MED TECH NOTES

Question Answer
Why is morphology of red cells Aids physicians in diagnosis and relates to the quality of the
important indices results.
A slide that is too thin cobblestone effect and has no central palor
a slide that is too thick looks like: stacks of cells many overlapping
a normal slide is: cells randomly spaced in singles or occasional doubles
The round and oval red cells with
diameters of greater than 9 microns macrocytes or megalacytes
and decreased central pallor are
RBCs that vary significantly in size
Anisocytes
are called
cells that have MCV of < 80, &
Microcytes
normal central pallor are called
Cells with MCV > 100, round to
Macrocytes or megalocytes
oval, decreased central pallor are
RBCs with > Normal MCV and
Pseudomacrocytes
central pallor, larger than normal.
Pseudomacrocytes are larger than
Flattening on the slide
normal due to what?
What color are Mature
Buff white in Wrights stain
erythrocytes?
Immature red blood cells appear
Blue gray
what color in Wright's stain
Immature Red blood cells are
Shift cells
called
In a supravital stain immature cells
Reticulocytes
are called
Pale cells with a large center of
Hypochromic
Pallor are called
Polychromic Cells with no center of color are called
Hypochromic cells have less Hemaglobin
Polychromatic cells are larger and
Mature erythrocytes
younger than
What is the alert level for
More than 2 in an oil immersion field.
polychromatic cells
RBC's that are normochromic have
32 - 36 MCHC
a MCHC value range of
RBCs that are Hypochromic cell
< 30%
have a MCHC value of
What MCHC value is the
36
maximum
Which of the forms are frequently
*echinocytes, stomatocytes
artifactual?
Burr cells or Echinocytes look like Thorns
Acantocytes look like irregular spiked cells
Codocytes look like Targets
Stomatocytes look like Collapsed ball. Center of pallor is elongated
Eliptocytes look like Canoe or Kayak long with pallor
Cells showing a variations in
morphology in an abnormal Pathological
response to a stimulus are...
Cells show variation in
morphology but no physiological Non-Pathological
impairment results.
Cells show variation in
morphology as a normal body
Reactive
response to invasion by a bacteria
or virus.
Neutrophils with more than 6 lobes
HYPERsegmented
are defined as
DNA production defect slows production down & the
Why do hypersegs form?
nucleus forms many lobes.
True or False Hypersegmented
Neutrophilic cell size remains the False. They can become larger than 15 microns
same with hypersegmentation.
The cytoplasm of Hypersegmented
False. They cytoplasm is normal in appearance and is still
neutrophils is less funtional. True
phagocytic.
or False
Barr bodies are significant only
In diseases of chromosomal abnormailities.
when?
Disease conditions of
Megaloblastic anemias (Folic acid deficency, or pernicious
hypersegmented neutrophils
anemia), cancer therapy, chronic infections.
include
Ungraded Practice Question Which
of the following statements are true
for storing and handling reagent
strips? (Choose ALL of the correct
answers) Store reagent strips at
room temperature. Touching the
reagent areas of the strip will not
interfere with
OSHA Occupational Safety & Health Association
DHS-LFS Department of Health Services Laboratory Field Services
HIPAA Health Insurance Portability & Accountability Act
BOM Board of Medicine
CLIA Clinical Laboratory Improvement Act
PBR Patients Bill of Rights
NCCLS National Committee for Clinical Laboratory Standards
Joint Commission for the Accreditation of Health care
JCAHO
Organizations
Na Sodium
K Potassium
Cl Chloride
Pb Lead
HG Mercury
NH4 Ammonia
OPIM Other Potentially Infectious Materials
PPE Personal Protective Equipment
BSI Body Substance Isolation
UP Universal Precautions
BT Bleeding Time
PT Prothrombin Time
PTT Partial Thromboplastin Time
FDP Fibrin Degradation Products
FSP Fibrin Split Products
HIV Human Immunodeficiency Virus
HBV Hepatitis B Virus (A/C)
TB Tuberculosis
SST Serum Separator Tube
EDTA Ethylene-diamine-tetra-acetic acid
CBC Complete Blood Count
Hct Hematocrit
Hgb Hemoglobin
MCV Mean Corpuscular Volume
MSDS Material Safety Data Sheets
ACD Acid Citrate Dextrose
ETOH Ethanol (drinking alcohol)
NPO Nothing by mouth
prn as needed
bid twice a day
pp post prandial
qid four times a day
qh every hour
NA NotApplicable
PO by mouth
Rx prescription or treatment
Dorsal back
Lateral sides away from midline
supine laying down
Anterior Front
Posterior back
Medial The mid-dline of the body
cehpalic head
basilic bottom
HBV Hepatitis B Virus
HIV Human Immunodeficiency Virus
TB Tuberculosis
AIDS Auto Immune Deficiency Syndrome
Who wrote the Patients Bill of
President Clinton
Rights (PBR)?
