Electrical-Electronics-Control Engineering

Assistant Engineer / OIC-EW

1. AC circuits can possess characteristics of resistance, inductance, and capacitance. In

terms of units of measure, how is the capacitive reactance of the circuit expressed?

o (a) farads
o (b) mhos
(c) ohms
o (d) henrys

2. The root mean square (RMS) value of a sine-wave current may also be expressed as
what value?

o (a) instantaneous value

(b) effective value
o (c) maximum value
o (d) average value

3. For the purpose of calculating apparent power, which of the following procedures should
be used to determine the total load current of a three-phase, delta wound, AC generator?

o (a) Divide the total amperage in all phases by three.

o (b) Divide the total amperage in all phases by the square root of three.
(c) Multiply the amperage in one phase by the square root of three.
o (d) Multiply the amperage in one phase by three.

4. If the voltage and the current developed in an AC circuit reach their peak values at the
same time (with a phase angle difference of zero), what is the power factor considered to be?

o (a) lagging
o (b) infinity
o (c) leading
(d) unity (1.0)

5. An accidental path of low resistance bypassing the intended path and allowing passage
of an abnormally high amount of current is known as what?

o (a) open circuit

o (b) polarized ground
(c) short circuit
o (d) ground reference point

6. In the flow of one cycle of single phase alternating current past any given point in a
circuit, how many times will the current peak to a maximum?

o (a) three times

o (b) four times
o (c) one time
(d) two times.

7. What is the opposition to the establishment of magnetic lines of force in a magnetic

circuit called?
(a) reluctance
o (b) inductance
o (c) resistance
o (d) impedance

8. In terms of load type, in what type of alternating current circuit will the voltage always
 lead the current?

o (a) capacitive circuit

o (b) resistive circuit
o (c) resistive-capacitive circuit
(d) inductive circuit

9. How may the unit "hertz" be best described?

o (a) revolutions per minute

(b) cycles per second
o (c) coulombs per second
o (d) revolutions per second

10. What will happen to an electrical coil when the direct current flowing through the coil is
increasing?

(a) the increasing current produces a voltage in opposition to the applied voltage
o (b) the increasing current reduces the power consumed
o (c) the increasing current reduces the amount of flux produced
o (d) the increasing current changes the coil's impedance

12. In a series circuit what is the total applied voltage equal to?

o (a) the total current divided by the total resistance

o (b) the sum of the individual currents multiplied by the number of resistors
o (c) the total resistance divided by the total current
(d) the sum of the individual voltage drops

13. In a series circuit, which value will remain unchanged at all places in the circuit?

o (a) Inductance
o (b) Voltage
(c) Current
o (d) Resistance

16. Four lamps are connected in series in a single circuit. If one of the lamp burns out, what
will happen to the other lamps?

o (a) become brighter

o (b) become dimmer
o (c) burn with their original intensities
(d) all go out

17. Which of the following statements concerning a circuit with parallel connected resistors is
correct?

(a) The voltage drop across each resistor is the same.

o (b) The total current flow equals the reciprocal of the sum of the individual currents.
o (c) The total voltage equals the sum of the individual voltages across each resistance.
o (d) The total resistance equals the sum of the individual resistances.

18. Which of the following statements is true concerning circuits with parallel connected
resistances?
(a) The total current flow equals the sum of the individual currents.
o (b) The total voltage equals the sum of the individual voltages across each resistance.
o (c) The total current flow equals the reciprocal of the sum of the individual currents.
o (d) The total resistance equals the sum of the individual resistance.
19. What statement is true concerning the total resistance of a parallel circuit?

o (a) The total resistance is equal to the sum of the individual branch resistances divided by the
number of branches.
o (b) The total resistance is larger than that of the branch with the greatest resistance.
(c) The total resistance is smaller than that of the branch with the lowest resistance.
o (d) The total resistance is equal to the sum of the individual branch resistances.

21. Four lamps are connected in parallel in a single circuit. If one of the lamp burns out, what
will happen to the other lamps?

o (a) become brighter

o (b) all go out
(c) burn with their original intensities
o (d) become dimmer

22. Which statement is true concerning the total power consumed in a parallel circuit?

o (a) The total power is always less than the power consumed by the smallest load.
(b) The total power is equal to the sum of the powers consumed by each individual load.
o (c) The total power is never more than the power consumed by the largest load.
o (d) The total power is the sum of the powers consumed by each load (resistor) divided by the
number of loads.

23. Which of the electrical properties listed will always be the same across each component
in a parallel circuit?

(a) Voltage
o (b) Resistance
o (c) Current
o (d) Impedance

24. What will happen to the total circuit resistance when additional parallel circuits are added
to a circuit?

o (a) it will increase, causing a decrease in the line voltage

o (b) it will decrease, causing an increase in the line voltage
o (c) it will increase, causing a drop in the total load current
(d) it will decrease, causing an increase in the total load current

26. In a simple DC circuit, the resistance is held constant while the applied voltage is halved.
What will be the effect on the current flow as compared to the original current?
o (a) be divided by four
o (b) remain the same
(c) be divided by two
o (d) double

27. An electrical component is connected across a 120 volt 60 hertz AC supply. What is the
current drawn by the component if the impedance is 200 ohms?
o (a) 0.01 amperes
(b) 0.60 amperes
o (c) 1.67 amperes
o (d) 100 amperes

28. In a 60 Hz AC system, what is the duration in seconds for one complete cycle?
o (a) 60 seconds
o (b) 6 seconds
o (c) 1 second
(d) .016 of a second

29. An AC generator produces 60 Hz at 1800 RPM. If the generator speed is increased to

1830 RPM, what will happen to the frequency in Hz?
 o (a) decrease to 59 Hz
o (b) remain at 60 Hz
(c) increase to 61 Hz
o (d) increase to 63 Hz

30. How is the power dissipated as heat in a direct current circuit calculated?

o (a) P divided by R
o (b) E divided by I
o (c) I times R divided by T
(d) I squared times R

31. A 125 volt DC motor is rated at 10 kW. What is the current rating of the motor?

o (a) 4.6 amps

o (b) 8.0 amps
o (c) 46.2 amps
(d) 80 amps

40. An AC circuit has a capacitive reactance of 30 ohms in addition to an inductive reactance

of 40 ohms connected in series. What is the total reactance of the circuit?

o (a) 8.37 ohms

(b) 10.00 ohms
o (c) 50.00 ohms
o (d) 70.00 ohms

41. Two 100 watt light bulbs rated at 100 volts are connected in parallel across a 100 volt
power supply. What will be the total power consumed by the two bulbs?

o (a) 50 watts
o (b) 66.7 watts
(c) 100 watts
o (d) 200 watts

42. If a circuit has resistances of 5, 10, and 20 ohms connected in parallel, what is the
combined total resistance of the circuit?

o (a) 1.5 ohms

(b) 2.9 ohms
o (c) 17.5 ohms
o (d) 35.0 ohms

58. A simple, untapped, single-phase 480/120 VAC step-down control transformer is rated at
600VA at 60 Hz. Neglecting power factor, what is the rated secondary load current?
o (a) 1.25 amperes
o (b) 4 amperes
(c) 5 amperes
o (d) 10 amperes

59. What would be the synchronous speed of an eight-pole three-phase squirrel-cage

induction motor operating at 60 Hz?
o (a) 875 rpm
(b) 900 rpm
o (c) 1725 rpm
o (d) 1800 rpm

60. What would be the synchronous speed of a 24-pole three-phase synchronous motor
 operating at 20 Hz?

o (a) 50 rpm
(b) 100 rpm
o (c) 200 rpm
o (d) 240 rpm

61. What would be the actual rotor speed for a 4-pole three-phase squirrel-cage induction
motor operating at 60 Hz if the rotor slip is 3%?
(a) 1746 rpm
o (b) 1793 rpm
o (c) 1800 rpm
o (d) 1854 rpm

62. If a 12-pole three-phase synchronous alternator is operating at 590 rpm, what will be its
output frequency?
o (a) 58 Hz
(b) 59 Hz
o (c) 60 Hz
o (d) 61 Hz

63. A six-pole three-phase squirrel-cage induction motor operating at 60 Hz is running at

1155 rpm. What is the percentage slip in this case?
o (a) 3.0 %
(b) 3.75 %
o (c) 4.25 %
o (d) 5.0 %

71. What is the shape of the schematic symbol for an operational amplifier used in an analog
circuit?

o (a) trapezoid
o (b) circle
o (c) square
(d) triangle.

79. What is the instrument called a galvanometer used to measure?

o (a) resistance of electrical wiring insulation

o (b) quantity of galvans in an electric circuit
(c) very small amounts of current
o (d) thickness of galvanized metal

80. What is an ohmmeter used to measure?

o (a) voltage between two points in a circuit

(b) circuit resistance
o (c) circuit power
o (d) the amount of current flow in a circuit

81. What practice could potentially damage a multimeter?

o (a) placing the test leads in series with the load of a circuit to measure current while in the
voltmeter mode
(b) placing the test leads across a voltage source to measure voltage while in the resistance
mode
o (c) placing the test leads across a de-energized and isolated resistance to measure resistance
while in the voltmeter mode
o (d) placing the test leads across a de-energized and isolated resistance to measure resistance
while in the ammeter mode

82. In what situation would an electrical phase sequence indicator be useful?

 o (a) preparing to parallel alternators
(b) connecting shore power lines to the ship
o (c) connecting lighting branch circuits
o (d) troubleshooting DC motors

83. An internal resistance is placed in series with the meter movement of which of the
following instruments?

o (a) AC frequency meter

o (b) AC ammeter
o (c) DC ammeter
(d) DC voltmeter

84. When a resistor is used as a shunt and is connected in parallel with a meter movement
coil, what capability does this provide?

o (a) a measurement of circuit resistance

o (b) an increased accuracy of approximately 1.5 percent
(c) an extended meter range
o (d) this is never done

85. Periodic testing using a special camera may be performed to detect potentially dangerous
loose or corroded bus bar and controller connections. What is the name of this testing technology?

o (a) corrosion electrolysis

o (b) electric vibroanalysis
(c) heat sensitive thermography
o (d) visual pyrotronics

86. What is an ammeter used to measure?

o (a) total or partial circuit resistance

(b) current flow in a circuit
o (c) the voltage between two points in a circuit
o (d) circuit continuity

87. Why are external shunts sometimes used with ammeters?

o (a) to reduce reactive power factor error

(b) to prevent damage to the meter movement from heat generated by the internal shunt
o (c) to permit shunts with larger resistances to be utilized
o (d) to increase meter sensitivity

88. How should the shunt used in an ammeter be connected?

o (a) in series with the load and in series with the meter movement
o (b) in parallel with the load and in series with the meter movement
(c) in series with the load and in parallel with the meter movement
o (d) in parallel with the load and in parallel with the meter movement

89. The clamp-on AC ammeter consists essentially of a split-core and a rectifier-type

instrument connected to the secondary winding of a particular type of transformer. Which type is
used?

o (a) control transformer

o (b) reactance transformer
(c) current transformer
o (d) potential transformer

90. (To properly use a clamp-on-type ammeter to check current flow, what must be done
FIRST?
 o (a) de-energize the circuit to allow connection of the instrument in series
o (b) short the test leads and calibrate the instrument to zero
o (c) connect the voltage test leads to the appropriate terminals
(d) hook the jaws of the instrument around the insulated single conductor

92. Which of the listed statements is correct when using an digital multimeter set up as an
ohmmeter?

o (a) With the test leads shorted together, a reading of 'OL' ohms will be displayed.
o (b) With the test leads apart insulated from each other, a reading of 'zero' ohms will be displayed.
o (c) It is usually not possible for a digital multimeter to be set up as an ohmmeter.
(d) With the test leads shorted together, a reading of 'zero' ohms will be displayed.

94. When testing a capacitor with an digital multimeter set up as an ohmmeter, what would
be the indication on the display when testing an initially discharged capacitor in good condition?

(a) the display would immediately show very low resistance but gradually climb to 'OL'
o (b) the display would immediately show very low resistance but rapidly climb to a slightly higher
value and remain there
o (c) the display would immediately show very low resistance and remain at this value
o (d) the display would immediately show 'OL' ohms and remain at this value

95. If a digital multimeter set up to measure AC volts reads slightly above 'zero' when its
leads are disconnected, what is this a result of?

o (a) capacitors inside the meter storing charges

(b) 'ghost' voltages due to electromagnetic energy in the air
o (c) definite miscalibration of the meter
o (d) a poor ground for the meter case

96. When compared to an electronic digital voltmeter, the main disadvantage of the Simpson
250 analog multimeter is which of the following?

o (a) Tends to "load" the circuit being tested.

o (b) Has a greater margin of error.
o (c) Has a less margin of error.
o (d) Tends to "unload" the circuit being tested.

97. In testing a hand cranked megger prior to use, what statement is true?

o (a) With the test leads shorted or open, the pointer should go to zero ohms.
o (b) With the test leads shorted or open, the pointer should go to infinite ohms.
(c) With the test leads shorted, the pointer should go to zero ohms, and with the tests leads open,
the pointer should go to infinite ohms.
o (d) With the test leads shorted, the pointer should go to infinite ohms, and with the tests leads
open, the pointer should go to zero ohms.

98. When a megohmmeter is being used to test insulation resistance, current leakage along
the surface of the insulation is indicated by a very specific megohmmeter pointer movement. What
would be the characteristic of the pointer movement under these conditions?

o (a) continually rising as the test voltage is applied

o (b) dipping towards 'zero', then rising slowly
o (c) fluctuating around a constant resistance reading
(d) kicking slightly downscale as voltage is applied
99. When a megohmmeter is used to test insulation, what condition causes the gradual rise
of the pointer reading as a result of continued cranking?

