1- Which of the following is not an indication for

Tranexamic Acid ? a- Tetracycline

b- Chloroquine
a- Treatment of heamorrhage associated with excessive
fibrinolysis b- An antidote for Streptokinase overdose c- c- Doxycycline
Prophylaxis of hereditary angioedma d- Rifampicin

d- Prevent heammorhage due to Heparin overdose

9- Which of following drugs is the drug of choice for

2- Which of the following drugs does not cause the treatment of all forms of Schistosomiasis?
insomnia ?
a- Praziquantel
b- Mebendazole
a- MAOIs
c- Niclosamide
b- Caffeine
c- Beta blockers
d- Thiabendazole
d- Barbiturates
10- Which of the following drugs can be used for the
3- Which of the following is a lipid lowering drugs ? treatment of influenza A infection ?

a- Zidovudine(AZT)
a- Aprotinin b- Amantadine
c- Ribavarin
b- Tranexamic acid d- Vidarabine
c- Lansoprazole
d- Acipimox
11- Which of the following drugs is used in the
4- Which of the following H2 receptors antagonist has treatment of Leishmaniasis?
a- Pyrimethamine
the highest affinity for cytochrome p450 ?
b- Diloxamide
a- Nizatidine c- Sodium Stibogluconate
b- Ranitidine d- Emetin
c- Cimetidine 12- Which one of the following statements about
d- Famotidine
tetracycline is not correct?
5- Which of the following side effects will be caused by a- It is useful for the treatment of resistant strains b- It is
antacids containing NAHCO3? contraindicated in pregnancy

a- Belching c- It is safe in infections caused by Chlamydia d- It can lead to

b- Constipation discolouration of teeth if given to children
c- Diarrhea
13- Which of the following drug will antagonize
d- Blurred vision Methotrexate?
a- Thiamine
b- Folic acid
6- Which of the following is a dopamine antagonist?
c- Biotin
a- Granisetron d- Cyanocobalamin
b- Domperidone
c- Cisapride 14- lodine is found in all of the following except:
d- Loperamide a- Cod liver oil

b- Sea food
7- Which of the following drugs is a systemic c- Kelp
amoebicide?
d- Iodized salt
a- Diloxamide furoate
15- Match the statements (1- 4) to the trace elements
b- Pyrimethamine (A-D) listed below.each answer may be used more than
c- Emetin once
d- Sodium Stibogluconate
a- Zinc b- Copper c- Chromium d- Selenium
8- Which of the following drugs is the drug may cause
discolouration of nail beds and mucus membranes? Formation of red and white blood cells(B)
Protects cells against damage during cellular m etabolism(D)
Promotes wound healing and normal growth(A) b- Bone marrow toxicity
c- Renal failure
Helps maintain normal glucose m etabolism(C) d- CNS suppression

16- Match the drug characteristics (1- 4) with the drug 23-If a women,receiving carbamazepine becomes
listed below (a-d). each answer may be used more than pregnant,it is important that she receives daily
once supplements of :
a- Auranofin a- Vit A
b- Pencillamine b- Vit B6
c- Aspirin
d- Corticosteroids c- Folic acid
d- Riboflavin
1- Platelet function effect
24-Which of the following are side effects of phenytoin
2- Oral form of gold(A) treatment?
3- Given on an empty stomach(B) a- Acne
4- May be given intra articularly(D)
b- Hirsuitism
17- for each side effect (1- 4) list the most likely cause c- Gingival hyperplasia
(a-d). each answer may be used more than onces d- a,b,and c

a- Sodium Bicarbonate 25-Which drug is considered as Alpha-1- Adrenergic

b- Aluminium Hydroxide blocker :
c- Amitriptyline a- Hydralazine
d- Magnesium Hydroxide
b- Minoxidil
1- May cause diarrhea(D) c- Prazosin
2- Should not be used by patient of heart failure(A) d- Guanethidine

3- May cause dry mouth(C) 26-Nitroglycerin-all the following are true except :
4- Can be incorporated with an antacids mixture to control a- Can be dispensed in hospital pack of 500 and 1000 tabs
diarhoea(B) b- Containers must be made of glass and be covered with a
tight-fitting ----l
18- Pyridoxine requirements may increase during
administration of all the following except: c- Close tightly after use
a- Isoniazid d- Tablets must be stored at controlled R.T
b- Cycloserine e- Tablets not to be refrigerated
c- Oral contraceptives
27-The most important adverse reaction to terbutaline is
d- Levodopa :
a- Tachycardia
19- All of the following preparations contain alcohol b- CNS stimulation
except:
a- Syrup simplex c- Fine muscle tremor
b- Aromatic ammonia spirit USP d- Gastric irritation
e- All of the above
c- Terpin hydrate elixir USP
28-Which of the following is true about Penicillin V ?
d- Belladona tincture B.P a- It is inactivated by gastric acid

20- Wich of the following solutions is used as an b- It is acid stable

astringent? c- It is more active than Benzylpencillin
a- Strong iodine soluotin USP
b- Aluminium acetate topical solution USP d- It is absorbed better after foods
c- Acetic acid NF
d- Benzalkonium chloride solution NF 29- Which of the following is a quinolone antibiotic ?
a- Clindamycin
2 1- anextrapyramidal adverse effects is caused by the
blocking of: b- Chlortetracycline
a- Serotonin receptors in the brain c- Ciprofloxacin
b- Acetylcholine receptors in the brain d- Clarithromycin
c- Dopamine receptors in the brain
d- Dopamine receptors outside the brain 30-Tuberculosis is caused by a :
a- Mycoplasma
22-A rare side effect of some anticonvulsants is
Stevens-Johnson syndrome.this is a severe: b- Mycobacterium
a- Skin reaction c- Micrococcus
d- Microbacter 39-tretinoin is used therapeutically :
a- As a urinary acidifier
31-pertussis is another name for :
a- Cough b- As an antifungal agent
b- Diphtheria c- In the treatment of tuberculosis
d- In the treatment of acne
c- Whooping cough
d- Scarlet fever 40-a calcium channel blocker that is used parenterally
for cardiac arrythmias is :
a- Verapamil hcl
32-in the treatment of pulmonary tuberculosis,antibiotic
treatment must be continued for at least : b- Nefedipine
a- 6 months c- Captopril

b- 4 months d- Minoxidil
c- 2 months
d- 1 month

33-all of the following are prodrugs except : 41-Wich of the following has not been used for the
a- Sulindac treatment of Parkinsonism ?
a- Cogentin
b- Diazepam
c- Enalapril b- Artane
d- Sulfasalazine c- Tofranil
d- Kemadrin
34-which route of drug administration is likely to
subject a drug to first pass effect ? 42-The drug that is most likely to induce bronchospasm
a- Intravenous is :
a- Pindolol
b- Inhalation
c- Oral b- Pentoxyfylline
d- Sublingual c- Omeprazole
d- Lisinopril
35-which of the following statements is/are correct?
a- Ketamine is used in the treatment of migraine 43-The anti-inflammatory effect of aspirin is due to :
a- An anticoagulant effect
b- Acute systemic anaphylaxis should be treated immediately b- Inhibition of the synthesis of prostaglandins
by IV injection of adrenaline c- An antigen-antibody reaction
d- All of the above
c- Sulphonylureas are oral anticoagulants
d- None of the above 44-The most useful drug in the treatment of diabetes
insipidus is :
36-verapamil exerts its effects through which of the a- Glibenclamide
following actions?
b- Insulin
a- Preventing entry of calcium channels through slow c- Metoclopramide
channels b- Increasing sodium entry
d- Desmopressin acetate
c- Antagonizing the opening of the fast sodium channel d-
None of the above 45-The tricyclic antidepressant Iimipramine (Tofranil)
has been approved by FDA for use in :
a- Parkinson's disease
37-cardiac glycoside may be useful in treating all of the
following except : b- Hypertension
a- Atrial flutter
c- Eneuresis
b- Congestive heart failure d- Peptic ulcer
c- Ventricular tachycardia e- None of the above
d- Atrial fibrillation
46-Regular use of sublingual doses of Nitroglycerin is
38-streptokinase is indicated for the treatment of : likely to result in :
a- Impaired fat absorption a- Hepatotoxicity

b- Pulmonary emboli b- Nephrotoxicity

c- Tuberculosis c- Peptic ulcer
d- Psoriasis d- Tolerance
47-All of the following are beta blockers except : a- Betalactam antibiotic active against pseudomonas b-
a- Metoprolol (Lopressor) Pencillinase resistant betalactam c- Contraindicated in
children
b- Nadolol (Corgard)
d- Inhibits renal m etabolism
c- Enalapril (Renitec)
d- Propranolol (Inderal) 1- Piperacillin(a)
2- Tetracycline(c)
48-Bisacodyl frequently can cause : 3- Flucloxacillin(b)
a- Abdominal cramps 4- Cilastin(d)

b- Constipation 56-Disinfectants are expected to destroy or inhibit the

c- Skin rashes growth of microbes which are in :
a- The vegetative stage
d- Dizziness b- The sporing stage

49-An example of a pure opioid antagonist : c- Both a and b

a- Naloxone hcl (Narcan) d- None of the above

b- Pentazocine (Sosegon) 57-Which of the following is not a storage area for iron:
c- Nalbuphine(Nubain) a- Reticuloendothelial system

d- Morphine b- Kidney
c- Hepatocytes
50-Carbamazepine (tegretol) is used for treatment of : d- Muscle
a- Eneuresis
b- Trigeminal neuralgia 58-Which of the following is a sulphonylurea
antidiabetic drugs?
c- Attention of defict disorder a- Chlorpropamide
d- Psoriasis
b- Bum etanide
51-Buspirone (Buspar) is classified pharmacologically c- Acetazolamide
as : d- Frusemide
a- Antidepressant
59-One drop has a volume of :
b- Anxiolytic agent a- 0.5 ml
c- Narcotic analgesic
d- Hypnotic b- 0.1 ml
c- 0.15 ml
52-Dilitiazem is used primarily for its ability to produce d- Variable, depending on the liquid and the dropper
:
a- Cough depreaaion 60-Ketorolac is used in eye preparations as a/an :
a- Anti-inflammatory
b- Analgesia b- Antihistamine
c- Calcium channel blockade c- Astringent
d- Emesis d- Corticosteroid

53-Carbocysteine is an agent used clinically as : 61-Which of the following drugs is a vasodilator?

a- Laxative a- Methyldopa

b- Cough suppressant b- Mexitilline

c- Diagnostic agent c- Prazocin
d- Mucolytic
d- Propranolol
54-The following drugs may be given by sublingual
route except : 62-Which of the following drugs is not associated with
a- Digoxin haemolytic aneamia?
a- Mefenamic acid
b- Nifedipine
c- Nitroglycerin b- Methyldopa
c- Methadone
d- Isoprenaline
d- Methyl testosterone
55-Match the following antibiotics to the best
description given below (a-d) 63-Which of the following Vitamins is essential in the
formation of Prothrombin?
a- Vitamin A
 c- Perphenazine
b- Vitamin B complex d- Resperidone
c- Vitamin E
d- Vitamin K 72-A sympathomimetic often present in OTC appetite
suppressant is:
64-Which of the following is not used as an
antitussive ? a- Ephedrine
a- Noscapine b- Phenylephedrine
b- Pethidine
c- Phenylpropanolamine (PPA)
c- Codeine d- Caffeine
d- Diphenhydramine
73-Opioids have the following uses except:
65-Which of the following Local Anaesthetics is useful
for topical administration only? a- Anti tussive
a- Lidocaine b- Anti-inflammatory
c- Analgesics
b- Bupivacaine d- Pre anaestetics
c- Benzocaine
d- Procaine
74-Levocabastine is a/an:
66-The iron preparation given by the intravenous route
is: a- Antihistamine
a- Ferrous sulphate b- Anti microbial
c- Anti inflammatory
b- Iron-dextran d- Corticosteroid
c- Ferrous gluconate
d- Iron-sorbitol citric acid 75-Which of the following is not used as aprophylaxis
for migraine?
67-Carotenoids are precursors for which vitamin? a- Pizotifin
a- Vitamine E
b- Metoprolol
b- Vitamine D c- Prazocin
c- Vitamine A d- Propranolol
d- Vitamine K
76-The most common side effect of sublingual glyceryl
68-Which of the following is recommended for trinitrate is:
dyspepsia in pregnancy? a- Nausea
a- Gaviscon
b- Throbbing headache
b- Pylorid c- Hypertension
c- De-nol d- Skin rash
d- Zantac
77-All of the following are common iodine deficiency
69-Which of the following drug interactions is not used symptoms except:
therapeutically? a- Goitre
a- Epinephrine / Lidocaine b- Intellectual disability
b- Probenicid / Penicillin
c- Growth retardation
c- Pseudoephedrine / Salbutamol d- Decreased early and late pregnancy miscarriage
d- Trimethoprim / Sulphamethoxazole
78-Which of the following insulins has the shortest
duration of action?
70-The maximum daily dose of Glibenclamide is a- Isophane insulin
a- 2.5 mg/day
b- Soluble insulin
b- 5 mg/day c- Insulin zinc suspension
c- 20 mg/day
d- Protamine zinc insulin
d- 30 mg/day
79-Vasopressin (ADH) is used therapeutically for:
71-Which of the following is not used to treat
psychosis? a- Treatment of polyuria caused by hypercalceamia b-
Treatment of pituitary diabetes insipidus
c- Decrease chest pain in refractory unstable angina d-
a- Aluoxetine Increasing uterine contractivity
b- Haloperidol
80-oral sympathomimetic decongestants should be c- Hypothalamic function
avoided in patients who have:
a- Asthma d- Pancreatic function

b- Cough 89-Which blood can be safely given to a patient of

c- Hypertension blood group AB positive?
d- Throat infections a- AB negative

b- A positive
81-Percentage of total body iodine in thyroid glands is : c- B positive
d- O positive
a- 50%
90- Function of gall bladder is :
b- 75% a- Increase alkalinity of bile

c- 90% b- Increase concentration of bile

c- Increase intrabiliary presence
d- 95% d- Increase phosphate level

91-Insulin causes :
82-Daily saliva secretion is :
a- 1 litres a- Increase glucose m etabolism

b- 1.5 litres b- Increase gluconeogenesis

c- 1.8 litres
d- 2 litres c- Increase lipolysis

83-Normal serum bilirubin is : d- Increase glycogenolysis

a- 0.5 - 1 mg %
b- 1 - 3 mg %
c- 3 - 4 mg % 92- Major pathway of excretion of Calcium is :
a- Kidney
d- 4 - 5.5 mg % b- Gut

84-Ovary secretes : c- Kidney and Gut

a- FSH and LH only d- None of the above
b- Oestrogen and Progestrogen only
93- The secretion of aldosterone is controlled by :
c- Oestrogen, Progestrogen and Androgen a- Angiotensin
d- All of these
b- ACTH
85- The absence of anti-A and anti-RH agglutinin c- Epinephrine
plasma means that the subject is : d- Insulin
a- A+ve or AB+ve
94- First relay station of pain is :
b- A-ve or AB-ve a- spinal cord
c- B+ve or AB+ve
d- Type O b- Medulla
c-pons
86-The most important buffer in extracellular fluids is:
a- Acetate d- thalamus

b- Bicarbonate 95- Testosterone is secreted by :

c- Phosphate a- sertoli cells
d- Protein
b- leydig cells
87- Reticulocytosis indicate : c- germ cells
a- Increased RBC formation d- adrenal medulla

b- Decreased WBC formation 96- Which neurotransmitter controls secretion of

c- Decreased RBC formation prolactin?
d- Increased WBC formation a- Dopamine

88-Ketosteroids in urine include : b- Serotonin

a- Adrenal and testicular function c- Somatostatin
d- GABA
b- Pituitary function
97- Nucleus of a atom contains :
a- Electrons 5 - All of the following are diuretics except :
b- Only Protons a- Aminophylline

c- Electrons and Protons b- Glyburide

d- Protons and Neutrons c- Spironolactone
d- Bum etamide
98- Which of the following is the fastest to be absorbed e- Chlorthalidone
from the stomach?
a- Carbonhydrate 6 - Which of the following is not a side effect of
codeine?
b- Proteins a- Miosis
c- Fats b- Nausea
d- Water
c- Diarrhea
99- Function of calcitonin is to : d- Respiratory depression
a- Decrease level of Calcium e- Addiction

b- Increase level of Calcium 7 - All of the following are natural estrogens or

c- Increase level of Mg congeners except :
d- Increase level of Potassium a- Estradiol
b- Diethylstilbestrol
100- The following are true of insulin except :
a- Glycopeptide c- Estrone
d- Ethinyl estradiol
b- Secreted by beta cells e- Estropipate
c- Causes lipogenesis
d- Promotes glycogenesis 8 - Epinephrine is not given orally because :
a- It is inactivated in the gastric mucosa
1- Wich of th following is not a major pathway or type
of biotransformations ? b- Local vasoconstriction inhibits absorption
a- Oxidation c- It is rapidly inactivated in circulation

b- Deamination d- None of the above

c- Reduction e- All of the above
d- Hydrolysis
9 - Wich of the following cardiac glycosides does not
e- Conjugation occur naturally ?
a- Dogoxin
2 - Which of the following is not a naturally occurring
emulsifier? b- Oubain
a- Acacia c- Digitoxin
d- Amrinone
b- Cholesterol
c- Gelatine e- Nitroglycerin
d- Veegum
e- Tragacanth 10- Various opiates may be used as all of the following
except :
3- Which of the following symptoms is not present in a- Analgesics
digitalis intoxication?
a- AV block b- Anti-inflammatories
c- Antidiarreals
b- Ventricular tachycardia d- Aids to anesthesia
c- Vomiting e- Antitussive
d- Vagal arrest of the heart
e- Visual disturbances
11- Which of the following is not a stimulant laxative ?
4 - Which of the following statements about
propylthiouracil is false ? a- Cascara Sagrada
a- It is used for treatment of hyperthyroidism
b- Senna
b- It inhibits the synthesis of thyroid hormones c- It
diminishes peripheral deiodination of T4 and T3 d- It inhibits c- Caster oil
iodide oxidation
d- Bisacodyl
e- It interferes with the effectiveness of exogenously
administered thyroid hormones e- Docasat
 18- Each of the following exert antimicrobial action by
inhibiting cell wall synthesis except :
12- Which of the following action is not seen with a- Cephalosporins
sympathomimetics ?
a- Pupil constriction b- Penicillin
c- Bacitracin
b- Increased heart rate d- Vancomycin
c- Sweat gland stimulation
e- Novobiocin
d- Bronchiole dilation
e- Systemic blood vessel constriction 19- Which of the following antibiotics or group of
antibiotics does not act by inhibiting of cell membrane
13- All of the following statements about propranolol function ?
are true except : a- Erythromycin
a- The oral route of administration is preferred
b- Amphotericin B
b- Propranolol penetratesin to the CNS c- Propranolol is c- Colistin
primarily biotransformed in the liver d- Propranolol causes
rashes and sore throut d- Nystatin
e- Polymyxins
e- It is non selective alpha antagonist
20-Which of the following diuretics do not cause
14- Which of the following drugs is not a proton pump potassium loss ?
inhibitor ? a- Furosemide
a- Pantoprazole
b- Chlorthalidone
b- Rabeprazole c- Triamterene
c- Lansoprazole d- Hydrochlorothiazide
d- Sulfisoxazole e- Metolazole

e- Omeprazole
21- Which is not essential amino acid ?
15- All of the following are side effects of progestins
except : a- Threonine
a- Weight gain
b- Tryptophane
b- Headache
c- Fatigue c- Glutamone
d- Constipation
e- Nausea and vomiting d- Methionine

