Dgca Module 13 Part 01

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IN - DGCA CAR -66 MODULE 13 PART 1

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8. If you add an aerial, to strengthen the

1. Flaps at landing position
airframe you add
a) decrease take off and landing speed
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# a) an internal doubler
b) decrease take off speed
b) external doubler
# c) decrease landing speed
c) an intercostals
2. Lowering of the flaps
9. What does a trim tab do?
# a) increases drag and lift
# a) Eases control loading for pilot
b) increases drag
b) Allows the C of G to be outside the normal
c) increases lift limit
3. Pushing the left rudder pedal c) Provides finer control movements by the
pilot
# a) yaws the aircraft left and possibly the
right wing will rise Page 1 - Mod 13
b) yaws the aircraft left and possibly the left 10. How does a balance tab move?
wing will rise
a) In the same direction proportional to the
c) yaws the aircraft left but has no effect on control surface it is attached to
the wing
b) In the same direction a small amount
4. What preventative maintenance can be
# c) In the opposite direction proportional
carried out in case of HIRF?
to the control surface it is attached to
a) Check of aircraft structure
11. Satellite transmits updates on every
b) Bonding and insulation tests
a) 13th orbit
# c) Shielding of all sensitive equipment
b) 9th orbit
5. What do ruddervators do?
c) 2nd orbit
# a) Control pitch and yaw
12. Galley and cabin lighting operate on
b) Control pitch and roll
a) DC bus
c) Control yaw and roll
b) AC bus
6. On a helicopter what is dragging?
# c) GND services
a) Movement of each blade vertically about
13. Buffer amp on transmitter is between
their lateral hinges
a) modulator and power amp
# b) Movement of each blade horizontally
about their vertical hinge # b) local oscillator and modulator
c) Contact of the blade tips on the ground c) local oscillator and demodulator
7. What controls pitch and roll on a delta 14. Aircraft is North of VOR beacon on a
wing aircraft? course of 090 RMI pointer points to
a) Elevators a) 0
b) Ailerons b) 090
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# c) Elevons # c) 180
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15. What is power at pulse? 22. What effect does the ground have on a
helicopter?
a) Peak power
# a) Increases lift
b) Pulsed power
b) No effect
c) Average power
c) Increases thrust
16. What frequency increases radar relative
range 23. What damps vibrations on a helicopter?
a) Long a) Pfifer damper
# b) Short b) Swashplate
c) Radar relative range cannot be increased c) Scissor levers

by frequency change
24. What design factors govern RPM of a
17. If radar pulse is reduced there is helicopter rotor?
a) increased relative range # a) Weight of blade
b) reduced relative range b) Engine and gearbox
# c) no effect c) Fineness ratio
18. If an 80 ohm coaxial cable is connected 25. Relative velocity of rotor

to an 80 ohm dipole aerial, resistance would
# a) increases at fwd travelling blade
be
b) increases at retreating blade
a) 80 ohm
c) is equal for all blades
b) 160 ohm
26. When OAT increases what happens to an
c) 0 ohm
helicopter operating ceiling?
Page 2 - Mod 13
a) Increase
19. Adding 6 foot of cable to TX RX aerials
# b) Decrease
on rad alt would give you
c) No effect
# a) 3 ft error
27. How many satellites required for GNS?
b) 6ft error
a) 8
c) 12 foot error
# b) 4
20. Maximum power on a wave guide is
governed by the c) 6 90o apart
a) widest width Page 3 - Mod 13
# b) narrowest width 28. If on a lead-acid battery, several cell
checks of SG read consistently low. Battery
c) number of joints and bends
needs
21. Which side of the pilot is the collective?
a) topping up with distilled water
# a) Left
b) replacing
b) Right
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# c) recharging
c) In-between legs
29. What happens when battery master is a) the aircraft altitude to maintain constant
switched off in flight? engine input pressure
# a) Battery disconnected from charge b) the engine throttles to maintain a

circuit constant acceleration rate
b) No effect # c) the engine throttles to maintain a

constant engine power setting
c) Electrical systems shut down
36. Overshoot or go-around mode can be
30. in MLS, what is the beam angle away
initiated
from runway
a) only when autopilot is engaged
a) 20 degrees
# b) after glideslope capture
b) 15 degrees
c) at any time
c) 10 degrees
Page 4 - Mod 13
31. A full operational autopilot system will
ensure that 37. The wheel height at which the approach
path has been visually assessed as
a) the automatic pilot will automatically
satisfactory to continue the approach to a
disengage whenever any failure is detected
landing is known as the
b) the automatic pilot will automatically
# a) decision height
cause the aircraft to overshoot if any failure
is detected b) intercept height
# c) the aircraft will continue its automatic c) alert height

landing in the event of a single failure
38. The International Civil Aviation
32. What is the 'Q' code for runway heading? Organisation weather category 3A is
a) QDH a) operation down to and along the surface

of the runway without external reference
# b) QDM
b) operation down to sixty meters and RVR
c) QDR
of 800 meters
33. during an automatic landing, the aircraft
# c) operation down to and along the surface
descent rate is sensed by
of the runway with RVR of 200 meters
a) pitch rate gyros
39. Runway visual range in (RVR) is
# b) radio altimeters obtained by
c) vertical accelerometers a) information obtained the local

