscocity of high vapour pressure microbial contaminants.
11.10 the fuel at high altitudes c

Microbial growth in jet fuel is minimised by using anti-icing and anti purging the fuel with keeping the fuel tank
11.10 bacterial additives. carbon dioxide topped up. a

A cloudy fuel sample indicates the presence air oil water

11.10 c
of____________ in the fuel.

11.10 3 System layout;

A turbine-powered aircrafts fuel system must provide 110% 100% 150%
11.10 _______ of the fuel required, un-interrupted, for its b
operation in all flight attitudes.
11.10 Gravity feed fuel systems are normally used on high wing aircraft low wing aircraft high speed aircraft a
Gravity feed fuel systems need no selector valves use the weight of the have no off position
as the fuel is always fuel, to supply pressure
11.10 present at the engine for fuel flow. b

The fuel strainer is located in the lowest point of the fuel trap any small amount provide a drain for trap any micro-
11.10 system to of water that may be residual fuel organisms that may be a
present in the fuel present in the fuel
Fuel temperatures on turbine powered aircraft, can be the filter the tank a heat exchanger
11.10 c
controlled by sending engine bleed air to
Fuel lines in an aircraft must be identified with green supported with bonded located below electical
11.10 b
markings type cushion clamps. wiring.
Aircraft fuel system flexible hoses are manufactured rubber impregnated butyl rubber synthetic rubber
11.10 c
from either Teflon or vinyl
 Yellow or white lines are marked on fuel hoses to identify twisting of the identify the material align hoses that are
11.10 hose. used to manufacture joined together a
the hose
Aircraft fuel filler caps must be red and secured with designed to prevent yellow and designed to
safety chains improper installation prevent incorrect fitting
11.10 and loosening during b
flight
Any type of fuel leak that allows fuel vapors to must be repaired at the must be repaired before must have sealant
accumulate next scheduled the aircraft is allowed to removed with steel wool
11.10 inspection. fly. within 30 minutes. b

11.10 Bypass filters operate on the basic principle of regulated flow differential pressure diminished return b
Fuel heating systems are installed to prevent fuel from heat the fuel filter to heat the fuel by means
11.10 freezing at low prevent freezing of a heat exchanger c
temperatures
Fuel system components must be electrically bonded galvanic corrosion stray currents build up of static
11.10 c
and grounded to prevent. electricity.
When removing components in a fuel system always replace old replace only damaged always leave old
gaskets and seals with gaskets and seals. gaskets and seals in
11.10 new ones. place, ensuring that a
they are torqued
correctly..
Hand operated fuel selector valves Do not require a detent. Must be of the "cone Are most commonly the
11.10 type", allowing free cone or poppet type of c
movement. valve.

11.10 3 Fuel tanks;

Fuel filler caps are designed to be clearly visible. to prevent incorrect by the manufacturer
11.10 installation. and painted bright b
yellow.
Fuel tanks must have an air space above the fuel to venting of fumes expansion of fuel pressurisation of the
11.10 b
allow tank
What device is installed in all fuel tanks to collect float drain sump
11.10 c
sediment for draining on a routine schedule?
 In integral fuel tanks, the fuel is always filled by contained within a in direct contact with
11.10 c
overwing refuelling rubber bladder the aircraft skin
To minimize microbiological growth in fuel tanks keep tanks full when use anti bacterial purge with carbon
11.10 on the ground additives dioxide at regular b
intervals
Bladder type tanks may not be repaired have an approved must be repaired in
11.10 repair scheme place to prevent b
distortion
Baffle plates are fitted inside fuel tanks to provide space for fuel to resist fuel surging within provide internal
11.10 b
expand the fuel tank. structural integrity.
A float operated transmitter installed in a fuel tank. sends an electric signal senses the total amount senses the dielectric
11.10 to the fuel quantity of fuel density. qualities of the fuel and a
indicator air in the tank.
Flapper valves are used in fuel tanks to reduce pressure prevent a negative act as a check valve
11.10 c
pressure
The function of the baffles in a fuel tank is: to prevent movement of to prevent fuel surge (or to prevent pump
11.10 fuel to the wingtip surge sloshing) during cavitation in level flight b
tank maneuvering
The function of baffle check valves in a fuel tank is: to reduce fuel flow at to prevent outboard fuel to prevent movement of
11.10 altitude surge fuel to the wingtip tank b

What is the purpose of a surge box inside a fuel tank? collect sediment at the ventilate the tank during prevent sloshing of fuel
bottom of the tank high pressure refueling away from pump inlet
11.10 during abnormal c
maneuvers
Fuel tanks in a modern passenger jet aircraft are nitrogen from a storage ram air through the vent bleed air from the
11.10 b
maintained at a positive pressure by cylinder system pneumatic system
The amount of water that accumulates in fuel tanks can securing the filler cap draining the tanks at the filling the tanks after
11.10 be minimised by tightly and plugging the end of each day each flight c
drains
Corrosion in fuel tanks is often as a result of: the rubber of the tank the fuel tank material organic growth when
reacting with the recting with the fuel there is water in the fuel
11.10 2 dissimilar material of c
the aircraft structure
11.10 3 Supply systems;
11.10 Fuel line identification markings are red blue green a
The power supply for emergency fuel pumps must be the same as independent of higher than
11.10 _________ the power supply for each corresponding b
main pump.
One of the most satisfactory pumps for positive delivery Vane-Type Fuel Pump Variable-Pressure Fuel Variable-Volume Fuel
11.10 a
of fuel is the Pump
Aircraft fuel systems are designed to ensure that cannot draw fuel from can draw fuel from any can draw fuel from
individual fuel boost pumps more than one tank tank specified tanks to
11.10 maintain fuel symmetry. a

Fuel ejector systems are used in some fuel systems to provide fuel to the boost pump fuel overboard move fuel from a higher
pumps when installed in during the dumping positon in the tank to
11.10 a collector tank process the boost pumps a

Centrifugal boost pumps are used in fuel systems are positive need no pressure supply high pressure
11.10 b
because they displacement pumps regulation
Fuel boost pumps are replaceable without manually primed before positive displacement
11.10 draining the tank they are operated type pumps a

Aircraft operating at high altitude use centrifugal boost provide positive supply fuel under allow cooling air to
11.10 pumps in their fuel systems to displacement pressure to engine circulate around the b
driven pumps. motor.
Fuel tank boost pumps are: high pressure spur gear high pressure low pressure centrifugal
11.10 c
pumps centrifugal pumps pumps
Fuel heaters are installed in the wing fuel tanks fuselage fuel tanks engine fuel system
11.10 mounted on the engine c

11.10 3 Dumping, venting and draining;

Fuel jettison systems are used to reduce the landing reduce the fuel load to reduce the fuel weight
weight in emergencies minimize the fire hazard on take off if a positive
11.10 on an emergency rate of climb cannot be a
landing maintained
 Fuel tanks are vented to ensure a positive head exhaust fuel vapor limit pressure
of pressure for the differential between the
11.10 boost pumps tank and atmosphere c

Aircraft integral fuel tanks are replaced when leaks part of the aircraft self-sealing
11.10 b
occur structure.
In large transport aircraft, fuel is normally vented into a surge tank the atmosphere, directly any adjoining tank with
11.10 spare fuel capacity a

In an electronic type fuel quantity indicating system, the capacitor variable resistor variable inductor
11.10 a
tank sensing unit is a.
Some fuel tanks are equipped with dump valves which prevent fuel surges in automatically dump fuel enable fuel to be
are used to the tank. through the jettisoned in
11.10 magnetically locked emergencies. c
measuring stick.
When repairing an integral fuel tank, the old sealant a blunt chisel a chisel-shaped piece aluminium wool
11.10 b
should be removed with of hard plastic
In a Capacitance type fuel contents gauging system, the in the indicator and in the tank and in the tank and
reference capacitor is fitted: compensates for compensates for compensates for
11.10 changes in ambient changes in the S.G. of irregular tank shape. b
temperature. the fuel.
Fuel dumping systems must be incorporated into all greater than 75,000 kg less than 7,500 kg significantly lower than
11.10 aircraft whose maximum landing mass is its maximum take off c
mass (MTOM)
In an aircraft with a fuel dumping system it will allow fuel down to a down to zero kilograms to leave 15 gallons in
11.10 to be dumped: predetermined safe each tank a
value
How much fuel can be jettisoned? a specific amount the captain decides a specified amount
11.10 c
must remain

11.10 3 Cross-feed and transfer;

The purpose of the crossfeed valve is to balance the fuel allow operation of more allow operation of left
11.10 between tanks to than one engine from hand engine if right b
prevent assymetry one tank hand boost pump fails
 In a twin jet fuel system, the purpose of a cross feed between right hand and from any tank to any to any tank during
11.10 b
valve is to transfer fuel left hand tanks engine refuelling

11.10 3 Indications and warnings;

Electric ratiometer type fuel quantity gauges fitted in from a capacitance type from floats in the tanks. and send the signals to
11.10 many reciprocating aircraft, convert signals. system in the tanks. the ECAM b