16-Bacitarcin is not usually given parenterally because

of its : 22- Hypercalcemia does not occur in normal individuals
a- Insolubility because :
a- Calcium is rapidly excreted
b- Lack of stability
b- Calcium is rapidly biotransformed
c- Pain at the injection site c- Calcium is insoluble
d- Excess calcium is not absorbed
d- Lack of potency
e- Nephrotoxicity 23- All of the following are true of haemolytic jaundice
except :
17- Which of the following drugs should not be
administered with high fat meals ? a- There is increased production of Bilirubin b- Urobilinogin
|. Indinazir concentration is increased in urine
c- Production of Urobilinogin is increased
Riluzole
|||. Stavudine d- Bilirubin is found in the urine of the patient
e- None of the above because all are true
a- | only
b- ||| only 24- Which of the following beta-adrenergic agents is
c- | and || only not short acting ?
d- || and ||| only a- Pirbuterol

e- | , || and ||| b- Salmetrol

c- Terbutaline
d- Albuterol
e- None of the above 1- calcium administration 33- In which of the
2- lidocaine administration following conditions is iron
25- Possible treatment of Hypoglycemia does not 3- fab fragment antibodies supplementation indicated ?
include : 1 Primary hemochromatosis
a- Insulin a. 1 only
b- Candy 3only 2 Patient receiving multiple
1 and 2 only blood transfusions
c- Glucose 2 and 3 only 3 Pregnancy

d- Fruit juce 1 , 2 and 3 a- 1 only

e- Glucagon b- 3 Only
31- Some common patient c- 1 and 2 only
26- Which of the following Antihypertensive agents has complaints associated with d- 1, 2 and 3
no adverse effect on Glucose tolerance? Anticholinergic drugs
1-metoprolol
include all of the following 34- Some symptoms of iron
2-atenolol deficiency include all of the
except :
a- Urinary retention following except :
3-captopril a- Fatigue

a. 1 only b- Shortness of breath

c- Blurred vision b- Constant thirst
c- Dystrophy of nails
b. 3 only d- Dysphagia
d- Constipation
c. 1 and 2 e- Dry mouth e- Dispnea on exertion
d. 2 and 3
e. 1 , 2 and 3 32- Which of the following 35- Which of the following
iron preparations is not agents would not be
27- Signs and symptoms of acute Otitis media do not available oral dosage indicated for a patient with
include : form ? angina ?
a- Fever a- Iron dextran a- Isosorbide

b- Irritability b- Ferrous fumarate b- Flecainide

c- Stuff neck c- Ferrous gluconate c- Nifedipine
d- Lethargy d- Ferrous sulphate d- Inderal
e- Polysaccharide Iron e- Diltiazem
e- The child may be as asymptomatic complex
36- All of the following
28- Alternative Antibiotics for Otitis media for the child may be symptoms of a
allergic to myocardial infarction
Penicillin include all of the following except : except :
a- Clindamycin a- Myalgia, Mydriasis and
Nocturia
b- Erythromycin
c- Erythromycin Sulfisoxazole b- Agitated behavior and ahen
d- Ciprofloxacin pallor

e- Trimethoprin Sulfamethoxazole

29- It is important that the patient recognizes all the

following signs as possible Lithium side effects
except :i
a- Hand tremors

b- Headaches
c- Mudcle weakness
d- Constipation
e- Polyuria

30- Which of the following is not useful in the

treatment of acute Digoxin toxicity ?
c- Nausea, sweating and dyspnea d- Heartburn, fainting and 44- Dopamine tablets cannot be used to treat
skipped beats e- Dental and neck pain, no relief from Parkinsons disease because it
Nitroglycerin a- Does not cross blood brain barrier

37- All of the following are true about morphine b- Is too toxic after long term administration c- Is transformed
except : to L-dopa by the autonomic neurons d- Is not m etabolized by
a- May cause diarhoea mono amine oxidase

b- A m etabolite of codeine 45- Which of the following drugs cause insomnia ?

c- Has specific receptors in the GIT a- MAOIs
d- May cause vomiting
b- Caffeine
38- Which one of the following drugs is not available as c- Beta blockers
antipsychotic depot injection ? d- Barbiturates
a- Flupenthixol e- a, b and c

b- Fluphenazine 46- Which of the following is not effective for partial

c- Chlorpromazine HCL seizures ?
a- Phenytoin
d- Haloperidol Decanoate
b- Ethosuximide
39- Which one of the following statements about
chloral hydrate is false ? c- Carbamazepine
a- May cause gastritis d- Lamotrigine

b- Can cause tolerance 47- Amitryptyline causes all of the following except :
a- Hypotension in the elderly
c- It is a respiratory stimulant d- Toxicity is much increased b- Raising of the seizure threshold
by administration of Ethanol
c- Sedation
40- Which one of the following statements about d- Constipation
narcotic analgesics is false ?
48- All of the following are clinical applications of
a- Codeine is useful for its anti tussive properties b- desmopressin except :
Pentazocine is more addictive than morphine c- Pentazocine a- Diabetes Insipidus
may cause hallucinations
d- Morphine can cause diarhoea b- Nocturnal eneuresis
c- Urinary retention
d- Post operative poly urea

49- All of the following have very limited crossing

41- Which of the following should not be used to through inflamed meninges except :
prevent migraine in an asthmatic patient ? a- Clavulanic acid salts

a- Propranolol (Inderal) b- Penicillin

c- Teicoplanin
b- Pizotifen (Sanomigran) d- Erythromycin

c- Amitryptyline (Tryptizol) 50- All of the following are mainly Bacteriostatics

except :
d- Clonidine (Dixarit) a- Chloramphenicol
b- Sulphadiazine
c- Ampicillin
42- Which of the following is not a benzodiazepine ? d- Tetracycline
a- Alprazolam
51- The following antibiotics are used for treatment of
b- Clobazem acne in many patients except :
c- Chlormethiazole a- Erythromycin
d- Chlordiazepoxide
b- Neomycin
43- Which of the following is true about c- Clindamycin
Benzodiazepines ?
d- Tetracycline
a- Patients can develop a psychological dependence b-
Patients can develop a withdrawal syndrome c- Patients can 52- The following can be used as topical and systemic
develop tolerance to the drug Antibacterial preparations except :
d- All of the above
a- Fucidic acid
b- Phenalazine
b- Mupirocin c- Thioridazine
c- Tetracycline hcl d- Moclobemide
d- Gentamycin
a-cyproterone acetate
53- Which one of the following is not an indication for b-tamoxifen
potent, topical corticosteroids ? c-flutamide
a- Chronic Discoid Lupus Erythematosus
d-triptorelin
b- Psoriasis
c- Lichen simplex chronicus 62- m etabolism of ethyl Alcohol involves all the
d- Hypertrophic lichen planus following pathways except :
a- Oxidation
54- All of the following statements of Acyclovir are true
except : b- Conversion to acetaldehyde and acetate c- Excreted
a- It is a nucleoside antiviral drug unchanged through the lungs and kidneys d- Sulphate
conjugation
b- It is converted to triphosphate and subsequently inhibits
synthesis of viral DNA 63- The following statements apply to Azathioprine
c- It is analogue of purine ----bolites except for one :
d- It is available topically and orally a- It is immunosuppressant

55- Stability of pharmaceutical products is affected by b- It is m etabolized in the body to active 6 Mercaptopurine
the following factors except : c- It is classified as antim etabolite
a- Temperature and humidity d- It is used to treat body rejection after organ surgical
b- Composition of drug product transplant

c- Dosage form and packing material 64- Which of the following is not cytotic ?
d- Dose strength and pack size a- Alkylating drugs

56- Aqueous film coating has the following properties b- Cytotoxic antibiotics
except : c- Corticosteroids
a- Hygroscopic in nature d- Vinca alkaloids

b- Gastric fluid resistant 65- Which of the following is not used as Antimanic
c- Water soluble coating drug ?
a- MAOIs
d- Less costly to manufacture
b- Carbamazepine
57- The treatment of choice for Kaposis sarcoma is c- Benzodiazepine
which one of the following ? d- Lithium carbonate
a- Bleomycin
66- Which of the following statements about Naloxone
b- Dactinomycin is false ?
c- Doxorubicin a- It is a pure antagonist to Morphine
d- Mitomycin
b- It cause Euphoria
58- All of the following drugs are Neuroleptics with the c- It is used in the treatment of Opiate overdose
exception of one which is :
a- Butyrophenones d- It causes a withdrawal syndrome when given to an opiate
dependent subject
b- Trifluoperazine
c- Diphenylbutyl piperidines 67- Which of the following drugs is not a Tricyclic
d- Benzhexol Antidepressant?
a- Trimipramine
59- The following characteristics and uses apply to
interferon alpha except for one : b- Maprotiline
a- It is a protein c- Nortryptiline
b- It is obtained from lymphoblastoid source d- Imipramine HCL

c- It is an injectable preparation 68- Captopril and Enalapril do all the following except :
d- It is a hormone a- Increase rennin concentration in blood

60- Mono Amine Oxidase Inhibitors include the b- Inhibit an enzyme

following except :
c- Competively blocks Angiotensin || at its receptors d-
a- Tranylcypromine
Raises the blood Potassium concentration
69- Wich of the following drugs is not used in the
treatment of Parkinsons disease ? 75- The infusion of Theophyline established for a
a- Benzhexol neonate is
b- Amantadine
0.08mg/kg/hr. how many ml of drug are needed for one
c- Chlorpromazine daily bottle if the body weigh is 16 lb?
d- Carbidopa
a- 0.58mg
70- Which of the following drugs is not classified as
Antipsychotic drug ? b- 14mg
a- Chlorpromazine
b- Pimozide c- 30mg

c- Risperidone d- 150mg
d- Buspirone
e- 8mg

71- Which of the following statements is false about

Amphetamine ? 76- Blood Pressure measurements were made for 1
week on
a- Decrease restlessness fivepatients with the following averages
b- Induces hypersensitivity in children Patient 1 2 3 4 5

c- Decrease appetite B.P 140/70 160/84 180/88 190/90 150/70

d- It is a controlled drug What is the median systole pressure ?

72- Which of the following statements is false about a- 80
Diamorphine (Heroin) ?
b- 83
a- Causes nausea and vomiting
c- 84
b- A respiratory depressant
d- 160
c- Has potent Atropine like properties
e- 164
d- Converted in the body to Atropine
77- The concentration of Sodium Fluoride in a
73- A package insert lists a drug dose for a neonate as communitys drinking water is 0.6ppm.express this
being 10-microgram/kg/day. The age range for a concentration as a percentage
neonate is considered to be
a- 0.00006%
a- Birth to 1 month
b- 0.0006%
b- 1 month to 6 months
c- 0.006%
c- Birth to 1 week
d- 0.06%
d- 1 year through 5 years
e- 0.6%

74- The childs dose of a drug is reported as 1.2 mg/kg/

body weigh. What is the appropriate does for a child 78- Lanoxin pediatric elixir contains 0.05mg of Digoxin
weighing 60 lb ? per ml. how many micrograms are there in 3 ml of the
elixir ?
a- 6 mg
a- 0.15micrograms
b- 9 mg
b- 0.015micrograms
c- 32 mg
c- 1.5micrograms
d- 72 mg
d- None of the above
e- 126 mg
79- A pharmacist add 1 pint of Alcohol USP to 1 L of a Questions 83 and 84 relate to the following hospital
mouthwash formula. What is the new percentage of formula
alcohol present if original mouthwash was labeled as
12% V/V ? for a T-A-C solution

a- 30% Cocaine HCL 4%

b- 38% Tetracaine HCL 2%

c- 45% Epinephrine HCL solution 1/2000
d- 57% Sodium Chloride injection qs 4ml
e- 59%

83- How many mg of Cocaine HCL is in the final

solution?
80- A prescription calls for the dispensing of 4% Pilocar
solution with the direction of Gtt I OU TID . How a- 400mg
many mg of Pilocarpine HCL is being used per day ?
Assume that the dropper is calibrated to deliver 20 b- 4mg
drops to the ml
c- 20mg
a- 4mg
b- 6mg d- 8mg

c- 12mg e- 160mg

d- 24mg

e- 60mg 84- How many ml of Adrenaline Chloride solution

(0.1%) may be used to prepare the solution?
81- The adult intravenous (IV) dose of Zidovudine is a- 0.002ml
2mg / kg q 4hrs six times a day . How many mg will a
180-lb patient receive daily ? b- 0.04ml

a-12mg c- 1ml

b-164 mg d- 2ml

c-650mg

d-980 mg

e-2160 mg

82- A pharmacist dilutes 100ml of Clorox with 1 quart

of water Express the concentration of Sodium
Hypochlorite in the final dilution as a W/V ratio.
Commercial Clorox contains 5.25% W/V Sodium
Hypochlorate

a- 1/9

b- 1/10

c- 1/100

d- 1/180

e- 1/200
e- 5ml

89- How many ml of Glycerin would be needed to

85- An administration set delivers 60 drops to the ml. prepare 1 lb of an ointment containing 5% W/W
How many drops per minute are needed to obtain 20 Glycerin ? (The density of glycerin is 1.25g/ml)
units of Heparin per minute if the IV admixture contains
15,000 units per 250ml of Normal Saline? a- 1.2ml

a- 20 b- 18.2ml

b- 40 c- 22.7ml

c- 60

d- 80

e- 120

86- Dopamine (Inotropin) 200mg in 500ml of Normal

Saline at 5 microgram/kg/min is ordered for a 155-lb
patient. What is the final concentration of solution in
micro/ml ?

a- 0.4micrograms

b- 2.5micrograms/ml

c- 40micrograms/ml

d- 400micrograms/ml

e- 25microgram/ml

87- The estimated Creatinine clearance rate for a 120lb

patient is 40ml/min. what maintenance dose should be
administered if the normal maintenance dose is 2mg/lb
of the body weight ?

a- 60mg

b- 100mg

c- 120mg

d- 160mg

e- 240mg

88- A pharmacist repackages 10 lb of an ointment in to

jars to be labeled 2 oz(with). How many jars can be
filled ?