(a) the dielectric-absorption effect of the insulation

o (b) good conductor resistance
o (c) the inductive reactance of the windings
o (d) the leakage of current along the surface of dirty insulation

100. In which of the situations listed will a megohmmeter give the most accurate readings?

o (a) While the machine is in operation.

o (b) Immediately prior to restarting the machine.
o (c) While the machine is discharging static electricity.
(d) When the machine has been shut down and grounded for a period of 15 minutes.

102. What condition associated with a lead-acid battery cell can cause the plates to partially
short-out and cause the cell to fail to hold a charge.

o (a) dirty or acid-wet tops and sides of batteries

(b) accumulation of sediment within the cells due to excessive overcharging and discharging
o (c) sulfation of the plates due to consistent undercharging or leaving the battery in a discharged
state
o (d) lime accumulation on both the positive and negative terminal posts

103. When troubleshooting a lead-acid storage battery, what is the best method for
detecting a weak or dead cell?

(a) comparing the specific gravity of the electrolyte in each cell

o (b) taking an open circuit voltage test of individual cells
o (c) taking each cell's temperature with a calibrated mercury thermometer
o (d) visually inspecting the electrolyte levels of each cell

104. As the electrolyte level in the cells of a lead-acid battery evaporates over time, what
will tend to happen to the specific gravity of the electrolyte in the cells as the level drops due to
evaporation?

o (a) Although the specific gravity will change due to evaporation, there is no predictable tendency
either way.
o (b) The specific gravity of the electrolyte will decrease as only the sulfuric acid will evaporate from
the electrolyte solution.
o (c) The specific gravity of the electrolyte will remain unchanged as both the water and sulfuric
acid will evaporate from the electrolyte solution.
(d) The specific gravity of the electrolyte will increase as only the water will evaporate from the
electrolyte solution.

105. What could prevent a lead-acid battery from accepting a full charge?

o (a) Attempting to force charging current into the battery in the opposite direction to that which
occurs during discharge.
o (b) Topping off low electrolyte levels (due to evaporation) with distilled water.
(c) Leaving the battery in a discharged condition for a great length of time.
o (d) Coating terminal posts with an anti-oxidant grease approved for battery use.

106. To determine the state of charge of a nickel-cadmium wet-cell storage battery during
charging and discharging, what is the most reliable method?

o (a) Checking the electrolyte level in the cells.

o (b) Measuring the voltage across the cells.
(c) Checking the electrolyte specific gravity in the cells.
o (d) Measuring the battery current.
107. The leads from a ohmmeter are attached to the leads of the opposite ends of an AC
motor stator field coil. If a reading of infinity is obtained, what does this indicate?

o (a) grounded field coil

o (b) shunted field coil
o (c) shorted field coil
(d) open field coil

108. A split-phase induction squirrel-cage motor will not start and come up to speed, even
though the rated voltage, rated frequency, and rated load are applied. Which of the following
troubles would be suspected?

o (a) a shorted rotor bar

o (b) a shorted centrifugal switch
o (c) a shorted thermal protector
(d) an open run or start winding

110. Grounds occurring in electrical machinery as a result of insulation failure may result
from deterioration over time and excessive heat. What could be another contributing cause?

(a) extended periods of vibration

o (b) extended operation at normal loads
o (c) extended periods of operation at low ambient temperature
o (d) extended periods of operation at low load

111. A lightly loaded three-phase squirrel-cage induction motor, while running, begins to
vibrate excessively but continues to run. After shutting down the motor, the motor will not restart, but
makes growling noises, overheats, and smokes. What caused this?

o (a) The motor tripped-out on under load.

o (b) The branch circuit breaker tripped open.
o (c) The source voltage or frequency was too low.
(d) One of the lines feeding the motor has an open phase, resulting in single-phasing.

112. What would excessive sparking at the brushes of a running DC motor be an indication of?

o (a) water vapor absorption

o (b) normal operation
(c) a dirty commutator
o (d) increased brush capacity

113. If a D.C. motor hums, but does not run when energized, which of the listed conditions
could exist?
o (a) No load on the motor
o (b) Blown fuse or tripped circuit breaker
(c) Tight bearings/frozen shaft
o (d) Tripped overload

114. Besides checking for grounds, for what other purpose can a megohmmeter be used
on a DC motor?
o (a) checking for undercut mica
o (b) checking for a shorted field pole
(c) checking for an open field coil
o (d) checking for reversed interpole polarity

115. What is the most effective method of locating a loose commutator bar in a D.C. motor?
(a) sounding each bar with a light weight hammer
o (b) visual inspection
o (c) checking with a calibrated torque wrench
o (d) jiggling each by hand
116. How may temporary repairs to an open DC propulsion armature coil be made, allowing
continued operation until permanent repairs can be made?
(a) disconnecting coil ends, insulating each, and short circuiting the two commutator bars
o (b) connecting the coil ends directly to a pair of negative brushes
o (c) grounding the coil ends and short circuiting the commutator bar
o (d) removing the sparking brushes

117. When using a megohmmeter to determine which shunt field coil is grounded in a DC
machine, what must you do?
o (a) use a motor driven high capacity megohmmeter
o (b) insulate the field frame from the ship's hull
o (c) remove all main line lead connections before testing
(d) disconnect each shunt field coil before testing

118. What can be the cause of excessive heat or burning contacts in an operating motor
controller?
o (a) low motor starting torque
o (b) burned out operating coil
o (c) high ambient temperature
(d) loose connections or low contact pressure

124. If a shipboard AC generator experiences a failure to produce a voltage, what may be

the cause?

o (a) excessive locked-rotor current

o (b) a rotating slip ring
(c) an open in the rotor field circuit
o (d) the brushes shifting out of the neutral plane

125. How can the loss of residual magnetism in an alternator or generator be corrected?

o (a) allowing the generator to run at 10% of normal speed for 5 minutes
o (b) running the rotor in the opposite direction for 5 minutes
(c) using a storage battery or battery charger to 'flash' the field
o (d) running the generator at normal speed with the field rheostat fully counterclockwise

128. What may cause brush sparking in a DC generator during commutation?

o (a) eddy currents in the armature core

o (b) hysteresis in the armature core
o (c) excessive brush pressure
(d) misalignment of the brush rigging

129. Hysteresis is one cause of electrical power loss associated with electricity generation
equipment. What phenomenon results in hysteresis?

(a) heat generated by magnetic polarity reversals

o (b) excessive field current
o (c) pulsating terminal current
o (d) arcing at the brushes

130. What can cause uneven wear of the commutator surface on a direct current generator?

o (a) rapid change in load

o (b) excessive operation at light load
o (c) unequal pole spacing
(d) incorrect brush staggering
131. If a self-excited DC generator running at rated speed fails to deliver an output voltage,
which of the following conditions may be a cause of this difficulty?
o (a) Excessive residual magnetism.
(b) An open shunt-field circuit.
o (c) Excessive brush pressure.
o (d) A shorted shunt-field circuit.

133. The ground indicating light on the main electrical switchboard is indicating a ground.
What is the best procedure for locating the grounded circuit?
(a) open the circuit breakers on the distribution panel, one at a time, until the lights no longer
indicate a ground
o (b) trace the circuit paths while looking for burned spots
o (c) check circuit resistances with a megohmmeter connected between the grounded line and the
distribution panel framework

135. In an ungrounded distribution system, as compared to a normal indication, what is the

indication on a switchboard of a current carrying conductor making an accidental electrical contact
with a wiring metal conduit?
o (a) lower switchboard wattmeter reading than normal
(b) totally darkened switchboard ground-detecting light
o (c) higher switchboard voltmeter reading than normal
o (d) reading of 1.0 on the power factor meter
.
141. What effect will increasing the power source frequency have in a capacitive circuit?

o (a) it will not have any effect on the average current value
o (b) it will decrease the average current in the circuit
(c) it will increase the average current in the circuit
o (d) it will not have any effect on the capacitive reactance

142. Which of the procedures or conditions listed could result in damaging a transistor
beyond repair?

o (a) Installing a transistor whose current rating exceeds the design circuit current.
o (b) Applying silicone grease between the heat sink and the transistor mounting.
o (c) Providing insufficient voltage to the input circuit.
(d) Providing incorrect polarity to the collector circuit.

145. When troubleshooting most electronic circuits, what voltmeter characteristic can
minimize the 'loading effect'?

(a) input impedance much greater than the impedance across which the voltage is being
measured
o (b) sensitivity of more than 1000 volts/ohm
o (c) input impedance much less than the impedance across which the voltage is being measured
o (d) sensitivity of less than 1000 ohms/volt

146. Normally, what is the FIRST step in troubleshooting a transistor mounted on a circuit
card?

o (a) carefully remove the transistors from the card

(b) visually inspect the card
o (c) give the circuit an initial test with a signal generator
o (d) test for continuity with a low voltage DC supply

147. If both the 'high level' and 'low level' alarms come on for the same address of a
centralized control console, what is the most likely failure?

o (a) low level

(b) sensor failure
o (c) failed alarm
o (d) extremely high level
148. A full-wave rectifier has one diode burned out in an open condition, what will be the
output characteristic of the device?

(a) Half-wave rectified

o (b) Zero
o (c) Equal to the AC input
o (d) Full-wave rectified

149. When troubleshooting an electronic circuit, an unreliable high resistance "cold" solder
joint can be located with the aid of an ohmmeter. Once the problem has been located, what should
be done?

(a) reheat connection with a soldering tool and recheck with an ohmmeter
o (b) do nothing as this is the normal condition
o (c) reheat the circuit in an oven to an even temperature and recheck with an ohmmeter
o (d) reheat the connection with a match and recheck with an ohmmeter

150. On a vessel with turbo-electric drive, which of the following conditions would indicate
that the propulsion motor had dropped out of synchronization with the propulsion generator?

o (a) Closed contact in the field circuits

(b) Excessive vibration of the vessel
o (c) Overheated crosstie busses
o (d) Tripped main motor interlocks

151. In addition to improper brush pressure or seating, what can result in excessive
sparking at the brushes of a DC propulsion motor?

o (a) operating at continuously varying loads such as during maneuvering

o (b) reversed armature polarity with respect to the field
o (c) reversed main field polarity with respect to the armature
(d) improper positioning of brush rigging outside the neutral plane

152. While standing an "at sea watch" onboard a modern rectified DC diesel-electric drive
ship you notice the transformer core temperature slowly rising. What should be your FIRST action?

(a) check the transformer ventilation fans for proper operation

o (b) reduce load by tripping lighting circuits
o (c) send the oiler to look for fires in the transformer
o (d) notify the bridge that you need to slow down

156. Which of the following conditions will occur if the brake solenoid coil burns out on a
cargo winch with an electrical brake?

o (a) The load suspended from the cargo boom will fall.
o (b) Nothing will happen; the winch will continue to operate as usual.
(c) The brake will be set by spring force.
o (d) The motor will over speed and burn up.

160. An open primary coil in a simple potential transformer will be indicated by which of
the listed conditions?
o (a) An infinite resistance value on the secondary coil.
o (b) Overloaded secondary coil.
o (c) Low resistance value on the primary coil.
(d) No voltage on the output of the secondary coil.

164. What is true concerning the installation of batteries used for diesel engine starting?
(a) be located as close as possible to the engine
o (b) be located in a locker on the weather deck
o (c) only be of the nickel alkaline type
o (d) have sufficient capacity to provide at least 50 starts consecutively without recharging
167. Why should battery rooms we well ventilated during the charging of storage batteries?
o (a) without ventilation the battery will not take a full charge
o (b) without ventilation excessive gassing will occur
(c) highly explosive gases will otherwise accumulate
o (d) highly poisonous gases are released

168. Which of the following procedures represents the best method to prevent the freezing
of batteries continuously exposed to low temperatures?
o (a) The battery cap vents should be sealed.
o (b) The battery caps should be removed.
o (c) The battery should be disconnected from its charging source.
(d) The battery should be kept in a fully charged condition.

169. Which of the following statements describes the effects of ambient temperature on
local action within lead-acid storage batteries?

o (a) At 90F all local action virtually ceases.

o (b) Increasing ambient temperature decreases local action.
o (c) Ambient temperature has no effect on local action.
(d) Increasing ambient temperature increases local action.

171. What is the nominal open-circuit cell voltage of one lead-acid storage battery cell?

o (a) 1.2 volts

(b) 2 volts
o (c) 6 volts
o (d) 12 volts

172. To keep emergency lead-acid batteries in a full state of charge for emergency use,
what is normally done?

o (a) Batteries are kept charged by performing an equalizing charge daily.

(b) Batteries are kept charged by maintaining a continuous trickle charge.
o (c) Batteries are kept charged by maintaining the maximum charging rate.
o (d) Batteries are kept charged by cycling through discharge and charge cycles daily.

173. Assuming that the electrolyte has had sufficient time to be uniformly diffused
throughout the cell, if the open-circuit cell voltage as measured by a digital multimeter is 2.12, what
would be the approximate specific gravity?

o (a) 1.260
o (b) 1.270
(c) 1.280
o (d) 1.290

174. The nominal voltage of one cell of a wet cell nickel-cadmium battery is approximately
how many volts?

(a) 1.2 volts

o (b) 1.5 volts
o (c) 2.0 volts
o (d) 3.0 volts

175. Why are nickel-cadmium batteries superior to lead-acid batteries for standby service?

(a) they are able to hold their charge for long periods of time without recharging
o (b) they need fewer cells connected in series for the same voltage and require less mounting
space
o (c) the have higher output voltages for the same number of cells and require no maintenance
o (d) they have a lower cost of acquisition
176. What is the approximate discharge voltage produced by one cell of a wet type nickel-
cadmium battery at 75% of charge?

(a) 1.2 volts

o (b) 1.5 volts
o (c) 2.2 volts
o (d) 6.0 volts

177. What material are the plates of a wet cell NiCad storage battery made of?

o (a) lead and lead peroxide

o (b) potassium hydroxide with a small amount of sulfuric acid
(c) nickel hydroxide and cadmium oxide
o (d) silver oxide and lead sulfate

178. What is the most reliable and preferred method for determining the state of charge of a
wet-cell NiCad battery?

o (a) Measuring the specific gravity of each cell with a hydrometer.