The probe of a capacitance type fuel level gauge is a variable capacitor that capacitor with fuel and capacitor with fuel and
11.10 activates a float air acting as one of the air acting as the c
plates dielectric
A drip gauge may be used to measure the amount of fuel in a system leakage with the the total quantity of fuel
11.10 tank unit extended on board the aircraft a

The fuel totalizer indicates the total amount of fuel consumed by each in any selected tank in all tanks
11.10 c
engine individually
Fuel leaks can be classified as heavy stains, running stain, seep, running stain, seep, heavy seep
11.10 seeps, light seeps and seep and leak. and running leak. c
running leaks.
Manual fuel gauging systems may include dipstick or a drip stick an auto shut off system a gauge at the leading
11.10 edge of the wing in the a
fueling panel
Fuel gauges are calibrated to read zero when unuseable fuel only zero fuel remains the tank contents drop
11.10 a
remains to 5% of full
A float type fuel measurement system uses a maximum capacitance minimum resistance maximum resistance
11.10 b
potentiometer which provides when the tank is full when the tank is full when the tank is full
To use a sight gauge to check the fuel level in a tank pull the sight gauge pull the sight gauge up pull the sight gauge
down until the line of until the line of reflected down until the line of
11.10 reflected light is light is minimised reflected light is c
maximised minimised
11.10 Light aircraft fuel quantity systems usually are of the: float type. capacitance type. underwing type. a
Magnetic Stick fuel quantity systems are found on most In the aircraft At the refueling station At various points under
11.10 c
modern Jet aircraft. Where are they located? instrument panel. on the aircraft. the wing tanks.
The most common type of fuel measuring system on jet sight glass. capacitance type float type.
11.10 b
aircraft is the
 Capacitance fuel quantity measurement systems Mass Volume Density
11.10 a
measure fuel:
Capacitance fuel quantity systems have some Can accurately Use less electrical Measure fuel volume as
advantages over float type systems in that they: measure fuel quantity of power. opposed to fuel mass.
11.10 irregular shaped tanks. a

Densitometer's are normally found in: Aircraft fuel flow Light aircraft fuel Large aircraft fuel
11.10 measuring systems. quantity systems. quantity measuring c
systems.
Turbine engine flow meters measure: volume fuel flow in mass fuel flow in volume flow in pounds
11.10 b
gallons per hour. pounds per hour. per hour.
A dip stick will read correctly when it is fully extended the magnets are the bayonet-lock is
11.10 b
engaged released
On what principle does the fuel contents gauging capacity affected by capacity affected by changes in dielectric
system work on a modern large aircraft? dielectric therefore dielectric therefore causes changes in
11.10 changing EMF of changing electrical capacitance c
system resistance of system

11.10 3 Refuelling and defuelling;

When pressure refuelling an aircraft, the pressure 20 psi 50 psi 75 psi
11.10 b
should not exceed
Where would you find the fuel pressure requirements, appropriate overhaul manual ramp service guide
11.10 a
when refuelling an aircraft? maintenance manual
The safety related advantage of pressure refueling is The weight and balance That it reduces the Is the reduction in time
11.10 limitations remain in chance of fuel required for fueling b
limits contamination
Before fueling an aircraft by the pressure fueling Truck pump pressure Truck pump pressure The aircraft's electrical
method, what important precaution should be must be correct for must be adjusted for system must be on to
11.10 observed? fueling system. minimum filter pressure. indicate quantity gauge a
readings.
Aircraft defuelling should be carried out. With the aircraft's In a hangar where In the open air for good
communication activities can be ventilation.
11.10 equipment on, and in controlled. c
contact with the tower
in case of fire.
 Before over wing refueling an aircraft, the bonding Fuel truck to ground, Fuel truck to aircraft, Fuel truck to nozzle,
(grounding)requirements are fuel truck to aircraft, aircraft to ground then aircraft to ground before
11.10 nozzle to aircraft before place nozzle in filler placing nozzle in filler a
placing nozzle in filler touching the side to
complete the bonding
The purpose of a refueling volumetric top off unit (VTO) to keep the feeder box to close the fuelling to close the surge
is: full of fuel at all times valve when the tank is check valves in the
full outboard tanks to keep
11.10 the tank full until the b
center tank fuel has
been used

Modern passenger aircraft are refuelled by over-wing gravity suction refuelling using pressure refuelling from
11.10 refuelling the aircraft pumps tanks c

A twin jet aircraft would normally be refueled by which of over wing refueling suction refueling pressure refueling
11.10 c
the following methods:
11.10 Hand operated pumps are often called Wobble pumps Fuel ejectors Vane type a
When an aircraft tank is fuelled at its filler neck, this is over wing fuelling single point pressure under wing re-fuelling.
11.10 a
known as. re-fuelling.

11.10 3 Longitudinal balance fuel systems.

11.11 3 (8Q) Hydraulic Power (ATA 29)

11.11 3 Basic Principles (not in 66)
11.11 3 The word hydraulics is based on the Greek word for pressure temperature water c
Most of the efficiency losses in aircraft hydraulic O-ring wear fluid friction excessive air
11.11 3 b
systems are due to
Which law relates to transmitting power by a hydraulic Bramahs Archimedes Pascals
11.11 3 c
system?
Hydraulic fluids are highly volatile highly compressible almost non-
11.11 3 c
compressible.
 The pressure produced by a column of liquid is volume of liquid in it height of the column the surface area of the
11.11 3 b
proportional to the liquid
Bernoulli's principle explains the relationship between an enclosed cylinder pressure and velocity in the pressure produced
and the effect of a a stream of moving by a column of liquid
11.11 3 piston. fluid. and it's effect on b
volume.
In an open container filled with liquid, the pressure is transmitted equally to is determined by the rises to the same
all sides. difference between the amount in all parts of
11.11 3 height of the gauge and the container. b
the top of the liquid.

The chemical stability of hydraulic fluid is its ability to evaporation excessive pressure oxidation
11.11 3 c
resist
Hydraulic fluids are usually classified according to their viscosity colour type of base
11.11 3 c

11.11 3 System layout;

11.11 3 Hydraulic fluids;

11.11 3 Hydraulic reservoirs and accumulators;

Pressure generation: electric, mechanical,

11.11 3 pneumatic;

11.11 3 Emergency pressure generation;

11.11 3 Pressure control;

11.11 3 Power distribution;

11.11 3 Indication and warning systems;

11.11 3 Interface with other systems.

A hydraulic system is designed to operate at 3,000 psi, 1,000 psi 750 psi 2650 psi
11.11 3 what would the approximate accumulator preload be? a

Friction in hydraulic systems creates ___________ that contamination heat air bubbles
11.11 3 b
must be continuously removed from the fluid.
Which component stores hydraulic fluid under high Accumulator Reservoir Filter assembly
11.11 3 a
pressure in a hydraulic system?
11.11 3 Phosphate Ester Hydraulic fluid is also known as Mil-H-5606 Skydrol Mil-H-7644 b
Hydraulic fluids coloured red are vegetable based mineral based phosphate ester based
11.11 3 b
A major disadvantage of skydrol, is that it is extremely toxic. highly flammable. easily contaminated by
11.11 3 water from the c
atmosphere.
If skydrol fluid comes into contact with the eyes, they clean water a weak solution of salt water
11.11 3 should be flushed immediately with large volumes of sodium bicarbonate a

In an open-centered hydraulic system, when the Idling position Full load, high output Full load, minimum
actuating units have reached their selected positions position output position
11.11 3 and the control valves reposition to the by-pass a
position, what position is the hydraulic pump in?
The open-centered hydraulic system develops minimum no continuous
11.11 3 _____________ pressure except when a subsystem b
(mechanism) is being operated.
The closed-center hydraulic system will ___________ always never seldom
11.11 3 have hydraulic fluid stored under pressure when the a
pump is operating.
In a closed-center hydraulic system, once the automatically automatically reduced permanently reduced to
subsystem pressure is built up to a pre-determined maintained by a by an unloading valve. zero
11.11 3 value, the load is differential variance b
valve.
A closed hydraulic system directs fluid flow to the main check valve reflief valve manifold
11.11 3 c
system
 In a closed-centre hydraulic system, the initial source of pump reservoir system accumulator
11.11 3 c
pressure comes from the
Which type of aircraft is most likely to have a non- Transport category General aviation, light Military fighter aircraft
11.11 3 b
pressurized hydraulic system reservoir? aircraft aircraft
In systems designed to operate at 3,000 psi normal shuttle relief regulator
pressure, the _____________ valve might be set to be
11.11 3 completely open at 3,650 psi and to reseat at 3,190 psi. b

The hydraulic filter is normally placed in the return line of the outlet line of the return line of the pump.
11.11 3 a
reservoir reservoir.
Many malfunctions in fluid power systems can be traced improper "O"-rings in low pressures some type of
11.11 3 c
to ___________ in the fluid. use contamination
In a properly serviced, hydraulic system, as soon as a the standby portion of the engine driven pump the system accumulator
11.11 3 hydraulic system is actuated, pressure first comes from the reservoir c