Meteorological Office
34. the aircraft decrabbing signal, used
during autoland, originates from b) three sets of instruments at the side of the
runway
a) roll errors
# c) one set of instruments the threshold of
b) localiser deviation errors the runway
# c) heading errors 40. A category 3B aircraft using fail
35. An automatic throttle, engaged in the operational automatic landing equipment
which fail operational control and roll out
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EPR mode, will control

guidance will have
a) a decision height of about 50 feet c) switch on NAV receivers
# b) no decision height 47. FAIL PASSIVE means

c) a decision height depending upon the a) system self monitors, failure does not
RVR affect system
41. The purpose of a yaw damper is to # b) system self monitors, failure does affect
system
a) assist the aerodynamic response
c) system is duplicated, failure allows
b) produce a co-ordinated turn
aircraft to continue
# c) block the Dutch roll frequency
autoland
42. in a triplex system, the detection of a
48. On the approach the autopilot loses the
failure of one simplex system will
LOC signal; the aircraft would
disconnect
a) fly a circle
a) all channels
b) increase its drift angle
# b) the failed system and carry on with an
autoland # c) fly parallel to the beam
c) the failed system and continue with a 49. The Airworthiness requirements for the
manual approach autopilot / autoland system are laid down in
43. Stand off errors on localiser approach # a) JAR AWO

are washed out by
b) CAIPs
a) differentiating deviation signal
c) BCARs
b) integrating deviation signal
50. VOR capture can be determined by
# c) integrating course error
a) a predetermined level of the course error
44. With autothrottle selected in the SPEED signal away from the selected radial
MODE compatible autopilot modes are
# b) is computed from the vectorial
a) VOR ARM and HDG HOLD summation of the course error and radio
deviation signals
# b) IAS HOLD and ALT ARM
c) a predetermined level of the VOR
c) V/S and ALT ARM
deviation signal away from the selected
Page 5 - Mod 13 radial
45. Which modes are incompatible 51. Versine is generated by
a) VOR + ALTITUDE HOLD a) torque receiver synchros
# b) G/S + ALTITUDE HOLD # b) synchros resolvers
c) HDG + V/S HOLD c) control synchro transformers
46. To carry out an autopilot check first 52. Automatic trim is used to
a) switch off all power # a) maintain level flight
# b) ensure all control surfaces are b) prevents standing loads on the elevator
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unobstructed
c) allow full authority to be regained by the c) call up the relevant current status
aileron
59. Co-ordinated autopilot turns are
Page 6 - Mod 13 achieved by
53. An over station sensor (OSS) is triggered # a) yaw rate gyro signals
by
b) aileron to rudder crossfeed
a) measured radio deviation
c) aileron to elevator crossfeed
# b) rate of change of radio deviation
60. A yaw damper system operates on
c) rate of change of course
a) all yaw frequencies
54. Synchronisation circuits in autopilots
b) only mid range frequencies
ensure
# c) low range frequencies
a) that the trim indicators will read zero
prior to engagement 61. A GCR will trip if what is detected?
# b) that the autopilot control circuits are at a) Under frequency and over frequency
zero demand conditions engagement
b) Over frequency and under current
c) that the aircraft will always be returned to
straight and level flight when the autopilot is c) Over current and over frequency
engaged Page 7 - Mod 13
55. In the FMS vertical navigation (V NAV) 62. What is the impedance of VOR or HF
climb mode the throttles are used for aerial cables?
# a) maintaining a computed EPR a) 75 ohms and 25 ohms
b) controlling to a maximum thrust b) 25 ohms
c) correction minor speed deviations # c) 50 ohms
56. The GA mode is usually initiated by 63. To improve the image or picture when
a) pressing a button on the control wheel using the WRX (weather radar receiver)
# b) pressing a button on thrust levers a) scan at a lower rate
c) making a selection on the mode control b) use shorter bursts

panel c) use longer bursts
57. On selection of the Turbulence Mode 64. In a vibrator type voltage regulator
a) the gain is doubled to reduce oscillation # a) the resistor is in series with the field
b) the gain remains the same but signals are b) parallel with the field
phase advanced
c) in series with the voltage coil
# c) the gain is reduced to prevent stresses
to the airframe 65. Where does it state what emergency
equipment and what levels of emergency
58. To know the valid data base on the FMS equipment should be carried on an aircraft
a) perform a BITE check # a) BCAR section A4-8 or A8-4
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# b) call up the relevant page on the CDU b) JAR OPS
c) Maintenance Manual c) special conducting or non-conducting

grease
66. If a section of the emergency floor
proximity lights are inoperative 72. An elevator tab moves down
a) the aircraft cannot fly i.e. grounded until # a) to counteract for the aircraft flying nose
the defect is fixed heavy
b) the aircraft can fly but the section with b) to make the nose go down
the problem is not used/ shut off
c) to counteract for the aircraft flying tail
# c) the aircraft is allowed to fly back to base heavy
where the defect can be fixed
73. The electrolyte in a nicad battery can be
67. The tail nav light. What angle of checked by checking
divergence should it have?
# a) one cell at a time until all cells are
a) 180 degrees completed
b) 120 degrees b) only the end cell as all the others will be
the same
# c) 140 degrees
c) any single cell as all the others will be the
68. When changing the brushes on a DC
same
generator the brushes must be bedded first,
this can be done 74. In a RVSM system what is the tolerance
level of separation i.e.. + or - feet
# a) with the generator fitted to the aircraft
a) 400ft
b) the generator taken off the aircraft and
bedding done on the bench b) 160ft
c) at the manufacturers only c) 80ft
69. What must be taken into account when 75. in a fly by wire system, pitch and roll
measuring the SG or relative density of a control positions are known by using
lead acid battery?
a) LVDTs for roll control surfaces and
# a) The temperature RVDTs for pitch control surfaces
b) The ambient pressure # b) LVDTs for roll and pitch control

surfaces
c) The ambient humidity
c) RVDTs for roll and pitch control surfaces
Page 8 - Mod 13
76. in a CMC aircraft, flight deck indications
70. The polythene coating on a HF antenna
and warnings are managed and provided by
wire is provided
a) the central warning computer (CWC)
# a) to prevent precipitation static build up
b) the electronic interface units (EIU)
b) to prevent the wire from corroding
# c) the engine indicatig and crew alert
c) to prevent the wire from chafing
system (EICAS)
71. Weather radar domes are protected from
77. What type of memory do CMCs have?
lightning strikes by
a) Volatile
a) the use of special conductive paint
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# b) Non-volatile
# b) bonding strips
c) Hard 84. Which is the correct sequence for an

autoland?
78. What is the purpose of the tail cone in
helicopters? a) Glideslope capture, altitude hold and