(b) Measuring the battery voltage with a digital voltmeter during charge or discharge.
o (c) Measuring the battery voltage with a solenoid type voltage tester during charge or discharge.
o (d) Measuring the temperature-corrected specific gravity of each cell with a hydrometer and
thermometer.

180. What will be the impact of reduced voltage applied to a motor during the starting
period?

o (a) increase the starting current and decrease the acceleration time
o (b) decrease the starting current and decrease the acceleration time
o (c) increase the starting current and increase the acceleration time
(d) decrease the starting current and increase the acceleration time

182. What is he most practical method of controlling the RPM of a multi-speed AC motor
operating at a constant frequency?
(a) change the number of operating poles
o (b) change the input voltage
o (c) change the power factor
o (d) change the number of brushes

184. Regarding an induction motor, what does the power developed by the rotor
automatically adjust itself to?

o (a) speed required to drive the load

o (b) torque developed by the rotating field
(c) power required to drive the load
o (d) current flow in the motor stator

186. Which type of AC single-phase motor will also operate on direct current?

(a) Series-wound
o (b) Repulsion-start
o (c) Shaded-pole
o (d) Split-phase

187. What is the main function in the use of a capacitor for starting a single phase motor?
o (a) Prolong the life of the starting contacts
o (b) Reduce the phase angle
o (c) Reduce radio interference
(d) Split the phase to create greater starting torque
189. What is the main purpose of the auxiliary winding on a split-phase, single-phase
motor?

(a) provide starting torque

o (b) keep the motor running in the event the main winding should fail
o (c) increase the starting current
o (d) limit the starting voltage

190. What type of rotor is most commonly used in the split-phase family of single-phase
motors?

o (a) Drum
(b) Squirrel-cage
o (c) Salient pole
o (d) Wound-rotor.

193. Which statement is true concerning a split-phase induction motor?

o (a) Motor speed can be readily adjusted from zero to full speed.
(b) Motor rotation can be reversed by reversing the leads on the starting winding.
o (c) Motor rotation can be reversed without changing the windings or leads.
o (d) The motor will run as a generator with the proper wiring.

194. A shaded-pole motor is a specific type of motor included in what class of motor?

o (a) polyphase synchronous motor

(b) single-phase induction motor
o (c) DC compound-wound motor
o (d) three-phase induction motor

196. Which of the listed motors will operate at the highest RPM, assuming that each
operates at the same frequency?

o (a) A four-pole induction motor under no load.

(b) A four-pole synchronous motor under normal load.
o (c) A six-pole induction motor under full load.
o (d) A six-pole synchronous motor under normal load.

198. How is the difference between the synchronous speed of a three phase induction
motor and its operating speed correctly expressed?

(a) slip
o (b) a percent of full load speed
o (c) deviation
o (d) a decimal fraction of full load speed

200. In a three-phase, squirrel-cage type, induction motor, how is the primary rotating
magnetic field established?

o (a) current induced in the rotor windings

o (b) laminated steel core and aluminum conductors in the rotor
o (c) interaction of the magnetic field caused by the induced current in the squirrel-cage bars with
the magnetic field of the stator
(d) application of a three-phase voltage supply to the stator windings

202. What is the characteristic of a wound-rotor induction motor, with a high resistance
inserted in series with the rotor winding at startup?
o (a) relatively low starting torque and low stator current
o (b) relatively low starting torque and high stator current
o (c) relatively high starting torque and high stator current
(d) relatively high starting torque and low stator current
204. (2.1.7.4-2) What type of AC motor would use a rheostat in the rotor circuit to vary the speed of the
motor?
o (a) synchronous motor
o (b) regenerative braking motor
o (c) squirrel-cage induction motor
(d) wound-rotor induction motor

205. A degree of control over the speed of a slip ring induction motor can be obtained by
what means?

o (a) inserting resistance into the stator circuit

o (b) adjusting governor linkage
(c) inserting resistance into the rotor circuit
o (d) changing the number of phases to the motor

206. Which of the following physical characteristics does a three-phase wound-rotor

induction motor possess that a squirrel cage induction motor does not?

(a) Slip rings

o (b) A centrifugal switch
o (c) Compensating windings
o (d) A commutator

207. By what means is a synchronous motor started and brought nearly to synchronous
speed?

o (a) By the use of compensating windings, also known as starting windings.

o (b) By the use of starting capacitors, also known as condensers.
(c) By the use of a squirrel-cage induction winding, also called an amortisseur winding.
o (d) By the use of interpoles, also known as commutating poles.

208. Concerning the operating characteristics of a synchronous motor, what statement is

true?

o (a) The synchronous motor initially starts as a synchronous motor and when it approaches
synchronous speed, the motor continues to run as a synchronous motor.
o (b) The synchronous motor initially starts as a synchronous motor and when it approaches
synchronous speed, the motor then runs as an induction motor.
o (c) The synchronous motor initially starts as an induction motor and when it approaches
synchronous speed, the motor continues to run as an induction motor.
(d) The synchronous motor initially starts as an induction motor and when it approaches
synchronous speed, the motor then runs as a synchronous motor.

209. Assuming that a three phase synchronous motor is separately excited, what statement
is true concerning power supplies?
o (a) The rotor windings via slip rings and brushes are connected to a three phase AC power
source, and the stator winding is directly connected to a DC power source.
o (b) The rotor winding via slip rings and brushes is connected to a single phase AC power source,
and the stator winding is directly connected to a three phase AC power source.
(c) The rotor winding via slip rings and brushes is connected to a DC power source, and the
stator windings are directly connected to a three phase AC power source.
o (d) The rotor winding via slip rings and brushes is connected to a three phase AC power source,
and the stator winding is directly connected to a single phase AC power source.

210. Occasionally a synchronous motor is configured without an external shaft to drive a

load. In this case, the sole purpose of the synchronous motor is improving overall power factor of an
electrical distribution system. What is the name of the synchronous motor so constructed?

o (a) Synchronous compensator

o (b) Motor-generator
o (c) Synchronous converter
(d) Synchronous condenser
211. Not only can a synchronous motor drive a load with greater efficiency than an
induction motor, a fringe benefit of the synchronous motor is the ability for power factor correction.
What statement is true?

o (a) If the overall plant has a lagging power factor, the synchronous motor is over-excited.
o (b) If the overall plant has a lagging power factor, the synchronous motor is normally-excited.
(c) If the overall plant has a unity power factor, the synchronous motor is normally-excited.
o (d) If the overall plant has a leading power factor, the synchronous motor is under-excited.

212. In terms of voltage potential and current sources, how are shunt wound, series wound,
and compound wound DC motors designed to operate?

o (a) variable potential, variable current DC sources

(b) constant potential, variable current DC sources
o (c) constant potential, constant current DC sources
o (d) variable potential, constant current DC sources

213. How can the direction of rotation of a DC motor be reversed?

o (a) wiring the field and armature in series

(b) reversing the field or armature connections
o (c) reversing both the field and the armature connections
o (d) wiring the field and armature in parallel

215. From the instant of start-up, through the acceleration period, and until the motor
reaches rated speed, when is the counter EMF produced in the windings of a DC motor 'zero'?

o (a) motor is at rated speed

(b) armature is not yet turning
o (c) armature has just begun to turn
o (d) motor is almost up to rated speed

216. Which of the following statements describes what will happen when both the polarity of
the field poles, and the direction of current to the brushes of a DC motor are reversed?

o (a) The direction of rotation of the armature will be reversed.

(b) The direction of rotation of the armature will remain the same.
o (c) The motor will not start.
o (d) The field pole windings will become overheated.

218. If a DC motor has its armature and field connected across a resistor when the motor is
disconnected from its power supply, what statement is true?
o (a) The motor has the proper connections for across the line starting.
o (b) The motor has the proper connections for an automatic strip heater.
o (c) The motor is set up for a reversing controller circuit.
(d) The motor will slow down by the process of dynamic braking.

219. What is an advantage of DC motors over AC motors?

o (a) DC motors can be started across the line whereas AC motors cannot
(b) DC motors offer a more effective means of controlling speed than AC motors
o (c) DC motors require less maintenance than AC motors
o (d) DC motors are less expensive than AC motors

220. The torque produced by a DC motor armature is the multiplication product of two
factors, one being the density of the magnetic flux which is dependent upon the field current. What is
the other multiplication factor?
o (a) armature resistance
o (b) armature voltage drop
o (c) armature conductance
(d) armature current
223. Which of the following types of DC motors is considered to produce the highest
starting torque?

o (a) cumulative-compound wound

(b) series wound
o (c) shunt wound
o (d) differential-compound wound

224. In a series wound motor, the current passing through the field windings also passes
through what component?

o (a) reactance comparator

(b) armature
o (c) shunt field
o (d) laminations

225. How is the speed of a series wound winch motor controlled?

o (a) over current protection devices in the motor

o (b) the weight of the load on the cargo boom
(c) varying the voltage applied to the motor
o (d) a hydraulic speed-limiting governor

226. What type of DC motor is never connected to a belt driven load?

o (a) compound wound

o (b) shunt wound
o (c) permanent magnet
(d) series wound

227. What type of DC motor has extremely high starting torque, but has poor inherent
speed regulation?

o (a) compound wound

o (b) permanent magnet
o (c) shunt wound
(d) series wound

229. What type of DC motor has relatively low starting torque, but has excellent inherent
speed regulation?

o (a) series wound

o (b) compound wound
o (c) permanent magnet
(d) shunt wound

230. In a shunt wound DC motor, how is the shunt field connected?

o (a) The shunt field is wired in series with the armature, but in parallel with the commutating and
compensating windings.
(b) The shunt field is wired in parallel with the armature circuit, including armature, commutating,
and compensating windings.
o (c) The shunt field is wired in series with the armature circuit, including armature, commutating,
and compensating windings.
o (d) The shunt field is wired in parallel with the armature, but in series with the commutating and
compensating windings.

231. What are the characteristics of the field winding of a shunt wound motor?
(a) The shunt-field coils are wound with many turns of very fine wire.
o (b) The shunt-field coils are wound with only a few turns of very fine wire.
o (c) The shunt-field coils are wound with only a few turns of very heavy wire.
o (d) The shunt-field coils are wound with many turns of very heavy wire.
233. What statement is true concerning speed control of a shunt wound DC motor?

o (a) For armature rheostat control, the greater the resistance the lower the motor speed. For field
rheostat control, the greater the resistance the lower the motor speed.
o (b) For armature rheostat control, the greater the resistance the higher the motor speed. For field
rheostat control, the greater the resistance the higher the motor speed.
(c) For armature rheostat control, the greater the resistance the lower the motor speed. For field
rheostat control, the greater the resistance the higher the motor speed.
o (d) For armature rheostat control, the greater the resistance the higher the motor speed. For field
rheostat control, the greater the resistance the lower the motor speed.

235. Which of the listed DC compound motor connection schemes is the most commonly
used?

o (a) differentially compounded long-shunt

(b) cumulatively compounded long-shunt
o (c) differentially compounded short-shunt
o (d) cumulatively compounded short-shunt

236. When a compound wound DC motor is cumulatively compounded, what does this
mean?

o (a) The current flow direction in each series-field coil is in the opposite direction as the current
flow direction in its corresponding shunt-field coil, in which case the field fluxes are additive.
o (b) The current flow direction in each series-field coil is in the opposite direction as the current
flow direction in its corresponding shunt-field coil, in which case the field fluxes are subtractive. o
(c) The current flow direction in each series-field coil is in the same direction as the current flow
direction in its corresponding shunt-field coil, in which case the field fluxes are subtractive.
(d) The current flow direction in each series-field coil is in the same direction as the current flow
direction in its corresponding shunt-field coil, in which case the field fluxes are additive.

237. When a compound wound DC motor is differentially compounded, what does this
mean?

o (a) The current flow direction in each series-field coil is in the same direction as the current flow
direction in its corresponding shunt-field coil, in which case the field fluxes are additive.
o (b) The current flow direction in each series-field coil is in the same direction as the current flow
direction in its corresponding shunt-field coil, in which case the field fluxes are subtractive.
(c) The current flow direction in each series-field coil is in the opposite direction as the current
flow direction in its corresponding shunt-field coil, in which case the field fluxes are subtractive.
o (d) The current flow direction in each series-field coil is in the opposite direction as the current
flow direction in its corresponding shunt-field coil, in which case the field fluxes are additive.

238. Assuming that a cumulatively compounded DC motor is fitted with interpoles and
compensating windings, normally how is the direction of rotation in such a DC motor reversed?

o (a) By reversing the armature winding leads.

(b) By reversing the armature-interpole-compensating winding leads as a unit.
o (c) By reversing the series field winding leads.
o (d) By reversing the shunt field winding leads.

239. What is the purpose of an electro-magnetic relay?

o (a) provide over current protection during starting

o (b) relay voltages at increased power
(c) remotely open and close contacts by action of a coil
o (d) open a circuit only in the event of overload
240. Which of the following statements represents the main difference between a relay and
a contactor?

(a) Contactors contacts can handle heavier loads than relay contacts. .
o (b) Contactors are made from silver and relays are made from copper.
o (c) A relay is series connected and a contactor is parallel connected.
o (d) Contactors control current and relays control voltage.

241. What is the functional name of an electrical device which prevents simultaneous
energization of loads thereby preventing damage or injury?

o (a) monitoring device

(b) electrical interlock device
o (c) modulating device
o (d) mechanical limit device

243. What is one function of the movable cams in a drum-type winch motor controller?

o (a) limit the amount of load put on the motor

(b) regulate the speed of the motor
o (c) maintain resistance contacts in clean condition
o (d) insulate the operating handle

244. What is the name of the type of motor control circuit that will not permit automatic
restarting after power is restored, following a power failure?