a- 73

b- 80

c- 83

d- 88

e- 100
d- 24ml a- 2.100ml

e- 28.4ml b- 21.000ml
c- 3.730ml
d- 37.300ml

90- A hospital clinic requests 2 lb of 2% Hydrocortisone e- 0.373ml

ointment. How many grams of 5% Hydrocortisone
ointment could be diluted with White Petrolatum to
prepare this order?
a- 18.2g
95- The dose of a drug is 0.5mg/kg. What dose should
be given to a 6 years old child who weigh 44 lb ?
a- 0.003g
b- 0.033g

b- 27.5g c- 0.010g
d- 0.100g
c- 45.4g e- 0.050g

d- 363g
96- If a pre------ion order requires 30 g of concentrated
e- 545g Sulfuric Acid (density is 1.8g/ml) , What volume should
the pharmacist measure ?
a-1.67ml

b-18.00ml
c-30.00ml

91- How many grams of Glacial Acetic Acid (99.9% d-16.67ml

W/V) must be added to 1 gal Purified Water to prepare e-166.70ml
an irrigation solution containing 0.25% W/V Acetic
Acid ?
97- Calculate the weight of 25ml of Hydrochloric Acid
a- 1.2g whose density is

b- 9.5g 1.18g/ml
a- 29.500g
c- 12g
b- 2.950g
d- 20g c- 0.295g

e- 95g d- 295.00g
e- None of the above

92- What is the decay constant (K) of the Radio-Isotope 98- Convert 2 pints 3 fluid ounces into ml
32P if its half life is 14.3 days. Assume that a- 1500ml
Radiopharmaceutical follow first t- order kinetics
b- 1050ml
a- 0.048/day c- 150ml
b- 0.07/day d- 105ml

c- 0.097/day e- 10.5ml
d- 0.1/day
e- 0.15/day
99- Convert 60 grams to grains
a- 9240 grains
93- A pre------ion calls for 25 m. eq. of Potassium
Chloride How many grams of KCL (MW 74.6) are b- 924 grains
c- 9.24 grains
needed?
a- 7.46g
d- 0.924 grains
b- 0.746g
e- 0.0924 grains
c- 8.86g

d- 1.86g
e- 0.186g 100- The dose of a drug is 0.6mg
How many doses are contained in 96mg of the drug ?
a- 16
94- How many milliliters of a 10% KCL (MW 74.6)
b- 160
solution contain 5.0 mEq of K+ ?
c- 360 Eye infections
d- 600 Eye cleaners
e- None of the above
9- Sucralfate is used for short term theraoy of
1- Which of the following NSAIDs is available in a Ulcers
parenteral form? Hypertension
Ibuprofen Carcinomas
Ketorolac Calcium depletion
Tolmetin Dental caries
Piroxicam
None of the above 10- Lorazepam is classified as
A. Loop diuretic
2- Muscle relaxant are seldom used for more Than B. MAO inhibitor
C. Thiazide diuretic
A. 2 to 3 weeks because Of toxicity Dibenzazepine
B. Of instability Polycyclic amine
C. Of short duration of need 11- probantheline is contraindicated in patients with
D. Of tolerance being developed Glaucoma
Myasthenia gravis
E. They are used longer commonly
Obstructive disease of Gl tract
3- Linezolid is used against infections caused by Ulcerative colitis
antibiotic resistant All of the above

Gram- positive cocci 12- Antiepileptics as a group are noted for developing
Gram- negative bacilli or causing
HIV virus Rashes
Gram-positive bacilli Atrial tachycardias
None of the above Tolerance
Spasms
4-Nateglinide stimulates the release of Headache
Insulin
Epinephrine 13- Selenium sulfide is used
Glucose Orally
Glucagon Topically
Norepinephrine By injection
By none of the a bove
5- Mifeprostone is a receptor antagonist of which By all of the a bove
hormone?
Estrogen 14-Zonisamide is considered a broad spectrum
Thyroid Antibiotic
Insulin Anticonvulsant
Cortisol Antiviral
Progesterone NSAID
Antihistamine
6- Rivastigmine has the primary action of inhibiting A.
Acetyl cholinesterase 15- Baclofen is used primarily as a(an)
Sympathomimetic
Epinephrine Antianxiety agent
Gastric acid Muscle relaxant
Calcium influx Antispasmodic
Histamine release Tranquilizer

7- Which of the following are low molecular- weight 16- Beta interferon is used to treat
heparin? Adult- onset diabetes
Tinzaparin Hypertension
Enoxaparin cardiac insufficiency
Multiple sclerosis
Dalteparin D.B and C Ulcers
A.B and C
8- Ocular timolo is used primary in 17-. A prevalent side effect of propylthiouracil is A.
Glaucoma Hearing loss
Pink eye
B. Visual impairment
conjunctivitis
Acidosis Triamterene
Leukopenia
Muscular spasm 26- Allopurinol differs from most other agents used to
treat gouty conditions because
18- candassartan is used as a(an)
Diuretic A. Does not decrease uric acid levels
Antihypertensive B. Prevents formation of uric acid
Hypnotic C. Increase elimination of uric acid
Sedative
Antidepressant D. Causes rapid biotransformation of uric acid E. Has
analgesic properties
19- the pharmacologic actions of sulindac include
1.Anti-inflammatory properties 27- Estrogen tend to increase the risk of A. Endometrial
11.Analgesic properties carcinoma
111.Antipyretic properties
Hirsutism
1only Hearing loss
G.11only Visual problems
pregnancy
H.1and11only I. 11and111only J. 1,11and111
28- Which of the following drugs is contraindicated
20- Mirtazapine is used to treat symptoms of when used with sildenafil?
Depression
Parkinsonism Fluroquinolones
Gout Organic nitrates
Petit mal epilepsy Penicillins
None of the above Calcium channel blockers
21- Ofloxacin is classified as a (an) none of the above
Antifungal
Antiviral 29- Gentamicin exhibits
Broad-spectrum antibiotic A. Significant hepatotoxicity
Narrow spectrum antibiotic B. Significant cardiotoxicity
Antirickettsial C. Significant dermal toxicity
D. Significant nephrotoxicity
22- Zidovudine may commonly cause which of The E. All of the above
following as a side effect?
30- Risendronate is classified as a (an)
Vasoconstriction A. Cardio suppressant
Dryness of the mouth
Hyperactivity Bisphosphonate
Anemia Diuretic
Anuria Immunosuppressant
Sympathomimetic
23- Mupicorin ointment is used topically to treat
Conjunctivitis
31- Carbamazepine is used as an anticonvulsant as well
All types of eye infections
as to treat pain from
Impetigo
Carcinomas of the skin A. Kidney infections
Hemorrhoids
Burns
24- Pentoxifylline acts primarily by
A. Dissolving cholesterol Muscle injuries
B. Decreasing viscosity of the blood
C. Increasing biotransformation Sinus headache
D. Oxidative mechanisms
E. Preventing formation of cholesterol Trigeminal neuralgia
25- Which of the following is most useful in treating 32- Methylphenidate is used to treat
hypertensive crisis? A. Sodium nitorprusside
Fatigue
Serpasil
Chlorothiazide Hyperkinesis disorders
Spironolactone
Anxiety Renal insufficiency

Depression 38- Antimuscarinic drugs are contraindicated in A.

Narrow angle glaucoma B. Paralytic ilens
Obesity
C. Pyloric or intestinal obstruction
33- Doxorubicin is used to treat
D. A and B
A. A wide variety of infections
E. A, B and C
Gram- positive infections
39- Zanamivir and ostelamivir are both FDA approved
Gram- negative infections for A. Treatment of influenza A infection B. Treatment
of influenza B infection
Viral infections
C. Prophylaxis of influenza infections
Carcinomas
D. A and B
34- A drug is useful in treating potentially fatal fungal
infections is E. A, B and C

Nystatin 40- Which of the following drugs is not a proton pump

inhibitor?
Propionic acid
Pantoprazole
Amphotericin
RabeprazolE
Nystatin
Lansoprazole
Griseofulvin

35- The use of thyroid hormones in the treatment of

obesity is A. Widely accepted

Unjustified

Acceptable in combination with other drugs

Only acceptable if other treatments fail

Acceptable if the patient is closely monitored

36- An advantage of dextromethorphan ove codeine as

an antitussive is that it

A. Is twice as affective

B. Is more stable

C. Has no side effects

D. Produces very little depression of the CNS E. Has

better analgesic properties

37- Nonselective 2- adrenoreceptor antagonists are used

primarily in A. Peripheral vascular disorder

Tachycardia

Migraine headache

Atherosclerosis
Sulfisoxazole Rashes

Omeprazole Development of tolerance

Persistent headache
41- A danger of prolonged use of pilocarpine salta as a
miotic is 46- Streptokinase is used to

Tearning A. Dissolve blood clots

Glaucoma B. Treat digestive disorders

Conjunctivitis

Detached retina

Lens opacity

42- A serious side effect of furosemide in treating heart

patients is that it A. Interact with digitalis glycosides

B. Causes arterial blockade

C. May cause anuria

D. Causes hypertension

E. May lose its effects

43- Which of the following drugs require

electrocardiographic monitorizing

Prior to infection of therapy?

Ziprasidone

Arsenic trioxide

Cisapride

A and B

A,B and C E

44- Lumivudine is usually classified as a(an)

A. H2 antagonist

B. Ulcer protectant

Antiviral

Oral antidiabetic

Anthelmintic

45- Prolonged usages of sublingual nitrates is likely to

cause

Ulcers

Anuria
C. Promote carbohydrate degradation E. None of the above

D. Treat muscle injuries 52- The anti-infammatory action of aspirin is due to

E. Replace pepsin Analgesia

47- Gold compounds have been used to teat A. Worm Inhibition of clotting
infestations
Antipyretic effect
Ulcers

Kidny failure

Rheumatoid arthritis

Psoriasis

48- Tamoxifen is classified as a(an)

Estrogen

Antiestrogen

Androsterone

Testosterone

Thyroid hormone

49-Beriberi is associated whith a deficiency of A.

Vitamin D

Thiamine

Vitamin C

Niacin

Riboflavin

50- A drug is used to treat delirium tremens is

Chlordiazepoxide

Haloperidol

Disulfiram

Methadone

None of the above

51- Cromolyn sodium acts by

A. Destroying histamine

B. Releasing histamine

C. Biotransforming histamine

D. Preventing the release of histamine

D. Degradation of prostaglandins
A, B and C
E. Inhibition of prostaglandins synthesis
58- Aprevalent side effect of norethindrone is
53- Castor oil is classified as which type of laxative?
A. Diarrhea
Lubricating
B. Breakthrough bleeding
Anthraquinone
C. Blood dyscrasiency
Irritant

Stool softening

Bulk producing

54- Penicillamine is most commonly used to treat A.

Parkinsonism

B. Wilson's disease

Neoplasms

Raynaud's disease

Gram- positive infections

55- Which of the following durg are withdrawn from

the US market In 2001 due to increased risk of
myopathy and rhabdomyolysis?

Cerevastatin

Cisapride

Dexfenfluramine

Terfenadine

Astemizole

56- Doxycycline oral gel is used to treat

Periodontitis

Aphthous ulcers

Acne

Lyme disease

Arthritis

57- Which of the following drugs requires a dosage

adjustment in patients with renal impairment?

Famotidine

Capecitabine

Gentamicin

A and C
D. Cardiac insufficiency

E. Abortion

59- the preferred way to offset hypokalemia is to A. Eat

citrus fruit

B. Eat sea food or fish

C. Administer potassium salt

D. Administer IV electrolytes

E. Dimnish urination

60- Persons receiving MAO inhibitors should control

their intake of A. Some fermented and beverages

Carbohydrates

Fats and lipids

Water

salicylate analgesics

61- Which of the following drug's may inhibit the m

etabolism of ziprasidone?

Erythromycin II. Ketoconazole III. Phenobarbital

A. I only

B. II only

C. I and II only

D. II and III only

E. I, II and III

62- Flumazenal is a specific antagonist for which of the

following drugs?

I. Meperidine

Propoxyphene III. Diazepam

A. I only

B. III only

C. I and II only

D. II and III only

E. I, II and III

63- Which of the following antidepressant also had an

indication for smoking cessation?

A. Haloperidol
Bupropion Pioglitazone

Citalopram Doconasol

Mirtazapine Riluzole

Paroxetine Terbinafine

64- Docosanol is a (an) 68- The concurrent administration (within 1 to 2 hours

of dosing) of
Diuretic

Nonnarcotic analgesic

Anti- inflammatory

Antiviral

Anthelmintic

65- Which of the following statements is true regarding

the Administration of alendronate?

I. Take more than 30 minutes before first food or

beverage of the day II. Take with 6 to 8 ounces of plain
water

III. Remain fully upright ( sitting or standing ) for about

30 minutes

A. I only

B. III only

C. I and II only

D. II and III only

E. I, II and III

66- Testosterone is available as which of the following

dosage form?

Ointments II. Injection

III. Transdermal patch

A. I only

B. III only

C. I and II only

D. II and III only

E. I, II and III

67- Which of the following is an oral hypoglycemic

agent?

Ketorolac
nislopidine should be avoided wih which of the
following?

I. High _ fat meal

Grapefruit juice III. Cocoa

A. I only

B. III only

C. I and II only

D. II and III only

E. I, II and III

69- Which of the following drugs may be administered

without regard to meals?

Valaciclovir II. Cetirizine III. Acarbose

A. I only

B. II only

C. I and II only

D. II and III only

E. I, II and III

70- Dexfenfluramine, an agent approved for the

treatment of obesity , was removed from the U.S market
due to

A. Cardiac valvular dysfunction

B. Gastric ulcerations

C. Renal toxicity

Ototoxicity

Hepaic impairment

71- The terminal half _ life of alendronate is

A. 10 days
B. 10 months

C. 10 years
D. 10 hours
E. 10 minutes

72- Serotonin syndrome is characterized by which of

the following syndrome?

I. Mental states changes

II. Tremor
III. Diaphoresis

A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III

73- the FDA has recommended the removal of which

ingredient found in cough/cold products due to an
association with hemorrhagic strke?

Dextromethorphan
Psedoephedrine
Guanfenisen
Phenylpropanolamine
Ephedrine

74- Which of the following antacids should not be used

in dialysis patients?

l. Aluminum hydroxide

Magnnesium hydroxide lll.Calcium carbonate

A. l only
B. ll only
C. l and lll only
D. ll and lll only
E. l,ll and lll

75- Melatonin reg ulates which of the following

functions?
l. Sleep

Circadian lll. Respiration

A. l only
B. ll only
C. l and ll only
D. ll and lll only
E. l , ll and lll

76- Tacrolimus oin tment is used primarily to treat

Pain
Atopic dermatitis
Sunburns
Skin grafts
Poison ivy

77- In 2001 , Which analgesic experienced significant

misuses and diversion, requiring revisions in the
warning section of the product labeling?

A. Oxy contin
Demerol
Tylenol #3
Toradol
E. roxanol Allergic rhinitis

78- Which of the following drug combination has Tinea versicolor

(have) been effective therapy for the treatment of
Helicobacter pylori? Eczema

l. Clarithromycin/ ranitidine bismuth citrate 84- Crotalide is used to treat the bites of

Omeprazole/ clarithromycin lll. Ciprofloxacin/ Fleas

erythromycin
North American vipers
A. l only
B. ll only Ticks
C. l and ll only
D. ll and lll only Rabid animals
E. l ,ll and lll Black widow spiders
79- Ziprasiodne , an agent used to treat schizophrenia ,
exerts its pharmacological effects by
85- Which of the following statements regarding
A. Inhibiting histamine reuptake fosphenytoin are true?
B. Stimulating serotonin synthesis
C. Blocking dopamine l. Fosphenytoin is completely converted to phenytion
D. Stimulating dopamine release after intravenous or I ntramuscular administration
E. None of the above
ll. The administration of 1 mmol of phenytion

80- Ocular timolol is used primarily to treat 111. Monitoring serum phenytion leveis is not
Mydriasis necessary
Glaucoma
Cataracts A. l only
Conjunctivitis
None of the above B. ll only

C. l and ll only
81 - Cetirizine is a
D. ll and lll only
A. Nonspecific histamine antagonist
E. l , ll and lll
B. Histamine 1 antagonist
86- The principal adverse effect of acarbose is
C. Histamine 2 antagonist
Hematologic
D. Histamine 1 agonist
Gastrointestinal
E. Histamine 2 ahonist
Renal
82- Bivalirudin is a (an)
Hepatic
Anticoagulant
D. ermal
Anti- infective
87- Unoprostone is FDA approved to treat A. Ovarian
NSAID cancer

Antiviral E.Antihistamine B. Hodgkin's disease

83- Cevimeline is used to treat C. Open angel glaucoma

Dermatitis Conjunctivitis

Xerostomia Tinnitus
88- Oral parenteral ketorolac therapy is limited to 5
days of therapy due A. l only
to an increased risk of B. lll only
C. l and ll only
A. Renal impairment D. ll and lll only
E. l ,ll and lll
B. Gastro intestinal bleeding/ perforation C. Liver
failure 94- Eptifibatide is classifided as a (an)
Fluoroquinolone
D. CNS disturbances Glycoprotein llb/ llla receptor inhibitor
Diuretic
E. A and B Antihypertensive
None of the above
89- Which of the following HMG-CoA reductase
inhibitors causes the greatest percentage increase in 95- Finasteride's action in the treatment of benign
HDL? prostatic hypertrophy is a (an)
Simvastatin HMG- CoA reductase inhibitor
Alpha-5reductase inhibitor
Pravastatin Serotonin reuptake inhibitor
P450 hepatic enzyme inhibitor
Lovastatin None of the above

