National University

Manila

College of Engineering
Bachelor of Science in Environmental and Sanitary
Engineering

"100 QUESTIONS IN WASTEWATER

ENGINEERING"
ASSIGNMENT/REPORT

Submitted by:

JULIANO ISAAC C. ANTONIO

Student

Submitted to:
ENGR. MANNY TAGUBA
Professor
 SOLID WASTE MANAGEMENT
Examination Questions

Multiple Choices: Write the letter of the correct answer before the number. NO
ERASURES
Note: Answers are in Bold Font

1. Which of following does not affect municipal water use?

a.Community Size b. Extent of metered services

c. Climate d. None of the above

2. Physical Characteristics of wastewater

a. pH b. turbidity
c. organic matters d. heavy metals

3. Which of the following is not characteristics of microorganisms

a. Cause diseases b. spoil food

c. deteriorate materials d. none of the above

4. Amount of oxygen needed to chemically oxidize organic compounds found in

wastewater

a. BOD5 b. COD
c. ThOD d. TOD

5. Which of the following is correct interpretation of organic content of

wastewater

a. BOD>COD>TOD b. BOD<COD<TOD
c. BOD=COD=TOD d. BOD>TOD>COD

6. Triclosan are compounds considered as

a. EMB b. POPs
c. EDS d. ORP

7. Organoleptic parameter of wastewater

a. bacteria b. turbidity
c. surfactant d. ph

8. Which of the following is not beneficial use of Class C Water?

 a. Fishery Water b. Public Water Supply
c. Recreational Water d. Industrial Water Supply

9. No industrial or domestic sewage influent shall be discharged into Class

AA and SA waters.

a. true b. maybe
c. false d. undetermined

10. Which of the following is not considered on-site treatment of wastewater?

a. wetlands b. septic tank

c. ponds d. none of the above

11. The following are products of septic tank except

a. sludge b. scum
c. effluent d. none of the above

12. Type of lagoon which oxygen is provided by using mechanical or diffused air
system.

a. aerobic lagoon b. facultative lagoon

c. aerated lagoon d. none of the above

13. Source of pollution occur when harmful substances are emitted directly into a
body of water from a pipeline or sewer.

a. commercial waste b. sewage

c. industrial waste d. none of the above

14. As the temperature increases, DO __________.

a. increases b. decreases
c. no relationship d. none of the above

15. The Clean Water Act of 2004 is known as

a. RA 8794 b. RA 8749
c. PD 8794 d. None of the above

16. Which of the following is not minimum water quality parameter for classifying
bodies of water.

a. DO b. Ph
c. BOD d. None of the Above

17. Class of surface water requires approved disinfection treatment only.

 a. Class AA b. Class A
c. Class SA d. Class SB

18. The method of supplying varying quantities of air into the different parts of an
aeration tank in the activated sludge process.

a. High Rate Aeration b. Tapered Aeration

c. Extended Aeration d. Step feed

19. Promotes the aggregation of small particles into larger particles to enhance
their removal by gravity.

a. flocculation b. sedimentation
c. coagulation d. adsorption

20. The average time that a given unit of cell mass stays in the activated-sludge
aeration tank.

a. solids retention time b. MCRT

c. hydraulic sludge age d. A & B

21. Wastewater whose initial BOD value before treatment is equal to or greater
than 3000 ppm.

a. Moderate waste b. Strong waste

c. Organic waste d. none of the above

22. Aging of lake due to excessive nutrients.

a. algal bloom b. nutrifaction

c. eutrophication d. all of the above

23. Method of analysis for BOD5

a. calorimetric method b. imhoff cone method

c. winkler method d. azide modification

24. Odor of odorous compounds of Mercaptans

a. rotten cabbage b. decayed fish

b. decayed cabbage d. ammoniacal

25. The accumulated solids separated from liquids during the treatment process
that have not undergone a stabilization process.

a. sludge b. biomass
c. biofilm d. total solids
26. Pasig river classification is CLASS ___

a. Class C b. Class SC
c. Class D c. Class SD

27. Bacteria that use inorganic materials for energy and growth

a. Heterotrophic bacteria b. Facultative bacteria

c. Anoxic bacteria d. Autotrophic bacteria

28. Discharge wastewater at any treatment either partially or completely treated

a. sewage b. sewerage
c. effluent d. influent

29. Designed to remove contaminants accumulated on the membrane

a. Chemical Cleaning
b. Backwashing
c. Filter Aid
d. Fouling

30. Controls membrane fouling, particularly inorganic scaling and organic

befouling that is not removed with backwash.