flare
a) To provide a balance for CofG
# b) Localiser capture, glideslope capture,
# b) To hold the stabilizers and tail rotor
attitude hold and flare
c) To provide vibration damping to the tail
c) Localiser capture, glideslope capture,
rotor
flare and attitude hold
Page 9 - Mod 13
85. The wheel height at which the approach
79. An aircraft in climb maintains the same path has been visually assessed as
IAS. What is it's true airspeed? satisfactory to continue the approach to a
landing is know as the
# a) Higher than its IAS
# a) decision height
b) Lower than its IAS
b) intercept height
c) The same as its IAS
c) alert height
80. The stall margin is controlled by
86. The ICAO weather category 3A is
# a) EPR limits
a) operation down to and along the surface
b) speed bug cursor of the runway without external reference
c) angle of attack and flap position b) operation down to 60 m and 800 m
81. When can the FMS be engaged with the # c) operation down to and along the surface
autothrottle of the runway with RVR of 200m
a) only with the Flight Director selected Page 10 - Mod 13
b) With either the Flight Director or the 87. A category 11 facility performance ILS
Digital Control System (DFCS) engaged has an intercept height of
# c) only after take off a) 15 m
82. A full authority Digital Engine Control # b) 60 m
System (FADEC) consists of
c) 0 m
a) electronic engine control unit only
88. The facility performance ILS intersect
# b) electronic engine control unit and all its height is the point
sensors
# a) where the aeroplane receives the first
c) electronic engine control unit and throttle glide path signal
position transmitter
b) the localiser and glide path signals cross
83. A FADEC system does not have the each other
following system?
c) where the aeroplanes first receives both
a) An automatic starting capability the localiser and glide path signals
b) Control of thrust reverser operation 89. The average risk of autoland should not
# c) Automatic control of engine fire contribute a rate of fatal accidents per
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extinguishers landing greater than
a) 1 x 10-6 # c) IAS and steering or heading
# b) 1 x 10-7 Page 11 - Mod 13

c) 1 x 10-8 96. If go-around has been initiated after

autoland has been selected, the aeroplane
90. Before an aeroplane is able to make an
will
automatic landing the
a) increase speed
a) ground radio aids must be at least CAT II
b) rotate nose up
b) ground radio aids must be at CAT III
# c) increase speed and rotate nose up
# c) ILS system must be working
97. V NAV can be selected
91. For an aeroplane to be certified for
automatic landing an autothrottle system is a) alone
a) mandatory b) only if A/P and F/D selected
b) a matter of choice for the operator c) only if A/T selected
c) dependent upon the operation of the 98. If during autoland the LOC signal is lost
aeroplane at slow speed at 400 ft in final approach
92. The overshoot or go around mode is a) system degrade to CAT II

initiated
b) autoland is continued
a) automatically
# c) go-around is initiated
b) by a selector on the throttle control panel
99. The order of autoland approach is
# c) by pushing the throttles forward to
# a) LOC, GS, ATT HOLD, FLARE
maximum
b) GS, LOC, ATT HOLD, FLARE
93. The aeroplanes autopilot is programmed
to leave the glide slope at c) LOC, GS, FLARE, ATT HOLD
a) 300 ft 100. Purpose of an autoland decrabbing
manoeuvre is to
b) the decrab phase
a) assist with localiser tracking
# c) start of flare phase
b) assist with glide slope tracking
94. Overshoot or go-around mode can be
initiated # c) point the aircraft down the runway at
touch down
# a) only when the autopilot is engaged
101. An autoland failure monitoring system
b) at any time after autoland has been
must ensure that
engaged
a) the automatic pilot will automatically
c) at any time
disengage whenever any failure is detected
95. The following modes may be retained
b) the automatic pilot will automatically
when overshoot has been initiated after the
cause the aircraft to overshoot if any failure
selection of autoland
is detected
a) ILS localiser an IAS
c) the aircraft will continue its automatic
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b) IAS and glide slope landing in the event of signal failure
102. The effective gain of the glide path 109. A triplex system looses one channel, the
receiver system is now,
a) is increased as the aircraft descends a) fail passive
b) remains constant as the aircraft descends # b) fail operational
# c) is decreased as the aircraft descends c) fail redundant
103. During an automatic landing , the 110. A fail passive system in the event of
aircraft descent rate is sensed by failure will
a) pitch rate gyros a) produce a significant out of trim

condition
# b) radio altimeters
# b) produce no significant out of trim
c) vertical accelerometers
condition
104. An autopilot with two separate power
c) ensure the aircraft can still land
supplies is
automatically
a) fail passive
111. A triplex system loses one channel, the
# b) fail operational system becomes a
c) fail redundant a) simplex system
Page 12 - Mod 13 # b) duplex system
105. on touchdown, auto pilot c) dual-dual system
# a) remains engaged ready for G/A 112. The two parameters used for category
classification are
b) drives the throttles forward
a) radio height/runway visual range
c) disconnects after a short time
b) localiser and glideslope
106. When will the decision height aural
warning sound # c) decision height and runway visual range
a) at D.H. 113. What is the controlling factor in the

automatic flare mode?
# b) before D.H.
a) Decision height
c) after D.H.
# b) Radio altimeter
107. Automatic steering of the aircraft after
touch down is affected by c) Glideslope signal
a) the area navigation system Page 13 - Mod 13
# b)the runway localiser 114. CAT-3b allows
c) the airfield marker beacon a) approach land and runway guidance with
zero DH and RVR
108. The flare manoeuvre may be controlled
by signals from # b) approach land and RVR in the order of
50 meters
# a) radio altimeter
c) approach land and runway guidance with
b) the glide slope receiver
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taxing visibility in the order of 50 meters

c) the localiser receiver
115. The definition of fail operational is the c) is the same

