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CONTENTS
1 GAMSAT Sample Full Length Test ........................................................................................................ 3
1.1 Instructions For Writing The Test ................................................................................................... 3
1.2 Reasoning In Humanities And Social Sciences ................................................................................ 4
1.3 WRITTEN COMMUNICATION......................................................................................................... 26
WRITING TEST A............................................................................................................................... 26
WRITING TEST B ............................................................................................................................... 27
1.4 REASONING IN BIOLOGICAL AND PHYSICAL SCIENCES......................................................... 28
2 About Prepgenie ................................................................................................................................... 63
2.1 Free Resources ............................................................................................................................. 63
2.1.1 Online Library ..................................................................................................................... 63
2.1.2 Prepgenie Online Help ......................................................................................................... 63
2.2 Paid Resources ............................................................................................................................. 63
2.2.1 Full Length Test Paper Module: ........................................................................................... 63
2.2.2 Sectional Tests Module: ....................................................................................................... 63
3 CONTACT US ..................................................................................................................................... 64
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1 GAMSAT Sample Full Length Test
1.1 Instructions For Writing The Test
Read Carefully:
1. This is a sectional test on Humanities and Social Sciences comprising 75 questions from the different
domains of the subject and you are to complete this sectional test in 100 minutes.
2. Use only HB pencil to fill in the Answer Sheet.
3. Enter in your Answer Sheet: the Test I.D. Number, Exam date and your Name.
4. Directions for answering the questions are given before each group of questions. Read these directions
carefully and answer the questions by darkening the appropriate circles on the OMR sheet. There is
only one correct answer to each question.
5. Do your rough work only on the Test Booklet and NOT on the OMR sheet. No scrap paper is allowed.
6. No marks are deducted for wrong answers. So students are advised to move on quickly without
wasting too much time on one question.
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1.2 Reasoning In Humanities And Social Sciences
Unit 1
Questions 1 5
The Swan
The labouring through what is still undone,

as though, legs bound, we hobbled along the way,
is like the awkward walking of the swan.
And dying - to let go, no longer feel

the solid ground we stand on every day
is like his anxious letting himself fall
into the water, which receives him gently
and which, as though with reverence and joy,
draws back past him in streams on either side;
while, infinitely silent and aware,
in his full majesty and ever more
indifferent, he condescends to glide.
1. What is the tone of the poem?
A Remorseful
B Instructing
C Enlightening
D Anxious
2. What do the first three lines of the poem convey?
A That the swan has been kept in a confinement by some strangers.

B That the swan is lost and desperate to feel something comfortable.
C That the swan has voluntarily chosen the situation and cant undo it.
D That such a situation has occurred due to the strange gait of the swan.
3. Which of the following is predominantly used in the poem?
A Symbols
B Metaphors
C Imagery
D Similes
4. In the poem the Swan represents:
A Charm and goodwill

B Desperation and longing
C Knowledge and wisdom
D Beauty and grace
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5. Which of the following is the correct explanation of the last stanza?
A The swan is frustrated at the end of the journey and goes into a deeper gloom and remorse.
B When the swan reaches the water at the end of the journey it appears confident and majestic.
C The swan is anxious at the end of the journey and becomes silent at the various possibilities.
D When the swan reaches the water; it is overcome by both fear and joy which adds to its
confusing state.
Unit 2
Questions 6 13
The following material has been taken from an essay The Idea of a University by Cardinal Newman.
COMMENT I
A University may be considered with reference either to its Students or to its Studies; and the principle, that all
Knowledge is a whole and the separate Sciences parts of one, which I have hitherto been using in behalf of its
studies, is equally important when we direct our attention to its students.
6 Which of the following contribute to the importance of a University in Comment I?
A Knowledge and Sciences

B Students and Teachers
C Students and Studies
D Studies and Teachers
COMMENT II
I have said that all branches of knowledge are connected together, because the subject-matter of knowledge is
intimately united in itself, as being the acts and the work of the Creator. Hence it is that the Sciences, into which
our knowledge may be said to be cast, have multiplied bearings one on another, and an internal sympathy, and
admit, or rather demand, comparison and adjustment. They complete, correct, and balance each other. This
consideration, if well-founded, must be taken into account, not only as regards the attainment of truth, which is
their common end, but as regards the influence which they exercise upon those whose education consists in the
study of them.
7 Which of the following is suggested regarding the connectedness of the branches of knowledge in
Comment II?
A All branches of knowledge are interconnected even though each deal with separate topics
leading to a single effect.
B All branches of knowledge share the same issues and collate them in order to bring out
various effects on each other.
C Each branch of knowledge has a separate subject-matter to deal with and as a result needs to
adjust with each other.
D Though each branch of knowledge chooses different paths and subject-matter; they arrive at
the same result.
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COMMENT III
To give undue prominence to one is to be unjust to another; to neglect or supersede these is to divert those from
their proper object. It is to unsettle the boundary lines between science and science, to disturb their action, to
destroy the harmony which binds them together. Such a proceeding will have a corresponding effect when
introduced into a place of education. There is no science but tells a different tale, when viewed as a portion of a
whole, from what it is likely to suggest when taken by itself, without the safeguard, as I may call it, of others.
8. Due to which of the following reasons the boundary lines between science and science get unsettled
in Comment III?
A Often one branch of science is given unnecessary importance while the other is slighted.
B All branches of science have a similar corresponding effect, which disturbs their actions.
C All branches of science are tied together to form a cohesive bond that safeguard their
knowledge.
D These branches of science are not balanced and thus they are not in harmony with each other.
COMMENT IV
In the combination of colours, very different effects are produced by a difference in their selection and
juxtaposition; red, green, and white, change their shades, according to the contrast to which they are submitted.
And, in like manner, the drift and meaning of a branch of knowledge varies with the company in which it is
introduced to the student. If his reading is confined simply to one subject, however such division of labour may
favour the advancement of a particular pursuit, a point into which I do not here enter, certainly it has a tendency
to contract his mind. If it is incorporated with others, it depends on those others as to the kind of influence
which it exerts upon him. Thus the Classics, which in England are the means of refining the taste, have in
France sub-served the spread of revolutionary and deistical doctrines. In Metaphysics, again, Butler's Analogy
of Religion, which has had so much to do with the conversion to the Catholic faith of members of the
University of Oxford, appeared to Pitt and others, who had received a different training, to operate only in the
direction of infidelity.
9 How do the Classics differ in England from that in France according to Comment IV?
A In England the Classics dont encourage revolutionary acts and are considered coarse in
nature whereas in France they are inclined towards deism.
B Classics are suave and enriching in England and are an inspiration to the untamed nature of
theirs in France.
C Due to their servile attitude, the Classics are unable to gain popularity in France as in
England.
D Classics are considered as a marker of elegance in England whereas in France they are used
to promote radical changes in philosophical beliefs.
For questions 10- 13 refer to Comments I- IV.
10 Which of the following comments compares the effects of colour to that of the effect of the branches
of knowledge?
A Comment I
B Comment II
C Comment III
D Comment IV
11 Which of the following comments emphasises on the importance of students for bringing about a
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change in the reception of the branches of knowledge?
A Comment I only
B Comments I and IV
C Comment II only
D Comments III and IV
12 Which of the following comments states that different branch of science appear similar when viewed
as a whole?
A Comments I, III and IV

B Comments II, III and IV
C Comments I and II
D Comments I and III
13 Which of the following comments states that in spite of sharing similar subject-matter sciences can be
clearly distinguished?
A Comment IV
B Comment I
C Comment II
D Comment III
Unit 3
Questions 14 15
The above cartoon seems to criticise the present education system. Which of the following would best support
the cartoonists idea of education?
A The function of education is to teach one to think intensively and to think critically and not by
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rote.
B The principle goal of education is to create men and women who are capable of doing new
things, not simply repeating what other generations have done.
C Computer technology is playing an important role in the present education system and
making the students more thoughtful.
D Teaching should be such that what is offered is perceived as a valuable gift and not as a hard
duty.
15 Education is what remains after one has forgotten everything he learned in school.
Which of the following best suites the above proverb?
A Education is a blessing one gets early in life and it stays on forever as a guardian angel.
B School is partially responsible for forcing things down a childs throat, which he soon forgets.
C Education is like a shadow, which follows one everywhere even if one wants to forget it.
D After the school years are over people actually get to brush their shoulders with real
education.
Unit 4
Questions 16 19
Dream Variation
To fling my arms wide
In some place of the sun,
To whirl and to dance
Till the white day is done.
Then rest at cool evening
Beneath a tall tree
While night comes on gently,
Dark like me--
That is my dream!
To fling my arms wide
In the face of the sun,
Dance! Whirl! Whirl!
Till the quick day is done.
Rest at pale evening . . .
A tall, slim tree . . .
Night coming tenderly
Black like me.
16 What is the tone of the poem?
A Nostalgic
B Criticising
C Happy
D Pessimistic
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17 Which of the following is the message in the poem?
A Dreams are illusions, people shouldnt run after them

B It takes a lot of hard work to fulfil ones dreams
C It is a mere expression of the poets desires in life and not a message
D It is a nostalgic account of the poets earlier carefree life and not a message
18 In line four, what does the poet mean by white day?
A A day when the sun is scorching down on the earth

B A day when everyone is expected to wear white clothes
C A day when everything around is covered in thick layers of white dust.
D A day when the rain washes down the dust and is followed by a cool evening
19 In the second stanza why does the poet want the day to be a quick day?
A Because he wants to escape doing the work during the day

B He hopes that the heat of the sun will quickly die out and bring in the cool evening
C Because he wants to wrap up his work early in order to enjoy the rest of the day
D He has seen days pass by quicker than the night.
Unit 5
Questions 20 26
The following passage describes Matty's journey to Australia.
It was typical of Matty's jagged and passionate character that once he had decided to go away he should go as
far as humanly possible. It was part of the strange way in which circumstances were apt to adjust themselves
round him as he wentas if for all his jaggedness he was fitted for the journey with streamlined faringsthat
his way to Australia should be made easy. He met what seemed like compassionate officialdom where there
might have been indifference; or perhaps it was that those who winced at the sight of his shrivelled ear speeded
him out of their sight. It was no more than months before he found himself with a job, a church, a bed in the
Y.M.C.A. in Melbourne. All three were waiting for him downtown in Fore Street by the London Hotel. The
ironmonger's was not as large as Frankley's but there were storerooms overhead, packing-cases in the yard at
the side and a machine shop to stand in for a forge. He might have stayed there for yearsfor a lifetimeif it
had lived up to his innocent belief that by going far and fast he had outdistanced his troubles. But of course, Mr
Pedigree's curse came with him. Moreover, either time or Australia or the two together quickly sharpened his
vague feelings of bewilderment into downright astonishment; and this at last found words somewhere in his
head.
"Who am I?"
To this, the only answer from inside him was something like: you came out of nowhere and that is where you
are going. You have injured your only friend; and you must offer up marriage, sex, love, because, because,
because! On a cooler view of the situation, no one would have you, anyway. That is who you are.
He was also someone who lacked more skin than he knew. When he had come at last to realise just how great
an effort even the kindest people had to make not to be visibly affected by his appearance he ducked away from
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any intercourse he could. It was not just the unattainable creatures (and pausing for forty minutes at Singapore,
that doll-like figure in its glittering clothes and standing submissively by the passenger lounge) but a minister
and his kindly wife, and others. His Bible, on India paper and in squashy leather, gave him no help. Neither
though in his innocence he had thought it mightdid his English voice and emergence from the Old Country.
When they were assured that he did not think himself special and did not look down on Australia and did not
expect preferential treatment, his workmates were unkinder than they might have been through sheer
annoyance at being wrong and missing a treat. Also there was a quite gratuitous confusion.
20 The very first line of the passage reveals that Matty is