(a) low voltage protection

o (b) overload lockout
o (c) reduced voltage restart
o (d) low voltage release

247. With what kind of starting equipment are most three-phase induction motors of five
horsepower or less started?

(a) across-the-line starters

o (b) resistor starters
o (c) autotransformer starters
o (d) reactor starters

255. Auto-transformer starters, sometimes called starting compensators, are sometimes

used with larger polyphase induction motors. What function do they perform?

o (a) they allow the voltage to be either stepped up or down, depending on the application, to
ensure full torque
o (b) they provide a backup means of voltage regulation for emergency starting
o (c) they increase the voltage for 'across-the-line starting'
(d) they reduce the voltage applied to the motor during the starting period

256. In general, what type of starter would be used to connect polyphase induction motors
to full line voltage at the instant of start-up?
(a) across-the-line starters
o (b) compensator starters
o (c) primary-resistor starters
o (d) auto-transformer starters

260. By what means is the burning of controller contacts due to arcing, when opening,
prevented?
o (a) coating the contact surfaces lightly with petroleum jelly
o (b) an overvoltage release
(c) magnetic blowout coils
o (d) an over current release
265. Which of the following statements about a three-phase wye connected alternator is
correct?

(a) The line voltage is 1.73 times the phase voltage.

o (b) The phase current is 1.73 times the line current.
o (c) The phase voltage is 1.73 times the line voltage.
o (d) The line current is 1.73 times the phase current.

266. Of the listed factors that influence the amount of RMS voltage induced in the
windings of an AC generator operating at a constant 60 Hz frequency, which factor is variable during
generator operation?

o (a) the number of armature coil turns in series per winding

(b) the strength of the rotating magnetic field
o (c) the rotational speed at which the magnetic field passes across the stator winding
o (d) the number of field coil turns in series per winding

267. If the driving torque, such as that produced by a diesel engine, creates pulsations
when coupled with a synchronous generator operating in parallel, the generator rotor may be
periodically pulled ahead or behind its normal position as it rotates. How can this condition called
hunting be reduced?

(a) by the use of amortisseur windings

o (b) by decreasing governor speed droop
o (c) by direct coupling
o (d) by increasing governor speed droop

268. How are AC and DC generators are similar?

o (a) They both internally produce three-phase power.

o (b) They both rectify the current before delivery.
o (c) They are both constructed at the same physical size for the same kilowatt rating
(d) They both internally generate alternating current voltages.

269. A DC generator which is used to supply direct current in order to provide magnetizing
current to an AC generator field is commonly known as what?

o (a) armature
(b) exciter
o (c) stator
o (d) rotor

271. Which of the methods listed below is used to provide the rotational torque to cause
an AC generator to turn?

o (a) Residual magnetism remaining in the field.

(b) Starting of the prime mover.
o (c) Providing current to the field from an external source.
o (d) Residual magnetism remaining in the armature.

272. How will the value of the output frequency change if the load is removed from a turbo
generator having a governor speed droop setting of 3%?

o (a) It will become variable.

(b) It will increase.
o (c) It will decrease by approximately 3%.
o (d) It will remain unchanged.
274. Two AC generators are operating in parallel and both are equipped with automatic
voltage regulators. While standing watch, one generator is noted as having a greater lagging kvar
value. In order to equalize the kvars between the generators manually, what should be done?

o (a) increase the voltage of the generator with the largest kvar while decreasing the other
generator voltage
o (b) increase the speed of the generator with the largest kvar while decreasing the other generator
speed
(c) decrease the voltage of the generator with the largest kvar while increasing the other
generator voltage
o (d) decrease the speed of the generator with the largest kvar while increasing the other generator
speed

275. When paralleling two alternators the synchronizing lamps grow dim and are totally
darkened as the synchroscope pointer approaches the 0 position. What does this indicate?

o (a) the alternator voltages are 180 apart

(b) the incoming alternator is in synchronism with the bus
o (c) the incoming alternator is running too fast
o (d) the synchroscope pointer is defective or broken

276. While paralleling two (2) AC generators using synchronizing lamps only, when will
both lamps will go dark?

(a) when the generators are in synchronism

o (b) when the generators are running at the same speed
o (c) when the generators are out of synchronism
o (d) when the generators are running at different speeds

277. Diesel generators #1 and #2 are operating in parallel at near full load capacity. Diesel
generator #1 suddenly trips out mechanically due to low lube oil pressure. The reverse power relay
functions properly and trips generator #1 electrically off the board. Which of the following actions
should you carry out FIRST?

(a) Strip the board of all nonvital circuits.

o (b) Secure alarms, reset reverse power relay, and restart #1 engine.
o (c) Ascertain cause of the low lube oil pressure.
o (d) Start the emergency generator.

278. When shore power is being connected to a ship in dry dock, what must be ensured,
assuming that the ship's generators are rated at 450 VAC, 60Hz with a total capacity of 5000 kW?

o (a) shore power must be capable of delivering a total of 5000 kW

o (b) exactly 60 Hz must be supplied from shore, as no tolerance is permitted
(c) shore power phase sequence must agree with that of the ship
o (d) exactly 450 volts must be supplied from shore, as no tolerance is permitted

279. Upon failure of the normal power supply, by what means is the emergency generator
placed on the line and connected to the emergency bus?

o (a) bus tie feeder

o (b) line connection feeder
o (c) power failure alarm bus
(d) automatic bus transfer device

280. By what means is an AC generator prevented from becoming motorized?

o (a) over speed trip
(b) reverse power relay
o (c) governor controls
o (d) back pressure trip
282. What is the purpose of the commutator and brushes on a DC generator?

o (a) provide a sliding contact method to excite the field

o (b) transfer generated direct current voltage from the armature to the line
(c) convert the alternating current voltage generated within the armature to a direct current
voltage
o (d) reduce sparking between the armature and the carbon brushes

283. Why are armature cores in a DC generator made of laminated steel sheets?

o (a) allow for easy assembly

o (b) increase the hysteresis effect
(c) reduce eddy current losses
o (d) fit the curvature of the frame

284. How are the field windings of a DC shunt generator connected?

o (a) in series with the series windings

(b) in parallel with the armature windings
o (c) in series with the armature windings
o (d) in parallel with the field rheostat

287. What two factors determine the magnitude of the generated voltage of a DC
generator?

(a) The rotational speed of the armature and the magnetic strength of the field flux.
o (b) The armature current draw and the magnetic strength of the field flux.
o (c) The rotational speed of the field and the magnetic strength of the armature flux.
o (d) The rotational speed of the armature and the armature current draw.

288. For the purposes of generating a DC voltage, which of the following factors is subject
to vary for a particular generator installation while in operation?

o (a) The number of field poles.

(b) The magnetic strength of the field flux.
o (c) The arrangement of the armature windings.
o (d) The number of armature coils.

289. What statement is true concerning the use of commutating poles (also known as
interpoles) in DC generators?

o (a) These large poles are placed in the magnetic neutral plane between the main field poles and
are designed to eliminate or reduce sparking caused by inductance of the field coils.
o (b) These windings are wound on the main field poles and are designed to eliminate or reduce
sparking caused by inductance of the field coils.
o (c) These windings are wound on the main field poles and are designed to eliminate or reduce
sparking caused by inductance of the armature coils.
(d) These narrow poles are placed in the magnetic neutral plane between the main field poles
and are designed to eliminate or reduce sparking caused by inductance of the armature coils.

290. What statement is true concerning the use of compensating windings in DC generators?

o (a) These windings are wound on the main field pole pieces and are designed to eliminate or
reduce sparking caused by inductance of the armature coils.
(b) These windings are wound on the main field pole pieces and are designed to counteract
armature reaction associated with heavy loads and minimize field distortion.
o (c) These narrow poles are placed in the magnetic neutral plane between the main field poles and
are designed to eliminate or reduce sparking caused by inductance of the armature coils.
o (d) These narrow poles are placed in the magnetic neutral plane between the main field
poles and are designed to counteract armature reaction associated with heavy loads and
minimize field distortion.
291. What is the purpose of the series field used in a stabilized shunt DC generator?

o (a) The series field eliminates the need for commutating poles (also known as interpoles).
(b) The series field improves inherent voltage regulation beyond that of a shunt wound generator.
o (c) The series field improves inherent speed regulation beyond that of a shunt wound generator.
o (d) The series field eliminates the need for compensating windings.

292. With what device is the simplest method of controlling the terminal voltage of
compound-wound DC generator?

o (a) carbon pile regulator in series with the load

(b) hand-operated field rheostat connected in series with the shunt field circuit
o (c) balance coil diverting neutral current through the shunt field
o (d) separate exciter in a series with the shunt field

293. Prior to closing the circuit breaker when paralleling two DC generators, what must
you be certain of?

o (a) current from the incoming machine is the same as the bus current
(b) voltage of the incoming machine is at or slightly above the bus voltage
o (c) synchroscope needle is revolving slowly in the 'fast' direction
o (d) frequency of the incoming machine is slightly higher than the bus frequency

294. Which of the methods listed is used to maintain equal load sharing between two
compound wound DC generators operating in parallel?

o (a) The shunt field rheostats are interconnected.

o (b) The shunt fields are interconnected.
o (c) The series fields of both generators are connected in series.
(d) The series fields of both generators are connected in parallel.

295. By what means is a DC generator prevented from becoming motorized if paralleling

is accomplished without an equalizer?

(a) reverse current relay

o (b) over speed trip
o (c) back pressure trip
o (d) governor controls

296. How are fuses usually rated?

(a) volts, amps, and interrupting capacity

o (b) watts
o (c) volts and amps only
o (d) amps only

297. What is the characteristic that is associated with an "instantaneous-trip" single-

element type fuse?

o (a) opens a circuit by using a time delay element with a magnetic trip
(b) opens as soon as the load current exceeds its set point
o (c) allows a preset delay between over current and melting
o (d) resets itself when the over current is corrected

298. Due to the operating characteristics of the system, time lag fuses (or dual-element
fuses) are necessary for use in what types of circuits?

o (a) emergency lighting circuits

o (b) main lighting circuits
(c) motor starting circuit
o (d) general alarm circuits
299. Fuses are sometimes placed in series with a thermal trip-type circuit breaker. What is
the purpose of a fuse used in this arrangement?

(a) short-circuit protection

o (b) short duration surge protection
o (c) time-delay protection
o (d) sustained overload protection

301. What is the basic similarity between a circuit breaker and a fuse?

(a) after a short or overload condition, both should open to de-energize the circuit
o (b) after a short or overload condition, both must be reset to re-energize the circuit
o (c) after a short or overload condition, both have to be replaced before the circuit can be re-
energized
o (d) a circuit breaker and a fuse have no similarities

302. The arc resulting from the tripping of a circuit breaker is prevented from damaging
the contacts. How is this done?

(a) directing the arc into an arc chute

o (b) an inverse timed thermal trip for short circuit currents
o (c) instantaneous magnetic trip for overload currents
o (d) designing the contacts to open slowly

303. A thermal-magnetic circuit breaker for a 300 KW alternator is rated at 500 amperes at
full continuous load. Which of the following conditions will trip the breaker?

o (a) Sustained current draw of 450 amperes for 2 hours.

o (b) Sustained current draw of 500 amperes for 10 minutes.
(c) Instantaneous current draw of 5,000 amperes.
o (d) Momentary current draw of 1000 amperes for 3 seconds.

306. Relative to the number of turns of a secondary winding of a step-up transformer,

what will be the number of turns of a primary winding?

(a) the primary winding will have fewer turns than the secondary winding
o (b) the primary winding will have the same number of turns but smaller wires than the secondary
winding
o (c) the primary winding will have twice as many turns as the secondary winding
o (d) the primary winding will have more turns than the secondary winding

307. If the primary winding of a voltage transformer is connected to a steady DC source,

self-inductance and mutual inductance is not possible. As a result, what part of the transformer will
result in current overload?

o (a) secondary coil

(b) primary coil
o (c) core
o (d) contacts

309. What is the purpose of a potential transformer in an electric circuit?

o (a) generate its own electrical power

(b) increase or decrease circuit voltage as required
o (c) convert AC current to DC current
o (d) transform electrical energy into mechanical energy
310. Which of the following statements is true concerning step-down transformer
operation?

(a) The voltage supplied to the primary side is greater than the voltage produced by the
secondary side.
o (b) The current drawn by the primary side is greater than the current delivered from the
secondary side.
o (c) The kVA consumed by the primary side is greater than the kVA produced by the secondary
side.
o (d) The voltage supplied to the primary side is lower than the voltage produced by the secondary
side.

311. When a transformer is used to step down voltage, what statement is true?

o (a) The low voltage winding is part of the core.

o (b) The low voltage winding is not insulated.
o (c) The low voltage winding is the primary coil.
(d) The low voltage winding is the secondary coil.

312. What is the primary purpose associated with the use of transformers onboard ships
with AC generators?

(a) provide different voltage values to operate various types of electrical equipment.
o (b) decrease power output to modulating frequency controllers
o (c) change line frequency value
o (d) increase power output to modulating frequency controllers

313. An autotransformer is equipped with a 50% tap, a 65% tap, and an 80% tap. Which
of the following statements is true concerning a load connected to the 50% tap?

o (a) The load is receiving two times line voltage and drawing one half of line current.
(b) The load is receiving one half of line voltage and drawing one half of line current.
o (c) The load is receiving one half of line voltage and drawing two times line current.
o (d) The load is receiving two times line voltage and drawing two times line current.

316. Besides the fluorescent lamp itself and possibly a starter, which of the following
components is included in a fluorescent lighting fixture?

o (a) Magnetic resonator

o (b) Magnetron
o (c) Laser
(d) Ballast (choke coil)

318. Incandescent lamps are classified according to the shape of the bulb and the type of
service, as well as the size and style of the base. How are incandescent lamps rated?