ability of a system to
122. A Master Warning is issued when

a) disconnect and leave the aircraft in trim
# a) overspeed and low cabin altitude occurs
# b) continue to control after any first fault
b) cargo smoke and a low oil quantity occurs
c) disconnect but leave the aircraft out of
c) engine fire and generator trip occurs
trim
Page 14 - Mod 13
116. What is added to the flare computation
at touchdown? 123. The total static resistance along the
length of an aircraft is
# a) Nose down bias
# a) 50 milliohms
b) Nose up bias
b) 1 ohms
c) No signal
c) 1M - 100,000 ohms
117. What controls are used in response to
the PVD displays? 124. In the ATA zoning where is section 100
in on an aircraft
a) Ailerons
a) in the undercarriage bay including the
b) Throttles
doors
# c) Nosewheel steering or rudder pedals
# b) at the lower section of the cabin up to
118. The ground run monitor (GRM) the pressure bulkhead
presents
c) at the rear of the fuselage behind the
a) distance to go bulkhead
# b) ground speed and distance to go 125. Sparking in a generator would be

caused by
c) take off speed and distance to go
# a) low spring tension
119. for a vertical Gyro which is moved in
pitch, which gimble would be moved to b) bedding of brushes
correct the pitch movement?
c) brushes on the Magnetic Neutral Axis
a) Lateral
126. Which is the most important part of
# b) Longitudinal preventative maintenance on HIRF
installations?
c) Normal
# a) Visual inspections
120. Versine is used in which channel?
b) Insulation testing
# a) Pitch
c) CMC fault indications
b) Roll
127. What should be done to a transformer
c) Yaw
secondary connections which are open
121. With airspeed hold engaged whilst circuit?
flying with Flight Director engaged, a down
a) Short the terminals together
command means your speed has
b) Put a set resistance across the terminals
a) increased
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# c) Leave the terminals open circuit

# b) decreased
128. an RMI in VOR mode, it's Pointer is 134. With a trailing edge flap being lowered,
showing a course of 000, if the course knob due to rising gusts what will happen to the
is adjusted to 010 what happens to the angle of attack?

pointer?
# a) Tend to increase
a) Move left
b) Tend to decrease
b) Move right
c) Stay the same
c) Moves left then hard right
135. If a fly-by-wire system fails, the rudder
129. If a fault is detected during an autoland
a) remains at the neutral position
approach the system will totally disconnect
if it is a b) controls the aircraft in trim
a) Triplex system c) remains in the previous position
b) Duplex system 136. A poor oscillator in a receiver would
cause
# c) Simplex system
a) poor channel selectivity
130. A Glass Reinforced Plastic surface on
an aircraft, to reduce the risk of high b) poor audio output
potential differences would be
c) poor volume output
# a) painted in a conductive paint
137. The Ground Proximity Warning
b) painted in a non-conductive paint Computer in mode 4 would use which inputs
to issue a warning?
c) bonded to the primary structure
a) A low range altimeter and rate of change
131. The VHF aerial resistance and
of low range altimeter
transmission line resistance is
# b) A low range altimeter and configuration
# a) 50 ohms
of aircraft
b) 20 ohms
c) A low range altimeter and GPS
c) 20 and 50 ohms respectively
138. Alert Height is when
Page 15 - Mod 13
a) a decision of whether to land is made
132. TAS uses which inputs
# b) an alert of the altitude of the aircraft is
a) Pitot and Static made
b) Pitot and Static, Mach and Temperature c) an alert of the ground proximity is made
# c) Mach and Temp 139. When downgrading an Autoland system

what needs to be done?
133. Other than spoilers, where are speed
brakes located? a) Placards in the cockpit
a) On the wing # b) An entry in the log book and cockpit

placarding
b) Under the Fuselage
c) Crew retraining
# c) Either side of the Fuselage
140. If a drain trap in a pitot static system is
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removed but nothing was found
a) no leak test is required unless the drain # c) 50 degree

trap contains water
147. Stall warning will be given at speeds

b) a leak test must be carried out even if
# a) that are higher than stall speed
nothing found
b) that are lower than stall speed
c) a leak test is never required
c) at the actual stall speed
Page 16 - Mod 13
148. when a helicopter lands how does the
141. TCAS transmits and receives on a
pilot signal to the ground staff that it is safe
frequency of
to approach the aircraft?
# a) 1030 MHz and 1090mhz respectively
a) Turning on and off the NAV lights
b) 1090mhz and 1030mhz respectively
# b) Turning off the anti-collision lights
c) 1090 MHz
c) Flashing the landing light
142. When an aircraft is aligned for a
149. An aircraft will capture the auto land
compass swing check to be carried out it will
system at
be aligned with an error of plus or minus
# a) 1500 ft
a) 1 degree
b) 2500 ft
# b) 3 degree
c) 3500 ft
c) 5 degree
Page 17 - Mod 13
143. The quadrantal error in ADF is
maximum at a heading of 150. FADEC system gets its power supply
from
a) 000
a) channel A and B from the same windings
# b) 045
of a dedicated Generator
c) 090
# b) channel A and B from separate
144. Circulating currents is caused by an windings of a dedicated Generator
unbalanced
c) emergency Batt bus
a) DC generators
151. Loss of an electrolyte in a battery is due
# b) AC generators to
c) AC & DC generators # a) excessive charging current
145. A device used do dump lift from an b) insufficient charging current

aircraft is the
c) excessive charging voltage
# a) spoiler
152. An autopilot interlock circuit is to
b) leading edge flaps
a) prevent the system engagement if a fault
c) trailing edge flaps exists
146. Runway turn of lights have a beam b) disconnect the system if a fault appears
width of
# c) both a & b
a) 10 degree
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153. A rain fall of 5mm/hr is indicated in the

b) 110 degree WXR by a
a) green colour 160. When the VOR ref and Vari phase are
in phase quadrature, the aircraft is at the
# b) amber
a) 180 degree radial
c) red colour
# b) 090 degree radial
154. The international emergency frequency
used in VHF Comms is c) 275 degree radial
a) 131.55 161. A unit with two springs and a mass pick

off is
# b) 121.5
# a) an accelerometer
c) 118.00
b) a gyroscope
155. In a modern aircraft a BITE is carried
out c) a tachogenerator
a) on the ground only 162. The units of vibration are measured in
b) continuously when the systems are a) phons