A obstinate.
B enthusiastic.
C tenacious.
D impulsive.
21 What is the author's attitude towards Matty when he comments for all his (Matty's) jaggedness he was
fitted for the journey with streamlined farings is
A critical and judgemental.
B admiration and affectionate.
C shifting and ambivalent.
D distant and conventional.
22 According to the author, Matty met with compassionate officialdom because the officials
A treated Matty's case with apathy.
B could not stand the look of Matty.
C did not want to waste their time on Matty's case.
D were kind enough to treat Matty with immense sympathy.
23 The first paragraph reveals that Matty goes out to Australia because he wants to
A transcend his problems.
B visit new destinations.
C work for the ironmonger.
D discover his own identity.
24 Matty's response to the question, Who am I? which he asks himself reveals that Matty is
A suffering from an extreme sense of guilt for hurting his friend.
B greatly missing his friend in the new land which he is visiting.
C feeling extremely alienated in the new land, away from his family and friends.
D desperately wanting to atone for the injustice he has done against his friend.
25 What is the author's tone in the lines, it was not just the unattainable ... gave him no help?
A Shifting and ambiguous.
B Sympathetic and understanding
C Critical and sarcastic
D Proper and respectful
26 One of the criteria of the minister and his wife for taking in Matty was that
A Matty should not consider himself to be out of the ordinary.
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B Matty should possess unique qualities.

C Matty should anticipate special treatment because of his shortcomings.
D Matty should be ready to accept unkind behaviour from his colleagues.
Unit 6
Questions 27 28
27
What does the above illustration suggest which of the following?
A Global warming B Extinction of Eskimos

C Flooding D Traffic snarls
28 And now, the end is near and so I face the final curtain. My friend, I'll say it clear I'll state my case of
which I'm certain. I've lived a life that's full, I've travelled each and every highway. But more, much
more than this I did it my way.
The tone of the author in the above passage suggest that the author is
A critical about the way he has pased his life.

B satisfied about the way he has pased his life.
C disgruntled about the way he has pased his life.
D defiant about the way he has pased his life.
Unit 7
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Questions 29 36
The passages below deal with the term modernism and post-modernism.
COMMENT I
Modern is a term which every age applies to itself. In fact, until recently, the word "modern" was used to
refer generically to the contemporaneous; all art is modern at the time it is made. In his Il Libro dell'Arte
(translated as "The Craftsman's Handbook") in 1437, Cennino Cennini explains that Giotto made painting
"modern". Giorgio Vasari writing in 16th-century Italy refers to the art of his own period as "modern."
29 According to Comment I, what is the connotation of the term modern?
A It is applicable to the contemporary form of art.

B It is applied to bring out the absurdity in art.
C Giottos painting is termed as modern.
D 16th century paintings in Italy are termed as modern.
COMMENT II
As an art historical term, "modern" refers to a period dating from roughly the 1860s through the 1970s and is
used to describe the style and the ideology of art produced during that era. It is this more specific use of modern
that is intended when people speak of modern art. The term "modernism" is also used to refer to the art of the
modern period. More specifically, "modernism" can be thought of as referring to the philosophy of modern art.
30 According to Comment II, how is modern art described?
A Art produced during the era of 1860s to 1970s that deals with every aspect of modernism
B Art with a particular style, ideology and philosophy describing the contemporary period
C Art that takes into account the concept of modernism and illustrates on its characteristics
D Art that has the specific use of anything that is modern like the concept or the tools
COMMENT III
The roots of modernism lie much deeper in history than the middle of the 19th century. For historians (but not
art historians) the modern period actually begins with the Renaissance. The modernist thinking which emerged
in the Renaissance began to take shape as a larger pattern of thought in the 18th century. In the 18th century, the
Age of Enlightenment saw the intellectual maturation of the humanist belief in reason as the supreme guiding
principle in the affairs of humankind. Through reason the mind achieved enlightenment, and for the enlightened
mind, freed from the restraints of superstition and ignorance, a whole new exciting world opened up.
31 How is modernism related to the Age of Enlightenment in Comment III?
A Modernism led to the Age of Enlightenment and thus a new period came into existence.
B Renaissance is the reason behind the advent of modern art due to the Age of Enlightenment.
C Modernist thinking is deep seated in Renaissance spurred by the Age of Enlightenment.
D The Age of Enlightenment preceded modernism while leaving behind some of its traits.
COMMENT IV
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In the latter half of the 20th century there has been mounting evidence of the failure of the Modernist enterprise.
Progressive modernism is riddled with doubt about the continued viability of the notion of progress. If
Modernism is at an end, we are now facing a new period. The name given to this new period is Postmodernism.
The term postmodernism is used in a confusing variety of ways. For some it means anti-modern; for others it
means the revision of modernist premises. The seemingly anti-modern stance involves a basic rejection of the
tenets of Modernism; that is to say, a rejection of the doctrine of the supremacy of reason, the notion of truth,
the belief in the perfectibility of man, and the idea that we could create a better, if not perfect, society. A term
used by some to describe this view is deconstructive postmodernism.
32 Comment IV states that the term postmodernism is confusing because:
A It doesnt involve the important characteristics of its period

B It doesnt have a fixed nature by which it can be identified
C It is subjected to various influences of characteristics outside its period
D It doesnt have a proper definition and confer to various ideas about it
For questions 33 36 refer to Comments I-IV.
33 Which of the following comments discuss the development of modernism with reference to certain
time periods?
A Comments I, II and III

B Comments I, III and IV
C Comments I, II, III and IV
D Comments I, II and IV
34 Which of the following comments relates modernism to other movements and terms?
A Comments II and IV
B Comments II and III
C Comment III only
D Comment I only
35 Which of the following comments stresses on the importance of logic as an influence in the works of
the modern period?
A Comments I and IV
B Comment II only
C Comment III only
D Comments III and IV
36 Which of the following comments renounces the growth of modernism?
A Comments II and III

B Comment II only
C Comments III and IV
D Comment IV only
Unit 8
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Questions 37 43
For some minutes now Scollops had been gazing searchingly at Mr. Topper. And Mr. Topper was troubled. Not
definitely troubled, but vaguely so, which to some persons is the most troublesome form of trouble. Mr. Topper
was one of such persons. In fact he was highly representative of the type. So free from trouble had Topper's
days been that gradually he had come to regard with suspicion all creatures not likewise unencumbered. An
earthquake, an eruption or tidal wave would mildly move Cosmo Topper, arouse him to the extent of a dollar
donation which would later be deducted from his income tax; whereas a newspaper story dealing with
bankruptcy, crimes of violence or moral looseness would cause him speedily to avert his eyes to less disturbing
topics. Mr. Topper could excuse nature and the Republican Party, but not man. He was an institutional sort of
animal, but not morbid. Not apparently. So completely and successfully had he inhibited himself that he
veritably believed he was the freest person in the world. But Mr. Topper could not be troubled. His mental
process ran safely, smoothly, and on the dot along well signalled tracks; and his physical activities, such as they
were, obeyed without question an inelastic schedule of suburban domesticity. He resented being troubled. At
least he thought he did. That was Mr. Topper's trouble, but at present he failed to realise it.
He experienced now something of the same resentment that came to him upon being delayed in the tunnel on
his way home from the city. Things were going on round him in the tunnel, dreadful things, perhaps, but he did
not know what they were. He sat in a blaze of light in the midst of clanking darkness. Surrounded by familiar
things he felt stuffy and uncomfortable. Even his newspaper lost its wonted stability. Yes, it was a decidedly
objectionable feeling that Mr. Topper had to-night as he gave himself to the solicitous embrace of his arm chair
and followed with a dull gaze the rug's interminable border design a Doric motif, clean cut and geometrically
accurate. Once this design had appealed to his abiding sense of order. To-night he hardly saw it, although
without his knowledge it was wearying his eyes, and had been doing so for several months.
In Scollops' eyes there was an expression difficult to fathom. Mr. Topper held the opinion that the expression
was uncomfortably insinuating, making him in some sly way an accessory before the fact. But hang it all, what
was the meaning of Scollops' look? The cat had been fed. He had seen to that himself as he had seen to it ever
since he had adventurously brought her home from Wilson's, the grocer's, one evening four years ago. Four
years. As long as that in this house; and once it had seemed so new. Now it was an old house, an uninteresting
house. Perhaps he was old, too, and equally uninteresting. Mr. Topper felt that he was, and for the first time in
his life permitted himself to wonder about such things.
37 Why does the author consider Mr. Topper's trouble to be the most troublesome form of trouble?
A Mr. Topper is surprised with the new form of trouble he was facing.
B Mr. Topper is always free from any form of trouble.
C Mr. Topper is unsympathetic towards those who are always troubled.
D Mr. Topper is not very sure whether he was feeling troubled or not.
38 Mr. Topper viewed with suspicion

A people who are vague about their troubles.
B people who are never bothered with any form of trouble.
C people who are always troubled.
D people who are not public about their troubles.
39 The line An earthquake, an eruption ... avert his eyes to less disturbing topics reveal that Mr.
Topper's is
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A blundering but genuine.

B shifting and ambivalent.
C tender and emotional.
D distant and aloof.
40 The fact that even his newspaper lost its wonted stability, reveals that Mr. Topper was
A loosing interest in reading newspapers.

B preoccupied with some other more complex issues.
C feeling bitter but did not know the source.
D actually delayed in the tunnel while returning home.
41 In the third paragraph Mr. Topper sees Scollops as
A tentative and uncertain.

