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MANAGEMENT
a. Planning
b. Quality
c. Suppliers
d. Top Management
3.Distinctive competencies in organizations seldom relate to:
.
a. facilities layout
b. price cost
c. quality
d. time
4.For this set of errors: -1, -4, 0, +2, +3, MAD is:
.
a. 1.6
b. 2.5
c. 2.0
d. 1.0
5. Many factors impact productivity, one factor not generally stated as having a
negative
impact on productivity is:
a. Government regulations
b. Increased emphasis on services
c. Liability claims
d. Emphasis on short-term performance
6.Productivity is calculated by:
.
b. entail paying the highest wages and salaries in the industry to high-performi
ng
employees and stressing non-monetary rewards for low-performing employees.
c. emphasize making employees happy and secure in their jobs through both hard
times and good times, involve extensive job rotation to expand employee skill se
ts,
and provide all employees (but especially those on the low end of the performanc
e
scale) with job training and professional development opportunities throughout t
heir
careers.
d. incorporate only positive motivational approaches and are carefully designed
to
avoid subjecting employees to job insecurity, stress, or anxiety.
5.Prescribing policies and operating procedures aid the task of implementing str
ategy by
a. helping managers determine the appropriate size of departmental staffing and
operating budgets in order for organizational units to carry out their assigned
piece
of the strategy in a competent fashion.
b. indicating how reengineering needs to be accomplished and paving the way for
instituting TQM, best practices, and internal support systems.
c. providing personnel with top-down guidance on how certain things are to be do
ne
and what behavior is expected, placing limits on independent action and channeli
ng
individual and group efforts along the intended path, and helping enforce needed
consistency in how particular strategy-critical activities are performed in
geographically scattered operating units.
d. helping empower product champions and work teams and helping prevent the
corporate culture from being unhealthy and weak.
6.Total quality management (TQM)
a. high productivity
b. simplifies training
c. relatively low wages
d. difficult to motivate quality
2.Analysis of therbligs is most closely related to:
a. Ergonomics
b. Job enrichment
c. Job enlargement
d. Specialization
4.The need for methods analysis might come from any of these sources except:
a. new products or services.
b. changes in tools and equipment.
c. government regulations.
d. changes in seasonal demanchanges in product design.
5.The symbols of a flow process chart stand for:
a. MTM
b. performance rating
c. methods analysis
d. allowance factors
7.Which of the following statements should not characterize an operations strate
gy
toward the design of work systems?
a. repetitive production
b. a batch system
c. a job shop
d. continuous processing
8. Which one of the following is not generally regarded as an advantage of produ
ct
layouts?
a. The system is fairly flexible to changes in volume of output.
b. Labor costs are low per unit.
c. unit costs may be lower than with other processes
d. Material handling costs per unit are low.
Unit6 -1 Mark Quiz Questions
1. Although closely associated with quality, this name is not on the list of qua
lity gurus:
a. Edwards Deming
b. Malcolm Baldrige
c. M. Juran
d. Philip Crosby
2. The guru associated with the phrase quality is free is:
a. Crosby
b. Baldrige
c. Deming
d. Juran
3. The purpose of the Malcolm Baldrige National Quality Award is to:
a. all of the above
b. stimulate efforts to improve quality
c. recognize quality achievements of U.S. companies
d. publicize successful quality programs
4. Which name is associated with a list of 14 points?
a. Baldrige
b. Crosby
c. Juran
d. Deming
5. Which one of these is the conceptual basis for continuous improvement?
a. The plan-do-check-act cycle
b. Cause-and-effect diagram
c. Benchmarking
d. Pareto analysis
6. Which one of these is the conceptual basis for continuous improvement?
a. Benchmarking
b. The plan-do-check-act cycle
c. Pareto analysis
d. Cause-and-effect diagram
7. Which one of these would not be considered a determinant of quality Warranty
service,
processing of complaints, and costs of litigation are examples of: { ~internal f
ailure costs
=external failure costs ~appraisal costs ~prevention costs }
a. Focus groups
b. Ease of use
c. Design
d. Service after delivery
Unit7 -1 Mark Quiz Questions
1. A companys competitive strategy
a. consists mainly of offensive actions.
b. consists of the business approaches and initiatives it undertakes to attract
customers and fulfill their expectations, to Withstand competitive pressures, an
d to
strengthen its market position.
c. consists mainly of defensive actions.
d. typically is broader and more wide-ranging than a companys business strategy,
involves offensive actions, defensive actions, tactical maneuvers designed to de
al
with immediate conditions, and actions calculated to have longer-term impact.
2. Companies pursuing a low-cost provider strategy can open up a cost advantage
over
rivals by
a. using a high-volume/high-quality strategy keyed to first-mover advantages,
having a more technologically-sophisticated value chain than rivals, reducing th
e
numbers of cost drivers, and having world-class suppliers.
b. creating altogether new, lower-cost value chain systems or revamping the
existing value chain to bypass some cost-producing activities that produce littl
e
value added insofar as customers are concerned.
c. doing a better job than rivals of controlling the cost drivers.
d. lowering buyers switching costs, creating a state-of-the-art value chain, and
having fewer cost drivers than rival firms.
3. Creating buyer value via differentiation
a. can be achieved anywhere along the industry value chain.
b. can involve incorporating product attributes and user features that lower the
costs
of switching to substitute products and is an attractive competitive strategy wh
en
there are few ways to achieve differentiation that have value to buyers.
c. can involve incorporating product attributes and user features that lower buy
ers'
overall costs of using the product or that raise the performance a buyer gets fr
om
the product or that enhance buyer satisfaction in noneconomic or intangible ways
.
d. has to be grounded in providing buyers with unique extras that deliver real v
alue
rather than perceived value.