Fluvastatin 96- A useful agent in the treatment of bladder

incontinence is
All produce *****alent reductions
Nalmefene B.. tolterodone C. Tolcapone D. Valrubicin
90- Sibutramine should not be used in patients l. With a E.None of the above
body mass index greater than 30 kg/m2 ll. Taking MAO
inhibitors 97- Which of the following agents are approved for
treatment of narcolepsy?
lll. With poorly controlled hypertension
l. Modafinil
A. l only ll. Methylphenidate
lll. Dextroamphetamine
B. lll only
A. l only
C. l and ll only B. lll only
C.l and ll only
D. ll and lll only D. ll and lll only
E. l , ll and lll
E. l , ll and lll

91- Diuretics tend to enhance lithium salt toxicity due 98- Misoprostol is used to
to A. Sodium depletion A. Treat gastric ulcers
Prevent NSAID-induced gastric ulcers
B. Potassium depletion Prevent osteoporosis
C. Direct drug interaction Prevent renal toxicity
D. Increased absorption E.Treat Paget's disease
E. Increased solubility of the lithium salts
99- Acarbose , a hypoglycemic agent, exerts which of
92- Leflunamide is used to treat the following mechanisms of action?
A. Crohn's disease
A.Increased insulin secretion
B. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Increased insulin receptor sensitivity
Psoriasis
Photoallergic reactions C . Decreases circulating insulin antibiotics D. Delays
None of the above digestion of carbohydrates E. None of the above
93- Sumatriptan use is contraindicated in patients l. 100- Which of the following drugs interferes with the m
With a history of ischemic heart disease ll. Taking etabolism of indinavir?
phenelzine
Ketoconazole
lll. With uncontrolled hypertension
Ciprofloxacin 9- If a central nervous system (cns) drug is extensively
Digoxin ionized at the ph of blood it will
Lorazepam
None of the above a- Penetrate the blood brain barrier slowly b-
penetrate the blood brain barrier rapidly c- Not
1- Seminal vesicles are present between a- Prostate and penetrate the blood brain barrier d- Be eliminated
anus b- Prostate and rectum slowly e- Not to be distributed to any tissue sites

c- Bladder and rectum 10- Most drugs are

d- Prostate and bladder a- Strong electrolytes
b- Weak electrolytes
2- Seminal vesicles secrete c- Non electrolytes
a- Prostaglandins
b- Inhibin d- Highly ionic
c- Acid phosphatase e- None of the above
d- All of the above
11- The major mechanism of degradation of drugs in
3- Clitoris develops from the gut is a- Oxidation

a- Genital tubercle b- Hydrolysis

b- Genital ridge c- Acetylation
c- Mullerian duct d- Conjugation
d- Urogenital sinus e- Reduction

4- Commonest anatomical site of appendix is a- 12- The buffer equation is also known as a- Youngs
Paraceacal equation

b- Retroceacal b- Charles equation

c- Illeal c- Henderson-hasselbalch equation
d- Pelvic d- Strokes law
e- None of the above
5- The shortest part of the colon is
a- Ascending colon 13- Radioactive decay follows a
b- Transvers colon a- Mixed order
c- Descending colon b- Fractional order rate
d- Sigmoid colon c- Zero order rate
d- First order rate
6- Which of the following factors affect the distribution e- Second order rate
of a drug?
14- The most common disintegrator in compressed
a- Lipid solubility tablets is
b- Plasma protein binding a- Dextrose
c- Polarity
d- Molecular size b- Lactose
e- All of the above c- Starch
d- Potassium bitartrate
7- The rate of zero-order reactions e- Powdered sucrose

a- Changes constantly 15- An antidote for heparin overdose is a- Protamine

b- Is independent of temperature sulphate

c- is independent of concentration d- Holds only for b- Bal

light catalyzed reaction e- Holds only for radio active c- Atropine
compounds d- Cacium salts
e- Dicumarol
8- A source of anticarcinogenic drugs is 16- Salicylic acid is used primarily as an (a)
a- Belladona a- Analgesic
b- Nux vomica b- Antipyretic
c- Vinca rosea c- Cough suppressant
d- Cascara d- Uricosuric agent
e- Digitalis e- Keratolytic agent

17- Which of the following is found in vitamin b12?

a- Magnesium d- O/w bases
b- Nickel e- W/o bases
c- Iron
d- Cobalt 25- Syrup nf is
e- Manganese a- Self preserving
b- A supersaturated solution
18- freeze dying is based on c- A dilute solution
a- pressure filtration d- high unstable
b- sublimation e- flavored and preserved
c- polymerization
d- pasteurization 26- Reaction rate is increased most rapidly by a-
e- densification Humidity

b- High temperature
19-the most prevalent commercial solid dosage forms c- Freezing
are d- Photolysis
e- Hydrolysis
f- Hard capsules
g- Soft gelatin capsules
h- Tablets 27- Gmp regulations are promulgated and revised by
i- Bulk powders
j- Divided powders a- Congress

20- Ointments are typically used as b- State boards of pharmacy

|. Emollients c- The dea
||. Protective barriers d- The fda
|||. Vehicles for applying drugs e- The epa

a- |. Only 28- Ferritin is a (an)

b- |||. Only a- Vitamin
c- | and || only b- Micelle
d- || and ||| only c- Emulsion
e- |, || and ||| d- Amino acid
29- Vitamin b6 is also known as
21- A humectant retards a- Thiamine
a- Bacterial growth b- Riboflavin
b- Degradation c- Niacin
c- Surface evaporation d- Pyridoxine
d- Spreadability e- Cyanocobalamine
e- All of the above
30- Sunscreen preparations containing p aminobenzoic
22- Starch is used in tabletting as a acid should be a- Used sparingly
|. Binder
||. Glidant b- Applied 2 hrs before exposure
|||. Disintegrant
c- Packaged in air-resistant containers d- Packaged in
a- ||. Only light-resistant containers
b- |||. Only
c- | and || only e- Used only on arrears other than the face
d- || and ||| only
e- |, || and ||| 31- Which of the following statements is (are) true for
undecylenic acid?
23- Gums are used in tabletting primarily as
a- Disintegrators |. It is often used as zinc salt
b- Glidants It may cause irritation and sensitization
c- Lubricants |||. It is most fungistatic of the fatty acids
d- Binding agents
a- |. Only
e- Both b and c
b- |||. Only
24- Vanishing creams are classified as c- |. And ||. Only
a- Oleaginous d- ||. And ||| only
b- Absorption bases e- |, || and |||
c- Water-soluble bases
32- Which of the following is classified as fat soluble? b- Therapeutic agent in topical preparations
a- Vitamin d c- Stabilizer in emulsions
b- Niacin
c- Ascorbic acid d- Reagent for absorption of carbon dioxide e-
d- Thiamine hydrochloride Preservative in aromatic waters
e- Riboflavin
40- The limulus test is relatively new method of testing
33- The active constituents of saline laxatives are for
a- Absorbable anions
b- Nonabsorbable anions a- Pyrogens
c- Tribasic cations b- Microbial growth
d- Absorbable cations and anions c- Acidity
e- Nonabsorbable cations and anions d- Creaming
e- Lack of osmolarity
34- Bismuth subsalicylate is used in antidiarrheals for
its 41- Which of the following is associated with excessive
a- Hydrophobic action infusion of hypotonic fluids?
b- Hydrophilic action
c- Adsorbent action a- Hemolysis
d- Absorbent action b- Hyperglycemia
e- Antibacterial action c- Dehydration
d- Glycosuria
35- Cellulose acetate phthalate is used in pharmacy as a e- None of the above
(an)
a- Emulsifier
b- Enteric coating material
c- Suspending agent
d- Flavoring agents
e- Excipient

36- Coca butter (theobroma oil) is used as a suppository

base because of its

a- Solubility
b- Melting point
c- Miscibility
d- Reactivity
e- Lipophilic properties

37- The most widely used method for sterilization of

pharmaceutical is
a- Microfiltration

b- Radiation
c- Ethylene oxide exposure
d- Moist heat
e- Dry heat

38- Ophthalmic solutions should be formulated to

include which of the folloeing?

|. Sterility
Isotonicity
|||. Buffering

a- |. Only
b- ||. Only
c- |. And || only
d- ||. And |||. Only
e- |, || and |||

39- Soda lime is used as a (an)

a- Alkalinizer
42- Which of the following is associated with excessive
infusion of hypertonic dextrose?

a- Loss of electrolytes
b- Hyperglycemia
c- Dehydration
d- Glycosuria
e- All of the above

43- Normal rectal temperature is usually a- Measured in

the morning b- Measured in the evening

c- About same as the normal oral temperature d- About

1c lower than oral

e- About 1c higher than oral

44- The latin oculo utro is translated to mean a- Right

eye

b- Each eye
c- Left eye
d- Each ear
e- Right ear

45- Advantages of tablets over liquid dose forms

include the following |. Enhanced stability

||. Ease of administration

|||. Greater accuracy of dosing

a- ||. Only
b- |||. Only
c- |. And ||. Only
d- || and ||| only
e- |, || and |||

46- The latin post cibos can be translated to mean a-

After meals

b- Before meals
c- With meals

d- Without meals
e- On the empty stomach

47- Prednisone is converted to which of the following

by the liver?
a- Cortisone
b- Hydrocortisone
c- Prednisolone
d- Methylprednisolone
e- Dexamethasone

48- The principal use of magnesium stearate in

pharmaceutics is as a(an)
a- Lubricant
b- Antacid |. Generic *****alence
c- Source of mg ion ||. Therapeutic *****alence
d- Disintegrator |||. Pharmaceutical *****alence
e- Binder
A-|. Only
49- Activated charcoal is used in some antidotes B-||. Only
because of which of its properties? C-|. And || only
D-|, || and |||
a- Neutralizing
b- Emetic 56- Which of the following is a true statement regarding
c- Absorptive transdermal delivery systems?
d- Adsorptive
e- Stabilizing a- Products from different manufactures require
identical amounts of the active ingredient to yield
50- The major use of titanium dioxide in pharmacy is in *****alent responses
a- Sunscreens
b- Skin thickness is not a factor in drug absorption c-
b- Antacid tablets The transdermal unit should always be placed at the
c- Capsules as a diluent same site
d- Effervescent salts
e- Emulsions d- The transdermal unit contains more drug than is
needed for delivery into the bodyover the prescribed the
51- Which of the following is used as a hemostatic period of use
agent?
e- The transdermal unit may remain attached to the skin
a- Heparin after the labeled delivery period because drug
absorption cases
b- Oxycel
57-dosage of anticonvulsants is adjusted
c- Coumadins A-when seizures occur frequently
B-every 2 weeks
d- Indanediones C-every 2 years
D- only when side effects are seen
e- None of the above E-seasonally

52- An other name of extended insulin zinc suspension 58-which of the following agents is associated with
is tinnitus as a result of toxicity?
a- Nph
b- Lente a- Salicylate
c- Ultralente b- Phenytoin
d- Regular c- Propranolol
e- None of the above d- Acetaminophen
e- Cyclobenzaprine
53- The latin oculus sinister means
a- Right eye 59-parkinson is probably due to
A- too little dopamine in the brain
b- Left eye B- too little levodopa in the brain
c- Both ears C- too little acetylcholine in the brain
d- Both eyes D- too much levodopa in the brain
e- Right ear E- too much dopamine in the brain
54- The recommended method of mixing insulins is to 60-the greatest threat from the morphine poisoning is
a- Shake vigorously A- renal shutdown
B- paralysis of spinal chord
b- Mix gently by rolling between palms of hands c- Add C- respiratory depression
simultaneously to container D- cardiovascular collapse
E- none of the above
d- Add lente insulin first then regular insulin e- None of 61- a specific narcotic antagonist is
the above A- meperidine
B- polybrene
55- The formulation of different active ingredients that
C- nalorphine
have been judged to produce similar effects are called
D-universal antidote
E- meprobamate
70- daunorubicin and doxorubicin have been commonly
62- wich of the following is used to curtail chronic uric associated with A- ulcers
acid stone formation?
B- cardiac toxicity
A- allopurinol C- colitis
B- trimethoprim D- gout
E-hepatotoxicity
C- mehtenamine
D-ethacrynic acid 71- in which of the following dosage is nicotine
E- furosemide available when used as smoking detergent?

63-wich of the following is used to lower blood lipid A- transdermal

levels?
A- trimethadione B- nasal drops
B- colesevelam
C-flucytosine C- gum
D-coumarin
E- propranolol D- a and c

64- capecitabine is used to treat E- a, b and c

A- hypertension
B- muscular injuries 72-folic acid administration has been recommended
C- ulcers during pregnancy to prevent which of the following
D- breast cancer congenital problems?
E- congestive heart failure
A- spina bifida
65- magnesium ion is necessary in
A- stimulating enzyme systems B- cystic fibrosis
B- muscular contractions C- patent ductus arteriosus
C- nerve conduction D- limb deformations
D- all of the above E- cleft palate
E- none of the above
73- an advantage of amoxicillin over ampicillin is that it
66- a class of plant alkaloids widely used to treat A- is more acid stable
migraine is
A- vinic al kaloids B- is not destroyed by pencillinase
B-digitalis C- has a broad spectrum
C- stramonium alkaloids D- does not cause allergies
D- ergot alkaloids E- has a longer ----f of life
E- belladonna alkaloids
74- Arsenic trioxide was approved by the fda in 2000 to
67- cyclosporine is used for treat which of the following disease?
A- allergies
B- angina a- Leukemia
C- prevention of transplant rejection b- Muscle spasms
D-steroids deficiency c- Parkinson's disease
E- treating lead poisoning d- Neuralgias
e- Colon cancer
68-pantoprazole is used primarilt to treat A- gastric
hyperacidity 75- Primidone, used in the treatment of generalized
tonic-clonic seizures , is m etabolized to
B- hypertension
C-cardiac insufficiency a- Phenytoin
D- gout b- Phenobarbital
E- migraine headache
c- Metformin
69- citalopram is a(an) d- Carbamazepine
A- diuretic e- None of the above
B- cardiotonic
76-vincristine has been commonly associated with
C- antidepressant which of the following adverse events?
D-anti-inflammatory
E- anthelmintic A- neurotoxicity
B- gout 84- Some anti-convulsant (e.g., carbamazepine,
C- duodenal ulcers phenytoin, gabapentin) are fda approved to treat
D- blood clotting seizures but have also been effective in the treatment of
E- none of the above
a- Parkinsonism
77-dolasetron, a 5-ht3 antagonist is an(a) b- Neuralgias or neuropathies
a- B- adrenergic blocker c- Colitis
b- Antiemetic d- Nausea
c- Glucocorticoid e- All of the above
d- Local anesthetic
e- Sunscreen 85- Efavirenz is classified as a(an)
a- Muscle relaxant
78-cholestyramine resin has the prevalent side effect of
a- Blocking absorption of some vitamins b- Sedative hypnotic
c- Tranquilizer
b- Raising cholesterol levels d- Analgesic
c- Causing intoxication e- Antiviral
d- Increasing sensitivity to uv light
e- All of the above 86- Lepirudin is used mainly to treat
a- Gastritis
79- lorazepam produces which of the following b- Minor anxiety states
action(s)? c- Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia
A- sedation d- Severe pain
B- loss of memory e- Nausea
C- reduction of anxiety
D- all of the above 87- Histamine is found in the human body in a- The
E- none of the above granules of mast cells in the blood b- The mucosal layer
of the gi tract c- The hypothalamus
80- Timolide combines the action of nonselective beta
blocking agent and a(an) d- A and b
e- A, b and c
a- Diuretic
b- Cardiotonic 88- Orlistat is used as a(an)
c- Selective beta blocker a- Narcotic antagonist
d- Anti-inflammatory agent b- Narcotic analgesic
e- Vasoconstrictor c- Weight loss agent
d- Antiepileptic

81- Which of the following drugs has been associated e- Anesthetic

with reye's syndrome in children?
89- Antipsychotics usually act on the
a- Aspirin a- Cerebrum
b- Acetaminophen b- Cerebellum
c- Ibuprofen c- Lower brain areas
d- Brain and spinal chord
d- Naproxen e- Nerve endings
e- Phenobarbital
90- Lidocaine is used as a local anesthetic or as a(an)
82- Ultra-short acting barbiturates are used primarily as a- General anesthetic
a- Sedatives b- Antipruritic
b- Hypnotics c- Preanesthetic
c- Antispasmodic agents d- Antiarrhythmic
d- Anti-parkinsonian agents e- Analgesic
e- Preanesthetic agents
91- Cocaine has a long duration of local anesthetic
83- Norethindrone is a drug commonly used in a- action because it is a- More stable than most local
Mixed estrogens anesthetics b- Readily absorbed

b- Oral contraceptives c- Not biotransformed

c- Treating carcinomas d- A vasoconstrictor
d- Diagnostic testing e- None of the above
e- Abortifacients
92- Tenecteplase is used primarily to reduce mortality a- Parkinsonism
associated with which of the following clinical b- Angina
problems? c- Xerostomia
d- Glaucoma
a- Diabetes e-Muscle spasms

b- Myocardial infarction
c- Hemorrhage
d- Prostate cancer
e- None of the above

93- Albiterol is usually administered by which route?

a- Iv
b- Im
c- Nasal
d- Rectal
e- Oral
94- Nateglinide is used most commonly to treat
a- Aids
b- Genital herpes
c- Diabetes
d- Cmv retinitis
e- Influenza