The removal of air from an aircraft hydraulic system is automatically by by operating the various by allowing the system
normally done component bleed components through a to sit inoperative for a
11.11 3 valves. number of cycles. number of hours.. b

What happens to the fluid in an open centred hydraulic It returns to the It returns to the The pressure drops to
11.11 3 system when no unit is being actuated? reservoir through the reservoir through the zero because the pump b
unloading valve. selector valves. stops pumping.
In hydraulic systems with an accumulator, a loud air in the fluid too high a pre-load in too low or no pressure
11.11 3 c
hammering noise is a symptom of the accumulator. in the accumulator.
Which type of actuator allows for the doubling of the Double-acting, Tandem actuating Single-acting, balanced
11.11 3 b
output force with NO change in piston area? unbalanced cylinder
Some hydraulic actuators utilize internal __________ relieving locking bleeding
features in the full retracted or extended positions to
11.11 3 restrict or prevent movement when pressures have b
been released.
Filters in aircraft hydraulic systems are rated in pounds per square inch microns liters per second
11.11 3 b
of restriction
If a filter element is made of sintered metal, the element bronze cellulose paper mesh
11.11 3 a
is made from
 When an open-centered hydraulic system is "at rest", in parallel with a in series with a in series with a
11.11 3 the selector valves are common return line to common return line to common return line to c
the reservoir the pump the reservoir
When there is no flow requirement in a closed-centre system relief valve pressure regulator restrictor valve
11.11 3 system, the constant-volume pump is "unloaded" by the b

In a closed-center, variable-volume pump, the pump's internal control valve internal relief valve external control valve
11.11 3 a
output is controlled by an
A _______ is used to provide the necessary flow of reservoir pump selector valve
11.11 3 b
fluid.
What component of a hydraulic system can be A reservoir An accumulator. A heat exchanger.
11.11 3 described as a steel sphere divided into two separate b
chambers by a synthetic rubber diaphragm?
In a hydraulic system, fluid pressure is converted into pump actuator accumulator
11.11 3 b
useful work by the
What valve is used to direct the flow of fluid to the Selector valve Sequence valve Priority valve
11.11 3 a
various components within a hydraulic system?
What type of valve is used to ensure that the wheel-well Relief valve. Sequence valve. Check valve.
11.11 3 b
doors open before the landing gear is lowered?
11.11 3 In a hydraulic system, loss of fluid is prevented by a hydraulic fuse pressure regulator check valve a
What type of valve is used when pre-loading hydraulic Schrader valve Relief valve Check valve
11.11 3 a
or pneumatic systems?
In a non-pressurized hydraulic reservoir, how is Pressure relief valves Selector valves and Fluid is forced into the
"foaming" kept to a minimum? and poppet valves directional control tank in a swirling motion
11.11 3 discharge unwanted air valves route unwanted or baffle plates are c
air to dump boxes used in the return path

What component in a hydraulic reservoir ensures that Standpipe Surge valve Expansion valve
11.11 3 sufficient fluid is always available for emergency use? a

Unwanted heat is commonly removed from hydraulic radiator diffuser heat exchanger
11.11 3 fluid by a __________ submerged in the wing's fuel c
tank.
 A basic constant displacement hydraulic pump provides a variable flow allows a positive flow to does not require a
11.11 3 of fluid to the system the system regulator or relief valve b
in the system
The accumulator of an aircraft's hydraulic system is pre- oxygen compressed air or dry carbon dioxide
11.11 3 b
charged with nitrogen
The action of an aircraft hydraulic actuator can be slow or rapid in internal or external linear or rotary
11.11 3 c
response action
A hydraulic actuator generates less force in the the effective area of the the effective volume of the pump returns to the
retraction stroke because piston is reduced by the the piston is reduced by idle position each time
11.11 3 piston rod. the piston rod. the piston is in the a
retraction stroke.
Aircraft hydraulic actuators can be pressurised or non- single or double acting vane or gear-type in
11.11 3 b
pressurised design
The aircraft hydraulic actuator design known as a servo- primarily in manual in a system installation only on multiple
actuator is used reversion type where the actuator is redundancy
operations on light required to move to and applications for
11.11 3 aircraft designs from a specific position emergency operations. b
for operational
purposes.

The servo actuator design will often have the control selector valve fuselage structure control surface that is
linkage connected directly to the _________. As the being operated
11.11 3 control surface reaches the position set by the linkage, a
the servo will automatically close off the fluid supply and
actuator travel will cease.
Fluid is directed from one side of an actuator to the selector valve relief valve regulator valve
11.11 3 a
other by a
A basic, single-action type actuating cylinder, has springs fitted to has fluid acting on one is also referred to as a
11.11 3 b
both sides side of the cylinder vane type actuator
A linear, spring-loaded hydraulic actuator is returned to system back-pressure an external spring an internal spring
11.11 3 c
its original position by
A double-acting hydraulic actuator is extended by fluid fluid pressure system back-pressure air pressure
11.11 3 a
pressure and retracted by
 In a double-action, unbalanced, linear actuating different diameter there are three ports in there is a difference in
cylinder, piston rods are used in the actuator and only the effective working
11.11 3 each of the chambers one common shaft areas on the two sides c
of the piston.
What type of selector valve is used to operate a double- 4-way 2-way 3-way
11.11 3 a
acting, unbalanced, linear actuator?
A double-acting, piston-type actuator (with equal where a greater force is where equal force is where a greater force is
working areas) is designed into an aircraft hydraulic required on the control required in both required on the
system surface side of the directions of actuator structure side
11.11 3 actuator. movement. (attachment point) to b
return the control
surface to a neutral
position.

In a double-acting, balanced, linear actuator, the piston originates (begins) at originates (begins) at extends through the
rod shaft the piston and extends the piston and extends piston and out through
11.11 3 through the cylinder through the cylinder on both ends of the c
assembly on both the control surface side cylinder assembly.
sides. ONLY.
The most common actuator used in a multiple tandem actuator double-acting balanced double-acting
11.11 3 a
redundant hydraulic system is the unbalanced
Of the three common methods of classifying aircraft directional control flow control pressure control
11.11 3 hydraulic valves, which is considered to be the most b
basic?
The aircraft hydraulic system's selector valve is pressure control flow control directional control
11.11 3 c
classified as which type of control valve?
Which one, directional control valve in the selector valve the poppet valve the ball valve the rotary spool valve
11.11 3 category can also be classified as a pressure control a
AND flow control valve?
11.11 3 Identify the aircraft valve in this illustration. gate-type check valve ball-type check valve variable restrictor valve b
11.11 3 Identify the hydraulic valve in this illustration. cone-type check valve gate-type check valve variable restrictor valve a
Identify the valve in this illustration. ball-type check valve cone-type check valve swing-type check valve
11.11 3 c
The pin of the metering check valve holds the______ spring sleeve ball
11.11 3 partially off the seat to provide for the speed of fluid c
flow.
 In the design of the metering-type check valve the pin seat spring
11.11 3 _______ is used to make contact with the ball to b
regulate fluid flow.
The ________ valve can be called a timing or load sequence relief selector
11.11 3 valve because it times the operation of certain hydraulic a
subsystems in a proper order.
A common use of the ______ valve would be in the selector sequence relief
landing gear door subsystem where the doors must
11.11 3 open before the landing gear can extend and the gear b
must be retracted before the doors are closed.
The valve shown in this illustration is designed to have sequence shuttle relief
a free-flow of hydraulic fluid from the upper port through
11.11 3 the check valve body to the port on the right when the a
valve is in the return path of the system. This valve is
known as a _______ valve.
The pressure operated sequence valve may also be sequence priority relief
called a ___(1)___ valve. The ____(1)____ valve, like a
11.11 3 check valve, has an arrow on the body of the valve to b
indicate the direction of flow. The ___(1)____ valve is a
completely automatic valve that is u
What valve is used to isolate the normal hydraulic Selector valve Solenoid Shuttle valve.
11.11 3 c
system from the emergency system?
This illustration shows a typical design for a ___(1)____ priority selector shuttle
valve. Note it's three ports; one for the normal operating
11.11 3 system; one for the emergency system; and the supply c
line.
The __(1)___ , shown in this illustration, is located in check valve fuse restrictor
many wheel-brake, flap and thrust reverser systems to
11.11 3 prevent the complete loss of fluid when a hydraulic leak b
occurs down-stream of the fuse. If a line should break
or an excessive external leak d
There are two basic types of hydraulic fuses. One type quantity-measuring pressure-sensing electro-magnetic
shuts off fluid flow when a specified volume of fluid
11.11 3 flows through the fuse. This type is a ___(1)____ fuse. a
 There are two basic types of hydraulic fuses. One type quantity-measuring pressure-sensing servo-mechanical
shuts off fluid flow when a sufficient pressure drop
11.11 3 occurs through the fuse. This type is a ____(1)____ b
fuse.
What type of valves are used in hydraulic systems to Pressure reducing Pressure regulating Volumetric differential
11.11 3 lower the normal operating pressure to a specified a
amount?
____________ valves are pressure limiting or safety Regulator Priority Relief
valves commonly used to prevent pressure from
11.11 3 building to a point where seals might blow or c
component damage might occur.
Main system __________ valves are designed to priority shuttle relief
operate within certain specific pressure limits and to
11.11 3 relieve complete pump output when in the open c
position.
The pressure where the valve just begins to open is relief valve. pressure regulator pressure reducing
called the valves cracking pressure. The cracking valve. valve.
11.11 3 pressure is usually set somewhere between full flow a
and reseat. When this valve is in the open position, it
directs excessive pressurized fluid to th
What type of valve is installed in the flap down line to Pressure relief valve Flap selector valve Priority valve
11.11 3 a
prevent lowering of the flaps at too high an airspeed?
What type of valve allows servicing of the air/nitrogen Filler valve Servicing valve Schrader valve
11.11 3 system and traps the pre-charge within the accumulator c
or strut assembly?
A hydraulic system using a variable displacement pump, does not require an is unloaded by the requires an unloading
11.11 3 unloading valve constant flow to the valve. a
actuators
11.11 3 A vane type pump is normally used to produce a low pressure high pressure variable flow a
A variable displacement, piston type hydraulic pump. is also known as a spur uses a system of must have an unloading
11.11 3 gear pump sleeves and a valve fitted in the b
compensator spring system
Which valve allows full fluid flow in one direction and no Check valve Metering valve Shuttle valve
11.11 3 a
fluid flow in the other direction?
 Before a hydraulic accumulator is removed from an system pressure should pre-load should be reservoir should be
11.11 3 a
aircraft the be relieved discharged drained
In an open centre system, selector valves allow fluid to flow through the fluid to flow in 3 a limited flow in one
11.11 3 valve in the "off" directions in the "on" direction and no flow in a
position. position the other.
Relief valves are used in hydraulic systems As damage preventing As one way valves To direct fluid flow to
11.11 3 a
units. the actuators
Where flow is required to both ends of an actuator at four port, closed centre three port, four way two port open centred
11.11 3 the same time, the most common selector valve is the a