4. Differentiation strategies
a. are an attractive competitive approach whenever buyers needs and preferences
are too diverse to be satisfied by a product that is essentially identical from
seller to
seller; moreover, a differentiation strategy can produce sustainable competitive
advantage if the differentiating features possess strong buyer appeal and can no
t be
copied or easily matched by rivals.
b. typically result in much greater buyer loyalty than low-cost provider strateg
ies.
c. usually win out over a low-cost provider strategy unless buyers are inclined
to
shop solely on price.
d. work best when the basis for differentiation is superior quality or superior
customer service.
5. To succeed in building a competitive advantage, a companys strategy must
a. aim at becoming the market share leader and having more distinctive
competencies than rivals.
1.
In this phase information is collected from the customer pertaining to the proje
ct
and the requirements are analyzed.
a. Marketing
b. Design
c. Execution
d. Analysis
2. In this phase the project manager and the teams members work on the project
objectives as per the plan.
a. Design
b. Analysis
c. Execution
d. Marketing
3.One can estimate the start time and the finish time for every event of the pro
ject in its
WBS using the __
a. CPM
b. PERT
c. ICT
d. CPM
4. One can find out the variance and use the variance to analyze the various pro
babilistic
estimates pertaining to the project in ___ method.
a. CPM
b. CPM
c. ICT
d. PERT
5. SRA stands for
a. supprt requirement analysis.
b. systems requirement analysis
c. software requirement analysis
d. speficificaiton requirement analysis
6.. The methods used to analyze the project are :
a. ICT
b. PERT and SRA
c. CPM and PERT
d. CPM and SRA
7. This phase involves the study of inputs and outputs of the various project st
ages.
a. Marketing
b. Evaluation
c. Design
d. Analysis
8. This proposal contains the strategies adopted to market the product to the cu
stomers.
a. Marketing
b. Evaluation
c. Analysis
d. Design
Unit10 -1 Mark Quiz Questions
a. Management
b. Workers
c. Customers
d. Vendors
7. Which one of these is not generally associated with JIT?
a. Low inventories
b. A push system
c. Preventive maintenance
d. Problem solving
8. Which one of these is not usually associated with JIT?
a. Manufacturing cells
b. Preventive maintenance
c. Large lot sizes
d. Multifunctional workers
Unit14 -1 Mark Quiz Questions
1.
A queuing system has four crews with three members each. The number of
servers is:
a. 4
b. 3
c. 7
d. 12
2.
A system with an arrival rate of two per hour, a service time of 20 minutes, and
one server, would have a utilization of.
a. 10%
b. 40%
c. 67%
d. 33%
3. A three-step repair service with one server at each step would be an example
of a:
a. multiple-phase, multiple-channel system.
b. single-phase, multiple-channel system.
c. multiple-phase, single-channel system.
d. solo server, trio channel
4.
For an infinite-source system with an arrival rate of 6 per hour (Poisson) and
service time of 6 minutes per customer (exponential), the average number being
served is:
a. .60
b. none of these
c. .10
d. 1.0
5. The term queue discipline refers to:
a. the order in which customers are processed
b. having multiple waiting lines without customers switching from line to line
c. the willingness of customers to wait in line for service
d. the reason waiting occurs in underloaded systems
6.Waiting lines tend to form in underloaded systems because:
a. low utilization
b. poor scheduling
c. variability in arrival and service rates
d. slow service
Unit15 -1 Mark Quiz Questions
1.
A decrease in the firms receivable turnover ratio means that __________
a. it is collecting credit sales more quickly than before
b. it is collecting credit sales more slowly than before
2.
A firms inventory turnover (IT) is 8 times on a cost of goods sold (COGS) of
$800,000. If the IT changes to 5 times while the COGS remains the same, a
substantial amount of funds is either released from or additionally invested in
inventory. In fact, __________
a. $100,000 is additionally invested
b. $160,000 is released
c. $60,000 is released
d. $60,000 is additionally invested
3.
If EOQ = 1,000 units, order costs are $200 per order, and sales total 5,000 unit
s,
what is the carrying cost per unit?
a. ~$10
b. ~$100
c. ~$1,000
d. =$2
4.
If EOQ = 40 units, order costs are $2 per order, and carrying costs are $.20 per
unit, what is the usage in units?
a. ~40 units.
b. =80 units.
c. ~16 units.
d. ~10 units
5.
Sixty percent of Basket Wonders annual sales of $900,000 is on credit. If its ye
arend
receivables turnover is 4.5, the average collection period and the year-end
receivables are, respectively __________ Assume a 365day year
a. 81 days and $120,000
b. 73 days and $120,000
c. 73 days and $108,000
d. 81 days and $108,000
6.
The credit policy of Milwaukee Brewski Breweries is 1/10, net 30. At present
25% of the customers take the discount. What would accounts receivable be if all
customers took the cash discount?
a. Unable to determine without more information.
b. Account receivable would be higher than the present level
c. No change from the present level.
d. Account receivable would be lower than the present level.
7. Which of the following statements hold true for safety stock?
a. The greater the uncertainty associated with forecasted demand, the lower the
level of safety stock needed
b. The greater the risk of running out of stock, the larger the safety stock nee
ded.
c. The lower the opportunity cost of the funds invested in inventory, the smalle
r the
safety stock needed.
d. The higher the profit margin per unit, the lower the safety stock necessary.
8.
Which ratio might you be the most concerned with in analyzing a firms financial
leverage position?
a. Inventory turnover.
b. Return on equity.
c. Debt-to-total assets.
d. Acid-test.