95- Barbiturates, in general, are particularly noted for a-

Lack of habituation

b- Producing microsomal enzymes in liver

c- Instability
d- Slow absorption
e- Poor oral absorption

96- Meloxicam exerts its action because it is a(an)

a- Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory
b- Mao inhibitor
c- Alkaline
d- Calcium channel blocker
e- Acid

97- Oxcarbazepine is used to treat

a- Partial seizures
b- Hdogkin's disease
c- Angina pectoris
d- Breast cancer
e- Depression

98- Which of the following is classified as a cholinergic

antagonist?

a- Acetylcholine
b- Neostigmine
c- Atropine
d- Bethanecol
e- Methacholine

99- Nitroglucerin has a relatively short-half life due to

a- Its volatility
b- Its chemical instability

c- Its poor absorption

d- First-pass metabolism
e- All of the above

100- Trihexylphenidyl is used to treat

1- The highest concentration of benzoyl peroxide for
acne to be sold as OTC in the UAE is

2.5%
5.0%
C)10%
D)15%

2- The appropriate PH range for aphthalmic products is

2.0 to 3.0
4.0 to 6.0
6.0 to 8.0
8.0 to 10.0

3- Which of the following should NOT be administered

to a patient being treated for narrow- angle glaucoma

Dipivefrine B)Pilocarpine

Carbachol
Homatropine

4- All of the following drugs are used to treat patients

with open- angle glaucoma EXCEPT

Carbachole
Atropine
Dipivefrine
Betaxolol

5- Methylcellulose and similar agents are in ophthalmic

solutions to
Increase drop size
Reduce drops size
Increase ocular contact time
Reduce tear formation during instillation of the drops

6- Which of the following sulfonylureas has the longest

half- life
Tolbutamide
Glibenclamide
Tolzamide
Chlorpropamide

7- The insulin preparation which is non- immunogenic

Protamine zinc insulin suspension
Human insulin
Bovine insulin
All of the above
8- Incombined oral contraceptives, oestrogens act to,
Inhibit of leuteinising Hormone 17- Which of the following drugs is NOT associated
Inhibit release of Follicle stimulating hormone with increased prolactin secretion
Inhibit ovulation
Cause thickening of cervical mucus Chlorpromazine
Metocloproamide
Bromocryptin
9- Which of the following substances when present Methyldopa
inurine is the most likely positive sign of pregnancy

Thyroid stimulating hormone 18- The action of Digoxin is enhanced by a high level
Melatonin of which of the following ion
Human chrionic gonadotropin
Corticotropin Sodium
Calcium
Magnessium
10- Which of the following is NOT secreted by the Potassium
pituitary gland
Somatotropin B) Human chorionic gonadotropin
Follicle stimulating hormone 19- Which of the following is the first diagnostic
CRH symptom of digoxin overdose
11- Side effects of isotretinoin (Roaccutane) include
Dermatological reactions Anorexia, nausea, vomiting
Depresion Constipation
Teratogenicity High bodytemperature
All of the above Bronchospasm

12- Lidocain Hcl is NOT administered orally because it 20- Which of the following is a blood platelet adhesion
is inhibitor
ineffective by this route Dipyridamole
Too acidic Nitrafuratoin
Too acidic by this rout Dextropropoxyphene
A cause of arrhythmias Imipramine

13- Calcitonin is produced in the 21- Nitroglycerin has a relatively low bio- availability
because
adrenal cortex Its chemically unstable
Thyroid gland Its poorly absorbed
Pancreas It has a first pass m etabolism
Adrenal medulla a,b and c

14- Which of the following is the shortest acting

Mydriatic 22- Sucralfate is used to treat
Atropine Peptic ulcers
Pilocarpine Carcinoma
Tropicamide Calcium depletion
a, b and c Obesity

15- Tinea infections are caused by

Virus 23- Methyldopa is used as a /an
Fungus Antiparkinsonism
Gram- positive bacterium Sedative
None of the above Antihypertensive
Prolactin inhibitor
16- Prolactin inhibiting factor is
Dopamine
Thyrotropin 24- Pentoxifylline acts primarily by
Somatotropin Dissolving cholesterol
Corticotropin Decreasing viscosity of the blood
Oxidative mechanisms
Preventing formation of cholesterol Blurred vision

33-Which of the following is a dopamine antagonist

25- Which of the following is most useful in treating Grannisteron
hypertensive crisis Domperidone
Chlorthiazide Cisapride
Spironolactone
Sodium Nitroprusside
Adenosine

26- A triple therapy for erapy for eradication of H.

pylori contains
Amoxycillin, Omeprazole, Clarithromycin
Tetracycline, Amoxycillin, Clarithromycin
Vancomycin, Amoxycillin, Metronidazole
Pencillin, Clarithromycin, Metronidazole

27- Lidocaine is used as

A) General anaesthesia
Antipruritic
Antiarrythmic
Preanaesthetic

28- The principal toxic effect of

Bronchospasm
Chillis
Hair loss
Haemorrhage

29- Which of the following is NOT true about

Misoprostol
It's a prostaglandin analogue
It is used to prevent NSAID'S induced peptic ulcer
It may be used in pregnant women
It causes diarrhea

30- Which of the following is a lipid lowering drug

Aprotinin
Tranexamic acid
Lansoprazole
Gemifibrozal

31- Simethicone is a\an

Antacid
Antiflatulent
Constipating agent
Laxative

32- Which of the following side effects will be caused

by antacids containing sodium bicarbonate

Belching
Constipation
Diarrhoea
D) Loperamide

34- Which of the following drugs is a systemic

amoebicide
Diloxamide furoate
Pyrimethamine
Emetin
Sodium stibogluconate

35- Which of the following drugs may cause

discolouration of nail beds and mucous membranes

Tetracycline
Chloroquine
Doxycycline
Rifampicin

36- Which of the following drugs is the choice for the

treatment of all forms of Schistosomiasis

Praziquantel
Mebendazole
Niclosamide
Thiabendazole

37- Which of the following drugs can be used for the

treatment of influenza A infection

Zidovudine(AZT)
Amantadine
Ribavirin
Vidarabine

38- Which of the following drugs is used in the

treatment of leishmaniasis
Pyrimethamine
Diloxamide furoate
sodium stibogluconate
Emetin

39- In Which of the following infections

ciprofloxacillin is least effective
UTI due to a beta- lactamase producing strain of
klebsiella
Pneumonia due to to streptococcus pneumonia
UTI infection due to E. coli
UTI due to pseudomonas aeruginosa

40- Which one of the following statements about

Tetracyclines is not correct
It is useful for treatment of resistant strains
It is contraindicated in pregnancy
It is effective infection caused by Chlamydia It is effective in infection caused by Chlamydia
It can lead to discolouration of teeth if given to cgildren
Patient with a heart prosthesis having a tooth removal

41- Which one of the following is both pencillinase

resistant and effective by oral administration
46- Which of the following clinical indications will
Pencillin V NOT require a combination of antibiotics
Treatment of mixed infections
Methicillin
Treatment of tuberculosis
Amoxicillin+ Clavulanic acid
Treatment of cryptococcal meningitis
Carbimazole
Treatment of gonnorhoea

42- Which of the following drugs is used topically for

burn patients
47- Which of the following drug will antagonize
Sulphacetamide methotrexate

Sulphadiazine Thiamine

Sulphasalzine Folic acid

Silver sulphadiazine Biotin

Cyanocobalamin

43-Which one among the following drugs is effective in

the treatment if pneumonia caused by pneumocystis
carinii 48- All of the following aretherapeutic indications of
salicylates EXCEPT
Sulphacetamide
Rhematoid arthritis
Sulphasalzine
Fever in children with varicella
Sulphisoxzole
Fever in adults with influenza
Co- Trimoxazole
Spasmodic dysmennorhoea

44- Sulphonamides are useful in the treatment of which

one of the following 49- Famotidine is classified as

Influenza Anti depressant

Gonorrhoea H1 receptor antagonist

Urinary tract infections H2 receptor antagonist

Meingococcal Beta 2 agonist

50- Match the drug characteristics (1-4).Each answer

may be used more than once
45- In which one of the following clinical situations is
the prophylactic use of antibiotics NOT warranted Auranofin

It is useful for the treatment of resistant strains Pencillamine C)Aspirin

Corticosteroids
It is contraindicated in pregnancy
1- Platelet function effect Polysorbate 80

2- Oral form of gold(A)

3- Given on an empty stomach(B) 55- All of the following preparations contain alcohol
EXCEPT
4- May be given intra- aricularly (D)
Syrup simplex B.P

51- For each side effct(1-4), list the most likely cause Aromatic ammonia spirit USP
(A-D) .Each answer may be
used more than once Acetic acid N.F

Sodium bicarbonate B)Aluminium hydroxide Belladone tincture B.P

Amitryptiline
56- the RDA (Recommended daily allowance) of
Magnessium hydroxide elemental iron for an adult man is

1-5mg
1- May cause diarrhea(D)
10-18mg
2- Should not be used by patients of heart failure(A)
50-100mg
3- May cause dry mouth(C)
150-200mg
4- Can be incorporated with an antacid mixture to
control diarhoea(B)

57- A contraindication to the antimigraine drug

52- Pyridoxine requirements may increase during sumatriptan is A)Hypotension
administration of all of the following EXCEPT
Hirsuitism
Isoniazid
Gingival hyperplasia
Cycloserine
a, b and c
Oral contraceptives

Levodopa 59- Paracetamol

Is not recommended for post- immunization in 2-3

month old infants
53- The process of rubbing or grinding a substance in a
mortar is called Has an anti- inflammatory activity similar to aspirin
Trituration Is an effective analgesic in severe renal colic
Spactulation May cause severe liver toxicity if taken in overdose
Levigation

Coating
60- An inorganic molecule used in the treatment of
mania is
54- Which of the following is a natural emulsifuing
agent Aluminium hydroxide B)Cromolyn sodium
Lithium bicarbonate D) Magnesium oxide
Acacia

Lactose
61- Which of the following is the drug of choice for an
Polysorbate 20 acute febrile convulsion
Carbamazepine
67- Levodopa is
Clonazepam
A) The latin name for dopamine
Diazepam The amino acid precursor of dopamine

Phenytion The main m etabolite of dopamine

62- Which of the following is a tricyclic anti-depressant
The natural dopamine receptor antagonist
Clomipramine (Anafranil)

Fluoxetine (Prozac)

Maprotilline (Ludiomil) 68- Parkinson's disease is caused by a deficiency of

which neurotransmitter in the substantial nigra
Tranylcypromine (Parnate)
Dopamine
63- Which of the following components of analgesic
Noradrenaline
tablets commonly causes constipation

Aspirin Acetylcholine

Caffeine Adrenaline

Codeine 69- Which of the following is the amino- acid precussor

of dopamine
Paracetamol
Levodopa

64- Which of the following chemical groups dose NOT Bromocryptine

have antidepressant activity
Carbidopa
Tricyclics
Procyclidine
Selective serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors

Monoamine oxidase inhibitors 70- for a 4 year old child, the maximum daily dose of
paracetamol is
Phenothiazines
240mg
65- Which of the following is chemically similar to
480 mg C)1 g
aspirin

Diflunisal 2g

Etodolac 71- Which of the following is available as an injection

Alprazolam
Sulindac
Bromazepam
Indomethacin

66- Which of the following drugs has antimuscarinic Clorazepate

activity
Diazepam
Benzhexol
72- Which of the following agents should not be used
Benztropine
concurrently with
levodopa
Procyclidine D)Al of the above
Mono Amine Oxidase Inhibitors
 78-Which if the following antiepileptic drugs is also
Diphenhydramine C)Benztropine used in the prophylaxis of manic depression
Amantadine
Phenytoin
73- An example of a 5-HT3 receptor antagonist is
Carbamazepine
Bromocryptine (Parlodel)
Lamotrigine
Cimetidine (Tagamet)
Phenobarbitone
Ondanestron (Zofran)

Fluoxetine (Prozac)

74- Which of the folloeing CANNOT be given with a 79- In the elderly, an antipsychotic drug such as
MAOI antidepressant Haloperidol is likely to cause

Beta blocking drugs Hyperthermia

NSAID'S Hypertension

Benzodiazepines Hypotension

Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors Hypoprolactinaemia

75- Which of the following can lower the convulsion

threshold (at therapeutic doses)

Carbamazepine (Tegretol) 80- Select the drug of choice for preventing the
DELAYED emetic symptoms of cancer chemotherapy
Propanolol (Inderal)
5HT 3antagonist
Amitryptiline (Tryptizol)
Dexamethasone
Phenytoin (Epanutin)
Metoclopramide
76- Which anticonvulsant is associated with sedation
and tolerance
Prochlorperazine
Valproic acid

Phenobarbitone

Clonazepam 81- Which of the following is effective when given

once daily for the prevention of epilepsy
Vigabatrin
Carbamazepine (Tegretol)

77- Benzodiazepines mainly affect which Sodium valproate (Epilim)

neurotransmitter
Phenytoin (Epanutin)
Gama- amino- butyric-acid
Carbamazepine (Tegretol Retard)
Noradrenaline
Serotonin

Dopamine 82- All of the following can be used to treat

pesudomembraneous colitis EXCEPT

Vancomycin
Metronidazole
Cholestyramine
D) Clindamycin
 Corticotropin C)Vasopressin
83- The rote of cilastatin in the combination
imipenem/cilastatin is
To inhibit beta- lactamase enzymes
To make a sustained release formula
To block the renal m etaboltsm of imipenem
To inhibit the liver microsomal enzymes from m
etabolizing imipenem

84- The pharmacist's advice to a patient who is using

ciprofloxacin should be that

Do not take it directly after a meal which contains milk

and dairy products
Do not it at the same time with acids

Separate it form calcium and iron supplements at least

for2 hours D) All of the above

85- Which one of the followingstatements is nutrue

about aztreonam A) It is active against both
grampositive and gram negative micro- organisms

It is a mono bactam
Its usual dose is one gram every 8 hours
It has low tendancy to causehypersensitivity in pencillin
allergic patients

86-Biphosphonates are used clinically to treat

Hypocalceamia
Htponatreamia
Hypercalceamia related to malignancy
Hypokaleamia caused by diuretics

87- What is the e quivalent anti- inflammatory dose to

5mg of prednisolone
50mg of cortisone acetate
50mg of hydrocortisone
0.75mg of betamethasone
10mg of prednisolone

88- The following statements are true when we talk

about oestrogens except
It is responsible for female secondary sexual
charscteristics
It causes myometrial atrophy
It can be used in post menopausal osteoporosis

Long term treatment with oestrogen may increase the

risk of endometrial cancer

89- Which one of the following hormones is secreted by

the hypothalamus
Gonadorelin
D) Genotropin

90- Which one of the following is the most commonly

reported side effect of antipsychotics in the elderly ?

Agranulocytosis
Arrhythmia
EPS
Excessive urination

91- All the following are considered to be beta lactam

type antibiotics,EXCEPT

Ceftriaxone
Pieracillin
Ofloxacillin
Imipenem

92- Which one of the following organs is involved in

calcium- balance and homeostasis

Pancreas
Hypothalamus
Parotid glands
Parathyroid

93- The most common side effect of a NSAID is

A)Headache

Naproxen
Skin rash
Diarrhoea

94- Which one of the following is usually given once a

day
Piroxicam
Naproxen
Diflunisal
Ibuprofen

95- Which one of the following can be given safely to a

patient receiving an MAOI

Cromoglicate nasal drops

Ephedrine nasal drops
Oxym etazoline nasal drops
Xylom etazoline nasal drops

96- Which one of the nasal sprays is usually used

ONCE daily A) Beclomatasone (Becotide)
Dexa methasine ( Dexa rhinaspray) Chelating agent
Fluticasone (Flixonase)
Cromoglycate (Rynacrom) 4- Which of the following statement are (is) true of
ticlopidine HCI(Ticlid)?

97- Which is the most potent ear \ nose drops Only administered parenterally
Betamethasone (Betnesol) Dissolves blood clots
Dexamethasone (Sofradex) Inhibits platelet aggregation
Hydrocortisone (Otosporin)
Prednisolone (Predsol) 1only
111 only

98- Which one of the following should be avoided 1 and 11 only D)11 and 111 only
during treatment with warfarin 1,11 and111

Amoxicillin
Glibenclamide 5- The antiarrhythmic action of tocainide(Tono card)
Indomethacin and mexiletine(Mexitil) most closely resembles that of
VitaminD
A)Acebutolol
Verapamil
99- Which one of the following can be used to treat Quinidine
acute go Lidocaine
Diclofenac Disopyramide
Ibuprofen
Indomethacin
All of the above 6- Wghich one of the following agents may be added to
local injection of Xylocaine in order to prolong its
effect
100- Which one of the following is most closely related Succinylcholine chloride
to aspirin Sodium carbxymethylcellulose
Acetaminophhen Polyethylene glycol
Diclofenac Epinephrine
Diflunisal
Salazopyrine
7- Colestipol HCI is most commonly employed as a
1- An adverse effect of commonly associated with the (an)
use of theophyllineHYH products is Antidote for atropine overdosage
Hypoglycemic agent
Crystaluria Bile acid sequestrant
Skin Rash Fat substi tute
Syncope Bronchodilator
Ptosis
Insomnia

2- Which of the following statement is (are) true of 8- Which one of the following drugs dose NOT lower
epinephrine? plasma lipoprotein Concentrations?
l. May be administered by inhalation
Simvastatin
Reduces arterial blood pressure lll. Peripheral Clofibrate
vasodilator Probucol
Cholestyramine
1 only Nicotinamide
111only
9- A drug that has been shown to have a strong
11 and 111 only antagonism for both histamine and serotonin is
1 , 11 and 111
Chlorpheniramine (Chlor-Tirmeton)
3- Dipivefrin ( proppine) can best be described as a(an) Tripolidine (Actidil)

Sholinesterase inhibitor Cyproheptadine (Periactin)

Osmotic diuretic
Beta- adrenergic blocking agent Loratidine (Claritin)
Prodrug Promethazine (Phenergan)
 1 and 11 only

10- Idoxuridine (Herplex) is an effective treatment for 11 and 111 only

dentric keratitis , which is caused by
1 , 11 and 111
Escherichia coli
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Staphylococcus aureus 15- Of the following glucocorticoids, which one has the
Clostridium difficle greatest anti-inflammatory potency when administered
Herpes simplex systemically?

