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Instructions :
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1. This paper contains 180 objective questions; 90 from Biology, 45 from Physics and
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45 from Chemistry
2. Each question caries 4 marks. Candidate will get 4 marks for a correct response. For
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each incorrect response 1 mark will be deducted from the total score
3. Maximum time is 3 hours and maximum marks is 720
4. ra
To darken the appropriate circle of the correct option against each question use blue
or black ball point pen only. Answer marked with pencil would not be evaluated.
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Page 1
CHEMISTRY
1. Common salt obtained from sea-water 8. 10 mL of propane was mixed with 70 mL
contains 96% NaCl by mass. The of oxygen and exploded. What would be
approximate number of NaCl units present in the volume of residual gases after
10.0 g of the salt is explosion at room temperature and after
21 22 23 24
1)10 2) 10 3)10 4) 10 exposure of the residual gases to alkali?
2. Ionisation potential of He+ ion is Assume that volume measurement are
1) 13.6 eV atom-1 2) 27.2 eV atom-1 made at the same temperature and pressure
et
3) 54.4 eV atom -1
4) 109.6 eV atom-1 1) 55 mL, 25 mL 2) 40 mL, 15 mL
3. For which of the following vant Hoff 3) 50 mL, 20 mL 4) 35 mL, 40 Ml
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factor cannot be greater than unity?
1) K4[Fe(CN)6] 2) AlCl3 9. How many unpaired electrons are
3) NH2CONH2 4) KNO3 present in a triplet carbene
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4. On dissolving moderate amount of sodium
metal in liquid NH3 at low temperature,
1) 2 2) 1 3) 0 4) 3
which one of the following does not occur? 10. Energy levels A, B and C of a certain atom
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1) Na+ ions are formed in the solution corresponds to increasing values of energy,
2) liquid NH3 solution remains diamagnetic i.e., EA < EB < EC. If X1, X2 and X3 are
3) liquid NH3 solution becomes a good the
wavelengths of radiations for responding to
5.
conductor of electricity
4) blue coloured solution is obtained
3
NaCl is doped with 2 10 mol % SrCl2,
ra the transitions C to B, B to A and C to A
respectively, which of the following
statement is correct?
up
C
the concentration of cation vacancies is X1
B
1) 12.04 1018 mol1
2) 10.01 108 mol1 X2 X3
A
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electrolysis of brine solution. A reacts 11. An atom of element A has 3 elctrons in its
with SO2 to give B which forms C outermost shell while one of element X has
6
with excess of SO2. The substance C electrons in its outermost shell. The
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is formula
1) Na2S 2) NaHSO3 of the compound formed by A and X is
1) A2X4 2) A2X3
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Page 2
13. Exhausted permutit can be regenerated 19. Blue baby syndrome is due to the
using excess of ___ ions in water
1) sulphate 2) nitrate
1) dilute HCl 2) brine solution
3) phosphate 4) chloride
3) dilute KOH 4) pure water
20. The hybridization states of the central
14. For the reaction atoms
CO(g) + O2(g) CO2(g), H and S in the complexes Fe(CN)36 , Fe(CN)64 and
are -283kJ and -87 J/K respectively. It was Co(NO 2 )63 are
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intended to carry out this reaction at 1000, 1) d2sp3, sp3 and d4s2 respectively
1500, 3000 and 3500K. At which of the
2) d2sp3, sp3d and sp3d2 respectively
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temperature given below the reaction is
thermodynamically not feasible? 3) d2sp3, sp3d2 and dsp2 respectively
1)1000K 2) 1500K 3) 3000K 4) 3500K 4) all d2sp3
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15. Calculate the half-life of the first order 21. The IUPAC name for the complex
reaction, C2 H 4O ( g ) CH 4 ( g ) + CO ( g ) [Co(NH3)6] [Cr(CN)6] is
if the initial pressure of C2H4O(g) is 80mm 1) hexaammine cobalt (III)
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and the total pressure at the end of 20 hexacyanochromate (III)
minutes is 120 mm. 2) hexacyanochromium cobalt (III)
1) 40 min 2) 120 min hexaammine(VI)
3) 20 min 4) 80 min 3) hexaammine cobalt (III)
16. Biuret test is not answered by
1) Proteins 2) Carbohydrates
ra hexacyanochromium (VI)
4) hexacyanochromium (III)
hexaammine cobalt(III)
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3) Polypeptides 4) Urea
22. The following conversion requires
17. 0.16 g of methane is subjected to
C H3CH= CHCHO
combustion at 27C in a bomb calorimeter
CH3CH = CHCH2OH
system. The temperature of the
1) H2 Ni 2) B2H6
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calorimeter system
3) NaB H4 4) HI+redP
(including water) was found to rise by
0.5C. 23. HNO3 oxidises sulphur to X. H2SO4
Calculate the heat of combustion of oxidises sulphur to Y. X and Y are
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methane
at constant volume. The thermal capacity respectively.
of 1) H2SO4 and H2SO4 2) SO2 and SO2
the calorimeter system is 17.7 kJK1
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2) cis-1,4 configuration
dissolved in one litre of 0.1M NH4OH
3) Both cis and trans configuration solution so that it results into a buffer
4) Neither cis not trans configuration solution having pH = 9.26? (pKb =4.74)
1) 0.2moles 2) 0.1 moles
3) 0.05moles 4) 0.025moles
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26. Siderite and Sphalerite are respectively the
ores of the metals 34. Which nitrogen atom in LSD is most basic?
