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20 12 u 2-

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JJ[ST OF PHYSICAL CONSTANTS

c 3.00x 108 ms 1
Speed of light in free space
4rc x 10-7 H m 1
Permeability of free wace f-lo
' : !

' 8.85 x 10- 12 F m 1


Permittivity of free spac~ .:.;

:.: ;.
' Ana
""' ,:. . o-.
~,.. . ,.

1.60x 10- 19 C

; r_-. _,._,
.: (fKrti't~ Et/:5~ _ , , , ,1l _;

i::li:Jt~Jb~~:r.r. 2J.f!:i ;ri.A ~~ ry-.f)~ d:,s ;.:;o~: ~_ - \::nJ~

;::;ji.f~~)kt: t/1 l ,.h'!i,l <EiB~;~:~<;~m Ll! :-- i~; ?>'.:i.:,'i.J';


_1>;_.-t
. i.

oj ~.,,~j,,,lb f'd'""" .,,t~"'~il;lml; ~. !; ~," H "'""


r ' i ,, II

i .1~rJ
~

;~.~-;~P!>. ~::!ft_-{:jJ -~_,_;J~~rri- -~- -rt>


i ~ "'.._ -. .~_'!:-:If'< ... ,f:~r f.,,, ~~')t.E:l"''--- - ... ~_,-,
~ . . . . . r~.-~....,.- ..--._. . . .
nA nN T() Tlffi NEXT PAGE
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1. When a potential difference of 2 V is Item 4 refers to the following diagram.


applied across a resistor, 10 J of energy are
converted to thermal energy. What charge
flows through the resistor?

(A) 20C
(B)
(C)
(D)

2.

3.

(A)
(B) . I
'
(C) C-ID! } - (~) par~bolic toward upper plate
(D) n.:.E
i
1.
( i
;.!'
I
l
' . t.
'lh\
L1 :I
I:,
. t ,_;~:;!
1.. . ...

!. . . i
I'
Ii "'i ~ ....

:1
!
lI
11 i
I t.
I l
Gp ON TO THE NEXT PAGE
-4-

6. The work done per unit charge in bringing 9. The diagram shows two capacitors of
a small positive charge from infinity to a different capacitances, C1 and C2 , connected
point is the definition of in parallel to a d. c. source.

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
electric potential
potential energy
potential gradient
electric field strength
c,l c,l
7. What is the electric potential 25 em from
a point charge of 6 x 1Q-8 C?
I T
Which statement is correct?

(A) 0.22 kV (A) The effective capacitance


(B) 2.2 kV clcz
(C) 22.0 kV C= C+C
1 2
(D) 220.0 kV
(B) The charges on the capacitors are
equal.
8. A capacitor of capacitance, C, is made (C) The energy stored by the two
using two parallel metal plates separated capacitors is the same.
by 1 mm in air. The area of overlap of the (D) The potential difference across
plates is 20 cm2 If the distance between each capacitor is the same.
the plates is increased to 2 mm and the area
of overlap of the plates is halved, what is
10. Which of the following units is equivalent
its new capacitance? to the tesla?
(A) C/4 (A) NA1 m
(B) C/2 NC- 1 ms 1
(B)
(C) 2C vm- 1 s
(C)
(D) 4C NC- 1 m- 1 s
(D)

11. Which of the following diagrams shows the correct direction of the forces on two wires carrying
current in opposite directions?

(A) (B)

(C) (D) F F
t t

I
~-T ~n. rrnn 1\.n::rYT PAGE/
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Item 12 refers to the following diagram. Item 14 refers to the following diagram.

Laminated core

12. A conductor oflength 0.10 misplaced in a


magnetic field of9 mT at an angle of 60 to 14. The iron core of the transformer in the
the field direction. It has a current of 2A. diagram above is laminated because
Calculate the force on the conductor due to
the field. (A) it can be more easily magnitized
and demagni tized
(A) 8 X I0- 4 N (B) lamination increases the magnetic
(B) 9 X I0- 4 N flux of the core
(C) 1.6 X 10-3 N (C) lamination increases the surface
(D) 1.8 X I0-3 N area and the induced e.m.f. in
the coils
(D) it minimizes the circulation of
Item 13 refers to the: following diagram induced currents in the core
in which conductors P and Q are carrying
current into the plane of the paper.

magnetic field to the right

13. What is the direction of the resultant force


on. P when the magnetic field shown is
switched on?

(A) I
(B) II
(C) III
(D) IV

I GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE


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15. The diagrams below show a bar magnet being inserted or withdrawn from a solenoid. In which
diagram is the current flow correct?