a. Treatment
b. Backwashing
c. Prewashing
d. Chemical Cleaning

31. Volume of permeate per unit area and time.

a. Feed
b. Concentrate
c. Flux
d. Retentate

32. The volume of liquid entering a membrane system.

a. Flux
b. Filtrate
c. Feed
d. Brine

33. Process that involves killing of pathogens.

a. Disinfection
b. Filtration
c. Desalination
d. Salination
34. The ability of a membrane barrier to allow the passage or diffusion of a
substance.

a. Permeability
b. Filtration
c. Percolation
d. Passage

35. Precipitation of solids in the element due to solute concentration on the feed
stream of the membrane.

a. Condensation
b. Precipitation
c. Retentate
d. Scaling

36. Is a measure of water clarity how much the material suspended in water
decreases the passage of light through the.

a. Permeability
b. Hardness
c. Turbidity
d. Softening

37. Philippine Law on Effluent Regulations

a. RA 9275
b. DAO 34
c. RA 7160
d. DAO 35

38. is a chemical that is added to destabilized particles and accomplish

coagulation.

a. Coagulant
b. Sediment
c. Asphyxiant
d. Floc

39. The duration of slow sand filters runs depends on water quality and loading
rates. Ideally, the raw water turbidity should be less than _____________.

a. 5 NTU
b. 10 NTU
c. 15 NTU
d. 20 NTU
40. Slow sand filters are recognized for being superior technology for the
treatment of surface water sources by what organization?

a. WHO
b. United Nations
c. USEPA
d. All of the above

41. In the formation of biolayer, biofilm on the mineral particles are exactly the
same as the observed in trickling filters used for aerobic treatment of
wastewater.
a. True
b. False
c. Sometimes
d. Never

42. Slow sand filtration is a

a. Physical Process
b. Biological Process
c. Chemical Process
d. None of the above

43. It involves the removal of suspended and colloidal particles from the water by
passing it through a layer or bed of porous granular material such as sand.

a. Slow Sand Filtration

b. Rapid Sand Filtration
c. Filtration
d. Depth Filtration

44. When high organic waste load reaches an activated sludge plant, the
operators first indicator is a decrease in:

a. COD in plant influent

b. DO residual in the aeration tanks
c. floatables in the primary clarifiers
d. flow to the treatment plant
45. Which of the following organisms should not be present in a healthy lagoon
treatment system:

a. aerobic bacteria
b. anaerobic bacteria
c. algae
d. fungi
46. What is the purpose of heating and mixing a primary anaerobic digester:

a. to eliminate all oxygen present

b. to increase the digestion rate
 c. to keep methane gas in suspension
d. to prevent grit from settling to the bottom of the digester

47. Chlorine is primarily used to:

a. disinfect
b. prevent corrosion
c. raise pH
d. stabilize organics
48. Common hydraulic detention times for primary clarifiers range from:

a. 15 to 30min
b. .5 to 1hr
c. 2 to 3hrs
d. 4 to 5hrs
49. What organisms will be found in a balanced, good settling mixed liquor:

a. flagellate and amoeboid organisms

b. flagellates and free-swimming ciliates, but no stalked ciliates and rotifers
c. free swimming and stalked ciliate, some flagellates, and rotifers
d. nematodes, rotifers, ciliates, flagellates, and amoeboid
50. What should be an operators top priority when making operational
decisions?

a. protecting aquatic life

b. cleanup procedures
c. protecting the publics health
d. preventing odors

51. Jar tests may be used to determine the optimum dosage of:

a. polymer
b. BOD
c. oil and grease
d. volatile acids

52. the ash content remaining at the end of a VSS test is the same as the:

a. difference in raw sludge and the sludge after air drying

b. inorganic solids
c. organic solids
d. volatile solids

53. Which gas is produced in anaerobic digesters and can be used as a fuel:

a. propane
b. methane
c. ethane
d. carbon dioxide
54. Healthy mixed liquor in an activated sludge process should have what
appearance?

a. black with a gray foam

b. dark brown, covered with a greasy tan foam
c. light brown and frothy
d. gray with no foam of any kind

55. The time it takes for a unit volume of wastewater to pass entirely through a
primary clarifier is called:

a. detention time
b. hydraulic loading rate
c. overflow time
d. weir loading rate

56. The mechanism used to remove dewatered sludge from the belt of a belt
filter press is commonly referred to as a(n):

a. pressure belt
b. edge sensor
c. doctor blade
d. scum collector

57. The BOD laoding rate divided by the quantity of microorganisms present in
the biological reactors (aeration tanks) is known as:

a. organic loading
b. toxicity
c. hydraulic loading
d. food to microorganism ration F:M

58. The temperature of a drying oven used for TSS analysis must be kept at:

a. 104 1 F
b. 104 1 C
c. 180 2 C
d. 500 50 C

59. Which of the following is/are characteristic of an old sludge

a. Fast Settling c. Dense

b. Loose d. Both A & C

60. It is a biological solids which have settled in the secondary clarifier,

continuously
reverted to the aeration system.