B strangely silent and alien.
C hungry and adventurous.
D foreboding and suggestive.
42 The attitude of the author towards Mr. Topper is
A unsteady and ambivalent.

B decisive and judgemental.
C mocking but indulgent.
D candid but sarcastic.
Unit 9
Questions 43 47
Passage I
There are several hundred Indigenous peoples of Australia, many are groupings that existed before the British
annexation of Australia in 1788. Before Europeans, the number was over 400.
Indigenous or groups will generally talk of their "people" and their "country". These countries are ethnographic
areas, usually the size of an average European country, with around two hundred on the Australian continent at
the time of White arrival.
Within each country, people lived in clan groups - extended families defined by the various forms Australian
Aboriginal kinship. Inter-clan contact was common, as was inter-country contact, but there were strict protocols
around this contact.
The largest Aboriginal people today is the Pitjantjatjara who live in the area around Uluru (Ayers Rock) and
south into the Anangu Pitjantjatjara Yankunytjatjara in South Australia, while the second largest Aboriginal
community are the Arrernte people who live in and around Alice Springs. The third largest are the Luritja, who
live in the lands between the two largest just mentioned. The Aboriginal languages with the largest number of
speakers today are the Pitjantjatjara, Warlpiri and Arrernte.
Indigenous Australians are the original inhabitants of the Australian continent and nearby islands, and these
peoples' descendants. Indigenous Australians are distinguished as either Aboriginal people or Torres Strait
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Islanders, who currently together make up about 2.6% of Australia's population.
The Torres Strait Islanders are indigenous to the Torres Strait Islands, which are at the northern-most tip of
Queensland near Papua New Guinea. The term "Aboriginal" has traditionally been applied to indigenous
inhabitants of mainland Australia, Tasmania, and some of the other adjacent islands. The use of the term is
becoming less common, with names preferred by the various groups becoming more common.
43 What is the central idea contained in passage I?
A To provide a factual data about the Australian aboriginal kingship

B To popularise the Australian aboriginal people in the world
C To project the detrimental effects of the invasion by the Whites
D To lament the loss of the indigenous Australian population
44 Which of the following is inferred about the aboriginal people from passage I?
A That these aboriginal people have received ill treatment from the British
B That they are a closely knit tribe in spite of their vast expanse of population
C That they are hostile to people outside their clan and remains together
D That they are receptive of the changes brought about by the Bristish annexation
45 Which of the following can be inferred from the last paragraph of passage I?
A The term Aboriginal is an age old term used for the indigenous tribes.
B The term Aboriginal has been newly acquired since the islanders got included.
C The term Aboriginal is becoming less popular among the tribes.
D The term Aboriginal is a compulsory as well as traditional name for the tribes.
Passage II
Aborigines have occupied Australia for at least forty thousand years. They came originally from South east
Asia, entering the continent from the north. (Present-day Australia, including Tasmania, was then one continent
with what is now New Guinea.) Although Aborigines are Homo sapiens, biological isolation has meant that
they are not racially closely related to any other people. Because of their relative cultural isolation, Aborigines
were forced to develop their own solutions to the problems of human adaptation in the unique and harsh
Australian environment. The result was a stable and efficient way of life. Probably because of its effectiveness,
the society was slow to change, especially technologically. This gave to Aboriginal Australia the appearance of
unchangingness. The archaeological record reveals, however, a number of innovations, among them the
earliest known human cremations, some of the earliest rock art, and certainly the first boomerangs, ground axes,
and grindstones in the world.
The stereotype of Aborigines passively succumbing to the dictates of their environment has also been recently
questioned. We now know that they altered the landscape in significant ways, using what has been called
"firestick farming" to control underbrush growth and to facilitate hunting. Aborigines also altered species
occurrence of flora and fauna by resource management and possibly assisted in the extinction of prehistoric
animals.
The notion of pristine natives with a "pure" culture was an artificial one - many Aborigines had considerable
contact with Melanesians and Indonesians long before the European colonists arrived in Australia. Aboriginal
groups also influenced each other. Waves of change swept the entire continent - changes in tools and
implements, in social organisation, and in ceremonial practices and mythological concepts. Aboriginal culture
was dynamic, not static. The Aboriginal culture of the last two hundred years, the period after the arrival of the
colonists, has also been dynamic. This is why it is difficult to speak of a hard and fast dichotomy between
Aborigines "before" and "after" contact with the Europeans.
46 Which of the following can be inferred from passage II about the advent of the Europeans?
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A The Aborigines underwent a sea change in their living standards.

B The Aborigines remained progressive in their outlook.
C The Aborigines didn't get influenced by the Europeans.
D The Aborigines debased their own tradition while aping the Europeans.
47 Which of the following explains the arrangement of passage I and passage II?
A Passage I deals with the Aborigines before the advent of the Europeans and passage II with
the Aborigines after their advent.
B Passage I is the general view of a specific account about the Aborigines which is
complementary in nature.
C Passage I is the general view of a specific account about the Aborigines which is
contradictory in nature.
D Passage I is the introduction of the Aborigine culture which is discussed in details in passage
II.
Unit 10
Question 48
The above illustration supports which of the following beliefs?
A Utopianism B Socialism
C Democracy D Egalitarianism
Unit 11
GAMSAT
TEST ID: FLT00
Questions 49 54
This passage is taken from a play. Dr. Stockmann is at a public meeting and putting forward his stance.
Dr. Stockmann: The majority never has right on its side. Never, I say! That is one of these social lies against
which an independent, intelligent man must wage war. Who is it that constitute the majority of the population in
a country? Is it the clever folk, or the stupid? I don't imagine you will dispute the fact that at present the stupid
people are in an absolutely overwhelming majority all the world over. But, good Lord!--you can never pretend
that it is right that the stupid folk should govern the clever ones I (Uproar and cries.) Oh, yes--you can shout me
down, I know! But you cannot answer me. The majority has might on its side--unfortunately; but right it has
not. I am in the right--I and a few other scattered individuals. The minority is always in the right. (Renewed
uproar.)
Hovstad: Aha!--so Dr. Stockmann has become an aristocrat since the day before yesterday!
Dr. Stockmann: I have already said that I don't intend to waste a word on the puny, narrow-chested, short-
winded crew whom we are leaving astern. Pulsating life no longer concerns itself with them. I am thinking of
the few, the scattered few amongst us, who have absorbed new and vigorous truths. Such men stand, as it were,
at the outposts, so far ahead that the compact majority has not yet been able to come up with them; and there
they are fighting for truths that are too newly-born into the world of consciousness to have any considerable
number of people on their side as yet.
Hovstad: So the Doctor is a revolutionary now!
Dr. Stockmann: Good heavens--of course I am, Mr. Hovstad! I propose to raise a revolution against the lie
that the majority has the monopoly of the truth. What sort of truths are they that the majority usually supports?
They are truths that are of such advanced age that they are beginning to break up. And if a truth is as old as that,
it is also in a fair way to become a lie, gentlemen. (Laughter and mocking cries.) Yes, believe me or not, as you
like; but truths are by no means as long-lived at Methuselah--as some folk imagine. A normally constituted truth
lives, let us say, as a rule seventeen or eighteen, or at most twenty years--seldom longer. But truths as aged as
that are always worn frightfully thin, and nevertheless it is only then that the majority recognises them and
recommends them to the community as wholesome moral nourishment. There is no great nutritive value in that
sort of fare, I can assure you; and, as a doctor, I ought to know. These "majority truths" are like last year's cured
meat--like rancid, tainted ham; and they are the origin of the moral scurvy that is rampant in our communities.
49 From the very first comment, it is clear that Dr. Stockmann
A does not believe in the concept of majority.

B feels that the concept of majority is full of loopholes.
C feels that the concept of majority is flawless.
D is very pessimistic about the concept of majority.
50 Dr. Stockmann's tone can be described as
A agitated and direct.

B distraught and emotional.
C blundering but genuine.
D passionate but deferred.
GAMSAT
TEST ID: FLT00
51 Dr. Stockmann's comment reveals that he is very
A aroused with the fact that the majority comprises of intellectuals.

B confident about his own stand against the majority.
C dejected with the way the system works.
D disturbed with the fact that only fools comprise the majority.
52 According to Dr. Stockmann, very few people have absorbed new and vigorous truths and
A only such men have been able to overcome the pettiness of the common masses.
B these people have mental faculties that are more complex than those possessed by the
common masses.
C the gap between the mental faculties of such men and the general masses is much more
than what is visible.
D only such men are aware of the upcoming problems that the common masses is still unaware
of.
53 When Dr. Stockmann comments, I propose to raise a revolution against the lie that the majority has
the monopoly of the truth, it reflects his
A state of frustration.
B total disbelief in the concept of majority.
C state of indecisiveness.
D hypocrisy.
54 From the last dialogue in the passage it is evident that Dr. Stockmann is trying to
A portray the fact that the common masses take a long time to believe a truth, which proves to
be harmful.
B show his superiority over the beliefs of the majority, which he thinks comprises of ignorant
people.
C portray the fact that a lie is far more enduring than the truth and it is necessary to change this
structure.
D show that common men like all mortals make the mistake of not recognising a truth and
taking it for a lie.
Unit 12
Questions 55 60
The Ruined Maid
"O 'Melia, my dear, this does everything crown!

Who could have supposed I should meet you in Town?
And whence such fair garments, such prosperi-ty?
O didn't you know I'd been ruined?" said she.
"You left us in tatters, without shoes or socks,

Tired of digging potatoes, and spudding up docks;
And now you've gay bracelets and bright feathers three!"
"Yes: that's how we dress when we're ruined," said she.
"At home in the barton you said 'thee' and 'thou,'

GAMSAT
TEST ID: FLT00
And 'thik oon,' and 'thes oon,' and 't'other'; but now
Your talking quite fits 'ee for high compa-ny!"
"Some polish is gained with one's ruin," said she.
"Your hands were like paws then, your face blue and bleak
But now I'm bewitched by your delicate cheek,
And your little gloves fit as on any la-dy!"
"We never do work when we're ruined," said she.
"You used to call home-life a hag-ridden dream,

And you'd sigh, and you'd sock; but at present you seem
To know not of megrims or melancho-ly!"
"True. One's pretty lively when ruined," said she.
"I wish I had feathers, a fine sweeping gown,

And a delicate face, and could strut about Town!"
"My dear -- a raw country girl, such as you be,
Cannot quite expect that. You ain't ruined," said she.
55 Which of the following is suggested in the poem?

A The greed and hankering of the poor women for a lavish life
B The irony of the class distinctions and moral rectitude
C The jealousy that develops in the women of the lower class.
D The advice coming from the upper class women should be heeded.
56 Which of the following is suggested by the word ruined?
A That the woman is soiled and unmarriageable.