Hydrocortisone (Cortef)
11- Isotretinoin is used therapeutically Dexamethasone (Decadron)
As a urinary analgesic Triamcinolone (Aristocort)
In the treatment of cystic acne

As an antifungal agent

In the treatment of resistant tuberculosis

As an osmotic diuretic

12- An agent that would be most likely to cause drugs-

induced bronchospasm is

nedocromil

Enalapril

Isoproterenol

Pindolol

Theophylline

13 - Albuterol(Proventil , Ventolin) is a(an)

Alpha receptor antagonist

Alpha receptor agonist

Beta receptor antagonist

Beta receptor agonist

Alpha and Beta receptor agonist

14- Which of the following drugs is (are) histamine

antagonists?

Brompheniramine

. pyrilamine

Rantidine

1 only

111 only
Prednisone (Meticorten) 1 , 11 and 111

Cortisone (Cortone) 20 - A phenothiazine derivative commonly used for its

antihistaminic effect is?

16- Benzoyl peroxide is commonly employed in the Promethazine

treatment of
Promazine
Psoriasis
Chlorpromazine
Pinworms
Prochlorpromazine
Acne

Trichomonal infections 21- Carbamazepine (Tegretol) is indicated for the

treatment of
Seborrheic dermatitis
Insomnia

17- Which one of the following hormones is released Epilepsy

from the posterior pituitary gland?
Trigeminal neuralgia
Oxytocin
1 only
Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
111 only C)1 and 11 only
Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)
11 and 111 only E)1 ,11 and 111
Follicle stimulating hormone(FSH)

Growth hormone
22- Of the following anxiolytic agents, the one that
possesses the least sedating action is
18- During ovulation , peak plasma concentration(s) of
Which of the following Hormone(s) will be reached? Diazepam (Valium)

Oxazepam (Serax)
1 . Progesterone
Meprobamate (Miltown , Equanil)
Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH)
Chlordiazeppoxide (Librium)
Luteinizing hormone (LH)
Buspirone (Buspar)
A)1 only

111 only C)1 and 11 only

23- Which of the following is (are) NOT true of
11 and 111 only theophylline?
1. Chemically related to caffeine
1,11 and 111
Increases the contractile force of the heart

19- Liotrix is a thyroid preparation that contains Causes CNS depression

Liothyronine sodium
1 only
Levothyroxine sodium
111 only
111 . Desiccated thyroid
1 and 11 only D)11 and 111 only
1 only 1 , 11 and 111

111 only

1 and 11 only D)11 and 111 only

24- Penicillins are believed to exert their antibacterial
effect by which one of the following mechanisms?
29- Sulfones such as dapsone are employed commonly
Detergent effect on the bacterial cell membrane in the treatment of
B)Inhibition of protein synthesis Urinary tract infection

Destruction of the bacterial cell nucleus Psoriasis

Inhibition of bacterial cell wall synthesis Brighs disease

Steric hindrance of membrane acids Hansens disease

Cushings disease

25- The antibacterial mechanism of the penicillins is

most similar to that of
30- which one of the following tetracycline has the
Lincomycin (Lincocin) longest duration of action?

Tetracycline HCL (Achromycin) Doxycline (Vibramycin)

Ciprofloxacin (Cipro) D)Granisteron (Kytrill) Tetracycline (Achromycin)

E)Probenecid (Benemid)
Minocycline (Minocin)

Oxytetracycline (Terramycin)
26- Five hundred milligrams of phenoxymethyl
penicillin is e quiv alent to approximately how many Demeclocycline (Dclomycin)
units of penicillin activity?

125,000 31- Tricyclic antidepressants are believed to exert their

antidepressant action by
200,000
Potentiatin GABA activity
1600
Increasing the effect of neurotransmitters on
250,000 postsynaptic receptor sites

800,000 Blocking alpha adrenergic receptors

Increasing the m etabolic breakdown of biogenic

amines
27- Chlorhexidine gluconate is most similar in action to
Blocking beta adrenergic receptor
A)Quindine gluconate
32- Methylxanthines such as caffeine and theophylline
B) Chlorpheniramine exert all of the following Pharmacologic effects
Calcium gluconate EXCEPT
Hexachlorophene Cardiac stimulation
Chloroquine phosphate Peripheral vasoconstriction

Relaxation of smooth muscle

28- Sulfanomides exert a bacteriostatic effect by
competitivel;y inhibiting the action of
Diuresis
monoamine oxidase
CNS stimulation
Xanthine oxidase C)Pyrimidine

Para-aminobenzoic acid 33- Which of the following agents has (have) been
found useful in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis?
Uric acid
Ergotamine tartrate (Ergostat) 36- Which of the following is (are) true of pravastatin?

Loperamide (Imodium) Antihypertensive agent

Auronafin (Ridaura) Pregnancy category X

1only HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor

111 only 1 only B)111 only C)1 and 11 only D)11 and 111 only
E)1 ,11 and 111
1 and 11 only

11 and 111 only

37- Which of the following is (are) employed as
1 , 11 and 111 antifungal agents?
Natamycin

Clorimazole

Mafenide
34- As an antiarrhythmic drug , procainamide is most
similar in action to which one of the following agents? 1 only

Amiodarone 111 only

Propranolol 1 and 11 only

Digoxin 11 and 111 only

Verapamil 1 , 11 and 111

Quinidine

38- Which of the following is (are) dopaminergic

antipkinson agents?
35- Which of the following statements are (is) true of Bromocriptine (Parlodel)
acetycysteine?
Pergolide(Permax)
1. Mast cell stabilizer
Selegiline (Eldepryl)
Acetaminophen antidote
1 only
Mucolytic A) 1 only
B) 111 only 111 only

C) 1 and 11 only D) 11 and 111 only 1 and 11 only

E) 1 ,11 and 111
11 and 111 only

1 , 11 and 111

39- Agents that are employed as gastric stimulants

include
Omeprazole Clindamycin (Cleocin)

Cisapride Chloramphenicol (Chloromycetin)

Metoclopramide
44- Agents indicated for the treatment of depression
1 only include (is)
Bupropion (Wellbutrin)
111 0nly C)1 and 11 only D)11 and 111 only E)1 ,11
and111 Fluoxetine (Prozac)

Phenelzine (Nardil)
40- Methimazole (tapozle) is used for the same
therapeutic indication as 1 only

Methaxsalen B)Danazole 111 only C)1 and 11 only D)11 and 111 only E)1 , 11
and 111
Propylthiouracil

omeprazole

Azathioprine 45- Enhanced clotting ability of the blood is associated

with the administration of
Tocopherol

41- Pencillamine is a drug used therapeuptically for the Ticlopidine

treatment 0f
Phytonadione
1. Wilson's disease
1 only
Rheumatoid arthritis
111 only
Cysteinuria
1 and 11 only
1 only
11 and 111 only
111 only C)1 and 11 only D)11 and 111 only
1 , 11 and 111
1, 11 and 111

46- Carbidopa can best be classified as a drug that

42- Polymyxin B is pharmacologically and A) Reverses aymptoms of Parkinson's disease
microbilogically similar to Exerts an anticholinergic action
Ampicillin (Polycillin) B)Colistin ( Coly- Mycin S) Is adopa decarboxylase inhibitor
Gentamicin (Garamycin) Is a neuromuscular blocking agent
Penicillin G Is a skeletal muscle relaxant
E) Tetracycline (Achromycin)

47- Isotretinoin (Accutane) is a drug employed in the

43- Potentially fatal aplastic anemia is toxic effect treatment of severe recalcitrant cystic acne. Which one
associated with of the following is NOT an adverse effect associated
with its use?
Ciprofloxacin (cipro)
Hyperglycemia
Cefadroxil (Duracef)
Hypertriglyceridemia
Disopyramide (Norpace)
Pseudotumor cerebri
 Ritodine (Yutopar)
Conjuctivitis
Amoxapine (Asendin) C)Metolazone (Zaroxolyn)
Fatal abnormalities Desmopressin acetate (DDAVP)
Methenamine hippurate (Urex)

48- Which of the following is true of isotretinoin

(Accutane) 53- An example of a benzodiazepine that is not m
Commonly causes cheilitis etabolized to active m etabolites in the body is

A derivative of vitamin D Triazolam

Chlordiazepoxide
Is applied topically to severe acne lesions zolpidem
Diazapam
Contraindicated in patients with diabetes Halazepam

May be used safely in pregnant patients after the first

trimester 54- Which of the following , antimicrobial agens would
be MOST useful in the treatment of an infection caused
by nbeta lectamase- producing staphylococci?

49- Endorphins are Amoxicillin

Endogenous opioid peptides Cephapirin
Cephalexin
A new class of topical anti- inflammatory agents Dicloxacillin
Bacampicillin
Neuromuscular blocking agents
55- Gastric intrinsic factor is a glycoprotein that is
Biogenic amines believed to cause schizophrenia required for the Gastrointestinal absorption of
Medium chain triglycerides
Endogenous chelating agents Folic acid
Iron
Tocopherols
Cyanocobalamin
50- Lovastatin (Mevacor) is contraindicated for use in
patients who are
56- Gingival hyperplasia, hirsutiam, and ataxia are
Hypersensitive to aspirin adverse effects associated with the use of

Pregnant Minoxidil

Chronic asthmatics Chlorpromazine C)Ginseng root

More than 25 % over ideal body weight Phenytoin (Dilantin)

Ciprofloxacin (Cipro)
Diabetics

51- Which of the following drugs is a available in a

transdermal dosage form for use in the prevention of
nausea and vomiting associated with motion sickness in 57- Levobunolol (Betagan) is a drug used in the
adults treatment of glaucoma. Which one of the following best
describes the action it exerts on the eye?
Metoclopramide
Ondansetron Miotic
Scopolamine Decreases the production of aqueous humor
Clonidine Interferes with the enzyme carbonic anhydrase
Granisetron Acts as an osmotic diuretic
Mydriatic

52- Which one of the following drugs is indicated for

the treatment of primary nocturnal enuresis? 58- Cardioselectivity is a property of which of the
following beta adrenergic blocking agents?
 Enstrogen
1.Carteolol (ocupress) Progestin
Metipranolol HCI (Optipranolol) Androgen
Betaxolol(Betoptic)

1only B)111 only C)1 and 11 only

11 and 111 only 64- Which of the following ia (are) true of auranofin
1, 11 and 111 (Ridaura)?

1. May cause thrombocytopenia

59- Which of the following is (are) a property or an Orally administered form of gold therapy
action of pilocarpine? Its use may result in renal impairment
1 only
1. Direct acting miotic 111 only
11. Ingredient in Ocusert ocular therapeutic system 1 and 11 only
111. Similar pharmacologic action to 11 and 111 only
dorozolamide(Trusopt) 1 , 11 and 111

1 only
111 only
1 and 11 only
11 and 111 only 65- Advantages of acetaminophen over aspirin include
1,11 and111 all of the following EXCEPT?

60- Which one of the following is NOT an effect of
atropine on the human body?\
Cardiac stimulation
Diminished sweating
Mydriasis
Reduction of gastrointestinal tone
Stimulation of gastric secretion
No alteration of bleeding time
Less gastric irritation
No occultblood loss
No appreciable effect on uric acid excretion
Greater anti- inflammatory action
66-The use of clozapine (Clozaril) has been associated
with the development of

61- Which one of the following statement best describes Thrombocytopenia

the mechanism of action of antihistaminic drugs? Hypercalcemia
Aranulocytosis
They interfere with the synthesis of histamine in the Meningitis
body Hyperuricemia
They form inactive complexes with histamine
They stimulate the m etabolism of endogenous
histamine 67-Although classified as antibiotics, dactinomycin
They blok the receptor sites on which histamine acts (Cosmegen) and plicamycin (Mithracin) are used in
They are alpha- adrenergic blockers cancer chemotherapy because they have a (an)

Immunosuppresant effect
62- Haloperidol (Halol) differs from chlorpromazine Antiviral effect
(Thorazine) in that haloperidol Ability to "sterilize" blood
Anabolic effect
Is not an antipsychotic agent Cytotoxic effect
Dose not produce extrapyramidal effects
Is not a phenothiazine
Dose not cause sedation
Cannot be administered parenterally 68- The anti-inflammatory effect of aspirin is due to

Resetting of the hypothalamic "setpoint"

63- Tomoxifen(Nolvadex) is an agent that can best be Adrenal stimulation
described as a (an) Inhibition of prostaglandin synthesis

Gonadotropin- releasing hormone analog 1 only

Antiestrogen
111 only C)1 and 11 only
 Acetazolamide (iamox)
11 and 111 only
1, 11 and 111 Chlorthalidone (Hygroton)

Torsemide (Demadex)
69- The first dose effect is characterized by marked
hypotension and syncope on taking the first few doses Amiloride (Midamor)
of medication. This effect is seen with the use of.

Bepridil (Vascor) 74- The thiazide diuretics decease the excretion of

Terazosin (Hytrin)
Prazosin (Minipress) Uric acid
1 only
111 only Urea C)Sodium
1 and 11 only Bicarbonate
11 and 111 only
1, 11 and 111 Creatinine

70- Carbon monoxide exerts its toxic primarily by

Reacting with blood enzymes to produce acidic
substances B)Decreasing the oxygen- carrying capacity
of the blood
Reacting with amino acids in the body to form
ammonia
Inhibiting the gag reflex
Paralyzing the muscles of the diaphragm
71- The most serious potential consequence of indestion
of a liquid hydrocarbon such as kerosene or gasoline is Acetazolamide
75- The renal excretion of amphetamines can be
diminished by alkalinization of the urine. Which of the
following would tend to diminish the excretion rate of
amphetamine sulfate?
methenamine mandelate
Sodium bicarbonate

The aspiration of the position into respiratory tract 1 only

The corrosive action of the position on the stomach 111 only

lining
1 and 11 only
The paralysis of peristaltic motion of the GI tract
D)2 only
Dissolution of the mucoid coat of the esophagus
E) 11 and 111 only
The destruction of body enzymes by the poison

76- An agent emplyed in relieving signs and symptoms

72- Deferoxamine mesylate is considered to be a of spasticity resulting from multiple sclerosis is
specific antidote for the treatment of poisoning caused
by Buspirone (Buspar)

Anticholinergic agents Dantrolene (Dantrium)

Opiate narcotics Ursodiol (Actigall)

Benzodiazepines Mexiletine (Mexitil)

Loop diuretics Amiodarone (Cordarone)

Iron containing products

77- Which of the following is (are) MAO inhibitors?
73- Which one of the following agents is classified
pharmacologically as a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor 1. Pargyline (Eutonyl)
Indapamide (Lozol) Tranylcypromine(parnate)
 Ketaokonazole
Cyclobenzaprine (Flexeril)
Miconazole
1 only
1 only
111 only
111 only
1 and 11 only
1 and 11 only
11 and 111 only
11 and 111 only
1, 11 and 111
1, 11 and 111

78- Arug that is indicated for the treatment of both

diarrhea and constipation is 82- Which of the following barbiturates is used as an
intravenous anesthetic?
Bisacodyl (Dulcolax)
Mephobarbital B)Amobarbital
Lactulose (Cephylac)
Methohexital sodium
Magnesium sulfate
Pentobarbital sodium
Senna (Senokot)
Secobarbital sodium
Polycarbophil (Mitrolan)

83- The most useful drug the treatment of diabetes

79- Which one of the following is microsomal enzyme insipidus is
inducer?
Chlorpropamide (Diabinese)
Indomethacin
Glucagen
Rifampin
Insulin
Tolbutamide
Glyburide (Micronase)
Tobramycin
Lypressin (Diapid)
Ibyprofen

84- A pharmacist receives a pres criription order for

80- The thiazide derivative diazoxide (Hyperstat) indimethacin (Indocin) capsules.