a. Waste Activated Sludge c. Sludge Wasting

b. Returned Activated Sludge d. NOTA
61. It is the prefer temperature for Mesophilic microorganisms.

a.24 38 C c. 28 38 C
b.26 38 C d. 22 38 C

62. These are large organic molecules that are slightly soluble in water and cause
foaming in wastewater-treatment plants and in the surface waters into which
the waste effluent is discharged.

a. Carbohydrates c. Surfactants
b. Proteins d. FOG

63. What is BOD5/COD?

a. Biologically Index c. Biodegradability

Index
b. Biochemically Index d. NOTA

64. It is the amount of (dissolved) oxygen required to oxidize and stabilize

organic and inorganic content of the sample solution.

a. BOD c. ThOD
b. TOD d. COD

65. It is achieved under anaerobic condition in suspended or attached growth

reactors. Nitrite and nitrate are reduced to nitrogen gas by microorganisms.

a. Denitrification c. Nitrification
b. Nitrosomonas d. Euthrophication

66. It is achieved under anaerobic condition in suspended or attached growth

reactors. Nitrite and nitrate are reduced to nitrogen gas by microorganisms.

a. Denitrification c. Nitrification
b. Nitrosomonas d. Euthrophication

67. A fixed-bed, biological reactor that operates (mostly) at aerobic conditions.

Attached growth wastewater treatment process.

a. RBC c. MBBR
b. Trickling Filters d. STM Aerator

68. Activated Sludge process was developed in England in ______ by Adern &
Lockett

a. May 5, 1914 c. May 3, 1914

b. May 6, 1914 d. May 4, 1914
69. It is a process wherein microorganisms derive energy from carbonaceous
organic matter in aerated wastewater for the production of new cells.

a. Respiration c. Synthesis
b. Nitrification d. Eutrophication

70. A mixture of activated sludge and the wastewater in the aeration tank.

a. Mixed Liquor c. MLVSS

b. MLSS d. MCRT

71. It is the concentration of suspended solids in activated-sludge mixed liquor

expressed in mg/L.

a. Mixed Liquor c. MLVSS

b. MLSS d. MCRT

72. It is the fraction of the suspended solids in activated sludge mixed liquor that
can be driven off by combustion at 550 oC which indicates the concentration
of microorganism available for biological oxidation, expressed in mg/L.

a. Mixed Liquor c. MLVSS

b. MLSS d. MCRT

73. Type of mechanical aerators of which its oxygen is entrained from the
atmosphere.

a. Submerged Aerators c. Jet Aeration

b. Diffusers d. Surface Aerators

74. It is an aeration source that is designed to produce fine, medium, or coarse

(relatively large) bubbles.

a. Mechanical Aerators c. Jet Aeration

b. Diffusers d. Submerged Aerators

75. It is used to denote the organic matter or nutrients that are converted during
biological treatment or that may be limiting in biological treatments.

a. Surfactants c. Sludge
b. Substrate d. Slime

76. Nitrification process generally occurs when MCRT is ________

a. Increased c. Dispersed
b. Decreased d. Dissolved

77. It refers to all the chemical reactions occurring within a cell.

a. Anabolism c. Acclimation
b. Catabolism d. Metabolism
78. Any molecule that is a nutrient, an intermediary product, or an end product in
a metabolic reaction.

a. Metamorphic c. Metabolite
b. Zeolite d. Armalite

79. It involves breaking of bonds; whenever chemical bonds are broken, energy is
released.

a. Anabolism c. Acclimation
b. Catabolism d. Metabolism

80. It involves the creation of bonds; it takes energy to create chemical bonds.

a. Anabolism c. Acclimation
b. Catabolism d. Metabolism

81. Under catabolism, it is the reaction of larger molecules are broken down into
smaller molecules.

a. degradative c. metabolic
b. biosynthetic d. asymptotic

82. It is an organic catalysts produced by the living cell. They are proteins or
protein combined w/ organic or inorganic molecule.

a. zeolite c. enzyme
b. ammonia d. molecule

83. Food to microorganisms varies from _____ to _____

a. 0.02; 0.05 c. 0.05; 1.00

b. 0.03; 0.07 d. 0.04; 0.09

84. It is the accumulation of settled sludge in the clarifier. Ideally, it should be in

the lower quarter of clarifier.

a. Sludge Wasting c. Viscous Bulking

b. Sludge Bulking d. Sludge Blanket

85. In Settleability Testing, how many minutes of settling of a liter sample of

mixed liquor in a graduated cylinder.
a. 30 c. 15
b. 60 d. 45

86. For SVI > 150, which of the following are the expected condition/possible
indication

a. Old Solids c. Good settling

 b. Sludge bulking d. Normal Operation

87. In temperature, the rate of microorganism growth _________ every 10 oC

increase in temperature up to a limiting temperature.