Which accumulator air pre-load would be most suitable 1500 psi 500 psi 2000 psi
11.11 3 for a closed centre system with a 1500 psi operating b
pressure?
A common cause of slow actuation of hydraulic cold fluid internal leakage in the blocked filters.
11.11 3 b
components is. component
11.11 3 The most common seal for two-way use is the Chevron seal U ring packing O-ring c
11.11 3 An O-ring with a green dash, is compatible with vegetable based fluids. mineral based fluids ester based fluids c
Normally seals are fitted to a hydraulic system if the cure date is if the seal is less than if a yellow and blue dot
11.11 3 missing from the 24 months old. is on the seal. b
packaging
A gasket is used in a hydraulic system to allow for relative where there is no where high engine oil
11.11 3 movement relative movement. pressures are expected b

A backup ring allows the seal to distort is not required for two is used to prevent
11.11 3 c
below 1500 psi way seals. extrusion of the seal
The correct O-ring for a H-5606 fluid must have a blue must be red in colour can also be used in a
11.11 3 a
marking skydrol system
What type of seal is most commonly used to prevent Gasket O-ring Chevron
11.11 3 b
internal and external leaks in hydraulic components?
What is used to prevent extrusion of an O-ring seal in a Back up ring, fitted on Two way seal, fitted in a Back up ring, on the
high pressure system? the side of the O-ring special groove side of the O-ring away
11.11 3 towards the pressure from the pressure c

What type of seal is fitted to a hydraulic system that is Gasket Packing Low pressure back up
11.11 3 b
subject to motion? ring
 What actions are taken to prevent damage to packings Threaded section Packings should be The threaded section
and seals when installing seals on threaded sections? should be coated with a stretched before should be covered with
11.11 3 heavy grease istallation to avoid a stiff paper material. c
contact with threaded
section.
What type of packings should be used for a skydrol AN packings made of AN packings made of Packing materials made
11.11 3 hydraulic system? natural rubber neoprene for ester based fluids c

O-rings are colour coded to identify the size of the seal. type of fluid that it is pressure range of the
11.11 3 b
compatible with. seal.
When installing chevron seals in a hydraulic cylinder, the apex goes toward the open side goes they can be installed
the pressure toward the pressure either way because
11.11 3 chevron seals are b
double-acting.
11.11 3 Skydrol system fluid lines should be flushed out with Stoddarts solvent a mineral based fluid triclorethylene c
11.11 3 A flexible hose with one layer of fabric braid, is a high pressure hose rigid line low pressure hose c
An important precaution when installing rigid fluid lines install fluid lines above never pull a tube up to 1/ 8 th of an inch tubing
is to electrical wire bundles. the fitting with the nut. should be supported
11.11 3 every 12 inches. b

The lay line along a flexible hydraulic line has a built in spiral to should never spiral. is allowed to spiral, if it
11.11 3 allow for excess is a high pressure b
pressures. system
11.11 3 A high pressure fluid line, can carry pressures Up to 3000 psi Up to 1500 psi less than 250 psi a
A high pressure hose that is coloured green is designed to carry is designed to be used Must have yellow lay
11.11 3 oxygen with phosphate ester lines b
fluid
When replacing Teflon hoses in an aircraft, they should be bent into the correct be straightened before not be bent
11.11 3 shape by applying heat. installation c

New, metal hydraulic lines should be installed with protective caps with sufficient bends to in straight lengths
11.11 3 fitted to prevent fluid allow expansion, joined with flexible b
flow in the system contraction and flexing hoses
 When "pre-setting" a flareless tube, the ferrule is caused to the open end of the the open end of the
"bite" into the tube. tube is polished, so it tube is expanded so the
11.11 3 will not crack when it is ferrule will not slide off. a
expanded.
Which type of hydraulic hose is covered with a rough medium pressure hose low pressure hose high pressure hose for
11.11 3 black cotton braid. use with mineral based a
fluid.
Corrosion resistant steel tubing Is used in high pressure Has a low tensile Is identified by the code
11.11 3 hydraulic systems strength 5052 and a purple a
band.
To calculate the inside diameter of a rigid tube. Subtract half the wall Subtract twice the wall Subtract the inside
11.11 3 distance from the thickness from the diameter from the b
outside diameter. outside diameter. outside diameter.
Rigid tubing under a 1/4 inch diameter, made with soft Can be bent by hand. Must be bent with a Can have a
metal with a thin wall. production-type tube deformation, as long as
11.11 3 bender. more than 50% tube a
diameter remains.

Define Redundancy or Back-up multiple systems so

arranged that if one
fails the other will
11.11 3 continue to operate a
independantly and
safely

Hydraulic power can be interchanged between the left APU PTU EDP
11.11 3 b
and right systems with the use of a
Hydraulic power can be obtained within the aircraft's APU EDP RAT
11.11 3 hydraulic system, in an emergency situation, with the c
use of a
Some modern turbine-powered transport category turbine exhaust air freon precharge compressor bleed air
11.11 3 aircraft use what source to pressurize their hydraulic c
system reservoirs?
 The pneumatic pressure used for gyros in a small can vary since the gyro is maintained constant is maintained constant
aircraft speed is alowed to vary by a pressure regulator bypilot adjustment
11.11 3 as long as has erected b

When the emergency air source of the aircrafts wheel priority shuttle check
brake emergency system is selected, the ________
valve repositions, allowing airflow to the wheel brakes
11.11 3 for an emergency operation. In this emergency b
position, air is prevented from entering the hydra

The possibility of foaming of the hydraulic fluid at higher a steadily decreasing pressure fluctuations pressure fluctuations
11.11 3 altitudes may be detected by: pressure indication and blinking of the High and blinking of the Low c
Pressure light Pressure light.
Hydraulic system filter inspection results must be after every inspection after every second if abnormal or
recorded or documented (in the flight logbook) IAW inspection excessive foreign
11.11 3 maintenance manual procedures and company policies particles are found. c

Micronic stainless steel filter elements are cleaned with ultrasonic cleaning Stoddard solvent trichlorethylene
11.11 3 a
methods
Clogged filters in aircraft hydraulic systems are often a red indicator light a pop-up button on the an audible warning in
11.11 3 b
indicated by head assembly the cockpit
In a pressurized hydraulic system, the reservoir is 40 150 5
11.11 3 a
pressurized to approximately _______ psi.
Prior to servicing an aircraft hydraulic system's servicing of the servicing of the servicing of the
accumulator to the proper air preload charge, what must accumulator pre-charge accumulator pre-charge accumulator pre-charge
be done with the fluid side of the hydraulic system? should always be should always be should always be
accomplished when the accomplished when the accomplished when the
11.11 3 hydraulic system hydraulic system hydraulic system a
pressure is at zero. pressure is at one-half pressure is at full
it's regulated pressure. operating system
pressure.