Is a stronger diuretic than hydrochlorothiazide He/she should consult with physician if the mediation
record indicates that the patient
Is not a diuretic
Has gout
Produces about the same diuretic response as an equal
dose of hydrochlorothiazide Has arthritis

Produces diuretics in normotensive subjects only Has a peptic ulcer

Is a pressor agent Has insomnia E)Is hypertensive

81- Which of the following is (are) broad- spectrum

antifungal agents?
85- The sulfonylyreas (eg. Diabinese, Glucotrol) are
Griseofulvin believed to exert their hypoglycemic effect by
Decreasing the desire for sugar consumption

Inhibiting breakdown of endogenous insulin
Enhancing the effectiveness of the small amounts of
insulin that the diabetic can produce
Increasing the peripheral utilization of glucose
Stimulating the release of insulin from the pancreas
89- Which one the following statement is true of
alteplase (Activase)?
A) It is derived from bovine tissue
It is thrombolytic agent
It is derived from porcine tissue
It is an anticoagulant

It is administered intramuscularly Ans B

86- Which of the following hypoglycemic drugs has
longest serum half life?
90- Cromylin sodium (Intal, Nasalcrom, Opticrom) is a
Acetohexamide (Dymelor) drug that is

Tolbutamide (Orinase) Effective in acute asthmatic attacks

Glyburide (Diabinese, Micronase) A synthetic corticosteroid

Chlorpropamide (Diabinese) A histamine antagonist

All of the above about the same serum half life A theophylline derivative

A mast cell stabilizer

87- Vidarabine(Vira- A) is an antiviral agent indicated

for the treatment of 91- Which one of the following calcium channel
blockers may be employed parentera
Rubella
Amlodipine (Norvasc)
Smallpox
Isradipine (DynaCirc)
Influenza
V erapamil (Isoptin, Calan)
Pneumocystis carini pneumonia (PCP)
1 only
Herpes simplex encephalitis
111 only

1and 11 only
88- Zidovudine (Retrovir) is indicated for the treatment
of patients with 11 and 111 only

Influenza A virus infection 1, 11 and 111

Herpes simplex infection 92- Which one of the following is NOT a progestin?
Norethynodrel
human immunodefiency virus (HIV) infection
Norethindrone
1 only
Ethynodiol diacetate
111 only
Levenorgestrel
1 and 11 only
Mestranol
11 and 111 only
93- Which one of the following beta- adrenergic
1, 11 and 111 blocking agents has intrinsic sympathomimetic activity
(ISA)?
Esmolol(Brevibloc)
 98- Which one of the following statement is TRUE of
Atenolo (Tenormin) bacitracin?

Pindolol(Visken) It is effective intreating Pseudomonas infection

Metoprolol (Lopressor) It is an aminoglycoside antimicrobial agent

Propranolol HCL (Inderal) Nephrotoxicity limits its parenteral use

1 only
94- Torsemide (Demadex) is most similar in action to
111 only
Spironolactone (Aldactone)
1 and 11 only
Risperidone (Risperdal)
11 and 111 only E)1 , 11 and 111
Bum etanide (bumex) D)Chlorthalidone (Hygroton)
Acetazolamide (Diamox)

99- Olzalazine sodium (Dipentum) is employed in the

95- Potassium supplementation is LEAST likely to be treatment of
required in a patient using
Diabetes mellitus
Ethacrynic acid (Edecrin)
Duodenal ulcers
Chlorthalidone (Hygroton)
Ulcerative colitis
Furosemide (Lasix)
Urinary tract infections
Acetazolamide (Diamox)
Diabetes insipidus
Triamterene (Dyrenium)

96- Acyclovir (Zovirax) is indicated for the treatment of 100- Beta carotene is considered to be a precursor for

Shingles Betaseron B)Beta interferon

Vitamin D
Pseudomembranous enterocolitis
Vitamin A
HIV infection
Carteolol
Measles 1- Which of the following drugs inhibits the formation
of uric acid
Influenza caused by influenza A virus strains Aspirin
Colchicine
Allopurinol
Sodium salicylate
97- A drug that is effective in the treatment of alcohol
withdrawal syndromes and in the prevention of delirium
tremens is 2- Which of the following is NOT an indication if
digoxin
Disulfiram (Antabuse) Congestive heart failure
Atrial fibrillation or atrial flutter
Methadone (Dolophine) Ventricular tachycardia
Sinus tachycardia caused by congestive heart failure
Phenytion (Dilantin)

Chlordiazepoxide (Librium)
3- The therapeutic effect of warfarin is achieved by
Haloperidol (Haldol) Dissolving existing thrombi
Preventing the thrombus formation when blood stasis Hair growth
occurs Decreased prolactin secretion
Preventing the renal synthesis of Vitamin K Inhibition of hepatic microsomal enzymes
Preventing the thrombus formation n vitro Oesophageal reflux

4- The antihypertensive effect of Guanethidine is 11- Regular use of sublingual doses of Glyceryl
inhibited by which of the following trinitrate is likely to result in the development of

Diazepam Hepatotoxicity
Amitryptilline
Hydrochlorthiazide Nephrotoxicity
Nitrofurantoin
Tolerance

5- In interaction of Amiloride with Caotopril there is a Respiratory impairment

possibility of
Hypokaleamia 12- Gastric intrinsic factor is a glycoprotein that is
Hyperkaleamia required for Gl absorption

Hypocalcamia D)Hypophosphateamia Vitamine B12 B)Folic acid

Iron
6- Which of the following is not true about Simvastatin Calcium
It is a HMG CoA reductase inhibitor
Its main adverse effect is Gl disturbances 13- Which of the following ACE inhibitors has the
shortest duration of action
Concomittant administration of Simvastatin with
cyclosporine is associated with increased risk of Enalapril
myopathy
Captopril
The dose should be adjusted in renal failure patients
Lisinopril
7- The possible interaction between Cisapride Perindopril
(Prepulsid) and Hyoscine butyl
Cisapride will increase the antimuscarinic side effect of
Buscopan 14- Which of the following antacids is most likely to
They counteract the effect of each other induce rebound acidity
Buscopan will increase the adverse effects of cisapride
Cisapride will displace Buscopan from the plasma Aluminium hydroxide B)Magnesium hydroxide
protein binding sites Simethicone

8- Which of the following dose not lower plasma Calcium carbonate

lipoprotein concentrations
Nicotinamide 15- Apatient who has excessive levels of amylase
Simvastatin indicate a disease of the
Cholestyramine
Gemfibrozil Liver

Heart
9- The most common side effect related to the use of
Aluminium containing antacids is Pancreas

Nausea,Vomitting Kidney
Constipation
Diarrhoea 16- Sucralfate is best described as a \an
Gl bleeding
Artificial sweetner

10- A disadvantage in the use of cimetidine, is its ability Denaturing agent for alcohol
cause
Ulcer protectant

Oral hypoglyceamic

17- Which of the following drugs is suitable to treat a

hypertensive patient who also has Asthma and
Hyperuriceamia

Amlodipine

Hydrochlorthiazide

Moduretic

Propanolol

18- Cromolyn is used in the following EXCEPT

In preventing food allergy

For local application to the eye

For local application to the nose

For local application to the skin

19- Anoverdose of which drug can cause

insomnia,arrythmais and convulsions

Aminophylline

Prednisolone

Adrenaline

Beclomethasone

20- Which of the following is most likely to have long

term side effects when used to treat asthma in a 10 yr
old child

Daily administration of salbutamol by inhaler 21- Which of the following antibiotics is ONLY used
topically
Daily administration of prednisolone by mouth
Polymixin B
Daily administration of beclomethasone by inhaler
Pencillin G
Daily administration of cromolyn by inhaler
Carbenicillin

Clindamycin

22- Chloramphenicol is the drug of choice in

Symptomatic salmonella infections

Tuberculosis

Cholera
Streptococcal pharyngitis 28- Which of the following can reduce the effectiveness
of sulphonamides antibiotics
23- Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE
about clindamycin Folic acid

It is effective against staphylococcus aureus Pantothenic acid

It is effective against anaerobic organisms Vitamin B12

The major side effect is Pseudomembraneous colitis Methotrexate

It is indicated for serious bone infections 29- Which of the following is the most effective drug
for the treatment of motion sickness
24- Nedocromil is classified as
metoclopramide
A beta- agonist
ondanestron
Methylxanthine
Prochlorperazine
Mast- cell- stabilizer
cinnarizine
Glucocorticoid
30- Which one of the following is a benzodiazepine
anxiolytic drug
25- Salmeterol is a
Buspirone
A beta-agonist
Lorazepam
Methylxanthine
Haloperidol
Mast-cell- stabilizer
Pimozide
Muscarinic antagonist

31- If a CNS drug is extensively ionized at the PH of

26- Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE
about Diphenhydramine
It has an expectorant effect
It has an antihistaminic effect
It has an atropine like effect
It is contraindicated in patients with prostate
hypertrophy
blood, it will
Penetrate the Blood brain Barrier slowly
Penetrate the Blood brain Barrier rapidly
Be eliminated slowly
Not be distributed to any tissue sites
32- Which of the following is NOT an indication of
Tranexamic acid
Treatment of haemorrhage associated with excessive
fibrinolysis
An antidote for streptokinase overdose
Prophylaxis of hereditary angioedema
Prevent haemorrhage due to heparin overdose

33- Phenobarbital will interact with warfarin through

which mechanism A) Induction of microsomal enzymes
27- Which of the following drugs DOES NOT cause
B) Induction of non- microsomal enzymes C) Inhibition
insomnia
of non- microsomal enzymes D) Inhibition of
MAO'S microsomal enzymes

Caffeine 34- Sulphonyureas e.g; Glibenclamide (Daonil)act by

I ncreasing the secretion of insulin from beta cells
Beta blockers Increasing the uptake of glucose by muscle
Reducing the hepatic synthesis of glucose
Barbiturates All of the above
35- Which of the following is NOT a third generation
cephalosporin
Cefuroxime
Cefriaxone
Ceftazidime
D) Cefotaxime

36- Which of the following drugs has alow therapeutic

index
Dioxin (Lanoxin)
Dilitiazem( Dilzem)
Theophylline (Theodur)
a and c above

37- Which of the following salts commonly cause

diarrhea
Aluminum hydroxide
Ferrous sulphate
Magnesium hydroxide
All of the above

38- Which of the following is a gram positive bacteria

Streptococcus faecalis
Salmonells typhi
Haemophilus influenza
E. Coli

39- Which of the following can be used safely to treat

diabetes in pregnancy
Metformin (Glucophage)
Glibenclamide (Daonil)
Insulin
None of the above

40- Tamoxifen (Nolvadex) is

Progesterone receptor antagonist
Progesterone receptor agonist
Oestrogen receptor agonist
Oestrogen receptor antagonist

41- Whichof the following insulins has the longest

duration of action

Actrapid
Insultard
Monotard
Ultralente

42- Which of the following can increase the level of

HDL- cholesterol A)Cholestyramine (Questran)

Fluvastatin (Lescol)
Gemfibrosil (Lopid)
Simvastatin (Zocor)

43- Which of the following drugs is SAFE in G6PD

deficiency A) Cephalexin
Dapsone
Primaquin
Sulphamethoxazole

44- Which of the following is a prostaglandin analogue

Cimetidine
51- According to recent evidence, which of the
Misoprostol
following is associated with the lowest risk of gastro-
Omeprazole
intestinal side effect
Sucralfate
Diclofenac

45- Which of the following is a natural emulsifying Ibuprofen

agent
Naproxen
Acacia
Lactose Piroxicam

Polysorbate 20 D)Sorbittan monopalmitate

52- Which of the following can be used safely in a
patient who is allergic to aspirin
46- Cocoa butter (Theobroma oil) exhibits all of the
following properties except that A)Diclofenac

It meits between 33 and 35 degrees centigrade Ibuprofen

It is a mixture of glycerides
It is useful in formulating suppositories Meloxicam
It is soluble in water
None of the above

47- Which of the following is an occasional side effect

of the ACE- Inhibitors 53- Which one of the following must be avoided during
Alopecia treatment with methotrexate
Cough
Hypokaleamia Aspirin
All of the above
Cimetidine

48- Ibuprofen is a Folic acid

Fenamate derivative
Metoclopramide
Propionic acid derivative C)Pyrazolline derivative

None of the above 54- What daily dose of aspirin is considered to be anti-
inflammatory

500 to 1g
49- The specific antagonist for benzodiazepine
overdose is 1g to 2g
Flucytosine
Flumazenil more than 3g
Flunarizine
Flurazepam 75 mg daily

55- Which one of the following blocks the

50- In asthma, Cromolyn sodium(Intal) acts via neuromuscular junction
A)Antagonism of H-1 receptors
Baclofen
B) Relaxation of bronchial smooth muscle
Stabilization of epithelial mast cells Chlordiazepoxide
None of the above
Diazepam
Vecuronium 61- According to USP,if a medicine expires "January
2001" it must not be used after
56- The expiry date of a drug is usually the time when
potency falls below January 01,2001

90% January15,2001
January 31,2001
85 %
December 31,2001
C)80%

75 %
62- The antibacterial mechanism of penicillin is most
similar to
57- The term "store in a cool place "means that the
temperature must not exceed Clindamycin ( Dalacin

4 centigrade Tetracycline (Achromycin)

10 centigrade Ciprofloxacin (Ciprobay)

15 centigrade Cefachlor (Ceclor

30 centigrade
63- Which of the following statements about
Doxycycline is NOT true

58- Which of the following is the drug of choice for an It is mainly excreted in the faeces
acute febrile convulsion
It commonly causes gastrointestinal distress
Carbamazepine
Its absorption is inhibited bt antacids and milk
Clonazepam
It may produce phototoxic reaction on exposure to
Diazepam sunlight

Phenytoin
64- Which of the following antibioitics should be
administered to a patient whose renal function is severly
59- Peripheral neuritis due to isoniazid can be avoided compromised
by giving which vitamin
Erythromycin
Ascorbic acid
Tobramycin
Pyridoxine
Norfloxacillin
Riboflavine
Piperacillin
Thiamine

60- Tuberculosis is treated with a combination of drugs 65- All of the following agents cause their toxic effects
because by interferences in DNA trans cription

This prevents the emergence of resistant organisms Cisplatin

Itimproves drug penetration in to the mycobacterium Tamoxifen

It minimizes the rifampicin toxicity Doxorubicin

Itminimizes the isoniazid toxicity Cyclophosphamide

 Ketamine is used in the treatment of migraine

66- Hyperkaleamia is a contraindication to the use of

Chlorthalidone

Acetazolamide

Spironolactone
71- Which of the following can be used in the treatment
Chlorthalidone of diabetes insipidus

Metformin
67- Which of the following is not a beta-lactam
abntibiotic Glucagon

Aztreonam Vasopressin

Imipenem Insulin
Streptomycin
72- Mannitol may be useful in all the following
Ampicillin
treatments EXCEPT

Treatment of pulmonary oedema with congestive heart

failure
68- Which of the following is not recommended for the
amanagement of allergic rhinitis Diagnostic evaluation of acute oligourea

Systemic nasal decongestants Treatment of elevated intraoccula pressure

Corticosteroids Prophylaxis of acute renal failure

Cromoglycate 73- Omeprazole should only be used on pres cription

because
Nedocromil
It is expensive

It has many drug interactions

69- Which of the following is a risk factor for heart It can mask the symptoms of gastric cancer
disease
It can cause hepatitis
Low HDL cholesterol

Low LDL cholesterol

74- Histamine induced broncho-constriction is due to
Low triglycerides the activation of

Low VLDL cholesterol H1 receptors

H2 receptors

H3 receptors
70- Which of the following is TRUE
Allof the above
Procainamide is m etabolized more slowly than
procaine
75- Which of the following medicine is available as an
Sulphonyureas are oral anticoagulant OTC medicine in the treatment of nausea and vomiting

An immediate IV injection salbutamol is used to treat Dimenhydrinate

acute systemic anaphylaxis
Prochlorperazine
 81- Ceftriaxone can be used in
Meclozine Gonorrhoea
Typhoid fever
Chlorpromazine Meningococcal meningitis
All of the above

76- In Addison's disease the proper replacement therapy

should be
Glucocorticoid plus mineralocorticoid
Mineralocorticoid therapy alone
Glucocorticoid therapy alone
Tetracosactrin ( analogue of ACTH)
82- Which statement would most accurately describe
the antibacterial of tetracycline antibiotics
They are bacteriostatic
They inhibit protein synthesis by binding to the 30s
ribosomal unit
They inhibit bacterial cell wall synthesis
All of the above

Which of the following corticosteroids has the highest

77- Streptomycini is an antibiotic indicated for the mineralocorticoid activity
treatment of
Cortisone acetate
Gram-negative bacterial septiceamia Hydrocortisone
Fludrocortisone
Tuberculosis Betamethasone
Pencillin-resistant gonococcal infection 84- The recommended maintenance dose of Ranitidine
for peptic ulcer is
Syphillis 150 mg at night
300 mg at night
150 mg twice daily
78- In the treatment of chronic obstructive pulmonary 300 mg twice daily
disease (COPD), inhaled corticosteroids

Are more effective in the treatment of asthma 85- Which of the following is NOT an indication for
desmopressin
Are more beneficial when used alone Diabetees insipidus
Primary nocturnal eneuresis
Produce more side effects than when used in the oral Renal function testing
form Prostate atrophy
Should be used for at least 2 weeks before efficacy is
assessed 86- A hypertensive patient should be encouraged to A)
Reduce the amount of salt in their diet
79- The primary goals of asthma therapy include all the
following EXCEPT