a. once c. thrice
b. doubles d. below

88. A biological slime layer consisting of bacteria, inert material, etc.

a. Catalyst c. Zeolite
b. Biofilm d. Sludge

89. It is the phenomenon of losing the slime layer

a. Eutrophication c. Sloughing
b. Bulking d. Sliming

90. The following are advantages of trickling filters except

a. Low bio solids yield c. Simplicity of operation
b. Resistance to shock loads d. Odour production
91. It is a process that a biofilm grows in immobilized form on the surface of a
large number of closely spaced discs or inside corrugated packing units that
slowly rotate in a trough, partially immersed in liquid and partially in the air
space above the reactor.

a. RBC c. MBBR
b. SBR d. MBR

92. This refers to the amount of water entering the aeration tank. As the flow
increases, the
concentration of organics may decrease.

a. BOD load c. COD load

b. Hydraulic load d. Shock load

93. It is designed to remove grit, consisting of sand, gravel, cinders, or other

heavy solid materials that have subsiding velocities or specific gravities
substantially greater than those of the organic putrescible solids in
wastewater.

a. grit chamber b. screening

c. grinder d. comminutor

92. The following are objectives of the application of the grit chamber except

a. Protect moving mechanical equipment from abrasion/ accompanying

abnormal wear
b. Reduce formation of heavy deposits in pipelines, channels, and conduits
 c. Reduce the frequency of digester cleaning caused by excessive
accumulations of grit
d. None of the above

93. The process of removing pollutants and pathogens from wastewater,

discharging the water to the environment, and disposing of the byproducts of
the treatment process.

a. Wastewater control system

b. Wastewater softener
c. Wastewater decomposition
d. Wastewater treatment

94. is a measure of the amount of fatty matter from animal and vegetable sources
and hydrocarbons form petroleum products and waxes, such as from lotion,
shampoos, and tanning oils

a. Sewage
b. Sludge
c. Fats, Oils & Grease (FOG)
d. Scum

95. Portion of the wastewater stream that originates in sinks, tubs, showers,
laundry; i.e. all
portions excluding toilet wastes.

a. Blackwater
b. Greywater
c. Sludge
d. Scum

96. These are pond-like bodies of water or basins designed to receive, hold, and
treat wastewater for a predetermined period of time.

a. Aeration
b. Oxydation
c. Lagoons
d. Wetlands

97. What are wetlands?

a. habitats
b. lands that are often wet
c. homes to a variety of animals
d. all of the above

98. Hydrogen sulfide gives off an odor similar to

a. Ammonia.
b. Chlorine gas.
 c. Rotten eggs
d. Decayed wood

99. Measures the leaching effect of screenings

a. Paint Filter Test

b. Leachate Level Test
c. Azide Modification
d. Glass Electrode Method

100. Referring to animal glue

a. Flavorbacterium
b. Leptothrix
c. Zooglea
d. Slime

101. The total mass of microorganisms will slowly decrease as the cells use up all
their stored reserves and slowly begin to die

a. Lag phase
b. Log growth phase
c. Declining growth phase
d. Endogenous phase
102. The untreated wastewater or raw sewage coming into a wastewater
treatment plant

a. Effluent
b. Influent
c. Filtrate
d. Percolate

103. Calculating the SVI in the activated sludge process requires which
information?

a) Settleability and DO
b) Volatile Acids and Alkalinity
c) Settleability and mixed liquor suspended solids
d) Settleability and F:M ratio

104. The purpose of flow equalization in general is

a) Balance flows, dilute strong wastes and impound excessive flows

temporarily
b) Remove phosphorous
c) Neutralize strong acid wastes
d) Aerate the influent

105. If mixed liquor is black in color and the level of DO is extremely low, this
typically indicates that the mixed liquor is:
 a. healthy
b. recycling
c. septic
d. reversing

106. These are long chains of amino acids

a. Carbohydrates
b. Proteins
c. Surfactants
d. LAS

107. Which of the following are not classified as greese

a. Fat
b. Oil
c. Waxes
d. Nitrogen

108. The following aree not under wastewater preliminary treatment

a. Screening
b. Flow measurement
c. Grit removal
d. None of the above

109. For a fresh sewage to be stale, it requires ______ at temperature 20 degrees

C.

a. 24 to 48 hours
b. 2 to 6 hours
c. 12 to 24 hours
d. 15 to 20 hours

110. As defined in DAO 35, maximum COD value for NPI Class C is

a. 150
b. 120
c. 100
d. 30