During installation of the check valve in the system, arrow; body body; label fitting; end
maintenance personnel must note the ____(1)____
11.11 3 direction on the ___(2)____ of the check valve. This a
represents free flow direction of the fluid.
 What color is the hydraulic liquid in a modern jet purple red yellow
11.11 a
airliner?
11.11 The temperature of hydraulic fluid is measured: after the cooler in the reservoir b
The purpose of a hydraulic fuse is to: allow the parking brake allow a reduced prevent loss of system
to remain on overnight pressure to the wheel fluid if the pipeline to a
11.11 if required brake system to avoid brake unit should c
locking the wheels rupture
A shuttle valve will: allow the accumulator reduce pump loading automatically switch to
to be emptied after when normal system a more appropriate
11.11 engine shut down pressure is reached source of hydraulic c
supply
11.11 In a modern airliner what is hydraulic fluid used? synthetic mineral mineral / alcohol a
A shuttle valve is used to: restrict the rate of select the most suitable allow two supplies to be
11 operation of a system system pressure available to a service c

Hydraulic reservoirs are pressurized by: ram air in flight only separate helium gas engine bleed air from
11 c
system turbine engine
Hydraulic pressure typically used in the system of large 2000 - 3000psi 3000 - 4000psi 1000 - 2000psi
11 b
transport aircraft is:
Hydraulic fluid: needs no special is harmful to eyes and is harmful to eyes and
11 treatment skin skin, and is also a fire c
hazard

11.12 3 (7Q) Ice and Rain Protection (ATA 30)

11.12 3 Ice formation, classification and detection;
In which phase of the take-off is the aerodynamic effect during climb with all the take-off run the last part of the
11.12 of ice located on the wing leading edge most critical? engines operating rotation c

Ice formation on propellors in flight will decrease thrust and increase the stall speed decrease the aircraft
11.12 3 increase vibration and increase noise stall speed and a
increase noise

Anti-icing systems: electrical, hot air & chemical;

11.12 3
 Anti-icing systems that heat the leading edges of the continuously while the intermittently during whenever icing
airfoils and intake ducts are usually operated aircraft is in flight. icing conditions to conditions are
11.12 3 remove ice as it anticipated or first c
accumulates. encountered
Possible sources of heat for the operation of a wing first stage of the compressor bleed air. combustion heater,
11.12 3 thermal anti-icing system are, aircycle turbine, turbo exhaust gases. b
compressor.
In an electrically heated windshield system, the thermal overheat temperature sensors electronic amplifiers.
11.12 3 b
temperature is normally controlled by switches.
Arcing in an electrically heated windshield panel usually temperature sensing autotransformers. conductive coating.
11.12 3 c
indicates a breakdown in the, elements.
Which of the following are found in a laminated integral 1, 2, 4, 5 2, 3, 4, 5 1, 2, 3, 5
electrically heated windshield system?

1. Window heat controller.

11.12 3 2. Heat control relay. c
3. Heat control toggle switch.
4. Bleed air supply.
5. Indicating light.

On electrically heated windshields, the heat sensors are embedded in the glass. attached to the glass by attached around the
11.12 3 a
special adhesive. edges of glass.
What is used as a temperature sensing element in an Thermocouple Temperature Sensor Thermometer
11.12 3 b
electrically heated windshield?
Chemical anti-icing is used for carburetors, propellors windshield and engine propellor leading edge
11.12 0 a
and windshields. intakes and engine intakes
When on the ground, leading edges of wings are not allowing the system thermal sensing engine bleed air
protected from overheating by to function on the switches which close temperature regulators
11.12 0 ground the anti ice valves keeping the b
temperature within
limits
The heating element on a windshield is located On the inside of the On the ouside of the On the inside of the
11.12 0 a
outer glass inner glass inner glass
Anti-ice fluid is distributed to the propellor blade by Gravity Centifugal force Pressure from the
11.12 0 b
means of pump
11.12 0 Propellor ice protection could be Electrothermal Pneumatic hot air Pneumatic boots a
 A "Slinger ring" supplies de-icing fluid to the engine nose cone outboard section of the propellor blades
11.12 0 c
during operation wing leading edge

De-icing systems: electrical, hot air, pneumatic and

11.12 3
chemical;
What mixture may be used as a de-icing fluid to remove Ethylene glycol and Methyl ethyl ketone and Naphtha and isopropyl
11.12 3 a
frost from an aircraft surface? isopropyl alcohol. ethylene glycol. alcohol.
When de-icing an aircraft on the ground in heavy icing the aircraft should be de-icing fluid should be the two step de-ice and
conditions sprayed at least two sprayed into pitot anti ice method should
11.12 0 hours before take off heads, TAT probes and be used c
static ports
Ice that forms on aircraft on the ground must be removed will be removed by must be scraped off
before flight airflow on take off. with plastic scrapers
11.12 0 half an hour before a
flight
De-icing boots are protected and made smooth by silicon ethylene glycol
11.12 0 a
spraying them with
When installing pneumatic surface-bonded type de-icer remove all paint from apply a solution of soap apply a silicone
boots, the area to be covered and water between the compound between the
11.12 3 by the deicer boot. rubber and the wing boot and the wing skin. a
skin.
In a pneumatic de-icer boot system, the inflation shuttle valve vacuum pump distributor valve
11.12 3 c
sequence is controlled by a
De-icer boots on reciprocating engine aircraft are vane type pumps gear type pumps piston type pumps
11.12 3 a
inflated by
What may be used to clean deicer boots? Unleaded gasoline or Naphtha Soap and water.
11.12 3 c
Jet A fuel.
Which of the following regulates the vacuum of the air Distributor valve Pressure regulator Suction relief valve
11.12 3 pump to hold the deicer boots deflated when the c
pneumatic deicing system is off.
What is the purpose of the distributor valve in a de- To equalise the air To sequence the To distribute the anti-
11.12 3 icing system utilising de-icer boots? pressure to the left and symmetrical inflation of icing fluid to the de-icier b
right wings. the de-icier boots. boots.
 Which of the following connects vacuum to the deicer Ejector. Pressure relief valve Oil Separator outlet
boots when the system is not in operation to hold the valve
11.12 3 boots tightly against the leading edges in flight? a

How do de-icier boots help remove ice accumulations? By preventing the By breaking up the ice By allowing only a thin
11.12 3 b
formation of ice. formation. layer of ice to build up.
Why are de-icer boot tubes alternately inflated? To keep the disturbance To ensure that the flight To ensure that there is
of the airflow over the crew have control over a constant load on the
11.12 3 wing or fin to a which sections are pump. a
minimum. inflated.
Silicon is sprayed onto rubber de-icer boots to act as an anti-icing fluid provide a smooth protect the boots from
11.12 0 surface so ice does not hail damage b
adhere to it readily
Inflation of individual de-ice boots is sequenced As there is not enough Since tests have shown So that there is no time
air from the pump to it is the most effective available for the ice to
11.12 0 inflate all the boots at way of breaking the ice form once the system is b
once turned on
To ensure that a new de-ice boot is correctly fitted Cement a test piece of Check that the Check that the wing
the boot to the wing and adhesive expiry date leading edge has been
11.12 0 check the adhesion has not been exceeded clensed and coated a
quality with a thin layer of wax

When removing wet snow from a small aircraft, it is best a soft brush or hot air. warm, soapy water.
11.12 3 a
to use squeegee.

11.12 3 Rain repellant;

Chemical rain repellant should not be used on a dry etches and stains the restricts visibility. causes crazing of the
11.12 3 b
windshield because it glass. glass
What is the principle of a windshield pneumatic rain An air blast spreads a An airblast forms a A pnuematic rain
removal system? liquid rain repellant barrier that prevents removal system is
evenly over the raindrops from striking simply a mechanical
11.12 3 windshield that to the windshield windsheild wiper b
prevents raindroplets surface. system that is powered
from clinging to the by pnuematic system
surface of the glass. pressure.
 Small aircraft without windshield wipers normally control applying wax to the spreading ethylene warming the windshield
11.12 0 visibility in rain by windshield glycol on the windshield with warm air before a
before flight flight
Chemical rain repellant is supplied to the windshield gravity feed tank pressurised canister wobble pump
11.12 0 b
from a
After initial application of rain repellant, more fluid can holding the button leaving the switch in the repeatedly pushing and
be sprayed onto the window in heavy rain by depressed for longer on position till enough realeasing the rain
11.12 0 periods of time fluid has been sprayed repellant button c

To replenish the rain repellant system change the pressurized refill the reservoir with the reservoir must filled
11.12 0 cannister correct specification from a pressure supply a
fluid
The rain repellant system must be serviced when the system is empty the fluid level is visible the low level light
11.12 0 b
in the sight gauge illuminates
Rain repellant fluid should not be used on a dry windshield when the aircraft is with windshield wipers
11.12 0 a
stationary

11.12 3 Probe and drain heating.

