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CET (PG)-2013

Question Booklet Series : A/B/C/D Sr. No. :


Important : Please consult your Admit Card / Roll No. Slip before filling your Roll Number on the Test Booklet
and Answer Sheet.
Roll No. In Figures In Words In Words

O.M.R. Answer Sheet Serial No.


Signature of the Candidate :
Subject : M.Sc.(Hons. School/Two Year Course)Botany
Time : 90 minutes Number of Questions : 75 Maximum Marks : 75

DO NOT OPEN THE SEAL ON THE BOOKLET UNTIL ASKED TO DO SO


INSTRUCTIONS
1. Write your Roll No. on the Question Booklet and also on the OMR Answer Sheet in the space provided
and nowhere else.
2. Enter the Subject and Series Code of Question Booklet on the OMR Answer Sheet. Darken the corresponding
bubble with Black Ball Point /Black Gel pen.
3. Do not make any identification mark on the Answer Sheet or Question Booklet.
4. To open the Question Booklet remove the paper seal (s) gently when asked to do so.
5. Please check that this Question Booklet contains 75 questions. In case of any discrepancy, inform the
Assistant Superintendent within 10 minutes of the start of test.
6. Each question has four alternative answers (A, B, C, D) of which only one is correct. For each question,
darken only one bubble (A or B or C or D), whichever you think is the correct answer, on the Answer Sheet
with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen.
7. If you do not want to answer a question, leave all the bubbles corresponding to that question blank in the
Answer Sheet. No marks will be deducted in such cases.
8. Darken the bubbles in the OMR Answer Sheet according to the Serial No. of the questions given in the
Question Booklet.
9. Negative marking will be adopted for evaluation i.e., 1/4th of the marks of the question will be deducted for each
wrong answer. A wrong answer means incorrect answer or wrong filling of bubble.
10. For calculations, use of simple log tables is permitted. Borrowing of log tables and any other material is not allowed.
11. For rough work only the sheets marked Rough Work at the end of the Question Booklet be used.
12. The Answer Sheet is designed for computer evaluation. Therefore, if you do not follow the instructions
given on the Answer Sheet, it may make evaluation by the computer difficult. Any resultant loss to the
candidate on the above account, i.e., not following the instructions completely, shall be of the
candidate only.
13. After the test, hand over the Question Booklet and the Answer Sheet to the Assistant Superintendent on duty.
14. In no case the Answer Sheet, the Question Booklet, or its part or any material copied/noted from this
Booklet is to be taken out of the examination hall. Any candidate found doing so, would be expelled from
the examination.
15. A candidate who creates disturbance of any kind or changes his/her seat or is found in possession of any
paper possibly of any assistance or found giving or receiving assistance or found using any other unfair
means during the examination will be expelled from the examination by the Centre Superintendent /
Observer whose decision shall be final.
16. Telecommunication equipment such as pager, cellular phone, wireless, scanner, etc., is not
permitted inside the examination hall. Use of calculators is not allowed.
M.Sc. (Hons. School/Two Year Course)Botany/BZL/48999-A 2
M.Sc.(Hons. School/Two Year Course)Botany/A
1. Saprolegnia belongs to kingdom :
(A) Fungi (B) Chromista
(C) Protozoa (D) Animalia
2. Zoospores are produced in :
(A) Gleba (B) Ascogonium
(C) Zoosporangium (D) Zygosporangium
3. Fucoxanthin is a characteristic pigment of :
(A) Chlorophyta (B) Phaeophyta
(C) Rhodophyta (D) Cyanophyta
4. Carpogonium is present in :
(A) Spirogyra (B) Batrachospermum
(C) Ulothrix (D) Oedogonium
5. Rocella tinctoria is employed for producing :
(A) Cotton Blue (B) Melzer's reagent
(C) Congo red (D) Orchil
6. Hydrilla is a :
(A) Xerophyte (B) Halophyte
(C) Mesophyte (D) Hydrophyte
7. Xanthophylls are soluble in :
(A) Chloroform (B) Water
(C) Potassium hydroxide (D) Saline
8. In a lichen food is synthesized by :
(A) Fungus (B) Alga
(C) Both of them (D) Tree on which they grow
9. Syngamy is the fusion of :
(A) isogametes (B) anisogametes
(C) sperm and egg (D) macro and micro gametes