(a) operating voltage and wattage

o (b) operating resistance
o (c) operating frequency and impedance
o (d) operating reactance

320. How is electrical conductor insulation classed? Example: insulation class H

o (a) conductor current carrying capacity

o (b) conductor ampacity
o (c) voltage rating of the insulation
(d) limiting internal hot spot temperature
321. Which of the following materials is a good electrical insulator?

(a) wood
o (b) silver
o (c) gold
o (d) copper

322. Which of the following is the only known perfect dielectric for the purpose of serving
as electrical insulation?

o (a) mica
o (b) ceramic
o (c) glass
(d) vacuum

323. What is "the voltage per millimeter of insulation thickness that the insulation can
withstand without breaking down" called?

o (a) Tensile strength

(b) Dielectric strength
o (c) Mechanical strength
o (d) Shear strength

324. What happens to the life expectancy of insulation for each 10o C rise in operating
temperature?

o (a) The life expectancy is unaffected.

(b) The life expectancy is halved.
o (c) The life expectancy is doubled.
o (d) The life expectancy is unpredictable.

325. Why are large cable sizes often formed as individual conductors comprised of
several smaller strands?

o (a) reduce the overall weight of the wire run

o (b) reduce the number of supports needed for a horizontal overhead run
(c) obtain the flexibility required for easy handling and reduces skin effect losses
o (d) reduce the resistance to current flow for a given wire size

326. When electrical cables penetrate watertight bulkheads, what must be provided for?

o (a) cables should be grounded on either side of the bulkhead

(b) a watertight stuffing tube capable of accepting packing should be employed
o (c) cables must be bent to a radius of six diameters
o (d) cables should be secured by a clamp

327. Why is copper often used as an electrical conductor?

o (a) holds insulation together well

(b) is able to pass current with little opposition
o (c) has high resistance at low temperatures
o (d) has a highly polished surface

328. How are the line losses in a distribution circuit kept to a minimum?

(a) using higher voltage and lower current

o (b) using higher current and lower voltage
o (c) increasing the number of thermal relays in the circuit
o (d) adding rubber insulation conductors to the circuit
331. Which of the following represents a characteristic of an ungrounded electrical
distribution system?

o (a) Accidental contact between one line and ground will always cause an outage.
o (b) Double ground faults on different phases will not cause an outage.
(c) Accidental contact between one line and ground does not cause an outage.
o (d) Ground detection systems are unnecessary.

334. The timer element of a reverse power relay cannot be energized unless what
condition is met?

(a) the power flow is the same as the tripping direction

o (b) the movement of the disk is damped by a permanent magnet
o (c) the power flow is the opposite to the tripping direction
o (d) one generator is fully motorized

335. How is a wattmeter electrically connected in a circuit?

o (a) In parallel
o (b) In series
o (c) Inductively
(d) In series-parallel

336. What is the name of the part of the shipboard electrical system used to control the
distribution of power to the branch circuits?

o (a) disconnect links

(b) main switchboard
o (c) governor relay box
o (d) bridge control panel

337. Upon failure of the normal power supply, how is the emergency generator placed on
the line to feed power to the emergency bus?

o (a) line connection feeder

o (b) power failure alarm bus
o (c) main bus tie feeder
(d) automatic bus transfer device

343. Which of the following statements concerning analog and digital devices is correct?

o (a) There are no basic differences between the two systems.

o (b) Analog devices are superior in accuracy compared to digital devices.
o (c) Operations in a digital device are performed simultaneously.
(d) The variables in digital systems are fixed quantities, and the variables in analog systems are
continuous quantities.
.

344. The multiplier prefix 'giga' (G) such as used in "gigabytes" represents what
multiplication factor?

o (a) thousand (10 to the 3rd power)

o (b) million (10 to the 6th power)
(c) billion (10 to the 9th power)
o (d) trillion (10 to the 12th power)
347. Which of the substances listed can be used to shield sensitive equipment from static
magnetic fields?

(a) Permeable iron

o (b) Bakelite
o (c) Mica
o (d) Glass

348. When placed in a magnetic field, which of the materials listed will maintain the
highest permeability?

o (a) Bakelite
o (b) Glass
o (c) Aluminum
(d) Soft iron

351. A silicon controlled rectifier (SCR) is a solid state device used for what functional
purpose?

o (a) functions like an amplifier and controls relatively high load current
(b) functions like a switching device and controls relatively high load current
o (c) functions like an amplifier and controls relatively low load current
o (d) functions like a switching device and controls relatively low load current

352. What is the name of the semiconductor that decreases in resistance with an increase
in temperature?

o (a) thermopile
(b) thermistor
o (c) diode
o (d) resistor

353. Which of the following statements correctly applies to bipolar junction transistors?

o (a) The emitter separates the base and collector.

(b) The three terminals are called the emitter, base, and collector.
o (c) The collector separates the emitter and base.
o (d) LED and LCD are the two basic types of transistors.

356. In what applications are germanium semiconductor diodes commonly used?

o (a) potentiometers
(b) rectifiers
o (c) power sources
o (d) photocells

357. In comparing a semiconductor diode to a vacuum tube diode, what statement is

true?

o (a) The semiconductor diode has longer life, no warm-up time, and is more delicate than the
vacuum tube diode.
o (b) The semiconductor diode has longer life, longer warm-up time and is less delicate than the
vacuum tube diode.
o (c) The semiconductor diode has shorter life, no warm-up time, and is less delicate than the
vacuum tube diode.
(d) The semiconductor diode has longer life, no warm-up time, and is less delicate than the
vacuum tube diode.
359. Which of the following statements represents an application of a silicon controlled
rectifier?

(a) Provides DC power for a main propulsion motor.

o (b) Used in photo cell sensor circuits for boiler burners.
o (c) Used as a voltage reference diode.
o (d) Used to eliminate AC power supply hum.

360. Silicon diodes which are designed for a specific reverse breakdown voltage, and are
most often used as electronic power supply voltage regulators, are specifically what type of diode?

(a) Zener diodes

o (b) hot-carrier diodes
o (c) tunnel diodes
o (d) compensating diodes

361. A signal derived from an amplifier output and returned to the amplifier input is called
what type of signal?

o (a) monitoring signal

(b) feedback signal
o (c) reverse signal
o (d) inverse signal

364. A common-emitter circuit has an input voltage of 0.1 volt, an output voltage of 2.0
volts, an input current of 0.5 milliamps, and an output current of 10 milliamps. What is the power
gain?

o (a) 20
o (b) 40
(c) 400
o (d) 4000

368. An voltage amplifier has a calculated voltage gain of 5. Which statement is true
concerning input and output voltages?

o (a) If the input changes10 volts, the output changes 2 volts.

(b) If the input changes 2 volts, the output changes 10 volts.
o (c) If the input changes 10 volts, the output changes 5 volts.
o (d) If the input changes 5 volts, the output changes 10 volts.

369. How are operational amplifiers, used primarily in analog circuits, characterized?

o (a) low input impedance, low gain and high output impedance
o (b) high input impedance, high gain and high output impedance
o (c) low input impedance, high gain and low output impedance
(d) high input impedance, high gain and low output impedance

389. Which of the following is a disadvantage of electric drive propulsion systems?

(a) Propulsion motors are required along with electrical power generation machinery.
o (b) Main propulsion power may also be directed to ships electrical service distribution.
o (c) The propeller speed and direction of rotation are easily controllable.
o (d) Location of electric power generation machinery is flexible.
390. Which statement is TRUE concerning electric propulsion drives?

(a) The propeller speed and direction of rotation are easily controllable.
o (b) Lower transmission losses compared to other types of propulsion drives.
o (c) Inability to be utilized as a source of ships service power.
o (d) Lack of flexibility of arrangement between the prime mover and motor.

391. An electric propulsion drive system in which the propulsion generator supplies power
to both the propulsion motor and ship service loads is referred to as what type of system?

o (a) a multi-purpose system

o (b) a dedicated system
(c) an integrated system
o (d) a composite system

392. What is one major advantage of a diesel electric propulsion plant?

o (a) less maintenance

o (b) lower fuel consumption
(c) excellent maneuverability
o (d) low cost and weight

393. Ships requiring rapid maneuvering response with a high degree of main propeller
shaft control are most often what type of drive system?

o (a) Gas turbine geared drive

o (b) Steam turbine geared drive
o (c) Direct or geared diesel drive
(d) Diesel-electric drive

394. Which of the listed temperature measuring devices installed on a large turbo-electric
alternating current propulsion generator would be the most reliable for monitoring generator
temperatures to avoid premature winding insulation failure?

(a) Temperature sensors inserted in the stator slots for measuring stator winding temperature.
o (b) Temperature sensors measuring the temperature of the cooling air associated with the
generator air cooler
o (c) Temperature sensors measuring the temperature of the cooling water associated with the
generator air cooler
o (d) Current transformers are the most reliable means of monitoring generator temperatures

395. What is the operating function of a cycloconverter (CCV) as a static power converter
used in electric propulsion motor drives?

(a) provides adjustable frequency to power an ac propulsion drive motor

o (b) provides constant frequency output power to an ac propulsion drive motor
o (c) converts dc power to ac power in an ac propulsion motor
o (d) converts ac power to dc power in a dc propulsion drive system

398. The propulsion motor most often utilized in an ac drive system operating in the
moderate to high power range is of what type?

o (a) wound rotor induction type

o (b) squirrel cage induction type
(c) synchronous type with wound field
o (d) split phase induction type

.
400. How is the main shaft rotation on an AC diesel-electric propulsion vessel normally
reversed?

o (a) reversing the prime mover rotation

o (b) decreasing the generator frequency
o (c) increasing the generator frequency
(d) reversing the phase sequence supplied to the motor

403. By what common means is the speed of the AC propulsion motor on a diesel-electric
propulsion ship controlled?

o (a) by decreasing the motor voltage

(b) by varying the input frequency of the voltage to the motor
o (c) by increasing the current to the motor
o (d) by increasing the motor voltage

404. While standing an "at sea watch" onboard an AC diesel-electric drive ship with a
synchronous propulsion motor, you notice that the kwatt load is at roughly 75% of capacity with a
leading power factor less than 1. Ideally what would be the character of the power factor associated
with the main power distribution including all motors?

(a) unity
o (b) zero
o (c) leading
o (d) lagging

405. What type of motor is generally used in DC propulsion drive systems?

o (a) series wound

o (b) permanent magnet
o (c) differentially compounded
(d) shunt wound

406. How is the main propeller shaft rotation of a rectified DC diesel-electric drive normally
reversed?

(a) reversing the field polarity in the DC motor

o (b) reversing the diesel engine rotation
o (c) reversing the field polarity in the AC generator
o (d) reversing the interpoles

407. In a diesel electric plant, raising the generator's field excitation current will have what
effect on the DC propulsion motor speed?

o (a) affect generator speed only

o (b) decrease in speed
(c) increase in speed
o (d) affect main motor speed if done in conjunction with higher generator engine speeds

408. What equipment for modern SCR rectified DC propulsion drive systems is usually
included in the package?

o (a) propulsion generators which produce DC power that is converted to AC power for the
propulsion motor
(b) propulsion generators which produce AC power that is converted to DC power for the shunt
wound DC propulsion motor
o (c) propulsion generators which produce AC power that is directly delivered to the synchronous
AC propulsion motor
o (d) propulsion generators which produce DC power that is directly delivered to the series wound
DC propulsion motor
409. What statement is TRUE concerning the Azipod propulsion system?

(a) It is an electric drive system where the propulsion motor is installed in a submerged housing
capable of swiveling.
o (b) It is an electric drive system in which the motor drives a controllable pitch propeller (CPP).
o (c) It is an electric drive system using water jets.
o (d) It is an electric drive system that incorporates a DC motor.

410. Which of the following statement is TRUE concerning Azipod propulsion systems?

o (a) The pod assembly swivels on a horizontal axis.

o (b) The system requires the need for a separate rudder.
(c) The system integrates propulsion and steering into one function.
o (d) The system requires the use of a controllable pitch propeller.

411. In an azipod propulsion system, how is three phase, frequency and voltage controlled
power delivered to the synchronous propulsion motor stator windings?

(a) By the use of slip rings and brushes.

o (b) By rotary transformer action.
o (c) By direct connection to the stator windings.
o (d) By the use of commutator bars and brushes.

412. In an azipod propulsion system, how is direct current delivered to the synchronous
propulsion motor rotor for synchronous operation?

o (a) By direct connection to the rotor windings.

o (b) By magneto effect.
(c) By the use of slip rings and brushes.
o (d) By the use of commutator bars and brushes.

413. In an azipod propulsion system, how is the azipod unit itself rotated for the purposes
of directing the thrust in accordance with steering commands from the bridge?

o (a) The azipod drive unit is rotated by means of a pneumatic steering unit.
o (b) The azipod drive unit is rotated by means of an electro-mechanical steering unit.
(c) The azipod drive unit is rotated by means of a hydraulic steering unit.
o (d) The azipod drive unit is rotated by means of a synchronous transmission system.

414. For the purposes of high voltage marine practice, what is the threshold voltage where
all voltages below this value are considered low voltage?