Following replacement of a pitot/static probe heater, it current voltage resistance
11.12 3 a
should be checked for the correct operating
Pitot tubes are kept ice-free by electrical heating hot compressor bleed covering them with a
11.12 0 a
air thin coat of wax

11.12 3 Wiper systems.

11.13 3 (8Q) Landing Gear (ATA 13)

11.13 3 Construction, shock absorbing;
11.13 3 The drag brace supports the landing gear laterally longitudinally vertically b
11.13 3 The side strut supports the landing gear laterally longitudinally vertically a
11.13 3 In an oleo strut, taxying loads are absorbed by air oil springs a
In a metering pin oleo strut, the rate of compression is check valve tapered metering pin fixed orifice that limits
11.13 3 b
governed by a flow of fluid
 What should be checked when a shock strut bottoms Air pressure. Packing seals for Fluid level.
11.13 3 c
during a landing? correct installation.
Rubber seals used in landing gear shock struts are a variety of fluids silicon grease specified fluids
11.13 3 c
designed to be used with
In shock struts, chevron seals are used to absorb bottoming prevent oil from serve as a bearing
11.13 3 b
effect. escaping. surface.
On most aircraft, the oil level of an air and oil shock strut removing the oil filler measuring the length of releasing the air and
is checked by: plug an inserting a the strut extension with checking that the oil is
11.13 3 gauge. a specified air pressure to the level of the filler c
in the strut. plug.
Toe-in or toe-out on oleo pneumatic struts is adjusted adjustment bolts on the shims behind the axle washers between the
11.13 3 by wheel support brackets mount torque link connection c
points
When an air/oil type of landing gear shock strut is used, compression of the air the fluid being forced compression of the
11.13 3 the initial shock of landing is cushioned by: through a metered fluid. b
opening.
Sleeves, spacers, or bumper rings (recoil blocks) are extension of the torque extension stroke compression stroke.
11.13 3 b
fitted to landing gear oleo struts to limit arm.
The purpose of the cam incorporated in a nose gear provide an internal straighten the nose provide steering of the
11.13 3 shock strut is to shimmy damper. wheel for retraction. aircraft during ground b
operation.
The correct fluid level of a shock strut should be inflated and deflated and deflated and extended
11.13 3 b
checked with the strut fully compressed compressed

Extension and retraction systems: normal and

11.13 3 emergency;
11.13 3 Landing gears are retracted to lower parasite drag induced drag form drag a
Retractable gear and doors are controlled in their shuttle valves selector valves sequence valves
11.13 3 c
operation by
The purpose of the torque links attached to the cylinder maintain correct wheel hold the strut in place. limit the compression
11.13 3 a
and piston of the landing gear oleo strut is to alignment. stroke of the strut.
11.13 3 The down lock, locks the side strut On centre Overcentre Undercentre a
 In aircraft landing gear systems, the purpose of a assist in raising the transmits the large assist in locking the
11.13 3 walking beam is to gear landing gear forces into gear down a
the structure
The down lock is held in over centre condition mechanically only hydraulically only mechanically and
11.13 3 c
hydraulically
Door sequence valves are controlled by the landing gear door landing gear selector
11.13 a
valve
To prevent gear retraction on the ground, ground lock Side strut Drag strut Down lock
11.13 3 c
pins are inserted into the
After performing maintenance on an aircraft's landing conduct a flight test. re-inspect the area after make an operational
11.13 3 gear system which may have affected the system's the first flight. check with the aircraft c
operation, it is usually necessary to: on the jacks.
The purpose of a sequence valve in a hydraulic prevent heavy landing provide a means of ensure operation of the
retractable landing gear system is to: gear from falling too disconnecting the landing gear and gear
rapidly upon extension. normal source of doors in the proper
11.13 3 hydraulic power and order. c
connecting the
emergency source of
power.

11.13 3 Indications and warnings;

Which of the following would activate the landing gear Retracting the gear on Moving the thrust lever Moving the gear lever
warning horn? the ground from high power to low to the down position in
11.13 3 power in flight with the flight and a gear does b
gear in the up position not lock down

11.13 3 Wheels, brakes, anti-skid and auto-braking;

Fusible plugs are installed in aircraft wheels to indicate tyre tread prevent over-inflation of deflate tyres if over-
11.13 3 c
separation the tyre. heated
When a properly operating fusible plug has allowed a replaced. inspected for damage removed from the
tire to deflate, the tyre should be: in-situ. wheel and inspected for
11.13 3 carcass and tread a
damage.
Wheel pants are fitted to aircraft to prevent wheels from lower drag prevent the brakes from
11.13 3 b
rotating whilst flying overheating
 The anti-skid transducer (wheel speed sensor) is the axle the wheel hub cap the brake unit
11.13 3 a
located in
The pressure source for power brakes is direct from the main a separate power brake the master cylinder.
11.13 3 hydraulic system. pressure reservoir. a

Positive Camber is the amount that the aircraft wheel inboard outboard rearward on the axle
11.13 3 b
leans
Negative Camber is the amount the aircraft wheel leans inboard outboard rearwards of the axle
11.13 3 a
On fixed gear systems, wheel alignment is done by shims behind the wheel shim washers between adjustment bolts in the
11.13 3 means of axles the torgue links wheel support brackets a

11.13 3 If toe-in is excessive the aircraft tires will wear more On the outboard side In the middle On the inboard side a
If the toe -out is excessive the aircraft tire will wear more On the outboard side In the middle On the inboard side
11.13 3 c
Water stains on the surface of a wheel bearing should be removed is cause for rejection of requires a special
11.13 3 before installing the the bearing grease on installation b
bearing again
11.13 3 Overheating of wheel bearings is indicated by spalling brinell marks blue color c
Wheel bead seat areas should be inspected by using eddy current testing Zyglo dye penetrant testing
11.13 3 a
Before disassembly of a wheel remove the Schraeder remove the air remove the fuse plugs
11.13 3 b
valve
The stators of a multiple disc brake assembly are keyed wheel hub brake flange torque tube
11.13 3 c
into the
11.13 3 In a multiple disc brake the rotors are keyed into the wheel hub brake flange brake hub a
Automatic adjusters in a multiple disc brake adjust the brake disc clearance travel of the brake hydraulic pressure
11.13 3 a
pistons
The component responsible for allowing the correct metering valve de-boost valve shuttle valve
11.13 3 a
pressure to the brakes as required pilot is the brake
The function of a brake fuse is to prevent the brake from shut off fluid to the disarm the anti skid
11.13 3 locking up the wheel brake in case of a leak system if an electrical b
under heavy braking in the line to the brake failure occurs
 If the piston return spring broke inside a brake master brakes would become brakes would drag. brake travel would
11.13 3 b
cylinder, the spongy. became excessive.
In brake service work, the term "bleeding brakes" is the pressurising the braking extracting air bubbles topping up the brake
11.13 3 process of: system. from the braking system reservoir with small b
amounts of fluid.
When bleeding aircraft brakes, one of the indications partial brake pedal full brake pedal travel. firm brake pedals.
11.13 3 c
that the air has been purged from the system is travel.
Which statement is true with respect to an aircraft Incorporate no Do not set park brakes No parking brake
equipped with hydraulically operated multiple-disk type automatic adjusters, when brakes are hot. provisions are possible
11.13 3 brake assemblies? because clearance for this type of brake b
between brake disks assembly.
are not important.
What type of valve is used in the brake actuating line to A bypass valve. An orifice check valve. A shuttle valve.
11.13 3 isolate the emergency brake system from the normal c
power brake control system?
Power boost braking systems are used on aircraft that a high landing speed. low pressure hydraulic more than one brake
11.13 3 a
have: systems assembly per axle.

11.13 3 Tyres;
Tyres fitted to a wheel with too much positive camber in the middle on the outboard side on the inboard side
11.13 b
will wear
A tyre tread that wears in the centre indicates that the correct too high too low
11.13 b
tyre inflation pressure is
The strip or mark applied to a wheel rim and extended creep or slippage mark. wheel-to-tyre balance wheel weight reference
11.13 a
onto the sidewall of a tube-type tyre is a: mark. mark.
Some aircraft nose wheel tyres use chines to protect the sidewalls reduce hydroplaning. deflect water away from
11.13 c
from damage the engines
Aircraft tyres can be damaged if they are exposed to: low humidity. helium. electrical equipment.
11.13 c
After fitting new inner tubes, tyres should be inflated, the tube is correctly the wheel will be the tread will wear
11.13 fully deflated and then re-inflated. This procedure positioned inside the properly balanced evenly a
ensures that tyre.
 Why do tire and wheel manufactures often recommend To relieve the strain on As a safety precaution To remove the static
that the tires on split rim wheels be deflated before the wheel retaining nut in case the bolts that loads imposed upon the
removing the wheel from the axle? and axle threads. hold the wheel halves wheel bearings by the
11.13 together have been inflated tire. b
damaged or weakened.

11.13 Over inflated aircraft tyres may cause damage to the: brake linings. wheel hub. wheel flange. c
Aircraft tyre pressure should be checked: at least once a week or after each flight. once a month.
11.13 a
more often.