working
b) decibels
c) only in the air
# c) relative amplitude
156. The electrical A/H has a movement of
163. A fuel flow system can be adjusted for
a) 85 degree in pitch and roll
a) maximum flow rate
b) 360 in roll and 110 in pitch
b) minimum flow rate
# c) 360 in roll and 85 in pitch
c) cannot be adjusted
157. When working on a hydraulic operated
164. Magnetic variation is the difference in
flight control it is sensible to
angle between
# a) remove/disconnect hydraulic power
# a) true north and magnetic north
b) remove/disconnect electrical power
b) magnetic heading and aircraft heading
c) pull the appropriate CB
c) the compass north and magnetic north
158. Emergency electronic equipment
165. GPWS mode 1 is excessive
requirement will be found in
a) terrain closure
a) CAAIPs
b) rate of ascent
b) Maintenance Manual
# c) rate of descent
# c) JAR OPS
166. How many bits make up the mode "S"
Page 18 - Mod 13
address
159. When an aircraft is at a height of 9500ft
a) 12
and the QNH is 500 ft what is the distance
that VHF Com cover? b) 24
a) 100 nm c) 36
# b) 120 nm 167. The applied pressure to an ASI varies
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with the
c) 140 nm
# a) square of the speed c) No change

b) square root of the speed 174. In a fully fly by wire system if the
rudder becomes disconnected
c) cube root of the speed
a) it is centralized by a spring
Page 19 - Mod 13
b) its control is maintained by electric trim
168. Temperature compensation is required
on an altimeter because of c)
# a) capsule elasticity 175. What is the power supply to cabin flow

tubes?
b) capsule shape
a) 115v ac
c) non linear pressure/height relationship
b) 200v ac
169. The loss of the vertical gyro signal to
the flight director system would cause # c) High voltage stepped up
a) aircraft to underbank 176. When all three leads of a bonding tester

are connected together the output reading is
# b) aircraft to overbank
# a) zero
c) aircraft to remain in level flight
b) full scale deflection
170. The doppler VOR beacon reference
signal c) centre scale
# a) amplitude modulates the carrier Page 20 - Mod 13

frequency
177. in a capacitive fuel gauging system an
b) amplitude modulates the sub carrier increase in fuel level would
frequency
a) increase capacitive reactance
c) frequency modulates the sub carrier
# b) increase capacitance
frequency
c) decrease capacitance
171. During flare mode autothrottle will
178. Float fuel gauge system is
# a) retard throttles to idle
a) adjusted when tanks are full
b) disconnect autothrottle
b) adjusted when tanks are empty
c) select reverse thrust
c) cannot be adjusted
172. A CSD is monitored for
179. A vertical structural member forming
a) low temp and high oil pressure
part or full walls are
# b) high temp and low oil pressure
# a) bulkheads
c)
b) longerons
173. As the rotor head is tilted to travel
c) frame
forward what happens to the reward
travelling blades pitch angle? 180. Low electrolyte in a nicad battery is
caused by
# a) Increases
# a) excessive electrical loading
Page
b) Decreases
b) high charge current
c) low charge current a) a high low chine and pink light comes on
181. With engine stopped, EPR indicator b) a low chine and blue light comes on
read slightly above 1.
c) a high chine and pink light comes on
a) This is normal
188. in ACRS, if an upcoming message is
b) You would change the Tx as the datum is received
shifted
a) a designated light comes on
c) You would adjust the Tx
b) a selcall light along with chine comes on
182. To ensure the compass is serviceable
c) a chime sounds in the cockpit
before installation you would carry out
189. A manual trim wheel, when fully moved
a) damping and periodicity checks
in the direction of tail
# b) damping and pivot friction check
a) the authority of elevators not effected
c) damping and alignment checks
# b) the up movement authority is effected
183. The specific gravity readings of a lead-
c) the down movement authority is effected
acid cell taken twice after charging shows
substantially lower value. 190. If on an ILS approach, LOC signal is
lost
a) Cell is defective
a) aircraft continues to descent with an
b) You top up the cell with distilled water
accumulating drift
c) You replace the cell
# b) aircraft descends in a parallel path to
184. Suppressor line is required for runway
a) ATC and DME only c) aircraft moves in a circle
b) TCAs only 191. IDG output voltage
# c) all L band equipments including TCAS a) does not require voltage regulation as
RPM is constant.
185. Differential GPS requires
# b) voltage is regulated by GCU
a) 3 satellites and two ground based
transmitters c) voltage is regulated by IDG
b) 4 satellites and 2 ground based 192. The over-station sensor is activated by

transmitters
a) radio deviation signal
c) 4 satellites and 1 ground based
# b) rate of radio deviation signal
transmitters
c) deviation and course error
Page 21 - Mod 13
193. When moving the control column
186. GPS has
# a) sensors located under the control
a) 6 satellites in 4 orbits
column produces a signal
b) 4 satellites in 6 orbits
b) sensor located along the control run
c) 7 satellites in 3 orbits produces a signal
Page
187. When the captain calls attendant c) sensor in the AFCS computer produces a
signal
---------194. In the reversed camber 200. Zone 500 indicates as per ATA 100
horizontal stabilizer as shown
a) Door
a) the elevator causes tail down movement
# b) Left wing
i.e. increases tail plane down force
c) Right wing
b) there is an increases tail plane up-force
201. Shock stall
# c) there is an increased tailplane down-
force a) is a flap down stall
Page 22 - Mod 13 # b) occurs at high speeds
195. Equivalent airspeed is c) occurs at low speeds
a) indicated airspeed corrected for IE and 202. Drooping of helicopter blades is
PE compensated by
b) rectified airspeed corrected for a) flapping
compressibility
b) dragging
# c) calibrated airspeed corrected for
compressibility # c) centrifugal force
196. in an Autoland, autothrottle is 203. During a turn