When did the PBR go into effect? 1997
What act prevents violation of
HIPAA
confidentiality?
Who regulates workplace safety OSHA
Who is responsible for training and
Employer
associated costs?
Civil Law Compensation is ? Money
Criminal Law is between the State
A Person
& whom?
Administrative Law is between a
Employer
person & whom?
If guilty of a Criminal law you may
go to jail and or pay fines
have to ?
What are the 4 elements of Establish Duty, Breach of Duty, Injury, Proximate cause due
Neglect? to Breach of Duty
Malpractice is charged on whom? A licensed professional
Neglect is charged on whom? Unlicensed Professional
Turning the care of a patient over
Abandonment
to a less qualified person is termed?
Creating apprehension or
performing unauthorized handling
Assault
and treatment of a patient is
termed?
The physical contact with a person
without his or her consent and
Battery
without legal justification is
termed?
LIGHT BLUE TOP HAS what
Sodium Citrate
additive?
SST tube has what chemical
No Additive but with a gel serum separator
additive?
Red top Tube has what chemical
No Additive
additive?
Green Top Tube has what chemical
Heparin
additive?
Lavander top tube has what
EDTA
chemical additive?
Grey top Tube has what chemical
K Oxylate & Na Flouride
additives?
Canary Yellow top tube ACD has
Acid Citrate Dextrose
what added?
Canary Yellow top SPS tube has
Nutrients for bacteria
what added?
What tests need sample to be
bilirubin, B vitamins
protected from light?
When do you not use a tourniquet? Lactic Acid test
What test sample is kept warm? Cold Agglutins
In which tube are coagulation
Light Blue top
studies collected?
In which tube is a CBC collected? Lavender top
In which tube are therapeutic drugs
Red Top
drawn?
In which tube are chemistries
SST Tiger top
drawn?
In which tube are glucose tests
Gray If by themselves
drawn
In which tube are serology tests
SST
drawn?
Which tube is selected for
Green Top
Ammonia tests?
Which tube is used for a legal
gray top
alcohol test?
Lactic acid test goes into what
gray
tube?
A paternity test goes into which
Canary yellow ACD
tube?
A blood culture to be transported is
Canary yellow SPS
collected in what tube?
What tests need to be iced? Ammonia immediately, Lactic Acid
How many light blue tubes are
2. Discard 1st tube & it need not be full.
collected if drawn alone.
How long is appropriate for a
60 seconds.
tourniquet to be tied on a patient?
True or False You can purchase
FALSE
and launder your own lab coat?
A stop watch (or second hand) is
Bleeding Time
needed for which test?
A device to perform a heel or
Lancet
finger stick is known as?
Gauze is used to do what for a
Stop bleeding apply pressure
venepuncture?
Can you draw blood from a
YES
newborn with a syringe?
Needle sticks to phlebotomists are
winged infusion or butterfly
usually by what device?