11.13 3 Steering.
Nose wheel steering pressure is normally supplied from landing gear up line landing gear down line system hydraulic
11.13 b
the pressure
The aircraft nose wheel steering tiller is normally left side of the cockpit right hand side of the cockpit centre pedestal
11.13 a
located on the cockpit

11.14 3 (2Q) Lights (ATA 33)

External: navigation, anti-collision. Landing,
11.14 3
taxying, ice;
The external lights at the tail of an aircraft are green, anti-collision white navigation lights red anti-collision lights
11.14 b
lights
Ice inspection lights can be steered by the are pre-set to illuminate are typically rated at
aircrew to check any specific parts of the 600 watts power.
11.14 part of the aircraft for wing surfaces and b
icing engine intakes

The external light at the starboard wingtip of an aircraft a green navigation light a red navigation light a white landing light
11.14 a
is
11.14 The external light at the port wingtip of an aircraft is green red white b
 Navigation lights must be visible through an arc of 220 through an arc of 140 from a point directly
degrees in the vertical degrees in the ahead to 110 degrees
11.14 plane horizontal plane port and starboard c
respectively in the
horizontal plane
Landing lights are used to illuminate the runway enable safe taxiing from enable the pilot to turn
immediately ahead of the runway to the off the runway at the
11.14 an aircraft terminal buildings correct exit after landing a

Stroboscopic anti-collision lights on aircraft are visible red and blue lights flashing blue lights flashing red lights
11.14 c
as flashing alternately
The rate at which stroboscopic anti-collision lights flash approximately once 120 times per minute automatically varied to
11.14 is every second match the aircraft a
speed
Taxi lights are used to illuminate are retractable lights are usually fitted to
the turn-off points along located at the wingtips aircraft nosewheels to
11.14 the runway facilitate aircraft c
manouevering
Incandescent lights work on the principle that applying a voltage to a discharging a voltage certain materials emit
filament heats it up and through a xenon-filled light by fluorescence
11.14 causes it to glow tube excites the gas when a voltage is a
brightly molecules and causes applied
emission of light

11.14 3 Internal: cabin, cockpit, cargo;

The general illumination of instrument, control panels, incandescent floodlights xenon gas tubes electroluminescent
11.14 pedestals and cockpit floors is usually provided by and/or fluorescent lighting a
tubes
The three broad categories of internal aircraft lighting integral lighting background lighting servicing lighting
11.14 c
are:- cockpit lighting, passenger cabin lighting and
Pillar and bridge lighting is built in to individual is used to illuminate is used to illuminate
11.14 instruments broad areas in the small, adjacent areas of c
cockpit instrument panels
 Background lighting in the cockpit provides back-lighting is typically provided by is provided by
for instruments with fluorescent assemblies directional spotlights
11.14 etched plastic panels controlled by a dimmer focussed on particular b
switch areas of the cockpit
Controls for passenger service lighting are located at cabin attendant in Passenger Service in the cockpit
11.14 b
stations Units (PSUs)
Controls for the main passenger cabin lighting are at cabin attendant in Passenger Service in the cockpit
11.14 a
located stations Units (PSUs)
Controls for the illumination of essential passenger at cabin attendant in Passenger Service in the cockpit
11.14 c
information signs, are located stations Units (PSUs)
The power supply for internal aircraft lighting is always 28 volts DC is always 28 volts AC can be derived from
11.14 either the DC or AC c
supply system.
Basic illumination for cargo handling and ground lightweight, portable built-in dome lighting built-in floodlighting
11.14 servicing of an aircraft is provided by airfield lighting using incandescent using fluorescent tubes b
bulbs

11.14 3 Emergency.
In emergency situations such as a crash landing at directly from the directly from the AC bus by individual battery
11.14 night, essential lighting is powered aircraft's main batteries system packs c

The emergency lighting system operates automatically the system is switched the system is armed the system is switched
11.14 whenever to "ON" on the flight and the DC bus falls to "ON" by the cabin b
deck below 12 volts staff
Some exit signs on aircraft use radio-active tritium gas Must be handled in Must be removed after Can be replaced only
containers for self-illumination. These containers accordance with every flight and stored by specially-qualified
international regulations in a suitably-labelled, engineers wearing
11.14 governing the use and metal container until breathing apparatus a
disposal of radio-actve required for the next and fully-enclosed
materials flight. protective clothing.

With the emergency lighting switch selected to ARMED, when the aircraft's when aircraft power is before take-off and after
11.3.1 the emergency lights will illuminate: climbs above 10000ft. lost. landing of the aircraft. b
11.15 3 (2Q) Oxygen (ATA 35)
11.15 3 General Principles (not in 66)
The atmosphere contains 78% Nitrogen and 21% 79% Oxygen and 20% 50% Oxygen and 50%
11.15 a
Oxygen Nitrogen Nitrogen
Compared with commercial oxygen, aviation oxygen has a lower water
b
content
Breathing oxygen used in large, commercial transport the Department of the International Civil military authorities
aircraft must meet rigorous standards that are specified Transportation (DOT) Aviation Authority c
by (ICAO)
11.15 Hypoxia can occur at altitudes above 10,000 ft 8,000 ft 6,000 ft a
11.15 Hypoxia is a condition caused by lack of oxygen carbon dioxide nitrogen a
As altitude increases, the ratio of oxygen to nitrogen in remains the same decreases increases
11.15 a
the atmosphere
As altitude increases the oxygen content of the increases decreases remains the same
11.15 b
atmosphere
The moisture content of an aircraft's breathing oxygen is low high zero
11.15 a
Leak testing on gaseous oxygen systems should be toluene non-oily soap solution a gas leak detector
11.15 b
carried out using

11.15 3 System layout: cockpit, cabin;

Passenger oxygen masks that fall from the overhead re-breather type diluter demand of a liquid oxygen type
11.15 a
compartment, are normally

11.15 3 Sources, storage, charging and distribution;

The colour of a low pressure oxygen bottle, fitted in an red green yellow
11.15 c
aircraft is
High pressure oxygen bottles must be replaced every two periodically replaced after being re-
11.15 years hydrostatically tested filled 1000 times b
with water pressure
In an aircraft oxygen system, a thermal discharge is pressure gauge green blowout disc red blowout disc
11.15 b
indicated by a
11.15 Chemical oxygen generators use: sodium nitrate sodium chlorate sodium hydroxide b
 Chemical oxygen generator candles are larger at one more oxygen at the an even reaction the correct volume of
11.15 a
end than the other to provide start of the reaction throughout chemicals
The passenger oxygen system may be initiated: Manually, automatically Automatically only Manually only
11.15 or electrically a

11.15 High pressure oxygen plumbing lines are made from: Seamless aluminum Stainless steel Teflon b
Once the chemical oxygen generator has been it should be stopped It will stop delivering It must be allowed to
activated: when no longer oxygen to the pilot, completely discharge
11.15 required to prevent when there is no flow to and then be replaced, c
excessive heat build up the masks as it cannot be serviced
or recharged

11.15 3 Supply regulation;

11.15 Oxygen is released at a cabin altitude of 10,000ft 12,000ft 14,000ft c
A "diluter demand' oxygen system supplies oxygen only when the a continuous flow of decreased oxygen
11.15 user inhales oxygen into the cabin pressure at high a
altitudes
In a Diluter demand regulator, dilution of the oxygen is 100% at all times determined by the cabin dependent on the
altitude,which will adjust spring pressure of the
11.15 the air metering valve flow indicator b

Passenger emergency oxygen systems are normally diluter demand type continuous flow type set to operate at 20,000
11.15 b
ft cabin altitude
What will be provided to the mask of a diluter demand 100% flow to mask zero oxygen emergency oxygen only
regulator, if the levers are in the following positions:
11.15 Emergency lever on, Supply lever off, Oxygen selection b
lever 100%.

11.15 3 Indications and warnings.

11.16 3 (4Q) Pneumatic/Vacuum (ATA 36)

11.16 3 System layout;
 Sources: engine/APU, compressors, reservoirs,
11.16 3
ground supply;

11.16 3 Pressure control;

11.16 3 Distribution;

11.16 3 Indications and warnings;

11.16 3 Interfaces with other systems.