(a) 1.0 kV
o (b) 3.3 kV
o (c) 6.6 kV
o (d) 11 kV

415. What is a disadvantage to the use of high voltage systems onboard ship?

o (a) Reduced overall size of electrical power equipment

o (b) Less current draw than with low voltage systems
(c) Necessary adherence to stringent safety procedures
o (d) Reduced overall weight of electrical power equipment

416. What is the most common and reliable type of circuit breaker used for high voltage
practice aboard ship?

o (a) oil-break
o (b) gas-break
o (c) air-break
(d) vacuum-break
417. Some shipboard high voltage systems have the neutral point of the generators bonded
to the ship's hull with a neutral grounding resistor. What is the purpose of this resistor?

o (a) To completely eliminate ground fault current

o (b) To maximize the magnitude of the ground fault current
o (c) To prevent nuisance ground fault trips
(d) To minimize the magnitude of the ground fault current

418. Suppose it is desired to determine the integrity of the insulation of a 4160 VAC motor.
What type of insulation resistance tester (megger) would be suitable?

o (a) 500 V megger

o (b) 1000 V megger
o (c) 2500 V megger
(d) 5000 V megger

419. Before work may safely commence on a high voltage system, what must first be done
after disconnection and isolation?

o (a) The circuit must be grounded first, then tested and proved dead with a live-line tester.
o (b) The circuit must be grounded first, then tested and proved dead with an off-line tester.
o (c) The circuit must be tested and proved dead first with an off-line tester, then grounded.
(d) The circuit must be tested and proved dead first with a live-line tester, then grounded.

420. In order for a live-line tester to be used to test and prove dead a high voltage circuit,
what must be done to verify the ability of the tester to detect a voltage?

o (a) The live-line tester need not be checked prior to testing the circuit to be worked upon as long
as it has not been declared inoperative.
(b) The live-line tester should be checked by connecting to a known high voltage source before
and after the circuit to be worked upon is tested.
o (c) The live-line tester should be checked by connecting to a known high voltage source only
before testing the circuit to be worked upon.
o (d) The live-line tester should be checked by connecting to a known high voltage source only after
testing the circuit to be worked upon.

421. In addition to high voltage circuit grounding with ground-connecting switching devices,
for additional operator safety and confidence, portable grounding straps may be used. What is the
proper procedure for connecting these portable grounding straps?

o (a) The common to hull ground connection and the phase connections to common can be made
in any sequence.
o (b) The common to hull ground connection and the phase connections to common should all be
made simultaneously.
(c) Connect the common connection to hull ground first, then connect the phase connections to
common.
o (d) Connect the phase connections to common first, then connect the common connection to hull
ground.

422. (2.1.15-9) When completing repairs on a high voltage circuit where portable grounding straps
were used for increased operator safety and confidence, what is the proper procedure for
disconnecting these grounding straps?

o (a) Disconnect the common connection to hull ground first, then disconnect the phase
connections to common.
o (b) The common to hull ground and the phase connections to common should all be disconnected
simultaneously.
(c) Disconnect the phase connections to common first, then disconnect the common connection
to hull ground.
o (d) The common to hull ground connection and the phase connections to common can all be
disconnected in any sequence.
423. For a motor rated at 3.3 kV, what would be a minimum accepted insulation resistance
to hull ground as tested by an appropriate megger (insulation tester)?

(a) 4.3 megohms

o (b) 2.3 megohms
o (c) 3.3 megohms
o (d) 6.6 megohms

424. To facilitate communication between the wheelhouse and the steering gear room in a
steering emergency where no external source of power is required, what means of two-way
communication would be provided?

o (a) Two-way portable radios

(b) Sound-powered telephone system
o (c) Ship-service telephone system
o (d) Emergency loudspeaker system

425. Which station's emergency loudspeaker must allow for two-way communication?

o (a) Accommodation spaces station

o (b) Crew's quarters station
(c) Lifeboat embarkation station
o (d) Passenger assembly station

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

426. (2.1.16-3) Assuming the vessel has an engine control room, where is an engineers' assistance-
needed alarm required to produce an audible signal?

o (a) The crews' and officers' mess

(b) The engineers' accommodation spaces
o (c) The wheelhouse/navigational bridge
o (d) The engine room/machinery space

427. In a typical fire detection control unit, what would be indicated by an illuminated blue
light?

o (a) normal power is on

(b) trouble in the system
o (c) fire or smoke detected
o (d) backup power is on

428. Which of the following fixed temperature heat-actuated fire detectors can be reused
after it has detected a fire?

o (a) liquid expansion

o (b) thermostatic cable
o (c) fusible metal
(d) bi-metallic snap-disc

429. Which of the following fixed temperature heat-actuated fire detectors is the most prone
to false alarms?

o (a) fusible metal detector

o (b) liquid expansion detector
o (c) snap-action bimetallic disc
(d) bimetallic strip detector
430. What shipboard system uses the synchronous transmission system?

o (a) Turbocharger RPM indicator system

o (b) Shaft revolution indicator system
(c) Rudder angle indicator system
o (d) Centrifuge RPM indicator system

431. The shaft revolution indicator system for a fixed pitch propeller has which of the
following display capabilities?

o (a) Shaft RPM and cumulative shaft revolutions only

(b) Direction of rotation, shaft RPM, and cumulative shaft revolutions
o (c) Direction of rotation and shaft RPM only
o (d) Propeller pitch, shaft RPM, and cumulative shaft revolutions

432. A pyrometer indicating system such as that used for measuring diesel engine exhaust
system temperatures uses what technology?

o (a) externally-powered thermocouples

o (b) externally powered resistance temperature detectors
o (c) self-powered resistance temperature detectors
(d) self-powered thermocouples

433. A bearing temperature monitoring system such as that used for measuring selected
propulsion plant bearings uses what technology?

(a) externally-powered resistance temperature detectors

o (b) externally-powered thermocouples
o (c) self-powered thermocouples
o (d) self-powered resistance temperature detectors

434. A salinity indicator system such as that used to measure the salt content of potable
water systems and boiler feed and condensate systems uses what technology?

o (a) a salinity cell that senses the pH of water

o (b) a salinity cell that senses the brine density of water
(c) a salinity cell that senses the electrical conductivity of water
o (d) a salinity cell that senses the optical refraction of water

435. On vessels with AC distribution systems, which of the following statements represents
the most difficult problem involved in obtaining a DC potential suitable for use by computer
components?

o (a) Rectifiers cannot operate with voltage regulators.

o (b) A step-down transformer is always required.
(c) The voltage must be rectified and made ripple free.
o (d) Vessel vibrations affect the voltage source.

436. What statement is true concerning read only memory (ROM)?

o (a) ROM is volatile memory and the contents of ROM are not lost when the power is removed.
(b) ROM is non-volatile memory and the contents of ROM are not lost when the power is
removed.
o (c) ROM is non-volatile memory and the contents of ROM are lost when the power is removed.
o (d) ROM is volatile memory and the contents of ROM are lost when the power is removed.

437. (2.1.17-3) What statement is true concerning random access memory (RAM)?
(a) RAM is volatile memory and the contents of RAM are lost when the power is removed.
o (b) RAM is non-volatile memory and the contents of RAM are not lost when the power is
removed.
o (c) RAM is volatile memory and the contents of RAM are not lost when the power is removed.
o (d) RAM is non-volatile memory and the contents of RAM are lost when the power is removed.
438. Which of the following devices represents primary storage, where the processor is able
to directly read instructions and data and directly return results of its computation in fetch/execute
cycles?

o (a) Various optical disks

o (b) Hard disk drive
o (c) Magnetic tape drive
(d) Random access memory

439. Which of the following data communication cable types offers the greatest immunity to
electromagnetic "noise"?

o (a) Coaxial (coax)

o (b) Shielded twisted pair
o (c) Unshielded twisted pair
(d) Fiber-optic

440. What type of local area network physical topology features point-to-point
interconnection between all communicating devices and is the least vulnerable to a break in
communication?

(a) Mesh
o (b) Bus
o (c) Star
o (d) Ring

441. Modern ships use multiple computers arranged in a client/server network to perform
various shipboard functions. What type of computer network would most likely be used aboard ship?

o (a) Wireless local area network

o (b) Wireless wide area network
(c) Wired local area network
o (d) Wired wide area network

442. What Ethernet cabling technology supports the greatest data transfer speeds?

o (a) Thick Ethernet

o (b) Fast Ethernet
o (c) Thin Ethernet
(d) Gigabit Ethernet

443. If an 8-bit digital to analog converter (DAC) produces an analog output voltage with a
range of 10 volts (0-9 volts), what is the smallest incremental step in voltage that can be generated
at the output?

o (a) 0.03 volts

(b) 0.04 volts
o (c) 0.625 volts
o (d) 1.25 volts

444. If a computer display is flickering, how may this be remedied?

o (a) Decease the resolution bandwidth

o (b) Increase the resolution bandwidth
(c) Increase the refresh rate
o (d) Decrease the refresh rate
451. In an impressed current cathodic hull protection system, what statement is true
concerning the composition and arrangement of the anodes?

o (a) The protective anodes are made of zinc and are electrically insulated from the hull.
o (b) The protective anodes are made of lead or platinized titanium and are electrically bonded
to the hull.
(c) The protective anodes are made of lead or platinized titanium and are electrically insulated
from the hull.
o (d) The protective anodes are made of zinc and are electrically bonded to the hull.

452. While monitoring an impressed current cathodic hull protection system, which of the
following measurements should remain constant in a properly operating electronically regulated
system?

o (a) Control amplifier output voltage

o (b) Individual anode currents
(c) Reference electrode voltage
o (d) Total anode current

454. In monitoring an impressed current cathodic hull protection system, it is important to

insure that the propeller screw receive the same cathodic protection as the hull. What should be
checked for?

o (a) No checks are necessary since the propeller screw is bronze and needs no protection.
o (b) Nothing can be done short of checking the propeller screw at dry-dock availabilities.
(c) Insure adequate grounding carbon brush pressure on the rotating shaft and check brushes for
wear.
o (d) Insure adequate individual anode current to the anode closest to the propulsion shafting as it
passes through the hull.

458. In the event of a power failure during cargo loading operations, the movement of an
electric powered cargo winch will be stopped by what means?

o (a) a manual override switch

o (b) a hand operated band brake
o (c) the weight of the load on the boom
(d) a spring set brake

461. When the control handle is in the 'off' position, what is the status of the solenoid
actuated brake of an electric winch?

o (a) energized and the brake is released

(b) de-energized and the brake is set by a spring
o (c) energized and the brake is set by a spring
o (d) de-energized and the brake is released

466. When power is restored after a complete power failure, how will the steering gear
pump motor which was on-line respond?

(a) It will restart automatically

o (b) It will have to be reset manually
o (c) It will have to be restarted manually
o (d) It will trip its overload relays
472. The electrical energy necessary to power a sound-powered telephone's small
vibrating bell is obtained from what power source?

o (a) the emergency batteries for the general alarm

o (b) normal 115 volt DC supplies
o (c) the emergency switchboard
(d) each station's hand-cranked generator

476. If overloading an electric motor becomes necessary in an emergency situation, what

should be done to prevent damage to the motor while allowing sustained operation?

o (a) increase the residual magnetism value of windings to reduce eddy currents
o (b) hold thermal overload relays open with blocks of wood
o (c) inject small amounts of CO2 into the windings for cooling
(d) cool the motor with portable blowers and fans

477. What should be included in the routine periodic maintenance checks for electrical
motors?

o (a) checking for watertight integrity

o (b) checking for speed droop
(c) checking for vibration
o (d) checking for reactive power

479. When testing insulation resistance of electric equipment and machinery, ideally when
should the insulation resistance be tested for the lowest normal insulation values?

o (a) every time the brush rigging is adjusted

o (b) every 30 days whether the machine is in use or not
o (c) immediately after starting up the machine
(d) immediately after shutting down the machine

480. What would be the indication of a grounded switch or cable as measured by a

megohmmeter?

o (a) being unsteady in the low range

(b) 'zero'
o (c) being unsteady in the high range
o (d) infinity

482. Before any work on electrical or electronic equipment is performed, which of the
following precautions should be carried out?

(a) Secure and tag the supply circuit breaker in the open position.
o (b) De-energize the applicable switchboard bus.
o (c) Bypass the interlocks.
o (d) Station a man at the circuit supply switch.

483. What should you be aware of when checking the specific gravity of the battery
electrolyte with a hydrometer?

(a) depending on the temperature it may be necessary to correct for temperature

o (b) the battery is discharged when the float is highest in the electrolyte
o (c) a hydrometer reading is accurate if taken immediately after water is added to the cell
o (d) the battery is fully charged when the float sinks deepest into the electrolyte

484. For accuracy purposes, which of the following devices should be used to measure
the temperature of a battery electrolyte?
o (a) Mercury thermometer
(b) Electronic digital thermometer
o (c) Potentiometer
o (d) Thermocouple pyrometer
485. Which of the substances listed should be applied to battery terminals to help
prevent corrosion?

o (a) Zinc chromate

(b) Petroleum jelly
o (c) Lead hydroxide
o (d) Lead peroxide

486. Which of the listed battery charging circuits is used to maintain a wet-cell, lead-acid,
storage battery in a fully charged state during long periods of disuse?

o (a) Normal charging circuit

o (b) High ampere charging circuit
o (c) Quick charging circuit
(d) Trickle charging circuit

487. What is the best method of determining the state of charge of a lead acid storage
battery?

o (a) ampere hour capacity of the battery

o (b) total cell voltages
o (c) testing of the individual cell voltages
(d) specific gravity of the electrolyte

488. Which of the following activities occurs during the charging process of a lead-acid
storage battery?

o (a) Hydrogen gas is absorbed.

(b) The specific gravity of the acid increases.
o (c) Oxygen gas is absorbed.
o (d) Both plates change chemically to lead sulfate.

489. Why must caution be exercised during the charging of lead-acid storage batteries?

o (a) the acid will become weaker

o (b) both plates are changing chemically to lead sulfate
(c) hydrogen gas is being continuously liberated
o (d) lead peroxide in the negative plate is poisonous

490. What statement is true concerning the actual mixing process and the container used
when mixing electrolyte for a lead-acid storage battery?

o (a) pour the distilled water into the acid in a glass container
o (b) pour the distilled water into the acid in a zinc-plated container
(c) pour the acid into distilled water in a glass container
o (d) pour the acid into the distilled water in a zinc-plated container

491. What statement is true concerning the charging a 100 amp-hour lead-acid battery?

(a) The initial charging rate should be no greater than 100% of the battery amp-hour rating.
o (b) The source of power for charging should be 2.0 volts per cell.
o (c) The charging rate should be 100 amps for one hour.
o (d) The temperature of the electrolyte should not be allowed to exceed 90F.