disengaged a) left rudder to be used
# a) after reverse thrust is applied b) right rudder to be used
b) after affixed period of the time after # c) rudder to be maintained in centre
landing position
c) manually after landing Page 23 - Mod 13
197. What is the maximum limit of the 204. Align light flashes during alignment
artificial horizon?
# a) A fault has occurred and system needs
# a) 85 degrees in pitch and 360 degrees in to be turned off
roll
b) It is attracting operators attention
b) 360 degrees in pitch and roll
c) It is indicating progress of alignment
c) 85 degrees pitch and 110 degrees in roll
205. During decent with power on in a
198. Acceleration error produces helicopter
a) a false indication of left bank a) lift, drag and thrust are acting on the
# b) a false indication of right bank helicopter
c) a false indication of climb # b) lift, drag, thrust and weight are acting
on the helicopter
199. The normal axis of a helicopter passes
through c) lift, weight and thrust are acting on the
helicopter
a) the centre of rotor disc
206. to transmit position feedback for
b) through the centre of intersection of actuators of roll and pitch control surfaces,
longitudinal and lateral axis in a fly by wire system
Page
c) a line parallel to rotor axis
# a) LVDT is used hence ensuring 213. When the trailing edge flap is
interchangeability
a) The CP moves forward and the pitching

b) LVDT and RVDT are used for pitch and moment changes to nose up
roll
b) The CP moves forward but the CG does
c) Synchros are used not change
207. The compensator in a fuel tank # c) CP move rearward

measures
214. During take off if an input to auto
a) specific gravity of fuel throttle is fails
# b) K value of fuel a) Auto throttle disengages
c) fuel quantity # b) Throttle hold is annunciated
208. What is the error signal used for in a c) Fail light illuminates
fixed angle approach in LOC
215. Flight director command bars indicate
coupling?entrifugal force
# a) Direction in which aircraft is to be
a) Heading and Deviation
manoeuvred
# b) Course error and Deviation
b) Direction in which aircraft is flying
c) Heading ,Course error and Deviation
c) Direction in which the beacon is
209. in modern aircraft, power distribution
216. Mode S has
of Generators are controlled by
a) 12 address bits
# a) BPCU
# b) 24 address bits
b) PCDU (power control distribution unit)
c) 36 address bits
c) SPCU
217. If an aircraft is on east of VOR beacon,
210. As you approach supersonic
the reference and variable phases are
# a) total drag is increased
a) In phase
b) lift is reduced
b) Opposite phase
c) thrust is reduced
# c) Phase quadrature
211. Range resolution is obtained by
218. RVSM, Vertical minimum separation
a) High PRF error allowed is
# b) Shorter pulse width a) 80 ft
c) Shorter beam width b) 300 ft
212. in weather radar, short range targets c) 500 ft

are missed by
219. In a radio altimeter system if you
# a) Larger pulse width decide to increase the TX cable and RX cable
each by 3 inch the total correction factor is
b) Larger beam width
a) 3 inch
c) Larger frequency
Page
b) 6 inch
Page 24 - Mod 13
# c) 9 inch c)
220. If you momentarily short the two 226. If the static line is disconnected in the
spikes of bonding tester cabin, the Mach meter reading would be
a) tester reads zero a) higher mach number
# b) tester reads full scale # b) lower mach number
c) tester would be zero centred c) not effected
221. for bonding, the two ends of a rubber 227. in a dual FMC installation, if one FMC is
pipe are joined by defective
a) a thick metallic bonding strip a) one CDU blanks
# b) a corrugated bonding jumper b) both CDU blanks
c) a wire attached by terminal legs at both # c) not be affected as automatic transfer

ends takes place
Page 25 - Mod 13 228. While carrying out a leak check of the

altimeter, if the static is leaking, the VSI
222. What is the minimum resistance
would
between all isolated electrostatic conducting
parts which may be subjected to appreciable a) indicate climb
charge and main earth system
# b) indicate decent
a) 0.5 ohm
c) not be affected
b) 1 ohm
229. In a combined pitot-static probe, while
# c) 0.5 Megohm or 100,000 ohm/sq.ft. carrying out a leak check, which instrument
surface area which ever is less is most likely to be effected by over
pressure?
223. Mach trim in some aircraft assists
a) ASI
# a) longitudinal stability
b) VSI
b) lateral stability
c) Altimeter
c) vertical stability
Page 26 - Mod 13
224. In case the airplane is wired for dual
installation of the Central Maintenance 230. The correction for a positive error for
Computers and only one computer is to be coefficient A in a compass
installed
a) is to rotate clockwise
# a) it must be installed on LH side
b) is to rotate anticlockwise
b) it must be installed on RH side
c) It may be rotated either direction
c) it may be installed either on LH or RH
231. Radiated interference of current
side
carrying cables can be minimized by
225. Main electric trim is controlled by
a) Having filters in power supply lines
a) a switch on control wheel
b) Separating the affected and affecting
Page
b) a switch installed on centre pedestal cables

panel
c) Putting the affected cable in a single b) to the right

conduit
# c) in the centre
232. during compass swing, using a datum
Page 27 - Mod 13
compass, the error permitted in aligning the
aircraft is 239. An autopilot computer
a) 1 degree # a) is more sensitive to ILS than to VOR
b) 5 degree b) is more sensitive to VOR than to ILS
c) 10 degree c) is the same sensitivity for VOR and ILS
233. If two aircraft decide to issue the same --------240. What type of flap is this?
RA for a potential conflict, which aircraft
changes the decision? # a) Split flap
a) The one with the higher address b) Fowler flap
b) The one with the smaller address c) Plain flap
c) Neither changes the decision 241. Purpose of the bellcrank is to
234. What is the authority of series actuator a) transmit motion

on an helicopters autopilot? # b) reverse direction and transmit motion
# a) 10% c) adjust friction
b) 50% 242. in an FDS, the attitude gyro is coupled
c) 100% with the FD computer by means of
transformer coupling. The purpose of this
235. in helicopter autopilots, while arrangement is
operating the actuator, the movement of the
cockpit control is prevented by a) to protect the attitude gyro in case of
failure of FD computer
a) synchros attached to the control
b) to protect FD computer in case of attitude
# b) a compressed spring attached to the gyro failure
cockpit control
c) to minimise power losses
c) a lock on the cockpit control
243. DH is based on
236. Helicopter blades are
a) aircraft characteristics
a) highly cambered
b) experience of the crew
b) reverse cambered
c) RVR transmitted by ATC
# c) Symmetrical
244. In a horizontal gyro the random
237. GPS antenna is precession of the inner ring is corrected by
a) vertically polarized a) mercury switches on the inner ring
b) horizontally polarized b) mercury switches on the outer ring
c) lincomp polarization c) flux valve slaving
238. The cyclic stick in an helicopter is 245. Index error is
Page
a) to the left a) coefficient B
b) Coefficient P # b) the max roll angle that can be