What gauge needle is the smallest
23, smaller needles will hemolyse blood cells
to use for a venepuncture?
EDTA binds what in the blood? Calcium
What should you do if you observe
Remove and get a tourniquet of a different material. The
a rash develop around the area
patient may have a latex allergy.
where you apply the tourniquet?
Which test sample requires that you
Lactic acid
do not use a tourniquet?
True or False It is acceptable to
place sample tubes in your lab coat True and may be helpful for samples that are light sensitive.
pocket?
What test sample requires that it be
Ammonia
chilled
What test samples are sheltered
Bilirubin,
from light?
Which tube has to be filled
Light blue
completely?
Where are needles, slides, &
Sharps container
lancets deposited?
How many times can a sharps
Once. Once the lid is closed it will not open again.
container be used?
Where are soiled materials placed? Biohazard bags
Where are equipment packaging
regular trash
materials placed once opened?
What PPE is required for TB
Mask, gloves, gowns, caps, booties
isolation rooms?
A lancet greater than __ mm is not
2.5 mm
appropriate for infant heel sticks
A tourniquet should not be left on
1 minute
the arm longer than?
Bilirubin tests are collect in what
Amber red top to protect from light
tube?
Ice then separate plasma from the cells within 20 minutes of
How are ammonia samples
collection and place in separate plastic tube and freeze. Store
handled?
and transport frozen.
Separate plasma from cells within
15 minutes and place in separate
plastic tube. If blood is drawn on
chilled tubes and left on ice, Lactic acid samples
specimen is good for up to 2 hours
before centrifugation. Store and
transport on ice or refrigerated.
Gray top has Sodium fluorite and
Potassium oxylate. What does the Antiglycolytic agent
Na fluorite do?
What is SPS Sodium polyanethol sulfonate for micro
Sed rates are ESR collected in what
Lavendar of Black
color tube top?
What are the three preferred veins
Cephalic, median cubital, basalic
of the arm for phlebotomy?
What artery is to be avoided for
Brachial
venepuncture?
The Integumentary system is Skin, hair, nails
The outermost layer of the skin is? Epidermis
The layer that contains the touch
Dermis
receptor
The fat layer is called? Subcutaneous Tissue
What is the function of the
Epidermis is dead cells that protect the body.
outermost layer?
What dermal layer regulates body
The subcutaneous fat layer.
heat?
Which layer holds the capillaries? Dermis
The cardiovascular system
The heart, vessels, the blood.
comprises?
What color is plasma? light yellow
91% of plasma is what? water
Less than 9% of plasma is mostly
Proteins
made up of what?
The function of Albumin is to provide cells nutrients
The function of fibrinogen is to stop bleeding
The main function of globulins are
immunity
to provide
What are the formed elements of
RBCs, WBCs, & Plateletts
blood?
The main function of the RBC is to Cary O2 and CO2
The white blood cells provide for
immunity
what
Platelets are in the blood system to
stop bleeding
do what?
What is a Thrombocyt? A platelete
Which cells move through the body
WBCs
on their own?
What is a leukocyte? WBC
What action does a leukocyte use
Phagocytosis
eliminate an infection?
The heart has how many chambers? 4
The top chambers are called Atria
The bottom chambers are called Ventricles
The left chambers of the heart
Body
pump blood to where
The right chambers of the heart
Lungs
pump blood to the
The veins carry blood to where To the right atria of the heart
The arteries are responsible for
Away from the heart
pumping blood to where
What vessel caries blood to the
Pulmonary Artery
lungs?
Which vessel caries blood from the
Pulmonary Veins
lungs to the heart?
The three kinds of blood vessels Veins, Arteries, capillaries
Capillaries are made up of only one
Tunica intima
kind of vessel tissue called?
The blood vessel outer layer is
Tunica adventia
called what
The middle layer of the blood
Tunica media.
vessel is called the
What are veniols and arteriols? The small veins and arteries that branch into capillaries.