B That the woman is in a financial crisis.
C That the woman is not in a stable mental condition
D That the woman is weary and aged.
57 In the third stanza which of the following is suggested by Melia?
A She reflects upon the past days and becomes nostalgic about her heavy accent.
B She adores the company of the rich and the polished and wants to ape them in life.
C She indicates that she has gained refinement with her loss of conventional dignity.
D She thinks it is necessary to be polished even if it means being ruined.
58 Which of the following can be inferred about the two maids from the poem?
A Both are content in their present circumstances despite difficulties.

B Each woman performs demeaning labour in order to survive.
C Both the women wish to be in each others shoes.
D Each woman is boastful of her own lifestyle.
59 In the final stanza of the poem which of the following is indicated?

GAMSAT
TEST ID: FLT00
A That the farm maid is disappointed with Melia and her new life.
B That Melia looks down upon her former co-worker.
C That Melia longs to go back to poor yet virtuous life.
D That the farm maid innocently wishes a life like that of Melias.
60 The poems sensibilities come across as:
A Modern
B Medieval
C Victorian
D Universal
Unit 13
Questions 61 65
1 The following passage is adapted from the 15th century text The Prince by Niccol Machiavelli. Here
the author advises how a prince should conduct himself to gain renown.
I A prince is also respected when he is either a true friend or a downright enemy, that is to say, when,
without any reservation, he declares himself in favour of one party against the other; which course will always
be more advantageous than standing neutral; because if two of your powerful neighbours come to blows, they
are of such a character that, if one of them conquers, you have either to fear him or not.
II It will always be more advantageous for you to declare yourself and to make war strenuously; because,
in the first case, if you do not declare yourself, you will invariably fall a prey to the conqueror, to the pleasure
and satisfaction of him who has been conquered, and you will have no reasons to offer, nor anything to protect
or to shelter you.
III He who conquers does not want doubtful friends who will not aid him in the time of trial; and he who
loses will not harbour you because you did not willingly, sword in hand, court his fate.
IV Again, it much assists a prince to set unusual examples in internal affairs, similar to those which are
related of Messer Bernabo da Milano, who, when he had the opportunity, by any one in civil life doing some
extraordinary thing, either good or bad, would take some method of rewarding or punishing him, which would
be much spoken about.
V And a prince ought, above all things, always endeavour in every action to gain for himself the
reputation of being a great and remarkable man.
61 Which of the following can be inferred from the first statement?
A That the prince should ideally take sides in order to avoid unnecessary blows on him
B That the prince should be careful and updated about his enemies and friends and who to trust
C That the prince should calculate his moves and pose a definite picture in front of his
subordinates
D That the prince should avoid a neutral stance in order to benefit from all quarters of his
kingdom
62 The advice offered by the author in these five statements is:

GAMSAT
TEST ID: FLT00
A Unjust
B Pragmatic
C Atrocious
D Mischievous
63 Which of the following is suggested about the subjects of the state ruled by the prince?
A Intelligent and well informed

B Naive and sympathetic
C Cruel and greedy
D Agile and faithful
64 The advice given suggests that a key quality needed by a ruler is:
A Benevolence
B Impressiveness
C Aristocracy
D Sincerity
65 Which of the following proverbs underlines the writer's advice?
A A good beginning makes a good ending

B A journey of a thousand miles begin with a single step
C As you sow so shall you reap
D A person is known by the company he keeps
Unit 14
Question 66
66 To avoid untoward happenings or to avoid courting controversies in ones life one should be prudent
enough to use discretion.
Which of the following proverbs explains the above?
A An ounce of discretion is worth a pound of wit

B Discretion is the better part of valour (If you say discretion is the better part of valor, you
mean that avoiding a dangerous or unpleasant situation is sometimes the most sensible thing
to do)
C The discretion of a man maketh him slow to anger; And it is his glory to pass over a
transgression.
D Discretion will guard you, Understanding will watch over you
GAMSAT
TEST ID: FLT00
Unit 15
Questions 67 73
I am come of a race noted for vigour of fancy and ardour of passion. Men have called me mad; but the question
is not yet settled, whether madness is or is not the loftiest intelligence whether much that is glorious-
whether all that is profounddoes not spring from disease of thoughtfrom moods of mind exalted at the
expense of the general intellect. They who dream by day are cognizant of many things which escape those who
dream only by night. In their grey visions they obtain glimpses of eternity, and thrill, in awakening, to find that
they have been upon the verge of the great secret. In snatches, they learn something of the wisdom which is of
good, and more of the mere knowledge which is of evil. They penetrate, however, rudderless or compassless
into the vast ocean of the "light ineffable," and again, like the adventures of the Nubian geographer, "agressi
sunt mare tenebrarum, quid in eo esset exploraturi."
We will say, then, that I am mad. I grant, at least, that there are two distinct conditions of my mental
existencethe condition of a lucid reason, not to be disputed, and belonging to the memory of events forming
the first epoch of my lifeand a condition of shadow and doubt, appertaining to the present, and to the
recollection of what constitutes the second great era of my being. Therefore, what I shall tell of the earlier
period, believe; and to what I may relate of the later time, give only such credit as may seem due, or doubt it
altogether, or, if doubt it ye cannot, then play unto its riddle the Oedipus.
She whom I loved in youth, and of whom I now pen calmly and distinctly these remembrances, was the sole
daughter of the only sister of my mother long departed. Eleonora was the name of my cousin. We had always
dwelled together, beneath a tropical sun, in the Valley of the Many-Coloured Grass. No unguided footstep ever
came upon that vale; for it lay away up among a range of giant hills that hung beetling around about it, shutting
out the sunlight from its sweetest recesses. No path was trodden in its vicinity; and, to reach our happy home,
there was need of putting back, with force, the foliage of many thousands of forest trees, and of crushing to
death the glories of many millions of fragrant flowers. Thus it was that we lived all alone, knowing nothing of
the world without the valleyI, and my cousin, and her mother.
67 Men have called the narrator mad because
A he is more vigorous than the others.

B he expresses his passion publicly.
C his behaviour does not conform to the social standards.
D he possesses too much of robustness and emotions.
68 According to the narrator, madness

A is the highest manifestation of brilliance.
B is the lowest manifestation of brilliance.
C is intense and sublime.
D is still enigmatic to common man's understanding.
69 The narrator feels that daydreaming is a valuable quality because

A daydreamers are more sensitive towards the minute details that escape the vision of others.
B daydreamers are more relaxed by nature and can make real life decisions much more
realistically.
C daydreamers can achieve the impossible in the wildest of dreams.
D daydreamers possess a vision of the divine which can give them the key to the greatest of
mysteries.
GAMSAT
TEST ID: FLT00
70 The narrator comments that he is ready to accept the fact that he has two distinct conditions of ...
mental existence, which are
A reason and doubt.

B chronological and sporadic.
C rational and irrational.
D reality and dreaming.
71 The narrator instructs the readers to
A accept the former descriptions as facts and question the latter events.
B take the earlier descriptions as facts and the later as fiction.
C critically view whatever descriptions he relates to them.
D accept all that he relates as facts that need to be revised.
72 What does the phrase no unguided footstep ever came upon that vale reveal?
A The valley was untouched by human occupation.

B Outsiders needed a guide to show them the way to the valley.
C Outsiders wanted to visit the valley but could not do it without a guide.
D The valley was not frequented by other people.
73 The tone of the narrator in the last line of the third paragraph is
A calm and collected.

B anxious and perturbed.
C frank and direct.
D detached and ambiguous.
Unit 16
Questions 74 75
74 What is suggested by the following?
Democracy is a government where you can say what you think even if you don't think.
A Democracy entertains the fool

B Democracy gives equal rights to all
C Democracy urges everyone to speak up
D Democracy heavily relies on freedom of speech
GAMSAT
TEST ID: FLT00
75 A person who is not married will never get to know what are the joys and problems of a married
person.
Which of the following proverb explains the above?
A Marriage is like a groundnut: you have to crack them to see what is inside.
B Marriage is like a besieged castle; those who are on the outside wish to get in; and those who
are on the inside wish to get out.
C A successful marriage is an edifice that must be rebuilt every day.
D Keep your eyes wide open before marriage, and half-shut afterwards
GAMSAT
TEST ID: FLT00
1.3 WRITTEN COMMUNICATION
WRITING TEST A
Consider the following comments and develop a piece of writing in response to one or more of them.
Your writing will be judged on the quality of your response to the theme; how well you organise and present
your point of view, and how effectively you express yourself. You will not be judged on the views or attitudes
you express.
*******
A moment comes, which comes but rarely in history, when we step out from the old to the new, when an age
ends, and when the sound of a nation, long suppressed, finds utterance.
Jawahar Lal Nehru
Ask not what your country can do for you, but what you can do for your country.
John F. Kennedy
Patriotism is not short, frenzied outbursts of emotion, but the tranquil and steady dedication of a lifetime.
Adlai E. Stevenson
A nation is a society united by a delusion about its ancestry and by common hatred of its neighbours.
William Ralph Inge
Unless our conception of patriotism is progressive, it cannot hope to embody the real affection and the real
interest of the nation.
Jane Addams
GAMSAT
TEST ID: FLT00
WRITING TEST B
Consider the following comments and develop a piece of writing in response to one or more of them.
Your writing will be judged on the quality of your response to the theme; how well you organise and present
your point of view, and how effectively you express yourself. You will not be judged on the views or attitudes
you express.
*******
He who is slow to anger has great understanding, but he who has a hasty temper exalts folly.
Anonymous
Temper is a weapon that we hold by the blade.

James Barrie
Anyone can become angry - that is easy. But to be angry with the right person, to the right degree, at the right
time, for the right purpose, and in the right way; this is not easy.
Aristotle
The world needs anger. The world often continues to allow evil because it isn't angry enough.
Bede Jarrett
Anger cannot be dishonest.