492. Which of the following statements concerning Nickel-Cadmium batteries is true?

(a) Nickel-Cadmium batteries can be stored for a long period of time while still keeping a full
charge.
o (b) When mixing the electrolyte always add water to the acid.
o (c) When mixing the electrolyte always add acid to the water.
o (d) The electrolyte of an idle Nickel-Cadmium battery must be replaced monthly to maintain
battery condition.
493. You are reconnecting a three-phase induction motor to the supply line. To prevent
possible damage to the load, due to the wrong direction of rotation, what should be done?

(a) check the supply line phase sequence and motor rotation with appropriate indicators, then
connect correspondingly marked leads
o (b) connect the motor and then use the 'jog' button to determine the direction of rotation
o (c) connect the phase indicator to the motor leads, rotate the motor by hand and then connect to
the supply voltage
o (d) connect the phase indicator to the supply voltage then connect the motor

494. What is a useful instrument for checking 3 phase A.C. motor performance by
measuring possible unbalanced currents?

o (a) D'Arsonval iron-vane probe

o (b) hand or battery-operated megger
(c) clamp-on ammeter
o (d) vibrating-reed frequency meter

496. Which of the conditions listed will indicate the need to clean the insulation on the
windings of an electric motor?

o (a) Excessive vibration at normal speed.

o (b) Sparking at the brushes.
(c) Higher than normal operating temperature.
o (d) High megger readings.

498. Large machines undergoing a resistance insulation testing using a megohmmeter

should be discharged to remove any accumulated electrostatic/capacitive charge stored. When
should this discharge be performed?

(a) prior to and after conducting the insulation resistance check

o (b) after conducting the insulation resistance check only
o (c) prior to conducting the insulation resistance check only
o (d) while performing the insulation resistance check only

499. When you are making a high potential test (megger) on the motor coils of repaired
electrical machinery to ground. What would a low resistance reading indicate?

o (a) a high slot discharge factor

(b) bad insulation
o (c) high insulation power factor
o (d) good insulation

501. Which of the listed conditions will occur if dirt and grease are allowed to accumulate
between the commutator segments of a DC motor?

o (a) Misalignment of the motor shaft.

(b) A partial short circuit.
o (c) A dead short circuit.
o (d) Over speeding of the motor.

502. In general, what can cause D.C. propulsion motor brush sparking to be excessive?

o (a) brushes positioned in the neutral plane

o (b) a dark chocolate colored commutator
o (c) a concentric commutator
(d) incorrect brush grade, pressure or position
503. What should be used in the cleaning of a D.C. propulsion motor's commutator face?

o (a) emery cloth

(b) a canvas wiper
o (c) abrasive dressing stones
o (d) sandpaper

504. How is the seating the brushes on a DC motor commutator first accomplished?

o (a) emery paper for the initial cut and crocus cloth for the finishing cut
o (b) a file for cutting the approximate curvature followed by sandpaper for the final fit
o (c) course lapping compound, followed by a medium and then a fine grade
(d) using fine sandpaper on a deenergized machine between the brush and the commutator to
establish the proper curvature

505. D.C. propulsion motor brush pressure depends on the brush grade used. In practice
with what device is the proper brush pressure established?

o (a) manometer
(b) spring scale
o (c) compound gauge
o (d) multimeter

506. With regard to the maintenance of electrical generating machines with insulated
pedestal bearings, what practice should be avoided?

o (a) touching the bearing shell while the machine running

(b) painting or allowing grease build up on the insulated area
o (c) using a megohm meter with the machine disassembled to determine insulation values
o (d) cleaning and removing grease from the insulated area

507. Rotor-to-stator air gap readings should be periodically taken for electrical generation
equipment. What is the best tool to use to take these measurements?

o (a) dial indicator

o (b) inside micrometer
(c) tapered, long blade, feeler gage
o (d) cloth (non-metallic) tape measure

508. If rotor-to-stator air gap readings for an electrical generating machine have changed
significantly from the last reading, what should be checked?

o (a) insulation readings and machine cleanliness

o (b) the prime mover thrust bearing for wear
(c) the generator bearings for wear
o (d) the field coil bolts for the proper torque values

509. In performing routine maintenance of a ship's service alternator, what should be

included?

o (a) lubricating exciter slip rings

o (b) megger testing of all rectifying diodes
o (c) changing the pedestal bearing insulation yearly
(d) periodic cleaning of the air filters or screens

510. How may chattering of the collector/slip ring brushes on a generator be remedied?

o (a) lubricating brush holders

o (b) reinsulating the brushes
(c) cleaning the collector rings with a canvas wiper
o (d) increasing length of pigtail
511. Which of the following materials is recommended for burnishing the slip rings of an
alternator after grinding or turning?

o (a) canvas wiper

o (b) grade 00 sandpaper
(c) hardwood block
o (d) smooth file

512. Which of the following statements, concerning the cleaning maintenance of a

brushless generator, is correct?

o (a) Cleaning of windings should be performed on a periodic basis regardless of the state of
cleanliness.
o (b) Hot soapy water should be used to remove dust and grime from windings.
o (c) High pressure air should be used to blow out dust and grime from the windings.
(d) Cleaning of windings should be performed on a conditional basis using a vacuum or using a
clean, dry, lint-free rag.

513. When an alternator is to remain idle for even a few days, what should be done?

o (a) open the equalizing bus disconnect switch

(b) energize the space heater circuit
o (c) insulate the collector rings with strips of cardboard
o (d) lift the brushes and disconnect the pigtails

514. While inspecting the copper commutator bars of a DC generator, you notice a
chocolate brown film covering the bars. What should be done?

(a) The film should be left undisturbed.

o (b) The film should be removed with fine emery cloth.
o (c) The film should be removed with fine sandpaper.
o (d) The film should be removed with emery paper.

515. As the brushes ride on the commutator of a DC generator, eventually mica ridges will
form between the bars causing sparking and chipping of the brushes. When this happens the mica
must be undercut. To what depth is the mica undercut?

o (a) The mica slots are undercut to a depth 1mm below the surface of the commutator bars.
o (b) The mica slots are undercut to a depth approximately twice the width of the slot.
(c) The mica slots are undercut to a depth approximately equal to the width of the slot.
o (d) The mica slots are undercut. but the actual depth is unimportant.

517. Incorrect brush pressure can result in accelerated brush wear on a DC generator.
What statement concerning brush pressure is true?

o (a) The wear rate on brushes is proportional to the brush pressure; in other words, the greater the
brush pressure the greater the rate of brush wear.
o (b) The wear rate on brushes is inversely proportional to the brush pressure; in other words,
the lower the brush pressure the greater the rate of brush wear.
o (c) There is an optimal pressure range that results in minimal brush wear. Brush pressures above
the optimal range cause excessive electrical wear, and brush pressures below the optimal range
cause excessive mechanical wear.
(d) There is an optimal pressure range that results in minimal brush wear. Brush pressures above
the optimal range cause excessive mechanical wear, and brush pressures below the optimal
range cause excessive electrical wear.
518. If a DC generator was disassembled during overhaul, it is important that the brush
holder rigging be installed in the neutral plane. On larger machines, if the brush rigging and end bells
are not match-marked, what is the correct procedure for determining the neutral setting using factory
marks?

o (a) With the marked armature slots positioned directly between the interpoles and the main field
poles, the brushing rigging should be adjusted and clamped so that the brushes are positioned
directly over the marked armature bars.
o (b) With the marked armature slots positioned directly under the center of the compensating
windings, the brushing rigging should be adjusted and clamped so that the brushes are
positioned directly over the marked armature bars.
o (c) With the marked armature slots positioned directly under the center of the main field poles, the
brushing rigging should be adjusted and clamped so that the brushes are positioned directly over
the marked armature bars.
(d) With the marked armature slots positioned directly under the center of the interpoles, the
brushing rigging should be adjusted and clamped so that the brushes are positioned directly over
the marked armature bars.

519. Why are electric strip heaters used in motor controllers?

o (a) keep the components at their design ambient temperature

o (b) minimize resistance in internal circuits
o (c) prevent freezing of movable contacts
(d) prevent condensation of moisture

520. Before working on an electric cargo winch master switch or controller, what should be
done?

o (a) heat the switch box to remove any moisture

(b) open the circuit breaker in the power supply and tag-out
o (c) drain condensate from the box
o (d) spray the gasket surface with a solvent

521. Which of the following methods should be used to dress the face of silver-plated
contacts?

o (a) Knurling with a knurling tool

o (b) Filing with a mill file
o (c) Burnishing with a burnishing tool
(d) Sanding with 0000 sandpaper

522. The current at which a magnetic-type overload relay tends to trip may be decreased
by raising the plunger further into the magnetic circuit of the relay. What effect does this action
have?

o (a) increases magnetic pull on the plunger and requires more current to trip the relay
o (b) reduces magnetic pull on the plunger and requires less current to trip the relay
(c) increases magnetic pull on the plunger and requires less current to trip the relay
o (d) reduces magnetic pull on the plunger and requires more current to trip the relay

523. High pressure compressed air should not be used to clean electric motors or
controller equipment. Why not?

o (a) the air blast dries out insulation quickly

o (b) a mask and respirator would be required
(c) it may embed metallic particles into coil insulation
o (d) the surrounding area may need additional cleaning
524. What device can be used to check the calibration of a circuit breaker?

o (a) 500 volt megohmmeter

o (b) standard digital multimeter
o (c) 500 volt megohmmeter
(d) portable low voltage high current testing unit
o (e) clamp-on voltmeter

525. Which of the listed pairs of materials make the best insulators?

(a) paper and mica

o (b) dry air and a vacuum
o (c) salt water and moist earth
o (d) doped silicon and germanium

527. When a megohmmeter is used to test insulation, what condition causes the
gradual
rise of the pointer reading as a result of continued cranking?

o (a) the leakage of current along the surface of dirty insulation

(b) the dielectric-absorption effect of the insulation
o (c) good conductor resistance
o (d) the inductive reactance of the windings

528. When a fluorescent lamp has reached the end of its useful life, it should be
replaced
immediately. If not, what condition could the resultant flashing cause?

o (a) tripping of the lamp's circuit breaker

o (b) exploding of the lamp, causing glass to fly in all directions
(c) damaging the lamps starter and ballast circuit
o (d) short circuiting of adjacent lighting circuits

529. As part of a routine maintenance program for deck machinery motor controllers,
what
should be done?

o (a) check drum switch contact pressure every three months

o (b) remove motor covers and ventilate as weather permits
o (c) remove covers exposed to the weather and drain water each week
(d) inspect electrical wiring for evidence of corrosion or discoloration at
connections

530. If deck machinery is expected to be idle for an extended period of time, what
should
be done?

(a) energize space heaters to prevent the condensation of moisture

o (b) have electrical safety gloves available in case of electrical shock before
 running
o (c) perform a 'high pot' test to determine the condition of the insulation
o (d) water wash the motor and controller to remove any salt that may interfere with
smooth
operation

531. If a spring-set electric solenoid-released brake on a winch fails to hold a load

properly
when the solenoid is de-energized, what must be done?

o (a) The solenoid coil must be replaced as it is faulty.

(b) The brakes linings must be checked for wear and adjusted or replaced
accordingly.
o (c) The spring must be replaced as it has lost its compression force.
o (d) The brake drum must be checked for wear and replaced as needed.

534. If it becomes absolutely necessary to run an alternator at lower than 5% below its
rated
frequency, in terms of output voltage, what must be done?

(a) The alternator output voltage must be decreased proportionately downward

with the frequency
decrease.
o (b) Under no circumstances is it permissible to run an alternator at a frequency
lower than 5%
below its rated frequency.
o (c) The alternator output voltage must be increased proportionately upward to
compensate for the
frequency decrease.
o (d) The alternator output voltage must be maintained at the rated value for the
alternator output
voltage.

535. Upon loss of field excitation of a generator operating in parallel with others, what
must
be done?
(a) The parallel-connected generator which has suffered the
loss of field excitation must be
immediately disconnected from the bus by tripping its circuit
breaker.
o (b) The parallel-connected generators still producing a voltage must
have their fields over-excited
to compensate for the loss of field excitation of the one generator.
o (c) The parallel-connected generator which has suffered the loss of field excitation
must have its
 prime mover immediately stopped.
o (d) The parallel-connected generator which has suffered the loss of field excitation
must have its
prime mover immediately reduced to idle speed.

536. Under unusual circumstances, it may be required to operate a ship's service

generator
above its rated kVA. What supplemental casualty control action will be required?
o (a) Increase the cooling water flow, while maintaining air temperatures below the
dew point for
increased cooling effect.
o (b) While maintaining the rated system voltage, lower the operating frequency to
at least 5%
below the rated system frequency.
o (c) While maintaining the rated system frequency, lower the operating voltage to at
least 5%
below the rated system voltage.
(d) Increase the cooling water flow, while maintaining air temperatures above the
dew point to
avoid any condensation..

537. When a self-excited alternator's field has lost its residual magnetism due to a
prolonged idle period, it will fail to produce a voltage. Flashing
the field is the procedure used to restore the residual
magnetism. Using a 12 volt storage battery, how is this
performed?
o (a) The S+ and S- leads are disconnected from the alternator
stator. The S+ lead is connected to
the positive terminal of the battery, and the S- lead is connected to
the negative terminal.
o (b) The S+ and S- leads are disconnected from the alternator stator.
The S+ lead is connected to
the negative terminal of the battery, and the S- lead is connected
to the positive terminal.
o (c) The F+ and F- leads are disconnected from the alternator field.
The F+ lead is connected to
the negative terminal of the battery, and the F- lead is connected
to the positive terminal.
(d) The F+ and F- leads are disconnected from the alternator field.
The F+ lead is connected to
the positive terminal of the battery, and the F- lead is connected to
the negative terminal.