M.Sc. (Hons. School/Two Year Course)Botany/BZL/48999-A 3 [Turn over


10. Black rust of wheat is caused by :
(A) Puccinia graminis tritici (B) Puccinia recondita
(C) Puccinia striformis (D) Ustilago tritici
11. Hormones control sexual reproduction in :
(A) Ustilago avenae (B) Synchytrium endobioticum
(C) Achlya bisexualis (D) Pythium species
12. Hydrosere starts in :
(A) rocks (B) aquatic conditions
(C) xerophytic conditions (D) group of plants
13. Bast fibre is obtained from :
(A) Linum usitatissimum (B) Argemone maxicana
(C) Punica granatum (D) Calotropis sp.
14. Solanum nigrum is a :
(A) Hydrophyte (B) Halophyte
(C) plant which produces under ground tubers (D) medicinal plant
15. Medicine employed for curing Malaria is obtained from :
(A) Cinchona Caligaya (B) Cinnamomum Zeylanicum
(C) Solanum sp. (D) Crocus sp.
16. Agar is manufactured from :
(A) Ulothrix (B) Gelidium
(C) Chlorella (D) Oedogonium
17. The sporophyte of Funaria begins development within the :
(A) Antheridium (B) Capsule
(C) Archegonium (D) Protonema
18. Riccia thallus is :
(A) Haploid (B) Diploid
(C) Triploid (D) Tetraploid
19. The spores of moss germinate to form :
(A) Rhizoids (B) Capsule
(C) Protonema (D) Leafy gametophyte

M.Sc. (Hons. School/Two Year Course)Botany/BZL/48999-A 4


20. Zygote alone represents sporophytic generation in :
(A) Selaginella (B) Funaria
(C) Pinus (D) Chlamydomonas
21. The number of neck canal cells in archegonium of Funaria are :
(A) Two (B) Three
(C) Five (D) Six or more
22. Pteridophytic spores are :
(A) Diploid (B) Haploid
(C) Tetraploid (D) Triploid
23. Pteridophytes are differentiated from Bryophytes in having :
(A) Archegonia (B) Vascular tissue
(C) Motile antherozoids (D) Alternation of generations
24. Sporocarp is a part of reproduction in :
(A) All fungi (B) All algae
(C) All bryophytes (D) All aquatic pteridophytes
25. The gametophyte in ferns does not have :
(A) Sex organs (B) Tracheids
(C) Rhizoids (D) Chlorophyll
26. The dehiscence of sporangia in Dryopteris is controlled by :
(A) Annulus (B) Stomium
(C) Stomium and Annulus both (D) Peristome
27. Meiosis occurs in ferns before the formation of :
(A) Gametes (B) Protonema
(C) Spores (D) Prothallus
28. Endosperm in Pinus is :
(A) Haploid (B) Diploid
(C) Triploid (D) Tetraploid
29. Winged pollen grains are present in :
(A) Pinus sp. (B) Solanum sp.
(C) Triticum sp. (D) Aspergillus sp.

M.Sc. (Hons. School/Two Year Course)Botany/BZL/48999-A 5 [Turn over


30. 'Sago' is obtained from :
(A) Cedrus (B) Pinus
(C) Taxas (D) Cycas
31. The ovule is naked in gymnosperms because :
(A) Integument is absent (B) Perianth is absent
(C) Nucellus is absent (D) Ovary wall is absent
32. Ovule of cycas is :
(A) Orthotropus unitegmic (B) Anatropous unitegmic
(C) Orthotropus bitegmic (D) Orthotropus tritegmic
33. Sessile ovules are present in :
(A) Algae (B) Fungi
(C) Pteridophytes (D) Cycas
34. Neck canal cells are absent in the archegonium of :
(A) Funaria (B) Cycas
(C) Sphagnum (D) Dryopteris
35. Which of the following is a parasite ?
(A) Acacia (B) Parthenium
(C) Cuscuta (D) Calotropis
36. Bentham and Hooker divided plants into :
(A) Dicots and monocots (B) Gymnosperms and Angiosperms
(C) Cryptogams and phanerogams (D) Angiosperms and fungi
37. Which of the following is a Polycarpic Angiosperm ?
(A) Bamboo (B) Pea
(C) Agave (D) Pear
38. Nucellar polyembryony is common in :
(A) Citrus (B) Corchorus
(C) Zea (D) Carthemus
39. The embryo in sunflower has :
(A) One cotyledon (B) No cotyledon
(C) Two cotyledons (D) Many cotyledons

M.Sc. (Hons. School/Two Year Course)Botany/BZL/48999-A 6


40. In which of the following non-zygotic seeds are formed ?
(A) Cucumber (B) Pea
(C) Cereals (D) Wheat
41. Scutellum in maize is called :
(A) Cotyledon (B) Coleorhiza
(C) Coleoptile (D) Hypocotyl
42. Double fertilization is exceptional to :
(A) Pteridophytes (B) Gymnosperms
(C) Angiosperms (D) Bryophytes
43. Camellia sinensis is the botanical name of :
(A) Apple (B) Tomato
(C) Zinger (D) Tea
44. Haustorial roots are formed in :
(A) Cactus (B) Maize
(C) Cuscuta (D) Zea mays
45. Aquatic plants have :
(A) well developed root system (B) well developed vascular system
(C) well developed leaves (D) well developed stem
46. In Opuntia, the spines are modifications of :
(A) Stem (B) Leaves
(C) Roots (D) Flower
47. Hymenium is exposed in :
(A) Agaricus (B) Clavatia
(C) Geastrum (D) Lycoperdon
48. Tylosis are more pronounced in :
(A) Wilt diseases (B) Leaf spot diseases
(C) Soft rot diseases (D) Scab diseases
49. Endemic diseases are :
(A) Localised (B) Wide spread
(C) Only soil borne (D) Only air borne