What valve is installed in the pneumatic system to allow Relief valve Shuttle valve Dump valve
11.16 the emergency function to occur without having two b
separate operating systems installed?
Aircraft emergency brake systems use high pressure air operate the brakes operate separate, pressurise a hydraulic
11.16 to normally pneumatically operated supply which is used to c
brakes operate the brakes
11.16 Aircraft pneumatic systems do not contain compressible fluids system return lines reservoirs b
After the compressed air in an aircraft pneumatic returned directly to the returned to the reservoir dumped overboard.
11.16 system has served its purpose it is pneumatic system via a chemical drier c
reservoir.
In a 3000 psi high pressure pneumatic system, what Unloading valve. Back pressure valve Pressure reducer
11.16 valve enables the nose wheel steering to operate at c
1000 psi?
After purging a pneumatic system the air bottles should inspected drained removed
11.16 b
be
Fan bleed air is used for air conditioning and in the precooler to cool to assist intermediate
11.16 pressurization. air conditioning air. air. b

The pressure and volume produced by a medium low pressure, high high pressure, low high pressure, high
11.16 a
pressure pneumatic system, is: volume. volume. volume.
The most commonly used component to provide a vane type pump geroter pump suction venturi
11.16 vacuum source is a a
 In a pneumatically operated gyro system, a vacuum draw air across the prevent icing cool the gyro
11.16 a
pump is used to gyro.
Compressed air used in a modern aircraft pneumatic aircraft engines APU pressurised cylinders
11.16 a
system during flight is supplied by
Which valve prevents excessive pressures from Relief valve. Check valve Restrictor valve.
11.16 bursting lines and blowing out seals in a pneumatic a
system?
Purging is the process used to ____________ a clean bleed depressurise
11.16 a
pneumatic system.
Compared with hydraulic systems, pneumatic systems are lighter in weight. require no maintenance contain no filters
11.16 a
The normal pressure range for high pressure pneumatic 100 - 150 psi 1000 - 3000 psi higher than 3000 psi
11.16 b
systems is
In a pneumatic system, the high pressure regulating high altitude high engine power low engine power
11.16 c
valve is open at settings settings
Which of the following are not used in aircraft Crossfeed valves Accumulators Isolation valves
11.16 b
pneumatic systems?
11.16 The most commonly used vacuum pump is a sliding vane type sliding cylinder type sliding piston type a
Carbon vanes used in "dry" vacuum pumps need no lubrication are lubricated with are lubricated by the
11.16 silicon grease moisture in the a
atmosphere
Which valve prevents reverse flow when the high H.P. non return valve L.P. check valve Shut-off valve
11.16 b
pressure bleed is operating?
11.16 The high pressure regulating valve is controlled electrically pneumatically manually a
The most common type of air pumps used in modern "wet" pumps. "dry" pumps with steel "dry" pumps with
11.16 gyro instrument systems are vanes and rotors. carbon vanes and c
rotors.
The primary purpose of relief valves in a pneumatic automatically maintain prevent damage to the re-direct excess air
11.16 b
system is to a set pressure system back into the system.
Check valves in a pneumatic system allow air to flow only in allow air to flow fast in restrict the flow of air in
one direction. one direction and slow one direction.
11.16 in the opposite a
direction.
An adjustable restrictor in a pneumatic system is annually manually automatically during
11.16 b
adjusted operation.
11.16 A shuttle valve in a pneumatic system has two ports three ports one port b
Shuttle valves in a pneumatic system: will assist in allowing are normally electrically allow one out of two
two pressure systems controlled and systems to operate at a
11.16 to operate at the same operated. time. c
time.
Moisture separators in a pneumatic system will remove 100% of the are normally heated to remove water from the
moisture prevent water from system and dump it
11.16 freezing. overboard during b
system operation.
Filters in pneumatic systems incorporate a relief don't need a relief valve are normally screen-
11.16 valve as a bypass. in case of a bypass. type filters rather than a
micronic filters.
Low ambient temperatures at cruise altitude, result in low moisture content in high moisture content in high humidity levels in
11.16 a
the cabin air the cabin air the cabin air
11.16 As altitude increases, the humidity in the air decreases increases remains the same a
11.16 As heat is added to a solid, the solid becomes a gas a liquid and then a gas a liquid b
As heat is extracted from a gas it becomes a gas and it becomes a liquid and it evaporates
11.16 b
then a liquid then a solid
When a gas is compressed its temperature _______ increases; decreases decreases; increases increases; remains the
11.16 and when the pressure on the gas is decreased its same a
temperature __________ .
When two materials have different temperatures and expand contract equalize
11.16 heat is free to flow between them, they will attempt to c
__________ .
Heat transfers only from a material having a given a higher a lower a neutral
11.16 temperature to a material having _______ temperature. b

11.17 3 (2Q) Water/Waste (ATA 38)

Water system layout, supply, distribution, servicing
11.17 3 and draining;
Potable water is forced through the aircraft plumbing gravity feed compressed air electrically-driven
11.17 b
system by pumps
 In a potable water system the fill/overflow/drain valve is 1-way valve 2-way valve 4-way valve
11.17 c
a
Contamination of the air supplied to an aircraft water filter shuttle valve relief valve
11.17 a
tank is minimised by a
Water pipes are protected against freezing by flushing them regularly wrapping them with heating them with warm
11.17 with hot water heater tapes/ribbons air from the engine b
exhaust
In a potable water system a full water tank is indicated "TANK FULL" indicator quantity gauge only Flow of water out of the
11.17 c
by a: light only overflow pipeline
In a potable water system, all water distribution corrosion-resistant heated to prevent located below the
11.17 a
pipelines are freezing aircraft floor line
The following item can be found on the potable water TACO valve Pre-selection switch A micro switch
11.17 c
systems service panel:
The water heaters in the potable water system can be: Controlled from the Temperature regulated Powered from a 28 V
11.17 control cabin with a and thermally switched DC source b
switch off

11.17 3 Toilet system layout, flushing and servicing;

The toilet bowl in an aircraft is normally made from carbon fibre fibreglass polished stainless steel
11.17 c
In a vacuum-controlled toilet system, the vacuum blower is the toilet flush valve is the water valve is
11.17 controlled by an altitude mechanically controlled controlled from the a
sensor service panel
Waste disposal is achieved by collecting all waste in disposing of all waste collecting toilet waste in
tanks which are overboard through tanks which are
emptied and cleaned heated drain masts emptied and cleaned
during ground service during ground service
11.17 and disposing of water c
waste overboard
through heated drain
masts

A toilet drain valve connects the toilet bowl to the waste toilet bowl to the drain waste tank to the
11.17 c
tank mast ground service panel
 An anti-siphon valve prevents contaminated ensures that toilet is used during ground
water entering the waste is removed from servicing of the waste
11.17 potable water line feed the bowl during flushing system a
to a vacuum toilet bowl

11.17 3 Corrosion aspects.

On Board Maintenance Systems

11.18 2 (2Q) (ATA 45)
11.18 2 Central maintenance computers;
On modern passenger aircraft, fault data collected from the Onboard two Central three Control Display
11.18 the BITE systems are stored in Maintenance Terminal Maintenance Units (CDUs) b
(OMT) Computers (CMCs)
Guidelines for the design of central maintenance BITE ARINC Report 604. AWN 68. ATA 45.
11.18 a
systems can be found in:
When the CMC reaches its maximum number of faults it will automatically the first fault stored is it will give a warning
11.18 stored erase all faults and start erased. indication and will not b
recording again. record any further
The on-board maintenance system stores and displays the on-board electronic multi-purpose display line replacement units
11.18 c
maintenance information generated by library. units. (LRU'Ss).

11.18 2 Data loading system;

The function of the Software Data Loader is to allow software to be loaded software to be loaded hardware to be updated
the: when the computer is when the computer is when the computer is
11.18 off the aircraft. on the aircraft. on the aircraft. b

11.18 2 Electronic library system;

11.18 2 Printing;
 The OBS printer is used to print reports accessible via: MCDU's. CMC 1and CMC 2. the ACARS.
11.18 a

Structure monitoring (damage tolerance monitoring)

11.18 2
Level C warnings displayed on EICAS require immediate are accompanied by an are advisory
11.18 c
attention audible tone
Pressing the cap of the Master Caution light of a cancels the Master cancels the Master will switch off the
Centralised Warning System: Caution and the system Caution and resets it to Centralised Warning
11.18 fault light allow subsequent faults System a
to be shown
One of the critical settings monitored by the take-off pitch trim airspeed setting aileron trim
11.18 a
warning system is the
Following questions need to be verified
against notes before incorporating into
Question Bank
A message relating to a fault is cleared in flight by the fault is still present and fault had disappeared second computer
operator. If after a while after a time delay is and then occurred through crosstalk has
11.18 shown again. again. over ruled the b
operation.
Class 3 failures: have no consequences do not have operational may have an
to aircraft safety or consequences for the operational
11.18 availability. current flight. consequence on the a
current flight.
Failures which do not have operational consequences Class 1. Class 2 Class 3.
11.18 b
on the current flight or on the
In maintenance computers terminology the terms "Hard" cautions related (Amber are faults which are related to
and "Soft" faults denotes that Lights) and hard faults disappear before the consumable materials
11.18 are warnings end of the flight and hard faults are a
(intermittent) related
 On aircraft fitted with an "On Board" central exchange information connect the computers convert the discrete
maintenance computer system, the between the two to the aircraft control signals into a digital
11.18 maintenance computers and monitoring format. a
of a system systems.

BITE characteristics include the: identification of the fault distinction between detection of any fault
11.18 at component level. faults at the data loader. affecting the system. c

The Ground Test menu of a centralised maintenance ATA chapters order. faults occurrence order. fault history order.
11.18 a
computer system is normally
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