George R. Bach
GAMSAT
TEST ID: FLT00
1.4 REASONING IN BIOLOGICAL AND PHYSICAL SCIENCES
Unit 1
A cross used to ascertain whether a dominant phenotype is homozygous or heterozygous is termed test cross.
Back cross is a cross of F1 progeny back to one of their parents. Back cross to the recessive parent is known as
test cross. Test cross involves crossing the organism of unknown genotype with a number of homozygous
recessive alleles. The homozygous recessive individuals produce gametes that contain only recessive alleles.
1. In a particular test-cross, all the offspring produced in the F1 generation are long winged flies with a
genotype of Ll. If the homozygous recessive parent is vestigial winged flies (genotype ll), then what
would be the probable genotype of the other parent?
A LL
B LL or Ll
C Ll
D ll or Ll
2. If for the above test-cross, 50% of the F1 generation show long-winged genotype (Ll) and the other
50% show vestigial winged (ll), what could be the probable genotype of the dominant parent?
A LL
B Ll or LL
C Ll
D ll or Ll
3. Out of the two experiments shown above, which cross could be regarded as a back-cross?
A Experiment I
B Experiment II
C Both of the experiments
D none of the experiments
Unit 2
Read the paragraph carefully and answer the following questions:
Choose the correct option:
GAMSAT
TEST ID: FLT00
4. Compound A in the above passage is
A HgI2
B K2HgI4
C Hg(NO3)2
D Hg2(NO3)2
5. Compound (E) in the above paragraph is
A Hg2CI2
B HgCI2
C SnCI2
D Hg
6. Oxidation state of Fe in compound (F) is
A +1
B +2
C +3
D +4
7. D NH4 2
SO 4 Purple coloured solution G
Hence, compound (G) is
A HgI2
B NH4I
C
D Hg NH2 I
8. White ppt. B NH3 Black ppt. H
Hence, (H) is due to the formation of
A Hg(NH2)Cl
B Hg
C Hg(NH2)Cl + Hg
D Hg(NH2)I
GAMSAT
TEST ID: FLT00
Unit 3
In the Young's Double Slit experiment the point source is placed slightly off the central axis as shown in the
figure, the wavelength of the light from the source S is 5000A.
Answer the following questions in view of above passage:
9. What is the nature and order of interference at the point P?
A Maxima of the order 70

B minima of the order 70
C Maxima of the order 51
D minima of the order 50
10. What is the nature and order of the interference at O?
A Minima of the zero order.

B Maxima of the order 20
C Maxima of the order 30
D maxima of the order 15
11. Where should a film of refractive index = 1.5 be placed to get maxima of zero order at point O.
A In front of slit S1
B In front of slit S2
C In front of either S1 or S2
D we cant get central maxima at O.
12. In above question what should be thickness of the film to get central maxima?
A 20 m
B 30 m
C 25 m
D 50 m
13. What will be the width of the fringe?
A 100 m
B 150 m
GAMSAT
TEST ID: FLT00
C 75 m
D 65 m
Unit 4
Genotype Antigens present on plasma membrane of red blood cells Phenotype

IAIA Antigen A Blood group A
IAIB Antigen A and antigen B Blood group AB
IAIO Antigen A Blood group A
IBIB Antigen B Blood group B
IBIO Antigen B Blood group B
IOIO Neither antigen A nor antigen B Blood group O
14. Codominance: The relationship between a pair of alleles which both contribute to the phenotype of a
heterozygote.
Which of the following genotype shows codominance?
A IOIO
B IAIB
C IAIO
D IBIO
15. Incomplete dominance: Refers to a pair of alleles, neither of which displays dominance, the phenotype
of a heterozygote being intermediate between the phenotypes of the two homozygotes.
Which of the following genotypes shows incomplete dominance?
A IAIB
B IAIO
C IBIO
D none of them
16. Human Blood group (ABO) system is an example of
A Incomplete dominance
B Codominance
C Multiple Allelism
D Both A and B
Unit 5
The quantity of 14C as well as that of 14CO2 present in the atmosphere remains constant. The concentration of
14
C in all living organisms remains almost constant during their life time. After their death, 14C is not taken up
by them but the content of 14C assimilated begins to decay by emitting p-particles, with half-life period of 5568
years. The decay rate at the time of death of plant is 16.1 counts per minute per gram of carbon. Hence, by
measuring the decay rate of the dead matter, the age of matter can be calculated, e.g. if decay rate of sample of
wood is found to be N disintegrations per minute per gram of carbon after t years, then
N = N0e-t
Where = disintegration constant and NO = number of disintegrations per minute per gram when the plant had
just died.
GAMSAT
TEST ID: FLT00
Choose the correct option:

14
17. C is present in environment because of
A Artificial transmutation
B Cosmic neutron bombardment of nitrogen
C It being a part of radioactive series happening naturally
12
D C when gets bombarded with neutrons, transmutes to 14C in environment
18. In a dead plant, the decay rate will be
A Higher than in a living plant

B Lower than in a living plant
C The ratio of 14C/12C which will increase in a dead plant as compared to a living plant
D None of the above
19. A sample of 14CO2 was mixed with ordinary 12CO2 for studying a biological traces experiment. The 10
ml of this mixture at STP possess the rate of 104 disintegrations per minute. How many milli-curie of
radioactive carbon is needed to prepare 60 litre of such a mixture?
A 0.027 mCi/g
B 0.27 mCi/g
C 0.0027 mCi/g
D 2.7 mCi/g
14
20. C is
A An artificial radioactive isotope

B A natural radioactive isotope
C A natural non-radioactive isotope
D An artificial non-radioactive isotope
21. The basis for carbon-14 dating method is that the
A C-14 fraction is same in all objects

B C-14 is highly unstable and is readily lost from the objects
C Ratio of 14C to 12C in our atmosphere has always been constant
D Living tissue will not absorb C-14 but will absorb C-12 from their sources of carbon
Unit 6
Analogue voltmeters and ammeters work by measuring the torque exerted by a magnetic field on a current
carrying coil. The reading is displayed by means of the deflection of a pointer over a scale. The adjacent figure
shows the essentials of a galvanometer, on which both analogue ammeters and analogue voltmeters are based.
Assume that the coil is 2.1 cm high, 1.2 cm wide, has 250 turns and is mounted so that it can rotate about an
axis (into the page) in a uniform radial magnetic field with B = 0.23 T. For any orientation of the coil, the net
magnetic field through the coil is perpendicular to the normal vector of the coil (and thus parallel to the plane of
coil). A spring SP provides a counter torque that balances the magnetic torque, so that a given steady current I in
the coil results in a steady angular deflection c|). The greater the current is, greater the deflection is, and thus
greater the torque required of the spring is. A current of 100 ^A produces an angular deflection of 28.
GAMSAT
TEST ID: FLT00
22. What must be the torsion constant K of the spring?
A 2.6 x 10-8 Nm/degree

B 5.2 x 10-8 Nm/degree
C 2.6 x 10-4Nm/degree
D 5.2 x 10-4 Nm/degree
23. If we reduce the value of this K to half of its value, then the deflection would be
A 28
B 56
C 14
D none of these
24. If the value of magnetic field is put equal to 0.69 T and K = 15.6 x 10-8 Nm/degree. Then, the
deflection would be
A <28
B =28
C 14
D none of these
Unit 7
Night blindness is a condition in which affected people have difficulty seeing in dim light. The allele for night
blindness, N, is dominant to the allele for normal vision, n. The diagram shows part of a family tree showing
the inheritance of night blindness.
GAMSAT
TEST ID: FLT00
25. If individual 12 is a boy, what would be his genotype?
A NN
B Nn
C nn
D Either B or C
26. What is the probability that the child born to individuals 10 and 11 will be a girl with night blindness?
A
B 1/3
C
D either B or C
27. A pedigree analysis of a family affected with DYT1 mutation is shown below.
The asymptomatic male/ female with DYT1 mutation in the F1 generation is an example of
GAMSAT
TEST ID: FLT00
A Incomplete dominance
B Overdominance
C Codominance
D Multiple allelism
Unit 8
Reimer-Tiemann reaction involves an aryl carbanion/enolate anion and also -CCl3 derived from the action of
strong bases on CHCl3, though the latter has only a transient existence decomposing to: CCl2, a highly electron
deficient electrophile that attacks the aromatic nucleus; the product from phenoxide ion is after acidification,
very largely the o-aldehyde plus just a small amount of p-isomer.
28. If the above reaction is carried out on the anion of p-hydroxytoluene, what will be the product/products?
C Both A and B
D None of the above
29. Name the electrophile attacking carbanion in the above reaction.
A Chloroform
B Trichloromethyl anion
C dichlorocarbene
D hydrogen ion
30. The product of the reaction in the above paragraph is largely
A m-salicylaldehyde
B p-salicylaldehyde
C o-salicylaldehyde
D none of the above
GAMSAT
TEST ID: FLT00
31. CO2 can attack in a similar manner to: CCl2 on phenoxide ion. Following a similar mechanism, major
product will be
A o-hydroxybenzoate
B p-hydroxybenzoate
C m-hydroxybenzoate
D none of the above
32. Reimer-Tiemann reaction involves
A nucleophilic substitution
B electrophilic substitution
C Free radical mechanism
D ionic mechanism
Unit 9
Consider a parallel resonant circuit shown in adjacent figure. One branch contains an inductor of inductance L
and small ohmic resistance R, whereas the other branch contains a capacitor of capacitance C. The circuit is fed
by a source of alternating emf
E E0ei t E0 sin t
1
Z2
j C
The impedance of inductor branch
The impedance of capacitor branch,
Z1 R j L
Net impedance Z of the two parallel branches is given by
1 1 1 1
j L
Z Z1 Z2 R j L
R j L R L
j C 2 2 2
j C 2 2
R j L R j L R L R L2
The current following in the circuit,
E R L
I E 2 2 2
j C
Z R L R2 2 2
L
GAMSAT
TEST ID: FLT00
For resonance to occur, the current must be in phase with the applied emf. For this, the reactive component of
current should be zero, i.e.
L
j C 2 2 2
0
R L
L
or, C 2 2 2
writing r for at resonance
R rL
This gives resonant angular frequency,
1 R2
r
LC L2
At parallel circuit resonance, the impendence is maximum and current is minimum. Parallel resonant circuit is
sometimes called the anti-resonance in order to distinguish from series resonance. Answer the following
questions in view of above passage.
33. Find the impedance of AC circuit as shown in the adjacent figure
A 100 2
B 200
C 100
D 200 2
34. The reactance of the circuit in the adjacent figure is 20 . Find the value of Irms
A 4 amp
B 2 amp
C 4.5 amp
D 13.5 amp
GAMSAT
TEST ID: FLT00
35. For an ac circuit, impendence is given by Z = 50 + JK(P2 - 4Q2) where K is a positive non
zero constant. For resonance, which of the following expression is true?
A P = 2Q
B P= Q
C P+ Q=K
D P-Q=K
36. A coil of inductance 100 H and 60 . effective resistances is connected in parallel with a condenser
of 100 pF. The resonant circuit so formed is excited from an alternating current source. The frequency
of the source is varied until the maximum impendence of the circuit is obtained. The frequency of the
generator at which this occurs is
A 109/2 Hz
B 107/2 Hz
C 105/2 Hz
D 103/2 Hz
37. Which of the following graph shows correct relation between current I and frequency f in a parallel L-
C-R ac circuit?
GAMSAT
TEST ID: FLT00
Unit 10
A person fasted overnight and then swallowed 75 gm of glucose. The graph shows the resulting changes in the
concentration of insulin and glucose in the blood.
38. Statement I: Insulin secretion is elevated after the blood glucose level is increased.
Statement II: Insulin secretion is elevated immediately after the oral administration of glucose.
A Statement I and Statement II are both correct

B Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect
C Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct
D Both the statements are incorrect
39. Glucagon, an endocrine hormone, is anti-functional to insulin. During aerobic exercises, glucose is
oxidised rapidly. Which of the following statements is true for the above conditions?
A During aerobic exercises, the concentration of insulin is greater than glucagon

B During aerobic exercises, the concentration of glucagon increases and concentration of
insulin decreases
C During aerobic exercises, both glucagon and insulin concentrations decreases rapidly due to
rapid breakdown of glucose
D Both A and C
GAMSAT
TEST ID: FLT00
Unit 11
Grignard reagents (RMgX) are prepared by the reaction of an organic halide and magnesium metal in ether
solvent.
The solvent (usually diethyl ether or tetrahydrofuran) plays a crucial role in the formation of a Grignard
reagent. Alkyl halides are more reactive than aryl and vinyl halides. Indeed, aryl and vinyl chlorides do not
form Grignard reagents in diethyl ether. However, an alkyl halide containing an alcoholic - OH group can be
converted to Grignard reagent by first protecting the - OH group to a tert-butyldimethylsilyl ether which is inert
to Grignard reagent. The protecting group is finally liberated by treatment with fluoride ion.
40. Grignard reactions generally occur in dry ether because
A the stronger acid diethyl ether will displace the weaker RH acid from its salt
B the stronger acid H2O will displace the weaker acid RH from its salt
C water slows down the reaction
D water mixes with ether preventing ether to perform its function
41. Grignard reagent cant be prepared from
42. H2N(CH2)3Br can't be converted into corresponding Grignard reagent because
A Reaction between - NH2 and - Br group present in the same molecule

B Of strong nucleophilic character of the Grignard reagent
C Of strong basic nature of the Grignard reagent
D All of the above
GAMSAT
TEST ID: FLT00
43. The function of tetrahydrofuran in the preparation of Grignard reagent is that it
A Acts as a solvent
B Helps in maintaining the reactivity of magnesium
C Both
D None of the above
Unit 12
Artificial satellites orbiting the earth are a familiar fact of contemporary life. They have a wide area of
application, ranging from communication to weather forecast. So, study of artificial satellites is very important.
The questions we would like to probe are how do they stay in orbits and what determines the properties of their
orbits. Launching a satellite is similar to the projection of a projectile from a height. The satellites are carried by
rocket to the pre calculated height and are projected with a definite velocity. The satellite then comes under the
effect of qravitv which provides the centripetal force for the satellite to be in its orbit. The figure shows the
trajectories of the orbits of satellites launched from a height h with different initial velocities. Velocities
increase from (1) to (6). Trajectories (1) to (4) are closed orbits whereas (5) and (6) are open orbits. Trajectory
(3) is the simplest case. We would deal only with the circular trajectories. The only force acting on a satellite is
the earth's gravitational force. We can find out the velocity of projection for circular orbit frame.
GM E m mv 2
r2 r
GM E
or v ...... 1
r
The time period of a satellite for a circular orbit is given
2 R h
T
v by, where h is the height at which the satellite is placed and v its velocity.
The mechanical energy E of the satellite always remains constant (since the satellite's mass is 80, much smaller
than earth's mass. We assign U, K and E to represent potential energy, kinetic energy, and total energy,
respectively, for the earth-satellite system.) The potential energy of the system is
given by
GM E m
U
r ...(2)
and K = 1/2mV2 ..-(3)
GAMSAT
TEST ID: FLT00
so, the total mechanical energy is given

GM E m
E K U
2r ...(4)
where r = R + h
With the above theory, we can calculate the energies and time periods of satellites.
For all calculations in the questions given below take radius of earth RE = 6400 km, mass of earth
mE =5.98x1024 kg, (24 hours)2/3 = 1954 sec
44. Equation (1) of the passage given suggests that
A Velocity of the satellite is in a circular orbit

B The radius o9f curvature of orbit (3) does not depend on the initial kinetic energy of the
satellite during its projection
C Of all the given orbits only orbit (3) is a stable orbit
D All of the above
45. Satellites move in closed orbits which means that
A the magnitude of potential energy is always greater than that of kinetic energy
B the magnitude of potential energy is always equal to that of kinetic energy
C the magnitudes of potential energy and total energy are equal
D the magnitudes of kinetic energy and the total energy are never equal
46. A ball of mass 7.2 kg is launched from the earth's surface to a circular orbit at a height of 350 km from
the surface. In doing so, what is the change in mechanical energy of the ball?
A 250MJ
B 317MJ
C 213MJ
D zero
47. A satellite is orbiting close to the surface of earth. Then, its time-period is
R
2
g
A
2R
2
g
B
R
2
2g
C
4R
2
g
D
GAMSAT
TEST ID: FLT00
Unit 13
Ectothermic organisms can control their body temperature only by changing their behaviour. Ectothermic
animals therefore rely on altering their external environment to maintain a reasonably constant internal
temperature. Sometimes ectotherms find it easier to gain heat than lose it. Moving to a cooler environment,
which may be below their present body temperature may their only option. Sometimes this may not be possible.
48. If a lizard from Melbourne suburb is brought to Great Victoria Desert and left in the open desert with
no trees or shades but only some burrows, what will be the outcome?
A The lizard will die due to excessive heat gain in its body
B The lizard will busk for a shorter time period in the day, than usual, and will return to the
burrow quickly
C The lizard will find a burrow immediately and will come out under the sun for short busking
phases with frequent intervals of returning back to the burrow
D The lizard will spend the whole day inside its burrow
49. From the information given in the background passage, what could be the most probable mean body
temperature of the lizard?
A 20 C
B 30 C
C 40 C
D 37 C
GAMSAT
TEST ID: FLT00
50. In a rainy day, the daytime temperature of Adelaide is 25 C. What would be the mean body
temperature of the lizard?
A 25 C
B 20 C
C 37 C
D 15 C
51. Polar bears develop a thick layer of fur over their skin surface to minimize heat-loss. It is safe to
conclude that
A Polar bear is an endothermic animal

B Polar bear is an ectothermic animal
C Polar bear can live in both cold-climate and hot-climate, respectively
A Both B and C
Unit 14
A research student has synthesized a compound A in the laboratory. The compound A is
He wanted to study the compound in acidic medium and kept it in acid for some time. After some time, when
isolated the compound, to his surprise, he got the mixture of two compounds B, C. He studied their properties
and compared them with A.
A B C
Reaction with NaHC03 Brisk effervescence No No
Red No No
Blue litmus No No Yellow ppt.
NaOl No No Silver mirror
[Ag(NH3)2]+ A H3 O
B C C = 54.55% H =
Other information 9.1%
GAMSAT
TEST ID: FLT00
52. The compound B is
C
D none of the above
53. B is formed due to
A Cleavage of CO bond followed by esterification

B Decarboxylation of - COOH group
C oxidation of- CH2COOH into - COOH group
D none of the above
54. Compound C is
A
CH3 CH2CHO
B
C HCHO
CH3 CHO
D
Unit 15
Read the paragraph carefully and answer the following questions:
GAMSAT
TEST ID: FLT00
Pressure, volume and temperature are the state variable associated with any gas. If any amount of heat (Q) is
given to the system, or extracted from the system, it may be responsible for doing work on system and/or
changing the internal energy of the system. This work done and change in internal energy can indeed change the
state variable of the system. This change of state variable is referred to as thermodynamic process.
One such thermodynamic process system is shown here. It consists of a chamber and two pistons; lower piston
divides the chamber into two equal parts.
The material of piston and chamber is a perfect insulator. Both the upper and lower chambers contains 1 mole
of He gas each. Initial state variables of both gases are shown in the figure. P1 = 1 atm, P2 = 1 atm, v0 = 10-2 m2,
T0 = 500 K. The piston is mass-less and frictionless, having area of A = 10-4 m2. The spring is light having
spring constant of k = 103 N/m. The external coil passing through chamber 1 is connected to a heater. Heat of
Q = 1250R joule, where R is universal gas constant, is supplied through heater and upper piston is moved such
that gas in chamber 1 expands isothermally changing temperature of chamber 2 from T s to 2TQ. Accordingly,
the piston moves down thereby compressing gas in chamber 2. Without any ambiguity it can be concluded that
all the state variables of each gas change when the piston comes to rest again.
55. What is the minimum number of state variables that must change with time for a
thermodynamic process to be feasible?
A 1
B 2
C 3
D None of the above
56. If Q, W and U represent heat input, work output and internal energy of an ideal gas system,
how many of these parameters must change their values for a thermodynamic process to be
feasible.
A 1
B 2
C 3
D None of the above
57. For the system shown in paragraph, what is the initial state of the spring?
A Original length
B 3cm, compression
C 1cm, elongation
D 3cm, elongation
58. By what distance x does the piston compress after heat is given to chamber 1?
(R is universal gas constant)
A x R/2
B x 2R
C x R
D x 2 R
GAMSAT
TEST ID: FLT00
59. If P2f is the final pressure of chamber 2, then
1
P2f 4/3
1 R / 50
A
1
P2f 5/3
1 R / 50
B
1
P2f 5/3
1 R /100
C
1
P2f 4/3
1 R /100
D
Unit 16
A counter current system occurs two substances flow through the same body part in opposite directions. The
figure, given below, shows the counter current system in the gill lamellae of a fish along with that of
unidirectional flow.
GAMSAT
TEST ID: FLT00
60. The gill lamellae of a fish shows counter current system, because
A The two fluids would quickly reach equilibrium so the blood would extract much more of the
oxygen available in water
B There is a diffusion gradient along the whole gill plate
C The blood and water oxygen-equilibrium is elevated to ensure higher oxygen uptake in blood.
D Both B and C
61. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
A Fish gills are not effective in land

B Accessory breathing organs are required by fish to survive outside water for some time
C Mudskippers, an amphibian fish, lives outside water for half a day using modified gills as its
sole respiratory apparatus
D Both A and B
62. Fast- swimming fish, like mackerel, opens its mouth and swim forwards. They exhibit a type of
ventilation through their gills, called Ram ventilation.
Energy required for Ram ventilation is provided by
A Metabolic energy produced directly from respiration in the fish

B The muscles used in swimming
C Opercular muscles and buccal cavity muscles
D Both A and C
63. The mechanism of gill function in a fresh water fish is shown below:
I. The mouth closes