540. You are in the planning stages of replacing a battery charger, where an exact
duplicate of the charger to be replaced is not available. Obviously the
charger must be suitable for the battery to be charged. According to
46 CFR, Subchapter J (Electrical Engineering), which of the following
is a true statement concerning battery chargers?
o (a) Battery chargers incorporating grounded autotransformers
must NOT be used, and if the
charging voltage is less than 20% of the battery line voltage,
automatic protection against
reversal current must be provided.
(b) Battery chargers incorporating grounded autotransformers must NOT be used,
 and if the
charging voltage exceeds 20% of the battery line voltage,
automatic protection against reversal current must be provided.
o (c) Battery chargers incorporating grounded autotransformers must
be used, and if the charging
voltage is less than 20% of the battery line voltage, automatic
protection against reversal current
must be provided.
o (d) Battery chargers incorporating grounded autotransformers
must be used, and if the charging
voltage exceeds 20% of the battery line voltage, automatic
protection against reversal current
must be provided.

541. According to 46 CFR, Subchapter J (Electrical Engineering), which of the following

statements concerning battery installations is correct?

o (a) Power and lighting batteries must be of the lead-acid type only.
o (b) When power ventilation is required, the ventilation may be accomplished by a
ventilation
system that serves other spaces.
o (c) When power ventilation is required, blower blades must be nonsparking and
the system must
be interlocked with the battery charger to prevent simultaneous operation.
(d) When power ventilation is required, blower blades must be nonsparking and
the system must
be interlocked with the battery charger to prevent charger operation unless the
ventilation fan is
running.

542. Suppose a cargo vessel of 1600 gross tons or more is fitted with emergency
storage
batteries for the purpose of supplying emergency lighting and power. According to 46
CFR,
Subchapter J (Electrical Engineering), the capacity of the storage
batteries is such that they should be able to successfully power the
emergency loads for a period of 18 hours. Beginning with fully
charged batteries, what is the minimum allowable voltage of the
batteries after the 18 hour discharge period assuming a nominal
voltage rating of 24 VDC and operating at rated capacity.

o (a) 16.0 VDC

o (b) 18.8 VDC
(c) 21.1 VDC
o (d) 22.8 VDC

543. Suppose a cargo vessel of 1600 gross tons or more is fitted with emergency
storage
batteries for the purpose of supplying emergency lighting and power. According to 46
CFR,
Subchapter J (Electrical Engineering), the capacity of the storage
batteries is such that they should
be able to successfully power the emergency loads for a period of
 18 hours. Beginning with fully
charged batteries, what is the minimum allowable percentage of the
voltage rating of the batteries
after the 18 hour discharge period assuming a nominal voltage
rating of 24 VDC and operating at
rated capacity.

o (a) 75%
o (b) 80%
(c) 88%
o (d) 95%

544. (2.1.21.1-7) In accordance with 46 CFR Part 112, a storage battery for an
emergency lighting and
power system must have the capacity to accomplish which of the following?

o (a) open and close all watertight doors in six consecutive cycles within a 20
second period
(b) close all watertight doors twice and open them once
o (c) open and close all watertight doors in six consecutive cycles within a 45
second period
o (d) open all watertight doors four times and close them twice

545. In accordance with 46 CFR, Subchapter J (Electrical Engineering), each diesel

engine driven generator prime mover must have an over speed
device, independent of the normal operating governor. If in testing
the over speed device, what should be the trip point setting in terms
of rated speed?

o (a) not to exceed 10% above rated speed

(b) not to exceed 15% above rated speed
o (c) not to exceed 20% above rated speed
o (d) not to exceed 25% above rated speed

546. You are in the planning stages of setting the instantaneous trip of a ship's service
generator circuit breaker. According to 46 CFR, Subchapter J (Electrical
Engineering), what
statement is true regarding the criteria for the instantaneous trip set
point, assuming the generator is capable of being paralleled?

o (a) The trip point should be set exactly equal to the maximum asymmetrical short
circuit current
 available.
o (b) The trip point should be set below but as close as practical to the maximum
asymmetrical
short circuit current available.
o (c) The trip point should be set considerably above the maximum asymmetrical
short circuit
current available.
(d) The trip point should be set above but as close as practical to the maximum
asymmetrical
short circuit current available.

547. There are very specific rules that govern the testing of generators found in the
appropriate publication incorporated by reference. According to 46
CFR, Subchapter J (Electrical
Engineering), which agency publishes the rules for the
construction and testing of generators.

o (a) ASME
(b) American Bureau of Shipping
o (c) manufacturer
o (d) Underwriter's Laboratories, Inc.

548. You are in the planning stages of setting the longtime over current trip of a ship's
service generator circuit breaker. According to 46 CFR, Subchapter J
(Electrical Engineering), what statement is true regarding the criteria
for the longtime over current trip set point, assuming the generator is
capable of being paralleled?

o (a) The trip point should not be less than 100% of the generator rating for a
continuous rated
machine.
(b) The trip point should not be larger than 115% of the generator rating for a
continuous rated
machine.
o (c) The trip point should not be larger than 100% of the generator rating for a
continuous rated
machine.
o (d) The trip point should not be less than 115% of the generator rating for a
continuous rated
machine.

549. Assuming that a ship's service generator is directly coupled to the prime mover,
what
condition must cause a prime mover to automatically shut down?

(a) Low generator bearing lubricating oil pressure.

o (b) High generator cooling air temperature.
o (c) Low generator output frequency.
o (d) High generator power factor.

550. According to 46 CFR, Subchapter J (Electrical Engineering), emergency diesel

engine starting systems are required to have sufficient capacity to provide power for
at least how
 many consecutive starts?

o (a) 3
(b) 6
o (c) 9
o (d) 12

551. Emergency generators are required to automatically start upon a loss of normal
supply voltage, according to 46 CFR, Subchapter J (Electrical
Engineering). In conducting a test of the emergency generator
automatic transfer of load function, if the normal system supply
voltage is 450 VAC, to what value would the emergency generator
output voltage have to rise to trigger the automatic transfer of
emergency loads to the emergency generator?

(a) The voltage would have to rise to a value between from 382.5 VAC to 427.5
VAC.
o (b) The voltage would have to rise to 382.5 VAC.
o (c) The voltage would have to rise to 427.5 VAC.
o (d) The voltage would have to rise to a value ranging from between 405 VAC to
450 VAC.

552. Emergency generators are required to automatically start upon a loss of normal
supply voltage, according to 46 CFR, Subchapter J (Electrical
Engineering). In conducting a test of the emergency generator
automatic transfer of load function, if the normal system supply
voltage is 480 VAC, to what value would the normal source output
voltage have to rise to trigger the automatic transfer of emergency
loads back to the normal power source?

o (a) It would have to rise to a value between from 440 VAC to 460 VAC.
(b) It would have to rise to a value between from 408 VAC to 456 VAC.
o (c) It would have to rise to 456 VAC.
o (d) It would have to rise to 408 VAC.

553. According to 46 CFR, Subchapter J (Electrical Engineering), which of the following

starting aids is the ONLY method allowed to ease the starting of emergency diesel
generator
engines?

o (a) Ether injection systems

(b) Thermostatically controlled electric jacket water heaters
 o (c) Electric, steam, or hot water heated lube oil heaters
o (d) Electric air intake heaters

554. According to 46 CFR, Subchapter J (Electrical Engineering), in response to a loss

of
normal power or a simulated test, when will the emergency loads automatically be
transferred to the
emergency diesel generator?

o (a) as soon as it is started

(b) when the potential from the emergency generator reaches 85 to 95 percent of
its normal value
o (c) when the electric potential of the ship's service generators drops to 85 to 95
percent of the
normal value
o (d) when the electric potential of the ship's service generators drops 15 to 40
percent below
normal value

555. According to 46 CFR, Subchapter J (Electrical engineering), regulations prohibit

the
use of portable electric cord or fixture wire aboard ship if that wire or cord is smaller
than what size?

o (a) 12 AWG
o (b) 14 AWG
o (c) 16 AWG
(d) 18 AWG

556. According to 46 CFR, Subchapter J (Electrical Engineering), what statement is

true
concerning the use of twist-on connectors?

o (a) Twist-on connectors may be used to facilitate a conductor splice.

o (b) Twist-on connectors may be used for making joints in cables.
(c) Twist-on connectors may be used in enclosures as long as the insulating cap
can be secured
to prevent loosening due to vibration.
o (d) Twist-on connectors may be used to extend the length of a circuit.

557. (2.1.21.4-4) According to CFR, Subchapter J (Electrical Engineering), which of the

following
statements is true concerning flexible electric cord and cable used aboard ship?

(a) No. 12 AWG cable or cord may be spliced for repairs if made in compliance
with CFR 111.60-
19.
o (b) No. 14 AWG cable or cord may be spliced for repairs if made in compliance
with CFR 111.60-
 19.
o (c) No. 16 AWG cable or cord may be spliced for repairs if made in compliance
with CFR 111.60-
19.
o (d) No. 18 AWG cable or cord may be spliced for repairs if made in compliance
with CFR 111.60-
19.

558. According to 46 CFR, Subchapter J (Electrical Engineering), when considering

replacement, instrument and control wiring in a switchboard is to be of what minimum
size?

o (a) 12 AWG
(b) 14 AWG
o (c) 16 AWG
o (d) 18 AWG

559. Electrical wire in general, when used aboard vessels must meet minimum
requirements. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

o (a) Wire need not be in an enclosure nor component insulated?

(b) Wire must be of the stranded copper type.
o (c) Each wire must be 14 AWG or larger, regardless of locations and use.
o (d) Wire must be of the solid copper type.

560. You are in the planning stages of making up a portable cable to be used for
transmitting power from a battery charger on a ship to a charging
receptacle on a lifeboat. According to 46 CFR, Subchapter J
(Electrical Engineering), which of the following statements is true
regarding the transmitting of power between receptacles?

o (a) The plug on the end of the cord that may be energized when unplugged from
the receptacle
must be male.
(b) The plug on the end of the cord that may be energized when unplugged from
the receptacle
must be female.
o (c) The plugs on both ends of the cord must be male.
o (d) Regulations do not allow transmitting power between receptacles under any
circumstances.

563. According to 46 CFR, Subchapter J (Electrical Engineering) regulations,

receptacle
outlets at or above what voltage are required to have grounding poles?
o (a) 24 volts
o (b) 48 volts
(c) 100 volts
o (d) 220 volts

564. According to 46 CFR, Subchapter J (Electrical Engineering) regulations, what is

the
minimum conductor size associated with a 25 or 30 ampere lighting
 branch circuit supplying a nonswitched cargo hold light fixture?
(a) 10 gauge
o (b) 12 gauge
o (c) 14 gauge
o (d) 16 gauge

565. What is the primary means by which an electrical maintenance worker is protected
from electrical hazards while performing work on an electrical circuit?
o (a) shutting down the necessary equipment
o (b) using the appropriate personal protective equipment
o (c) posting of safety warning signs
(d) performing a lockout/tagout procedure

566. Which of the following voltage testers would be associated with high quality, be
safe to
use, and minimize the electric shock hazard?

(a) a voltage tester with a high input impedance and a voltage rating higher than
any expected
measured voltages
o (b) a voltage tester with a low input impedance and a higher voltage rating than
any expected
measured voltages
o (c) a voltage tester with a low input voltage and a lower voltage rating than any
expected
measured voltage
o (d) a voltage tester with a high input impedance and a lower voltage rating than
any expected
measured voltages

567. Which of the following devices would be forbidden to use as a primary means of
electrical isolation?

o (a) circuit breaker

o (b) fused disconnect switch
o (c) non-fused disconnect switch
(d) start/stop pushbutton station

568. Before electrical work can be safely undertaken, the equipment must be de-
energized,
locked and tagged out, and verification must be made that the circuit
is actually dead. What testing device is most certain to reliably verify
that a circuit is actually dead?

(a) an auto-ranging digital multimeter

o (b) a solenoid type voltage tester
o (c) a non-auto ranging digital multimeter
o (d) a non-contact voltage tester

569. With all other factors considered equal (such as voltage, conducting path through
the
body and the duration of contact), contact with an energized
electrical system conductor of which system type would produce
the most damaging effect?

o (a) DC systems
(b) 60 Hz AC systems
o (c) 10 kHz AC systems
o (d) All the above systems would be equally as damaging

570. At a minimum threshold, how many milliamps of current through the body
produces a
condition where most people would suffer ventricular fibrillation and could only be
resuscitated with a
ventricular defibrillator?

o (a) 3 to 7 mA
o (b) 10 to 16 mA
o (c) 30 mA
(d) 75 mA for 5 sec.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

571. At a minimum threshold, how many milliamps of current through the body produces
a
condition where most people would experience respiratory paralysis
and be unable to breathe while still in contact with the energized
conductor?

o (a) 3 to 7 mA
o (b) 10 to 16 mA
(c) 30 mA
o (d) 75 mA for 5 sec.

572. At a minimum threshold, how many milliamps of current through the body produces
a
condition where most people would be unable to let go of the
energized electrical conductor due to involuntary muscular
contraction?

o (a) 3 to 7 mA
(b) 10 to 16 mA
o (c) 30 mA
o (d) 75 mA for 5 sec.

573. After prior isolation and lockout/tagout procedures are performed, which electrical
device requires discharging any stored electrical energy before any work may safely
begin?

o (a) potential transformer

(b) capacitor
o (c) resistor bank
o (d) choke coil

574. At a minimum threshold, how many milliamps of current through the body
produces a
painful sensation that most people would perceive as an electric shock?

(a) 3 to 7 mA
o (b) 10 to 16 mA
o (c) 30 mA
o (d) 100 mA for 2.5 sec.