~Motion ~Motion

(A) sl (B)
Is
I I

~Motion ~Motion

sl (D) Is
(C)
I I

16. A. C. may be represented by the following 18. In which of the circuits below is
equation, I = I0 sin cot. I0 is the capacitor connected to give
a smooth rectified output voltage
(A) r.m.s. current across the load (R)?
(B) peak current
(C) instantaneous current (A)
(D) average current
a.c. rv R
supply
Item 17 refers to the following diagram.
(B)
100

50

(C)
50 R
a. c. rv
supplyl
17. What is the current in the 1OQ resistor?

(A) OA
(B)
(C)
2A
6A
(D)
~c
a. c. rv R
(D) lOA
supplyl

I GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE


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19. Which of the following diagrams shows the correct arrangement for a full wave rectifier circuit?

Input Input

(A) (B)

Input Input

(C) (D)

20. An example of an INPUT transducer is a

(A) relay
(B) buzzer
(C) thermistor
(D) light-emitting diode

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Items 21-22 refer to the following diagram which shows an amplifier.


50 !ill

21. IfVs = -+ 9 V, what is the value ofVout when the input voltage is 1.2 V?

(A) -12 V
(B) -9 V
(C) 10 v
(D) 13 V

22. The values for the resistors may be changed. Which of the following pairs of values for R 1 and
R 2 would give the amplifier the LARGEST bandwidth?

Rl ~
(A) 10kn 100k0
(B) 20kn 300kn
(C) 30kn 90kn
(D) 40kn sokn

23. An operational amplifier circuit has a gain of 103 and a bandwidth of 103 Hz. What is the
approximate bandwidth when the gain is reduced to 10?

(A) 10 Hz
(B) 103 Hz
(C) 105 Hz
(D) 107 Hz

eo ON TO THE NEXT PAGE


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Item 24 refers to the following diagram where V 1 and V 2 are input signals.

:>---41.,._---o V out

ov
24. Wh~t are the possible values ofR1, ~and~ if the output voltage, Vout = - (3V 1 + 4V 2)?

Rl ~ ~

(A) 200kQ 150k.O 600k.O

(B) 200k.O 400k.O 600k.O

(C) 300kQ 400kQ lOOk.O

(D) 300kQ 400kQ 700kQ

Item 25 refers to the following diagram.

SOOkQ

Vin=400mV

o-------------~--------------------------~~--o
p
4.0kQ ro
25. From the information given in the operational amplifier circuit above, determine the magnitude
of the current through the feedback resistor.

(A) 0.5 ~A
(B) 8.0 J-LA
(C) 0.1 rnA
(D) 8.0 rnA

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02238010/CAPE 2012
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Item 26 refers to the following diagrams.


10 k!l

5 k!l

!
Output Figure 1
voltage
vo

Figure 2

e6. The sinusoidal alternating voltage shown in Figure 2 is applied to the input of the operational
amplifier shown in Figure 1. The voltage of the power supply is 15 V.

Which of the following graphs correctly shows the variation of the output voltage with time?

(A) (B)

V0 (V) Vo(V)
+15 +6

t(ms) 4 :7 t(ms)

-15 -6

(C) (D)

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12238010/CAPE 2012
I
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27. Which of the following shows the correct NOR gate equivalent of the given logic gate?

Logic gate Equivalent

(A) NOT

(B) OR

(C) AND

(D) EX-NOR

Items 28-29 refer to the following diagram which shows a quad-NAND circuit board connected
to a 6V supply. It has an indicator diode connected to each output.
6V

ov
28. If wires are connected as shown, which 29. With inputs I 1 and I2 and output Q, the
indicators will be on? whole circuit could be replaced by

(A) I and III (A) an OR gate


(B) I and IV (B) anAND gate
(C) II and III (C) a NOR gate
(D) II and IV (D) anEXORgate

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O'J'J~~o1 otr A PP ')til,.,
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.. 30. Two four-bit binary numbers are fed into the inputs X andY of an OR gate. The numbers are
represented by the pulse trains in the V-t diagrams below.

V'f'
x-~---u
~t

vh....., ' ~~z


yl u u~t
Which of the following pulse trains represents the output pulse from the OR gate?

(A)
Vt
n___ru ___,.,
(B)
v1'
I U__,,
(C)
v1'

(D)
I I_,.
v1'
I n__,.