demanded by the autopilot
# c) misalignment of compass lubber line

c) maximum rudder deflection
246. Helicopter derives its lift from
252. Servo tabs
# a) the blade of the helicopter creates a low
pressure above it a) enable the pilot to bring the control
surface back to neutral
b) rotor acts as a airscrew
# b) move in such a way as to help move the
c) air is pushed downward
control surface
247. A two bladed helicopter rotor on a
c) provide artificial feel
central gimbal is called
253. Spring Tabs
a) rigid rotor
a) enable the pilot to bring the control
# b) semi rigid rotor
surface back to neutral
c) fully articulated rotor
# b) move in such a way as to help move the
Page 28 - Mod 13 control surface
248. Use of a diplexer in a receiver is c) provide artificial feel
a) to enable signals to be distributed to 254. Back beam scanning in an MLS is at a

different receivers rate of
b) to amplify the RF signal a) 20 degrees per second
c) to impedance match the aerial and b) 30 degrees per second

receivers
c) 15 degrees per second
249. If the 'Q' feel in a powered control
255. Omega ground stations
system fails
# a) transmit pulses of CW
a) the failed system stops and it remains in
this position b) carrier modulated by three audio tones
b) the pilot feels air loads higher than c) series of CW

normal
256. During testing of ATC altitude function
# c) the pilot feels air loads lower than the pressure altimeter is set
normal
a) 1013.25 mb
250. Doppler flag comes on when it receives
b) sea level pressure
a) excessive ground clutter
c) prevailing pressure
b) no signal
Page 29 - Mod 13
c) excess signals
257. When secondary stops are utilized in
251. When the bank angle limit is applied to control surfaces, they come in contact
the autopilot , it means
a) before the primary stops
a) the max aileron angle that can be
# b) after the primary stops
commanded
Page
c) at the same time as the primary stops
258. EICAS indicates b) barometric altitude for height hold and

radio altitude for altitude hold
# a) engine performance and aircraft system

malfunctions c) barometric altitude for both height and
altitude hold
b) engine performance only
265. On an ILS approach what will cause the
c) engine performance and aircraft status
aircraft to fly onto the beam?
259. Helicopter cyclic stick is turned to the
a) Radio deviation
right
b) Glideslope deviation
# a) rotating aerofoil tilts to the right
# c) Course deviation
b) pitch operating arms lengthen in one
direction and shorten in another Page 30 - Mod 13
c) rotating aerofoil tilts to the right 266. Which of the following modes does a
autopilot go through in correct sequence?
260. Magnetic heading errors will be
a) Flare, attitude, rollout
# a) positive if easterly
# b) Attitude, flare, rollout
b) negative if easterly
c) Rollout, attitude, flare
c) negative if northerly
267. When can other autopilot modes be
261. What will happen with a flux valve in a
select once Go Around has been selected?
turn?
a) When aircraft has reached 5000ft
a) It moves once the aircraft is established
on a new heading b) When reached a desired altitude
# b) It move as the aircraft moves c) Disengage and reengage the AFCS system
c) It stays fixed on magnetic north 268. Once the G/S has been captured what
other pitch modes are available?
262. When will a mode C interrogation be
ignored? a) No other pitch modes are available
# a) When the P2 pulse is higher amplitude b) Only when the aircraft is above the
to P1 glideslope beam
b) When the P2 pulse is antiphase to P1 c) All are continuously available
c) If P2 is before P1 269. If a helicopter rotor disc is rotating

anticlockwise, viewed from above where
263. An aircraft with autoland is fitted with
would a pitch input be fed into the disc to
a CMC
move the helicopter backwards, 90 degrees
a) records all faults in volatile memory to what?
# b) records all faults in non-volatile a) In front of the lateral axis

memory
# b) Right of the longitudinal axis
c)
c) Left of the longitudinal axis
264. A helicopter autopilot uses
270. A spring balance control system you
# a) radio altitude for height hold and
Page
# a) can move the control surface on the

barometric altitude for altitude hold
ground
b) can move the control surface only by b) Alter the transmitter power
moving the tab
c) Alter the video amplifier

c) cannot move the control surface on the
277. A radar response takes 329 micro
ground
seconds how far away is the target?
271. Why is a wire HF antenna covered in
a) 12 miles
polythene?
b) 25 miles
a) To prevent corrosion
c) 40 miles
# b) To prevent precipitation static
278. on a helicopter, what is vortex ring
c) To provide lightning protection
state?
272. What is a versine signal attenuated
a) Tip vortex interference at high forward
with?
speed
a) Increase in airspeed
b) Ground vortex interference when
b) Increase in altitude hovering close to the ground
c) Decrease in altitude # c) Tip vortex build-up during hover
273. If you carry out a VSWR check of a SSB 279. What controls are used in response to
HF system what should you do with the PVD display?
control switch? Select it to
# a) Nose wheel steering or rudder pedals
a) OFF
b) Control wheel
b) AM
c) PVD control unit
c) either USB or LSB
280. DME transponder transmits on receipt
Page 31 - Mod 13
a) of any interrogation
274. How long is the time between the start
b) of pilot input command request
of the P1 pulse and the P3 pulse ignoring the
P2 pulse length? # c) of a pair of pulses separated by 12
microseconds
a) 21 micro seconds
281. The best design of a MRB is where the C
b) 8 micro seconds
of P
c) 17 micro seconds
# a) does not move
275. If a VOR RMI indicates 000 degrees and
b) moves freely along the length of the blade
the course selected is 000 degrees what will
the TO/FROM indicator indicate? c) is insignificant
a) TO 282. The RAD alt electrical length for an
helicopter is
b) FROM
a) 16ft
# c) Neither
b) 12ft
276. What does the Radar contour button
do? # c) 28ft
Page
# a) Alter the beam shape Page 32 - Mod 13
283. Mode S transponders transmits a 290. The crew select DH on