What percentage of blood is plasma
45% plasma, 55% formed elements
and formed elements?
What should you do if a vein
collapses when drawing a standard Change to a smaller tube like a pediatric size.
vacutainer tube?
What three diseases are
phlebotomists most concerned TB, HIV, Hepatitis
about catching?
What communicable disease affects
TB
the lung tissue?
Which form(s) of hepatitis is
A
contracted by the oral fecal route?
A vaccine is available for which
B
form of hepatitis
Which hepatitis is almost always
C
fatal?
Which hepatitis is contracted by the
B&C
blood and body fluids path?
Which of the 3 communicable
Hepatitis
diseases affects the liver?
What kind of organisms are
Viruses
responsible for hepatitis?
What kind of organisms are
bacteria
responsible for TB?
What virus is associated with
HIV
AIDS?
How is the tuberculosis bacteria
It is airborne.
spread?
What carriers are responsible for
Blood, semen. Infected needles, unprotected sex.
AIDS to spread?
What is the necessary carrier for
Cells (epithelial cells, blood, sperm)
HIVs to spread? In
What is the carrier for TB? Spittle or water droplets in air
What are the carriers for Hepatitis? Infected feces, Blood or body fluids.
What is the term for yellowing of
Jaundice
the skin and eyes?
HBVAG means Hepatitis B Virus AntiGen
How many chains are in the Chain
7
of Transmission?
Pathogen, carrier, exit, reservoir, entrance, susceptible host,
List the chains of transmission.
disease process.
Name 3 types of pathogens? Virus, bacteria, fungi
What are materials are considered
infected material, blood & body fluids, insects, animals,
to be a carrier?
What is an infection contracted in
Nosocomial
the hospital called?
What act is the single most
effective element to break the chain Hand washing
of transmission?
In the hospital, what kinds of hand
Surgical, Medical
washing techniques are used?
How much time is needed for
half minute 30 seconds
routine hand washing with soap?
In the hospital, what kinds of hand
Surgical, Medical
washing techniques are used?
Nosicomial means what? hospital acquired infection
What organism causes menengitis Neisseria meningitides
What is peculiar about the
It seeks its own way into the cerebro spinal fluid.
organism that causes meningitis?
What is the single most important
Hand Washing
safeguard with patients?
What are the two settings of
Stationary Lab, Mobile Lab.
phlebotomy employment?
How does a phlebotomist prevent
Practice Universal Precautions
cross contamination?
If a patient does not want their
blood drawn the phlebotomist must respect their rights
do what ?
Who orders lab tests? MD, PA, or NP
Who cancels Lab Tests? MD
What information must be on the Date/Time, Initials of collection, Patient's name, & unique
patients test samples? identifier
True or False It is acceptable to
draw blood from a mastectomy
FALSE
patient's arm on the same side as
the mastectomy?
True or False If a patient has an
active IV it is acceptable to draw False
blood above the IV.
True or False Cleaning the
venepuncture site should be done in
True
a circular movement away from the
center.
If a patient is allergic to shellfish
Betadine as a cleanser
what are you to be sure not to use?
What is an alternative material for
gloves when a patient has laytex Nitrile or PVC
allergy?
What are common medications for
Aspirin, Coumadin, Warfarin, Heparin, TPA, Streptokinase
thinning the blood?
What should you ask on an order
Time and amount of last dose.
for Therapeutic Drug levels?
What sick patients are susceptible
Diabetes, Stroke patients
to blood clots?
What is the term for a swollen, red
Thrombophebitis
and hot bruise.
Which patient diseases are
Diabetes, Cancer, Transplants,
important for infection control?
 When a patient does not eat or drink for 8 to 12 hours before
What is a fasting test?
the test.
If a patient feels faint what should
Stop the blood draw and have patient lie down.
you do?
Ask the patient what to confirm
Name and Date of birthdate
their identity?
