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Solution.
(a) Since
by definition
2 0 0 2
A = [L]B = [L (1)]B [L (x)]B L x B = 0 1 0
0 0 2
(b) Since
L (1) = 0 = (0) 1 + (0) x + (0) 1 + x2 ,
L (x) = x = (0) 1 + (1) x + (0) 1 + x2 ,
L x2 = 2 + 2x2 = (0) 1 + (0) x + (2) 1 + x2
by definition
2 0 0 0
B = [L]B0 = [L (1)]B0 [L (x)]B0 L x B0 = 0 1 0
0 0 2
0 0 1
1
By Theorem 7 of Part 9 in class
[L]B0 = S 1 [L]B S
B = S 1 AS
(d) Since p (x) = a0 + a1 x + a2 1 + x2 has coordinates
T
[p (x)]B0 = [a0 a1 a2 ]
n
repeated use of [T S] = [T ] [S] yields [Ln ] = [L] and hence
n
0 0 0 a0
n
[Ln (p (x))]B0 = [L]B0 [p (x)]B0 = 0 1 0 a1
0 0 2 a2
0 0 0 a0 0
= 0 1 0 a1 = a1
0 0 2n a2 2n a2
A = P 1 BP
Remark. This gives a direct proof that two dierent matrix representations
of a given linear transformation T have the same eigenvalues. Why? Hint. See
4.3 # 14.
(a) Use results from Problem 3, properties of matrices, and the fact that
L (P3 ) and R33 are isomorphic algebras to show that L is invertible.
2
(b) Continuing in the same spirit as (a) find a formula for L1 (q) for
any q in P3 . Try to express your final answer in terms of q without
having to write out q in terms of the standard basis. Hint. A correct
expression in terms of integrals and/or derivatives of q will be fine.
Solution.
(a) You showed in HW #6 that
1 1 0
A = [L]B = 0 1 2 .
0 0 1
T (L) = [L]B = A
Finally since the map v 7 [v]B is a vector space isomorphism and, hence, one-
to-one,
L1 (q) = q + q 0 + q 00
for all q P3 .