II. Water is pushed from the mouth to the pharynx
III. Water enters the mouth
IV. Water is pushed over the gills from the pharynx
V. The opercular valve is open
GAMSAT
TEST ID: FLT00
Which of the following sequencing is correct?
A III, IV, V, II and I

B I, II, V, III, and IV
C V, III, IV, I and II
D III, II, I, IV and V
Unit 17
In a polyhydric alcohol, the total numbers of hydroxyl groups are estimated by the following methods:
(i) A known mass of the acetyl derivative of polyhydric alcohol is taken. It is mixed with an excess
volume of a standard alkali solution. Both are refluxed. Alkali is used in the hydrolysis of acetyl
derivative. The unused alkali is measured by carrying out titration with a standard acid solution and
total number of hydroxyl groups (n) can thus be calculated stoichiometrically.
(ii) Total number of -OH groups in vicinal position can be calculated by oxidation with periodic acid or
lead tetra acetate.
64. 0.436 g of acetyl derivative of a polyhydric alcohol (molecular mass = 92) require 0.336 g KOH for
hydrolysis. The total numbers of hydroxyl group(s) in the alcohol are
A 1
B 2
C 3
D 4
65. The product formed by the reaction of ethylene glycol and periodic acid (HIO 4) is
A acetic acid
B formic acid
C Formaldehyde
D glyoxal
GAMSAT
TEST ID: FLT00
66. A compound with molecular formula C4H10O3 is converted by the action of acetyl chloride to a
compound with molecular weight 190. The original compound has
A one -OH group

B two -OH groups
C three -OH groups
D no -OH group
67. The ratio of the number of moles of lead tetra acetate required for the oxidation of 1 mole of glucose to
that of 1 mole of fructose is
A 1: 1
B 2: 1
C 5: 4
D 4: 5
68. When 1 mole of glucose is oxidized by periodic acid, the product(s) formed are
A 4 moles of formic acid and 1 mole of formaldehyde

B 5 moles of formic acid and 1 mole of formaldehyde
C 3 moles of formic acid and 2 moles of formaldehyde
D 2 moles of formic acid and 4 moles of formaldehyde
Unit 18
Just as "mass" plays the role of inertia in translatory motion, moment of inertia plays the same role in rotational
motion hence it is known as rotational inertia.
Basically, in rotational motion of a body, all the particles of the body move in concentric circular paths. The
moment of inertia of a particle of mass m which is moving on a circular path of radius r is given by mr 2. If mass
r 2 dm
m of a body is continuously distributed, the moment of inertia of such a body is given by , where dm is
mass element such that all the particle lying on this element moves on a circular path of radius r.
With the help of above mentioned theory we can calculate the moment of inertia of different bodies, and the
conclusion is that the moment of inertia depends upon the following factors:
1. Mass of the body
2. Axis of rotation
3. Distribution of mass
4. Dimensions of the body
If the two bodies have all the four points same then they will have the same moment of inertia
69. If same torque is applied on two bodies having different moment of inertia
A The body which is having greater moment of inertia will have more angular acceleration
B The body which is having greater moment of inertia will have lower angular acceleration
C Both will accelerate with same magnitude
D None of these
GAMSAT
TEST ID: FLT00
70. The moment of inertia of a spherical shell and a hemispherical shell of same mass and radius about a
tangential axis, passing through P will be
A Different
B same
C Data insufficient
D none of them
71. The combined moment of inertia of three point masses of 1, 2 and 3 gm lying in the x y plane at
respectively (1,1) m, (2,2) m, (-1r2)^n , about z axis will be
A 0.033 kg-m2
B 0.022 kg-m2
C 0.011 kg-m2
D none of these
72. A boy is rotating a rod of mass m and length with the help of two strings of length attached to the
ends of rod. The moment of inertia of the rod about the axis zz' is
3 2
m
A 2
3 2

B 4
m 2
C 4
D none of these
73. Moment of inertia of half ring of mass m and radius R about an axis passing through its centre and
perpendicular to the plane of rotation ring is
A mR2
B 2mR2
C mR2/2
D none of these
GAMSAT
TEST ID: FLT00
Unit 19
Sea lions are aquatic mammals. Like all mammals, they have lungs. This means that they need to come to the
surface of the water to breathe. Despite this, they are able to remain under water for long periods of time. They
have many adaptations, which enable them to remain underwater. One of them concerns a pigment found in
their muscles, called myoglobin. A comparison of the oxygen dissociation curve for both haemoglobin and
myoglobin are given below.
74. Aquatic mammals can remain under water for long because
A Myoglobin is saturated at a lower partial pressure of oxygen than haemoglobin

B Myoglobin picks up oxygen very easily in comparison to haemoglobin
C Myoglobin hydrolysis produces large amount of gaseous oxygen for metabolic activities
D Both A and B
75. Which of the following animals has the highest relative myoglobin fraction in its body?
A Sea horse
B Penguin
C Walrus
D Polar bear
76. A lugworm is a large worm, which is found on sandy sea shores. It lives in a U-shaped burrow. When
the tide is in, the area in which the lugworm lives is covered with sea water. The dissolved oxygen in
water diffuses into the worm. It dissolves in the blood and is then distributed to the cells of the body.
When the tide is out, the lugworm has to depend on the haemoglobin as its sole source of oxygen.
Lugworms haemoglobin
A Has higher oxygen-holding capacity than human haemoglobin

B Has lower oxygen-holding capacity than human haemoglobin
C Has equivalent amount of oxygen-holding capacity in comparison to human haemoglobin
D Has no oxygen-holding capacity
GAMSAT
TEST ID: FLT00
77. Statement I: Animals that live in high altitudes has haemoglobin with lower oxygen-holding capacity.
Statement II: Animals that have very high rates of respiration tend to live in places where there is a
plentiful supply of oxygen.
A Statement I is true and Statement II is false

B Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct
C Both of the Statements are correct
D Both of the Statements are incorrect
Unit 20
An activating group activates all positions of the benzene ring; even the positions meta to it are more reactive
than any single position in benzene itself. It directs ortho and para simply because it activates the ortho and para
positions much more than it does the meta.
A deactivating group deactivates all positions in the ring, even the positions meta to it. It directs meta simply
because it deactivates the ortho and para positions even more than it does the meta.
Thus, both ortho and para orientation and meta orientation arise in the same way: The effect of any group
whether activating or deactivating is strongest at the ortho and para positions.
But certain groups (- NH2 and - OH, and their derivatives) act as powerful activators towards electrophilic
aromatic substitution, even though they contain electronegative atoms and can be shown in other ways to have
electron-withdrawing inductive effects.
Halogens are unusual in their effect on electrophilic aromatic substitution; they are deactivating yet ortho, para-
directing. Deactivation is characteristic of electron withdrawal, whereas ortho-para orientation is characteristic
of electron release.
78. Which will undergo Friedel-Crafts alkylation reaction?
A 1, 2 and 4
B 1 and 3
C 2 and 4
D 1 and 2
79. Which of the following is the strongest acid?
GAMSAT
TEST ID: FLT00
80. 1-Phenylethanol can be prepared by the reaction of benzaldehyde with
A methyl bromide
B methyl iodide and magnesium
C ethyl iodide and magnesium
D methyl bromide and aluminium bromide
81. In a benzene ring substituted with - NH2 group, orientation is controlled by
A release of electrons in the system by resonance.

B withdrawal of electrons through inductive effect of electronegative nitrogen.
C inductive effect dominates resonance effect.
D resonance effect dominates inductive effect.
82. Reactivity in halogen substituted benzene rings is controlled by
A resonance
B inductive effect
C inductive effect dominates resonance effect
D resonance effect dominates inductive effect
GAMSAT
TEST ID: FLT00
Unit 21
RCONH2 is converted into RNH2 by means of Hofmann bromamide degradation.
In this reaction, RCONHBr is formed from which this reaction has derived its name. Electron donating group at
phenyl activates the reaction. Hofmann degradation reaction is an intramolecular reaction.
83. How can the conversion of (i) to (ii) be brought about?
A KBr
B KBr + CH3ONa
C KBr + KOH
D Br2 + KOH
84. Which is the rate determining step in Hofmann bromamide degradation?
A Formation of (i)
B Formation of (ii)
C Formation of (iii)
D Formation of (iv)
85. What are the constituent amines formed when the mixture of (i) and (ii) undergoes Hofmann
bromamide degradation?
GAMSAT
TEST ID: FLT00
Unit 22
The nuclear charge (Ze) is non-uniformly distributed within a nucleus of radius R. The charge density p (r)
[charge per unit volume] is dependent only on the radial distance r from the centre of the nucleus as shown in
figure The electric field is only along the radial direction.
86. The electric field at r = R is
A Independent of a
B directly proportional to a
C directly proportional to a2
D inversely proportional to a
87. For a = 0, the value of d (maximum value of p as shown in the figure) is
3Ze 3Ze 4Ze Ze

A 4 R3 B R3 C 3 R3 D 3 R3
GAMSAT
TEST ID: FLT00
88. The electric field within the nucleus is generally observed to be linearly dependent on r. This implies.
A a=0 B a = R/2 C a=R D a = 2R/3
Unit 23
The cis and trans isomers of alkenes do not have the same stability. The stability can be measured by
hydrogenation and combustion. The reaction of alkenes with hydrogen is endothermic and the enthalpy change
in the reaction is called heat of hydrogenation.
In all the isomers of 2-butene, the product is same but different amount of heat is evolved. In each reaction, it
must be related with different relative stability. 1-butene evolves greatest amount of energy and trans 2-butene
evolves least amount of energy. So, 1-butene must have greatest energy and it is least stable whereas trans 2-
butene must have lowest energy and it is more stable, cis 2-butene has intermediate energy in relation to above.
89. Which alkene is most stable?
GAMSAT
TEST ID: FLT00
90. For the reaction, the major product is
91. Assertion: According to Saytzeff rule, alkene, which consists more substituted alkyl groups will be
more stable.
Reason: This stability can be explained by hyperconjugation. As the number of alkyl group increases,
it also increases number of hyperconjugation structures.
A Reason is correct explanation of assertion
B Assertion is correct but reason is not correct
C Reason and assertion both are wrong
D None of the above
92. In the compound,

the configuration at the chiral centre and the double bond are, respectively,
A R and E
B R and Z
C S and Z
D S and E
GAMSAT
TEST ID: FLT00
93. The relative rate of addition of HCl to the following compounds follows the order:
Unit 24
Silicon is the second most abundant element occurring in earth crust. It is always found in combined state. It is
obtained by reduction of silica and exists in two allotropic forms, i.e. amorphous and crystalline. Amorphous
form is obtained by heating dry powdered silica with magnesium. Crystalline form is obtained by heating sand
or quartz in a furnace. Silicon is used in manufacturing of certain alloys and polymers such as ferrosilicon,
silicon bronze etc. The compounds of silicon are carborundum, silicone, silicates, glass etc.
Silicones are organosilicon polymer and silicates are metal derivatives of silicic acid. Carborundum is obtained
by heating mixture of sand, carbon and common salt.
94. Which type of linkage is present in silicones?
95. The structural unit of silicates is
A Si02
B SiO44
C SiO32
D SiO22
96. The general formulae for a glass obtained from silica is (where R = Na or K and M = Ca, Ba, Zn or Pb)
A RO.MO.4SiO2
B R2O.M.4SiO2
C R2O.MO.6SiO2
D R2O.M2O.3SiO2
GAMSAT
TEST ID: FLT00
97. (SiH3)3N is a weaker base than (CH3)3N because
A In (SiH3)3N, lone pair of electrons on nitrogen is involved in d p bonding