With a child patient who has the
Parent or guardian. Not the child
right to refuse blood work?
Chemicals that prevent blood from
Anticoagulants
clotting are called what?
Platelet peripheral zone is
Adhesion
responsible for
Platelet Solu-Gel zone is
Contraction
responsible for
Platelet organelle zone is
Secretion
responsible for
Platelet disorder with giant platelets causes a deficiency of
Bernard Soulier syndrome
Glycoprotein 1b a receptor for Von W Factor
Count for platelets in
hemocytometer
The term used to indicate that a
Hemostasis
wound has stopped bleeding is?
Chemicals released from a vein by
Vascular Factors
injury are called?
Chemicals released by platelets to
induce narrowing of the blood Platelet Factor
vessel are known as?
Chemicals in the plasma that stops
Plasma Factor
blood clotting are called?
All the individual blood factors will
Vasoconstriction
cause?

Vascular Factor is also called? Von Wilebrand's Factor

The messenger for platelets to
Vascular Factor
aggregate at an injury site is?
The test for Von Wilebrands factor
Bleeding Time
is the
Bleeding time test determines a
Vascular or Von Wilebrands
deficiency in which factor
What is the normal value for the
less than 7.5 minutes
Bleeding Time?
What is the test that replaces the
PFA or PFT Platelet Function Assay/Test
BT
What changes to platelets does
Platelets grow fingers & become sticky
Vascular Factor affect?
A hemostatic plug is made up of
platelet aggregates
what?
Normally platelets are not sticky &
don't adhere to vessel walls. When
Tunica media and adventitia
sticky, where do they adhere
(anatomical)
The outer layer of a vein is the... Tunica adventia
The middle layer of a vein is the... Tunica media
The inner layer of a vein is the... Tunica intima
Which coagulation test is for
PT Prothrombin
platelet function?
In what tube is the PT test drawn? Light blue
What is a normal range for the PT? 10-12 seconds
What drugs are used to reduce
clotting in patients with a disorder Coumadin or Warfarin
of platelets?
Does the PT test for Intrinsic or
Extrinsic
Extrinsic factors
What is the INR International Normalized Results
What is the normal INR result? between 0.9 and 1.1 INR
The formula for INR is... Patient Results divided by the International normal.
When drawing blood from a patient
on anticoagulants what is of bruising or hematoma
concern?
What is the test for Plasma
PTT Partial Thromboplastin time
Factors?
PTT test is used to monitor patients
Heparin
on which anticoagulant?
What is the normal value for a
28-34 seconds
PTT?
7.5 minutes or less is normal value
BT
for which test?
10 - 20 seconds is a normal range
PT
for which test?
28 - 24 seconds is a normal range
PTT
for which test?
PT screens for abnormal blood
coagulation triggered by exposure Negatively charged surface
of plasma to what?
Platelets are receptive to what
Fibrinogen
protein?
Aggregated platelets will combine
with what to secure the hemostatic Fibrin strands
plug?
The final steps in forming a clot is
to activate a mechanism to Platelet actomyosin
contract?
Von Wilebrands factor is found in
Plasma and vessel wall
which 2 places?

A patient's arm band has a different

medical number than on your order
but the name and date of birth are No
the same. Do you continue with the
draw>
Two questions to ask a patient to
confirm that they are the correct What is your name and Date of birth
patient are what?
The urinary system is responsible
filter waste
to
The respiratory system is
oxygenating blood
responsible for
Which is a smaller gauge 18 or 25? 25
lancets for infant heel sticks are
2.5 mm
smaller than
Lavender top tubes have what
EDTA
chemical in them?
Common hematology tests are CBC, hgb, hct, differential, sickle screen, Sed rate, platelet
(list4) counts
The light blue tube has what
Citrate
chemical in it?
The light blue tube is used for what
coagulation studies PT, PTT,
tests?