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02238010/CAPE 2012
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Item 31 refers to the diagram below which shows a photocell, consisting of an anode A and a
cathode, C, inside an evacuated glass tube, connected to an ammeter, voltmeter and a variable
d.c. power supply.
uv

~----~v ~----~
A

Variable
+ supply

31. When the photocell is illuminated with ultraviolet light and photoelectrons are emitted,
corresponding current and voltage values are plotted. Which graph correctly shows the relationship
between I and V?
(A) I (C) I

I (D)
(B)

32. Which scientist proposed a quantum theory to explain the photoelectric effect?

(A) Planck
(B) Rutherford
(C) Einstein
(D) Millikan

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02238010/CAPE 2012
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33. In an experiment investigating the photo 36. Which of the following demonstrate
electric emissions from a metal, the the particle nature of electromagnetic
stopping potential was found to be 3.0 V radiation?
when light of frequency 7.5 x 10 14 Hz was
used. (A) Interference and polarisation
(B) Emission spectra and reflection
What is the work function of the metal? (C) Photoelectric effect and absorption
spectra .
(A) 5.0 X 10 19 J (D) ~-decay of nuclei and electron
(B) 9.8 X I0- 19 J diffraction
(C) 3.3 X 10-zo J
(D) 1.7 X 1Q20 J
37. Which two scientists conducted an
experiment which proves that the nucleus
34. What is the linear absorption coefficient of of an atom is very small and positively
a material of thickness 10 em that reduces charged?
the incident X-ray intensity to half of its
original value? (A) Davisson and Germer
(B) Moseley and Einstein
(A) -0.693 (C) Michelson and Morley
(B) 0.693 (D) Geiger and Marsden
(C) -6.93
(D) 6.93

35. An experiment to investigate the


photoelectric effect was performed and a
graph of energy of photoelectrons versus
frequency of incident radiation plotted as
shown below.

Energy
of
photoelectrons

/
/
/
I
Frequency (f)

If e is electronic charge, Vs is stopping


potential, fis the frequency, m is the mass
of an electron and his the Planck constant,
then the gradient of the graph is

(A) h
(B) elm
(C) hmle
(D) hie

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0223 801 0/CAPE 2012
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Item 38 is about Millikan's oil drop experiment which is depicted in the diagram below.

Hole where oil

o--------,------- I spray enters

0
0
Plates connected
0 0 c:=J::::J
to power supply Microscope

Illuminated oil drops

38. Which statement about the behaviour of the oil drops during the experiment is correct?

(A) When an oil drop is stationary, it must carry a charge.


(B) When an oil drop becomes charged, the size of the charge must equal e.
(C) When an oil drop moves upwards, only the electric force is acting on it.
(D) When no electric field acts, all drops move downwards with the same constant velocity.

39. Which of the following statements is true?

(A) The mass of a nucleus is less than the total mass of its separate constituent nucleons.
(B) The mass of a nucleus is greater than the total mass of its separate constituent nucleons.
(C) The binding energy per nucleon of atoms is a constant as atomic mass is varied.
(D) The binding energy per nucleon increases as the atomic mass of the atom increases.

40. Radioactive lead, ~~ 1Pb decays by two beta particles and one alpha particle. What is the resulting
nuclide?

2o3 Pb
(A) 82

(B) 201 Pb
82

(C) 201 Po
84

(D) 211p
84
0

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02238010/CAPE 2012
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41. When a radioactive nucleus decays an 44. A freshly made sample of radioactive
amount of energy, E, is released. At the material gives a count rate of 8000 counts
same time, a small amount of mass, m, per minute. After twenty days, it gives a
is lost. Which of the following gives the count rate of 500 counts per minute. What
amount of energy released? is the half-life of the material?

1 (A) 4 days
(A) E=-mc
2 (B) 5 days
(C) 20 days
1 2
(B) E= 2mc (D) 80 days

(C) E=mc
45. In medicine, radioactive isotopes are often
(D) E=mc 2 used as tracers to help in locating blockages
in the human body. Which of the following
isotopes would be MOST suitable for such
42. The activity of a radioactive source is the an application?

(A) intensity of the radiation emitted Isotope Half-life Radiation


(B) amount of radioactive atoms Emitted
(C) number of disintegrations per
(A) 2 minutes Beta
second
(D) number of types of radiation
(B) 4 hours Alpha
coming from the source

(C) 5 hours Beta


43. The following statements refer to radioactive
decay. (D) 20 minutes Alpha

I. It is a random process.
II. It is a spontaneous process.
III. It is dependent on the chemical
combination of radioactive
elements.
IV. It increases with temperature.

Which of the above statements are TRUE?

(A) I and II only


(B) II and IV only
(C) III and IV only
(D) I, II and IV only

ENDOFTEST

IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS TEST.

02238010/CAPE 2012

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