B In CH N , steric effect of three alkyl groups makes it least basic
3 3
C absence of d p back bonding in CH3

N
3
D all of the above
98. When two structural units of silicates join along a corner containing oxygen atom is called
A orthosilicate
B cyclic silicate
C pyrosilicate
D sheet silicate
Unit 25
A cow obtains most of its nutritional requirements from fermentation by mutualistic (symbiotic) microorganisms
in its rumen. The diagram summarises the biochemical process involved.
99. A cattle can survive for a considerable period of time if its diet lacks
A Carbohydrates
B Lipids
C Proteins
D Both A and C
GAMSAT
TEST ID: FLT00
100. Ruminants such as the cow
A Are equally efficient as non-ruminants like Human at converting energy in their food into
energy in their tissues
B Are more efficient than non-ruminants like Human at converting energy in their food into
C Are less efficient than non-ruminants like Human at converting energy in their food into
D Possess an additional extension of the stomach called rumen, where all the digestive activities
take place
101. In ruminants like cow, mutualistic microorganisms play significant role in acting as
A Carbohydrate source
B Protein source
C Fatty acids source
D Both B and C
102. The dietary requirements in Human during various ages of his life are given below:
Age Mean daily requirement for
Iron/ mg Calcium/ mg
1-3 years 6.9 350
7-10 years 8.7 550
15-18 years 14.8 800
19-50 years 14.8 700
Over 50 years 8.7 700
Calcium requirement is highest at the age of 15-18, because
A Bone and teeth formation occurs at this age

B Bone and teeth growth is maximum at this age
C Bone thickening and teeth layer maturation is maximum at this age
D Both B and D
103. Which of the statements correctly explains the data given in the table of question 27?
Iron requirement is highest from age 15 to 50, because
A The haemoglobin production rate is directly proportional to the metabolic activities of the
body
B The body is more prone to anaemia at this age limit
C After this age the haemoglobin production ceases stops
D Both A and B
Unit 26
The gas hydrogen cyanide, HCN, is toxic. In water, hydrogen cyanide is a weak acid with a pK a of 9.4.
Hydrogen cyanide gas can be dissolved in dilute aqueous sodium hydroxide with which it reacts to give an
aqueous solution containing cyanide ions. Solutions containing cyanide ions are also toxic but can be rendered
non-toxic by complexing the cyanide ions with iron (II) ions.
104. Hydrogen cyanide molecules in the gas phase attract each other by
A van der Waals' forces

B ionic bonds
C dipole-dipole forces and van der Waals' forces
D hydrogen bonds
GAMSAT
TEST ID: FLT00
105. Cyanide ions will react with
A C2H6
B CH3COCH3, CH3CHO
C C6H6
D CH3CH2 Br and C2H6
106. Possible products formed when cyanide ions react with aqueous iron (II) ions include
A [Fe(CN)6]2-
B [Fe(H2O)5CN+ and [Fe(CN)6]4-
C [Fe(H20)5CN]2+
D [Fe(CN)6]4- and [Fe(H2O)5CN]2+
107. Which of the following is not true concerning 500 cm 3 of aqueous HCN that has a
concentration of 0.10 mol dm -3?
A It will react completely with 2.0 g of sodium hydroxide.

B The pH of the solution is 5.2.
C It can be formed by dissolving 1.35 g of HCN in water and making up to 500 cm 3 of
solution.
D The amount of HCN in the solution can be determined accurately by titration of a 25.0 cm3
sample with a 0.1 mol dm -3 solution of NaOH using methyl orange as indicator.
108. The hydrolysis of a metal aqua-cation can be described by the general equation
[M(H2O)6]n+ + H2O [M(H2O)5(OH)](n-1)+ + H3O+
In this reaction
A The solvent H2O is acting as acid by accepting a proton

B the pH of the solution will be lower if the value of n is 2 rather than 3
C the equilibrium position lies more to the right if the value of n is 3 rather than 2
D the oxidation state of the central metal cation has decreased from n to n-1
Unit 27
The krait is a small but extremely poisonous snake found in South-east Asia. In1963 a small polypeptide
consisting of approximately 70 amino acids was isolated from krait venom. This substance was called
bungaratoxin, and was found to cause paralysis when very small amounts were injected into mice.
109. In laboratory, mice are injected with small amounts of krait venom. When the mice tissues are treated
with fluorescent antibodies and examined under microscope,
A The toxin was found in all parts of the body

B The toxin was found in the blood-cell surfaces
C The toxin was found only at the neuromuscular junctions
D The toxin was found in the brain stem cells
110. The venom produced by a krait can be classified as
A Aflatoxin
B Hemotoxin
C Cytotoxin
D Neurotox
GAMSAT
TEST ID: FLT00
2 About Prepgenie
Welcome to Prepgenie, your one-stop shop for GAMSAT preparation requirements.

Prepgenie was created keeping in mind your need for a friend and guide through your journey towards
qualifying the GAMSAT.
2.1 Free Resources
Prepgenie brings to you a range of free resources for GAMSAT.
2.1.1 Online Library
It is a collection of links containing quizzes, exercises, tutorials and games. Visit the library, scan through
the links and rate them. Moreover, you can add your links too.
2.1.2 Prepgenie Online Help
A 24*7 online student support system. All you need to do is log on to the website and shoot your query to
the site consultant. We are always there to sort things out for you.
2.2 Paid Resources
Prepgenie offers you select and high-quality GAMSAT test preparation tools. These tools have been
created to help you during all the 4 distinct phases of GAMSAT preparation:
Phase Tools
Revising the basics Practice Exercises (Warm up questions)
Identifying weaknesses Section Tests
Building up reasoning skills Practice Exercises (High Intensity questions)
Exam practice Full Length Tests
2.2.1 Full Length Test Paper Module:
5 Full Length Question Papers(FLT)

185 GAMSAT Style Questions in each FLT
Detailed suggestive answers
5 OMR Sheets
2.2.2 Sectional Tests Module:
Subjects: Physics, Chemistry, Biology, Humanities and Social Sciences

10 sectional tests for each subject.
Physics, Chemistry, Biology have 40 questions each paper.
Humanities and Social Sciences has 75 questions each paper.
OMR Sheets for each test
Detailed suggestive answers
GAMSAT
TEST ID: FLT00
Why OMR sheets:

Take the help of OMR sheets to set the examination environment within your study room. Just set the
time on a stopwatch and start.
3 CONTACT US
Need to know more? We are here to help you always.
For answers to your queries please send us a mail:
Technical Queries: support@prepgenie.com.au

Library related issues: library-gamsat@prepgenie.com.au
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Answer key of the free FLT: key@prepgenie.com.au
Other Contact Information:
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| FLT | QUESTION BOOKLET Page | 1

GAMSAT Free Full-Length

- Preparatory Tool from Prepgenie

1 GAMSAT Sample Full Length Test ........................................................................................................ 3

1.1 Instructions For Writing The Test ................................................................................................... 3

1.2 Reasoning In Humanities And Social Sciences ................................................................................ 4

1.3 WRITTEN COMMUNICATION......................................................................................................... 26

WRITING TEST A............................................................................................................................... 26

WRITING TEST B ............................................................................................................................... 27

1.4 REASONING IN BIOLOGICAL AND PHYSICAL SCIENCES......................................................... 28

2 About Prepgenie ................................................................................................................................... 63

2.1 Free Resources ............................................................................................................................. 63

2.1.1 Online Library ..................................................................................................................... 63

2.1.2 Prepgenie Online Help ......................................................................................................... 63

2.2 Paid Resources ............................................................................................................................. 63

2.2.1 Full Length Test Paper Module: ........................................................................................... 63

2.2.2 Sectional Tests Module: ....................................................................................................... 63

1 GAMSAT Sample Full Length Test

1.1 Instructions For Writing The Test

2. Use only HB pencil to fill in the Answer Sheet.

1.2 Reasoning In Humanities And Social Sciences

The labouring through what is still undone,

And dying - to let go, no longer feel

1. What is the tone of the poem?

2. What do the first three lines of the poem convey?

A That the swan has been kept in a confinement by some strangers.

3. Which of the following is predominantly used in the poem?

4. In the poem the Swan represents:

A Charm and goodwill

5. Which of the following is the correct explanation of the last stanza?

6 Which of the following contribute to the importance of a University in Comment I?

A Knowledge and Sciences

For questions 10- 13 refer to Comments I- IV.

change in the reception of the branches of knowledge?

A Comments I, III and IV

Which of the following best suites the above proverb?

16 What is the tone of the poem?

17 Which of the following is the message in the poem?

A Dreams are illusions, people shouldnt run after them

18 In line four, what does the poet mean by white day?

A A day when the sun is scorching down on the earth

A Because he wants to escape doing the work during the day

The following passage describes Matty's journey to Australia.

20 The very first line of the passage reveals that Matty is

B Matty should possess unique qualities.

What does the above illustration suggest which of the following?

A Global warming B Extinction of Eskimos

A critical about the way he has pased his life.

29 According to Comment I, what is the connotation of the term modern?

A It is applicable to the contemporary form of art.

30 According to Comment II, how is modern art described?

31 How is modernism related to the Age of Enlightenment in Comment III?

32 Comment IV states that the term postmodernism is confusing because:

A It doesnt involve the important characteristics of its period

For questions 33 36 refer to Comments I-IV.

A Comments I, II and III

36 Which of the following comments renounces the growth of modernism?

A Comments II and III

38 Mr. Topper viewed with suspicion

A blundering but genuine.

A loosing interest in reading newspapers.

41 In the third paragraph Mr. Topper sees Scollops as

A tentative and uncertain.