Red top tubes are used for what? Serum Chemistries
Red top chemistries are glucose, cholesterol, triglycerides, potassium, BUN, DK liver
SST stands for Serum separator tube
SST chemistries are glucose, cholesterol, triglycerides, potassium
Green top tubes have what
Heparin
chemical in them
Green top tubes are commonly
ammonia, HLA types, chromosome screens
used for which tests?
Gray top tube has what chemicals
sodium: oxylate and flourate
in it?
Gray top tubes are used for what
glucose only, GTT, blood alcohol test, lactic acid
tests?
The yellow top tube has one of two
ACD or SPS
chemicals. What are they?
ACD yellow top is used for what
Cell studies like genetics
tests?
SPS yellow top os used for what
blood cultures for transport
tests?
What is the usual antiseptic for
70% alcohol
venepunctures?
What is the usual antiseptic for
Betadine
blood alcohol levels?
What is the usual cleanser for
Chlorahexadine
blood cultures?
If a person is allergic to shellfish
(iodine) what antiseptic should be Chlorahexadine
used?
If a person is allergic or on a drug
sensitive to alcohol what antiseptic Betadine
should be used?
What is the angle of penetration for
30 degrees
venepuncture?
What is the angle of penetration for
15 degrees
winged infusion sets?
What is the angle for preparing
30 degrees
blood smear slides?
If a patient has an IV drip going
into an arm, where do you draw Below the IV or other arm.
blood?
What condition of a patient would
Masectomy or removal of arm lymph nodes
you not draw from affected arm?
For a finger stix blood draw why
interstitial fluid may dilute sample
do you wipe away the first drop
If you squeeze a finger puncture to
Interstitial fluid may dilute sample.
vigorously what can happen?
The function of the heart is to do
Pump blood
what?
The function of arteries is to do
carry blood away from the heart
what?
The function of veins is to do
Carry blood to the heart.
what?
What is the function of the
Carry blood from the lungs to the heart.
pulmonary vein?
What is the function of the
Carry blood from the heart to the lungs.
pulmonary artery?
What are the smallest blood vessels
Capillaries
called?
What are small veins called? Venules
What are small arteries called? Arteriols
The practice of Universal
Precautions in drawing blood is to The phlebotomist.
prevent disease spread to whom?
EDTA binds what to prevent
Calcium
clotting?
What organization is responsible
OSHA
for safety?
Who is responsible for safety
The employer
training in the hospital setting?
Heparin blocks what during a clot
thrombin
formation?
In patient contact, when do you
Before and after
wash your hands?
Citrate binds to what to prevent
Calcium
clotting?
Glass tubes may break in a
centrifuge, why is it important to Prevent blood & glass aerosols.
wait for the machine to stop?
How do you remove broken glass
with gloves and forceps
in a centrifuge?
The purpose of a tourniquet is to
locate a vein, restrict blood flow
help what?
If a vein collapses during a
Reduce vacuum pressure with a smaller tube or syringe.
venapuncture, what should you do?
If a patient is awake and aware
refused to have their blood drawn, Respect their wishes.
what should you do?
3 required attributes of a sharps
Puncture, spill and tamper resistant.
container are?
Burn patients have their blood
undamaged and unscarred skin
drawn where?
List 2 things to minimize aerosol Keep rubber stoppers on the tube and wait for centrifuge to
contamination. stop.
Bleach solutions are diluted to what
1:10
ratio?
Spinning a red top sample before
Fibrin strands in the serum
clotting has finished causes what?
What is the safe time limit for the
1 minute
use of a tourniquet?
If a hematoma forms during
Discontinue and apply pressure.
venipuncture what must you do?
In a gray top tube what is Sodium
antiglycolosis
fluoride used for?
 Process of proving that a procedure, process, system,
QA WHAT IS VALIDATION equipment, or method works as expected and achieves the
intended result.
The confirmation by examination and provision of objective
QA WHAT IS VERIFICATION evidence that specific requirements have been fulfilled.