Treatment of secondary complications

Management of acute attacks

Chronic symptom management

Prevention of lung tissue destruction

80- In the emergency room,the preferred first line

therapy for asthma is

Theophyline

Beta- agonists

Corticosteroid
Increase the amount of salt in their diet
Drink more water if they eat a salty meal Hypokaleamia
Reduce their fluid intake
Agranulocytosis
87- Which of the following is NOT true of methadone
Can be given orally or parenterally Cough
It is a narcotic antagonist
It is an addictive drug 94- Barbiturates containing a sulphur atom are usually
It has significant analgesic activity
Short acting

88- Select the drug of choice foe the treatment of an Ultrashort acting
otitis externa caused by staphylococcus
Iong acting
Aluminium acetate
Neomycin Medium acting
Chloramphenicol
Flucloxacillin
95-Adecrease in HDL/LDL ratio indicates

89- Caffeine toxicity may include all of the following Increased triacyl glycerol
symptoms EXCEPT
Cough Increased mobilization of fat
Anxiety
Reslessness Low risk for artherosclerosis
Muscle twitching
Increased esterification of cholesterol
90- A bacteriostatic agent has which of the following
effects on bacteria 95- Diverticulosis is associated with
It kills bacteria on contact
It dehydrates bacteria Stomach
It inhibits multiplication of bacteria
All of the above Small intestine

liver
91- A patient in diabetic coma Colon
May have the adour of acetone on their breath
96- Dyspnoea means
Usually recovers without treatment
Painful muscle spasm
May tremor excessively
Pain in the heart
None of the above
difficulty in breathing
92- All of the following drugs may be used for the none of the above
therapy of hypertensive emergency crisis EXCEPT
97- Esters are formed by the reaction between
Furosemide
Acids and bases
Diazoxide
Acids and alcohols
Nifedipine
Acids and aldehydes
propanolol
Acids and ketones
93- ACE inhibitors are associated with a high incidence 98- For how long should the patient wait after stopping
of which of the following adverse reactions MAO inhibitor's before he starts on Tricyclic
Hepatitis antidepressants
 constriction and symptoms of wheezing and dyspnoea
1 months describes

2 months Chronic obstruction

Asthma
2 weeks Pneumonia
Chrocic obstructive pulmonary disease
3 days
6- If a CNS drug is extensively ionized at the PH of
blood ,it will
99- Glipizide is used to true
Penetrate the Blood Brain Barrier slowly
A) Peptic ulcer Penetrate the Blood Brain Barrier rapidly
Diabetes Be eliminated slowly
Not be distributed to any tissue sties
Colitis
7- In a hypertensive patient taking insulin which of the
Infections following drugs to be used with extra caution and
advice to the patient
100- In running person Which of the following occurs
Hydralazine
Hyperventilation Prazosin
Propanolol
Tachycardia

Increased BP

Increased stroke volume

All of the above

1- Drugs given systemically may cause all the following
EXCEPT

Hair loss
Chronic urticaria

Erythema multiform D)Fungal infections of the skin

2- Grape fruit juice should be avoided with many drugs

because

It spoils the taste

It increases the drug metabolism
It decreases the drug metabolism
It delays gastric emptying

3- Grave's disease may be characterized by

Hypothyroidism
Hepatic cirrhosis
Cortisol insufficiency
Hyperthyroidism

4- Hypercalceamia dose not occur in normal individuals

because

Calcium is rapidly excreted

Calcium is rapidly biotransformed
Calcium is insoluble
Exccess calcium is most absorbed

5- Hyper- responsiveness of the trachea and bronchi to

stimuli with bronchi to stimuli with bronchiolar
D) Methyldopa

8- In migraine management, which one of the following

is contraindicated in ischeamic heart disease

Pizotifen
Sumatriptan
Propanolol
Flunarizine

9- Iron is required by the body to maintain normal

Digestion
Bone growth
Vitamin absorption
Oxygen transport

10- Levocabastine nasal drops are classified as

Corticosteroid
Sympathomimetic
Antihistamine
Astringent

11- Lidocaine HCL is not usually administered orally

because it is

Has no systemic activity

Too acidic
Too basic
a cause of arrhythmia

12- Megaloblastic aneamia may be responsive to

administration of all of the following EXCEPT

Cyanocobalamin
Intrinsic factor concentrate
Ferrous sulphate
Folic acid

13- Nasal carriage of Methicillin Resistant

Staphylococcus Aureus (MRSA) can be treated with
ointment that contains

Mupirocin
Gentamycin
Nystatin
Chloramphenicol

14- Oestrogens tend to increase the risk of

Endometrial carcinoma
Hirsuitism
Hearing loss
Visual problems

15- Pencillamime is the antidote for 24- The dose of a drug is 0.5 mg/kg What dose should
Copper and lead be given to a 6 yr. old child who weighs 44 lbs.2.2 lbs
Iron =1kg approximately
Cobalt
None of the above 0.003g
0.010g
16-Prostaglandins are chemically similar to 0.033g
Proteins 0.05g
Carbohydrates
Lipids
Enzymes 25- The drug of choice for treating an acute attack of re-
entrant supraventricular tachycardia
17- Radioactive isotopes of which substance are used
widely in diagnosis andtherapy Verapamil
Digitalis
Carbon Propanolol
Iodine Phenylepherine
Radium
None of the above
26- The enzymes involved in ethanol metabolism are
18- Sertraline is classified as peimarily
Selective Mono amine oxidase inhibitor Lipases
Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor Ketases
Tricyclic antidepressant Dehydrogenases
Dopamine receptor blocker None of the above

19- The normal range of FASTING blood glucose is 27- The least stable of water soluble vitamins is
3.0-4.0mmol/L (55-75mg/dL) Ascorbic acid
4.0-8.0mmol/L (75-150mg/dL) Thiamine
8.0-10.0mmol/L (150-180mg/dL) Niacin
5.0-6.0mmol/L (90-110mg/dL) Folic acid

20- The anti diuretic hormone is secreted from 28- The main function of the gall bladder is to
The renal cortex Concentrate bile
The renal medulla Secrete bile
The adrenal cortex Eliminate bile
the posterior pituitary None of the above
21- The anti obesity drug Orlistat acts mainly by
Inhibition of glucose absorption from GIT 29- The major mechanism f degradation of drugs in the
Inhibition of fat digestion by inhibiting pancreatic Gl tract is
lipase Oxidation
Inhibition of bile salt secretion Hydrolysis
Reduction
Chelate with amino acids and prevent their uptake Conjugation
through the GIT wall

30- The manifestations of Myasthenia Gravis are due to

22- The approximate Equivalent dose of Lorazepam to hypertonicity of smooth muscles
5mg of Diazepam is Hypertonicity of striated muscles
0.5mg Weakness of striated muscles
4mg Sclerosis os striated muscl
5mg 31- The most prevalent type of white blood cells are the
0.1mg Monocytes
Lymphocytes
23- The breakdown of glycogen is initiated by Neutrophils
Trypsin Basophils
glucagons
32- The parathyroid gland is responsible for
Pepsin
Pulmonary function
Renin
Maintaining the parasympathetic nervous system
Cardiac output 41- Which of the following drugs is classified as an
Calcium metabolism HMG CO-A reductase inhibitor

33- The primary function of gastrointestinal villi is Probucol

Facilitating the passage of chime through the GIT
Increasing the surface area of the GIT Clofibrate
To breakdown aminoacids into smaller molecules
None of the above Gemfibrozil

Lovastatin
34- The sympathetic ganglia are located
A)Near the heart 42- Which of the following drugs undergoes mared
Near the spinal cord hydrolysis in the Gl tract
Near the adrenal glands
Near the tissues they innervate Aspirin

Pencillin G
35- Tocopherols are a form of
Vitamin A Paracetamol
Vitamin E
Vitamin D Hydrocortisone
Vitamin B complex

36-Tricyclic antidepressants should be avoided in which

of the following conditions 43- Which of the following is a contra indication of for
Tricyclic antidepressant
Depressed patients with insomnia
Closed angle glaucoma Insomnia
Diabetic peripheral neuropathy
Nocturnal eneuresis Recent myocardial infarction

Essential hypertension
37- What is the weight used to make 1500 units, each of
which contains 250 microgram of a drug Nocturnal eneuresis
37.5 milligram
37500 microgram
375 milligram 44- Which of the following is a metabolic product of
3750 milligram alcohol

38- What will result if the distribution of drug drugs is Acetaldehyde

slower than the process of biotranaformation and
elimination Formic acid

Increase blood level of drug 4- methyl pyrazole

Decrease blood level of drug
Synergism Pyridoxine
Failure to attain diffusion equilibrium

39- Which is recommended for acute cyanide poisoning

Desferrioxamine 45- Which of the following is an indication for
Dimercaprol (BAL) pancreatic enzyme supplements
Dicobalt edentate
Pencillamine Cystic fibrosis

40- Which of the following drugs increases the risk of Post pancreatectomy
digoxin toxicity
Neomycin Post total gastrectomy
Hydrochlorthiazide
Phenobarbital All of the above
Oestradiol
46- Which of the following is found in vitamin B12
Magnessium

Nickel

Cobalt

Iron

47- Which of the following is associated with less

gastric side effects A)Difflunisal (Dolobid)

Ibuprofen (brufen)

Ketoprofen (Oruvail)

Piroxicam (Feldene)

48- Which of the following is not indicated for use in

children less than 12 years
old
L- thyroxine
A)Domperidone (Motilium)
Thyroglobulin
Doxycycline (Vibramycin)
Liothyronine
Chloramphenicol (Chloromycetin)
Carbimazole
Astemizole (Hismanal) 54- Which of the following is used to treat paracetamol
overdose

Acetylcysteine
49- Which of the following is NOT naturally occurring Methylene blue

Oestradiol
Pyridoxine
Diethylstilbesterol
Methylprednisolone
Oestrone

Ethinyl oestradiol 55- Which of the following prokinetic drug is a

dopamine receptor antagonist
50- Which of the following is not used as a vehicle for Metoclopramide
injections
Bethanechol
Peanut oil
Cisapride
Cotton seed oil
Buscopan
Corn oil

Theobroma oil
56- Which of the following statements is correct about
chlorhexidine alcoholic solution
51- Which of the following is TRUE about ORS in
severe diarhoea Chlorhexidine will disinfect the hands if allowed to dry
Sugar and amino acids inhibits sodium and water It is most suitable for disinfection of medical appliances
reabsorption
It is essential to use it on the skin before venepuncture
ORS includes sodium acetate and calcium
It provides the best treatment for impertigo
ORS is the treatment of choice in children with
diarhoea

All of the above 57- Which of the following stimulates hepatic

microsomal enzymes
52- Which of the following is used as a plasma
expander Phenobarbitone

Sodium salts Mannitol

Starches Urea

Dextrans None of the above

Calcium salts 58- Which of the following CANNOT be used as a

prophylactic for migraine
53- Which of the following is used to treat
hyperthyroidism Pizotifen
 Tyramine
Propanolol
Histidine
Methylsergide
None of the above
Dihydroergotamine
64- Of the following anxiolytic agents, the one that
59- Which of the following drugs is indicated for the posseses the least sedating action is
treatment of Attention of Deficit disorders in children
A) Pseudoephedrine B) Dexamphetamine Diazepam (Valium)

Venlafaxine Buspirone (Buspar)

Phenytoin Meprobamate (Equanil)

60- Which one the following is not an essential amino Chlordiazepoxide ( Libirium)
acid
Oxazepam (Serax)
Threonine
65- Penicillins are believed to exert their antibacterial
Glutamine effect by which of the following mechanisms

Tryptophan Detergent effect on the bacterial cell membrane

Methionine Inhibition of bacterial cell wall synthesis

Inhibition of protein synthesis

61- Which of the following Over the Counter (OTC)
medications has a dangerous drug interactions with Steric hindrance of membrane amino acids
Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitors
66- Which of the following antagonizes the actions of
Chlorpheniramine maleate sulphonamides
Streptomycin
Paracetamol
Penicillin G
Pseudoephedrine
Morphine
Vitamin C
Para- amino benzoic acid
62- Which statement is true about Otitis media
treatment
67- Which of the following drugs is indicated for the
Local treatment is more effective than systemic one treatment of primary nocturnal eneuresis

Ear drops containing local anasethetic are of great value Ritordine (Yutopar)
in the management of pain
Desmopressin acetate (DDAVP)
Systemic antibiotic is needed when bacterial
involvement is proved Metrolazone (Zaroxolyn)

Oral antibiotic use as a prophylactic measure is not amiloride (Midamor)

indicated for recurrent otitis media

68- the thiazide diuretics decrease the excretion of

63- Which substance commonly found in fermented
food, can be toxic when MAO,I are used sodium

Phenylalanine Urea
Uric acid Action of suppositories occurs within 1 hour after
insertion
Bicarbonate Tablets should be swallowed whole

75- The local anaesthetic most commonly used in OTC

burn remedies is
69- Which of the following oral hypoglyceamic drug Benzocaine
has the longest serum half life butamben picrate
Lidocaine
Acetohexamide (Dymelor) Phenol
Tetracaine
Chlorpropamide (Diabinese)

Glyburide ( Diabeta)
76- Methylcellulose and similar agents are used in
Tolbutamide (Orinase) ophthalmic solutions to
Increase drop size
Increase ocular contact time
Reduce inflammation of the eye
70- Diclofenac sodium (Voltaren) is most similar in Reduce drop size
action to

Buspirone (Buspar) 77- The most potent H2 receptor antagonist

Omeprazole
Dicyclomine ( Bentyl) Sucralfate
Famotidine
Retoprofen (Orudis) Metoclopramide

Mecamylamine (Inversine) 78- Which second generation cephalosporin is available

as a parenteral and oral medication
71- Which of the following is not progestin Cefuroxime
Cephalexin
Mestranol Ceclor
Cefonicid
Nor-ethindrone

Ethynordiol diacetate
79- Haloperidol is classified structurally as a
Levonergestrel Benzodiazepine
Butyrophenone
72- Agents useful in the treatment of bronchial asthma Phenothiazine
usually Tricyclic
Block both alpha and beta adrenergic receptors Malonylurea
Stimulate alpha receptors but block beta receptor
Stimulate beta receptors but block alpha receptors
Stimulate alpha and/ or beta receptors

73- All of the following are bacterial infections Except 80- Chronic treatment of rheumatoid arthritis with
Cholera indomethacin requires care because indomethacin
Plague
Rabies Is an anti-inflammatory steroid
Pertussis Cause headaches in some patiets
Inhibits the action of prostaglandins
74- Which of the following statements conserning Causes tachycardia
Bisacodyl is NOT true
Laxative action occurs with 6 hours after oral
administration
Tablets should be administered with milk to avoid
gastric irritation
81- The aminoglycoside most likely to remain a useful Nystatin
therapeutic agent in the event of resistance to Clotrimazole
Gentamicin Tolnaftate
Miconazole
A)Streptomycin
87- Which of the following sulphonylureas has the
Neomycin longest half life
Tolbutamide
Amikacin Glibenclamide
Tolazamide
Cephalosporin Chlorpropamide

88- Side- effects of lsotretinoin(Roaccutane) include

Dermatological reactions
82- Zollinger- Ellison syndrome is the result of Depression
adenomas in the Teratogenicity
Gallbladder All of the above
Liver
Stomach
Pancreas 89- Which of the following is the shortest acting
A,B&D Mydriatic
A) Atropine
Pilocarpine
Tropicamide
A,B&C
83- In Examining the patient, the physician notes that
the patient complains polydepsia refers

A) Excessive Urination 90- Tinea infections are caused by

Excessive appetite Virus
Excessive Weight gain Fungus
Excessive thirst Gram-positive bacteria
B&C None of the above

91- Prolactin inhibiting factor is

84- Which of the following should NOT be Dopamine
administered to a patient being treated with narrow
angle glaucoma Thyrotropin
Dipiverine
Somatropin
Pilocarpine
Carbachol
Corticotropin
Homatropine

92- Which of the following drugs is NOT associated

with increased prolactin secretion
85- All of the following drugs are used to treat patients
with open angle glaucoma EXCEPT Chlorpromazine
Metoclopramide
Carbachol Bromcriptine
Atropine Methyldopa
Dipiverine
Betaxolol 93- The action of Digoxin is enhanced by a level of
which of the following ion
Sodium
86- Which of the following antifungal agents is NOT Calcium
effective against Candida Magnessium
Potassium
94- Which of the following is the first diagnostic
symptom of Digoxin overdose
Anorexia, Nausea, Vomitting
Constipation
High body temperature
Bronchospasm

95- Which of the following is a blood platelet adhesion

inhibitor
Dipyridamole
Nitrofurantoin
Dextropropoxyphene
Imipramine

96- Lidocaine is used as a

General anesthesia
Antipyretic
Antiarrythmic
Pre- anaesthetic

97- The principal toxic effect of Heparin is

Bronchospasm
Chills
Hair loss
Haemorrhage

98- The two major properties of drugs that are usually

modified by complexation are

A)Odor and tast

Tast and solubility

Chemical structure and solubility D)Chemical structure

and stability
Stability and solubility

99- PH is
Not temperature dependent
A measure of acidity
The same as POH
igh for acids
None of the a bove

100- Sucralfate is used to trrat

Peptic ulcers
Carcinoma
Calcium depletion
Obesity