M.Sc. (Hons. School/Two Year Course)Botany/BZL/48999-A 7 [Turn over


50. The terminal and axillary buds arise from :
(A) Apical meristem (B) Intercalary meristem
(C) Lateral meristem (D) Parenchyma
51. Lignin is present in :
(A) Parenchyma (B) Xylem
(C) Phloem (D) Bundle sheath
52. Which of the following is not a component of the Xylem ?
(A) Vessel (B) Tracheids
(C) Medullary rays (D) Vascular rays
53. The cohesive force existing between molecules of water contributes to :
(A) ascent of sap (B) osmosis
(C) plasmolysis (D) translocation
54. The shrinking of protoplasm in plant cell is due to :
(A) Plasmolysis (B) Deplasmolysis
(C) Turgidity (D) Flaccidity
55. The most accepted theory for stomatal opening and closing is :
(A) transpiration (B) guar cell photosynthesis
(C) k + efflux and influx (D) starch glucose interconversion
56. Main function of Lenticels is :
(A) Transpiration (B) Guttation
(C) Gaseous exchange (D) Translation
57. Which of the following elements play an important role in opening of stomata ?
(A) Na (B) K
(C) Mg (D) Co
58. The root nodules of Leguminosae contains :
(A) Azotobacter (B) Rhizobium
(C) Nostoc (D) Aspergillus
59. Chlorophyll absorbs light at a wavelength of :
(A) 400 nm (B) 500 nm
(C) 600 nm (D) 660 nm

M.Sc. (Hons. School/Two Year Course)Botany/BZL/48999-A 8


60. Glycolysis is the conversion of :
(A) glucose to glycogen (B) glycogen to glucose
(C) glucose to pyruvic acid (D) glucose to citric acid
61. The horse shoe shaped ovule is :
(A) Orthotropus (B) Circinotropus
(C) Hemianatropus (D) Campylotropus
62. The coloured part of Bougainvillea flower is :
(A) Corolla (B) Calyx
(C) Bracts (D) Androecium
63. Cruciform corolla is present in :
(A) Pisum (B) Radish
(C) China rose (D) Sunflower
64. The embryo sac in an angiosperm is a :
(A) Megasporangium (B) Megaspore mother cell
(C) Megagametophyte (D) Megaspore
65. A plant triploid and sexually sterile gives :
(A) no embryo but fruit (B) no fruit
(C) Hexaploid fruits (D) embryo but no fruit
66. Development of fruit without fertilization is :
(A) Parthenocarpy (B) Sporogamy
(C) Autogamy (D) Parthenogenesis
67. Seed dormancy is due to the :
(A) I.A.A (B) Ethylene
(C) Starch (D) A.B.A.
68. Self dispersal mechanism is called :
(A) Explosive mechanism (B) Zoochory
(C) Forced zoochory (D) Hydrochory
69. Allium cepa belongs to :
(A) Apiaceae (B) Moraceae
(C) Poaceae (D) Liliaceae

M.Sc. (Hons. School/Two Year Course)Botany/BZL/48999-A 9 [Turn over


70. Chromosomes are arranged along the equator during :
(A) Metaphase (B) Anaphase
(C) Prophase (D) Telophase
71. Genetic material of TMV is :
(A) DNA (B) RNA
(C) Protein coat (D) DNA and protein coat
72. DNA nucleotide sequence gets distorted by the process of :
(A) Mutation (B) Recombination
(C) Culturing (D) Translation
73. The basic unit of life is :
(A) Nucleic acid (B) Lipo protein
(C) Protein (D) Nucleoprotein
74. Cleistothecium is the fructification of :
(A) Fungi (B) Algae
(C) Bacteria (D) Bryophytes
75. Systemic fungicides act :
(A) on the site of infection (B) on whole of the plant
(C) on roots only (D) only on the mycelium

M.Sc. (Hons. School/Two Year Course)Botany/BZL/48999-A 10


ROUGH WORK

M.Sc. (Hons. School/Two Year Course)Botany/BZL/48999-A 11 [Turn over


ROUGH WORK

M.Sc. (Hons. School/Two Year Course)Botany/BZL/48999-A 12 432


Panjab University, Chandigarh
CET(PG)-2013
ANSWERS / KEY
Subject: MSc(HS/2Yr)(Botany)
Booklet Series Code: A
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
B C B B D D A B C A

11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
C B A D A B C A C D

21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
D B B D B C C A A D

31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
D A D B C A D A C A

41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A C D C C B A A A A

51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
B C A A C C B B D C

61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
X C B C A A D X D A

71 72 73 74 75
B A A A B

Note: An 'X' in the key indicates that either the question is ambiguous or it has
printing mistake. All candidates will be given credit for this question.

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