(Daily point control test are done)
May be performed by anyone and outside of the lab. Are
Waived testing non-diagnostic i.e glucometer testing to follow a diabetics
blood sugar.
Moderate and Highly complex testing. Moderate has 4
Non Waived Testing
positions, High has 5 positions
Closeness of the agreement between the result of a
ACCURACY
measurement and the true value of the measurand.
MEAN average
MODE most common value
MID-RANGE number bewteen the smallest and largest observation
Comparison of the means of 2 populations, 2 test method
T-TEST
means. Compares the accuracy of 2 methods
The closeness of agreement between results. Also
PRECISION
reproducibility
Concentration of protein in CSF to
Less than 1 % CSF almost the same.
serum is
Concentration of protein in CSF to
higher
serum in neonates is
Concentration of glucose in CSF
and Serum is
WHAT IS AN ANTIGEN? RBC DEFINES THE BLOOD TYPE
A BLOOD TYPE HAS WHAT
A
ANTIGEN
B BLOOD TYPE HAS WHICH
B
ANTIGEN
AB BLOOD TYPE HAS WHICH
A&B
ANTIGENS
O BLOOD TYPE HAS WHAT
NONE
ANTIGENS
A BLOOD HAS WHICH
B
ANTIBODIES
B BLOOD HAS WHICH
A
ANTIBODIES
AB BLOOD HAS WHICH
NONE
ANTIBODIES
O BLOOD HAS WHICH
A&B
ANTIBODIES
WHICH BLOOD TYPE HAS THE
O
MOST H SUBSTANCE
WHICH BLOOD TYPE HAS THE
A1B
LEAST H SUBSTANCE
PLACE THE BLOOD TYPES IN
O > A2 > A2B > A1 > A1B
ORDER
WHAT IS THE TRUE POSITIVE SENSITIVITY
WHAT IS THE TRUE
SPECIFICITY
NEGATIVE
WHAT IS THE FORMULA FOR
POS / PRESENCE OF DISEASE
SENSITIVITY
WHAT IS THE FORMULA FOR
NEGATIVE / ABSENCE OF DISEASE
SPECIFICITY
WHAT ARE
GLYCOPROTEINS SECRETED BY PLASMA CELLS
IMMUNOGLOBULINS
WHAT KIND OF CHAINS DO
2 EACH HEAVY & LIGHT
IMMUNOGLOBULINS HAVE
WHAT ARE THE 5 CLASSES OF
GMADE
IMMUNOGLOBULINS
MONOMER, ONLY ONE TO X PLACENTA, 2NDRY OR
WHAT ARE THE
LATE RESPONSE, ACTIVATES THE CLASSICAL
CHARACTERISTICS OF IgG
COMPLEMENT PATHWAY, 75-80%
PENTAMER, HEAVY CHAIN, PRIMARY RESPONSE,
CHARACTERIZE IgM MOST EFFICIENT FOR CLASSICAL PATHWAY
ACTIVATION, LARGEST BUT ONLY 10%
MONOMERIN SERUM, 2 MONOMERS IN SECRETORY,
CHARACTERIZE IgA ACTIVATES ALTERNATIVE COMPLEMENT
PATHWAY,15-20% RESISTS PROTOEOLYSIS
MONOMER, DELTA HEAVY CHAIN, ENZYME
CHARACTERIZE IgD
DEGRADED, <1%
 MONOMER HEAVY CHAIN, RESPONSIBLE FOR
CHARACTERIZED IgE ALLERGY .0004% BINDS TO MAST CELLS TO
RELEASE HISTAMINE AND LEUKOTRIENS
WHICH 2 CLASSES OF IG
M&A
HAVE SPECIAL CHAINS
WHICH IG IS NOT A
M
MONOMER
WHICH IG IS MOST
IgG
IMMUNOGENIC
WHICH BLOOD GROUPS ARE
A&B
IgM
WHICH IG CROSSES THE
G
PLACENTA
WHICH IG IS AN EARLY