binary code of
a) the altimeter
a) 12bits
b) the DH annunciator panel
b) 64bits
# c) the rad alt display
# c) 24bits
291. When substituting the radio altimeter
284. The rotor cone is formed by antenna cables, you should consider
a) blade alignment a) power requirements
# b) centrifugal force and lift # b) the speed of propagation of rad alt

signal
c) centrifugal force only
c) the diameter of cables
285. Tracking is carried out
to_____________the MRB tip path Page 33 - Mod 13
a) balance 292. GPS has
b) restore # a) 24 satellites, 6 orbits of 4
# c) align b) 24 satellites, 4 orbits of 6
286. Artificial feel is gained by using a c) 27 satellites, 3 orbits of 9
a) hydraulic damper 293. Audio select panel voice switch
# b) spring bias unit a) allows voice ident of DME
c) 'feel' generator # b) cuts "beeps" from DME signal
287. The ground run monitor presents c) disables DME voice ident
information
294. GPS frequency is
# a) of distance to go and ground speed
a) 1575 GHz
b) duration of ground run
# b) 1575 MHz
c) angle of crosstrack on ground
c) 1525 MHz
288. A mode C transponder
295. Radio switches are normally
a) can be used for TCAS
# a) sprung on R/T, latched on I/C
# b) cannot be used for TCAS
b) latched on R/T, sprung on I/C
c) can be used for TCAS on ILS approach
c) latched on R/T, latched on I/C
only
296. on GPWS, with aircraft below 1700ft
289. The audio select panel allows the crew
to # a) systems is disabled
# a) transmit on one channel, listen on one b) no traffic will be shown
b) transmit on one channel, listen on c) all traffic produces aural alert
multiple others
297. Mode S pulses. Which are used?
c) receive on one channel, transmit on
Page
multiple others a) F1,F2,F4,F5
# b) s1,p1,p3,p4
c) s1,s2,p1,p2
298. in a superhet receiver, the advantage of

an RF amplifier is
a) it amplifies output stages
# b) it improves signal to noise ratio
c) it couples noise factors
299. Fluorescent tubes for the cabin lighting

are powered from
a) 115 volts from ac bus
b) 200 volts from ac bus
# c) high voltage produced by transformer

ballast units
300. The advancing blade of a helicopter is

the one moving
a) one moving in direction of relative air

flow
b) highest blade
# c) one moving forward into relative

airflow
Page 34 - Mod 13
# c) voltage and current coil

Page

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IN - DGCA CAR -66 MODULE 13 PART 1

8. If you add an aerial, to strengthen the

a) Long a) Pfifer damper

c) Radar relative range cannot be increased c) Scissor levers

a) increased relative range # a) Weight of blade

b) reduced relative range b) Engine and gearbox

# c) no effect c) Fineness ratio

18. If an 80 ohm coaxial cable is connected 25. Relative velocity of rotor

# a) Battery disconnected from charge b) the engine throttles to maintain a

b) No effect # c) the engine throttles to maintain a

# c) the aircraft will continue its automatic c) alert height

a) QDH a) operation down to and along the surface

c) vertical accelerometers a) information obtained the local

EPR mode, will control

a) a decision height of about 50 feet c) switch on NAV receivers

# b) no decision height 47. FAIL PASSIVE means

43. Stand off errors on localiser approach # a) JAR AWO

45. Which modes are incompatible 51. Versine is generated by

a) VOR + ALTITUDE HOLD a) torque receiver synchros

# b) G/S + ALTITUDE HOLD # b) synchros resolvers

c) HDG + V/S HOLD c) control synchro transformers

a) switch off all power # a) maintain level flight

Page 6 - Mod 13 achieved by

# b) pressing a button on thrust levers a) scan at a lower rate

c) making a selection on the mode control b) use shorter bursts

# b) call up the relevant page on the CDU b) JAR OPS

c) Maintenance Manual c) special conducting or non-conducting

proximity lights are inoperative 72. An elevator tab moves down

c) at the manufacturers only c) 80ft

b) The ambient pressure # b) LVDTs for roll and pitch control

c) Hard 84. Which is the correct sequence for an

helicopters? a) Glideslope capture, altitude hold and

extinguishers landing greater than

a) 1 x 10-6 # c) IAS and steering or heading

# b) 1 x 10-7 Page 11 - Mod 13

c) 1 x 10-8 96. If go-around has been initiated after

a) mandatory b) only if A/P and F/D selected

b) a matter of choice for the operator c) only if A/T selected

92. The overshoot or go around mode is a) system degrade to CAT II

b) IAS and glide slope landing in the event of signal failure

a) is increased as the aircraft descends a) fail passive

b) remains constant as the aircraft descends # b) fail operational

# c) is decreased as the aircraft descends c) fail redundant

a) pitch rate gyros a) produce a significant out of trim

c) fail redundant a) simplex system

Page 12 - Mod 13 # b) duplex system

105. on touchdown, auto pilot c) dual-dual system

a) at D.H. 113. What is the controlling factor in the

a) the area navigation system Page 13 - Mod 13

# b)the runway localiser 114. CAT-3b allows

taxing visibility in the order of 50 meters

115. The definition of fail operational is the c) is the same

122. A Master Warning is issued when

# b) ground speed and distance to go 125. Sparking in a generator would be

# c) Leave the terminals open circuit

is adjusted to 010 what happens to the angle of attack?

# c) Mach and Temp 139. When downgrading an Autoland system

a) On the wing # b) An entry in the log book and cockpit

removed but nothing was found

a) no leak test is required unless the drain # c) 50 degree

147. Stall warning will be given at speeds

c) AC & DC generators # a) excessive charging current