M
RESPONSE
WHICH IG IS A LATE
G
RESPONSE
WHICH IG HAS A HALF LIFE
G
OF 22 DAYS
WHICH IG IS EFFICIENT AT
M
AGGLUTINATION
BENCE JONES PROTEINS
PRECIPITATE AT WHAT 40-60C
TEMPERATURE
FREE LIGHT CHAINS ARE
BENCE JONES PROTEINS
ALSO CALLED
WHAT ARE THE 3 PMSs EOSINOHPHILS, BASOPHILS, OR GRANULOCYTES
EOSINOPHIL
GRANULES(EOS)ARE
ALLERGIES & PARASITES ANTIMICROBIAL AGENTS
ASSOCIATED WITH WHAT
CONDITIONS
BASOPHIL GRANULES HISTAMINES, HEPARIN SMOOTH MUSCLE
RELEASE WHAT CHEMICALS CONTRACTION
GRANULOCYTES HAVE 2 MYELOPEROXIDASE, LYSOZUME BACTERIOCIDAL
GRANULES THAT PRODUCE AGENTS
MONOCYTES BECOME
LEAVING CIRCULATION INTO TISSUE
MACROPHAGES BY
HUMORAL IMMUNITY IS
CONSIDERED SPECIFIC OR NON-SPECIFIC
NON-SPECIFIC
HUMORAL IMMUNITY IS
COMPLEMENT
ABOUT WHAT
WHAT ARE THE 2 WAYS TO
CLASICAL & ALTERNATIVE
INITIATE COMPLEMENT
WHAT DOES COMPLEMENT
LYSES CELLS
DO?
CLASSICAL PATHWAY
G&M
REQUIRES WHICH IGs
HOW IS C3b ACTIVATED? C3 CONVERTASE
WHAT IS C3 CONVERTASE
C4b2a
FORMULA
C3 CONVERTASE AN ENZYME TO INITIATE
WHAT IS C4b2a?
CLASICAL PATHWAY.
WHAT 3 THINGS CAN HAPPEN
INACTIVATED, PHAGOCYTOSIS, CELL LYSIS
IF C3b IS ACTIVE
WHAT ARE THE CLASSICAL
PATHWAY RECOGNITION CA & MG
UNIT AND ACTIVATION UNIT
WHAT ARE THE ALTERNATE
MG & C3bBb + FACTOR P = C3BbP.... C5~> C5a&b.
PATHWAY RECOGNITION
ALWAYS IN PROGRESS.
AND ACTIVATION UNITS
WHAT ARE THE GRAM STAIN
REAGENTS AND ORDER OF VIOLET/IODINE/ALCOHOL/ACETONE/SAFRANIN
USE?
Plate method to determine
KIRBY BAUER
antimicrobial sensitivity is
Alpha hemolysis green
Beta hemolysis clear
Gamma hemolysis none
Bulls eye colony Yersinia enterocolitica
safety pin Yersinia pestis
medusa head B anthrax
String of pearls test B anthrax
Gull wing shaped Campylobacter
Cat scratch fever Bartonella henselae
Cat bites Pasturella matocida
Undulating fever Brucellosis
Whooping cough kennel cough Bordetella
pseudomembranous colitis C difficile
Tennis racket shape C. tetani
lollipop shape C tetani
fried rice B cereus food poisoning
tumbling motility at RT Listeria monocytogenes
chinese letters C. diptheria
Gram neg that only reacts to form
Erysipelothrix rhuseophatheae
H2S
181 what is the major difference
between a flourescent microscope
with epi- illumination and a Epi-illuminated microscope ha a dichroic mirror.
flourescent microscope with
transmitted light?
182 Are autoimmune diseases
associated with HLA antigens or HLA B & D
are they B cell disorders
183 IgA difficiencies are associated
an increase in autoimmune diseases.
with