1) Al and Zn 2) Fe and Cu O
3) Cu and Zn 4) Fe and Zn 1 3
N (Et)2
H-N C
27. ZnO is white when cold but yellow when 2
hot because it develops N
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3)Metal excess defect 3) 2 4) all are equally basic
4) Metal deficiency defect 35. Which of the following is correct
28. If List I List (II)
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(Type of Reaction) (Phenomenon)
Ag + + 2NH 3 Ag(NH 3 )+2 ; K1 = 1.8 107
(A) SN2 (P) Walden inversion
Ag + + Cl AgCl; K 2 = 5.6 109
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(B) SN 1 (Q)Carbanion
Then for
intermediate
AgCl + 2NH 3 [Ag(NH3 ) 2 ]+ + Cl , (C) E2 (R) Anti-periplanar
Equilibrium constant will be
Configuration
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1)0.32 102 2) 3.11 102 (D) E1Cb (S) Carbocation
3)10.08 1016 4) 1.00 1017 intermediate
29. For a Ag Zn button cell, net reaction is 1)A-P, B-S, C-R, D-Q
Zn(s) + Ag 2 O(s)
ZnO(s) + 2Ag(s)
G of (Ag 2 O) = 11.21 kJ mol 1
G of (ZnO) = 318.3 kJ mol1
ra 2)A-P,B-Q,C-R, D-S
3)A-R, B-Q, C-P, D-S
4)A-S, B-R, C-Q, D-P
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Hence, E ocell of the button cell is 36.
number value I2
RCOOAg R COOR.....( II )
1) haemoglobin 2) starch
3) gum arabic 4) gelatin Reaction I is Hundsdicker reaction.
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3) CONH2 4) CN 4) Schotten-Baumann
33. For the compound 38. The product (X) of the following reaction
BH3 / THF
HOOC CHOHCHOH COOH, the 1 Pentene
X.
H 2 O2 / OH
number of optical isomers (dextro, laevo
and meso) is 1) 2-pentanol 2) pentane
1) 1 2) 3 3) pentan-2-one 4) 1-pentanol
3) 4 4) 2
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39. Which of the following gives positive
iodoform test
OH
CH CH3
OH
1) 2)
HO
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CH2CH2OH
3) 4)
40. Nucleophilicity is highest for which of the
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following
1) F 2) OH
3) NH 2 4) CH 3
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41. Which of the following is most reactive
towards nucleophilic addition reaction
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1) formaldehyde 2) acetaldehyde
3) acetone 4) benzaldehyde
3) B and C 4) A, B and C
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Page 5
PHYSICS :
51. Two stones are projected
46. If the capacitance of a nano capacitor simultaneously with same speed
is measured in terms of a unit u made 10 m/s from same point. The range of
by combining the electronic charge e, both are same and is equal to 5 3 m.
Bohr radius a0, Planks constant h Then the difference in their times of
and speed of light C then flight is . (g = 10 m/s2)
et
e2C e2 h 1) 3S 2) 1 S
1) u = 2) u =
ha 0 Ca 0 3) ( 3 1 S ) 4) 2 S
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2
e a0 hC 52. A body with mass 5 kg is acted upon
3) u = 4) u = 2
hC e a0
( )
by a force F = 3i+ 4j N . If its
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47. In an experiment, four quantities a, b,
c and d are measured with percentage initial velocity at t = 0 is
error 1%, 2%, 3% and 4% respectively. ( )
u = 6i12j m/s, the time at which it
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Quantity P is calculated as follows
will just have
a 3b 2 velocity along the y-axis is
P . Then percentage Error in
cd 1) Never 2) 10 S 3) 2 S 4) 15 S
48.
P is
1) 14% 2) 10% 3) 7% 4) 4%
A particle moves along X-axis. The
ra 53. A block of mass 15 kg is resting on a rough
up
inclined plane as shown in figure. The
velocity of the particle as function of
block is tied up by horizontal string which
x is V2 = 12x 3x3 (in SI), then the
velocity of particle at the instant when has a tension of 50 N. The coefficient of
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450
a a
r r
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1) 2)
1) 1/2 2) 2/3
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a a 3) 3/4 4) 1/4
Page 6
I + I22
1) 1 1
55. Two particles A and B of masses m 2 (I 1 + I 2 )
and 2 m are moving along the X-axis 2
and Y-axis respectively with the same (I 1 + I 2 )(1 + 2 )
2)
speed . They collide, at the origin 2
and coalesce into one body after the 2
(I 1 1 + I 2 2 )
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collision. Then the loss of energy 3)
2 (I 1 + I 2 )
during this collision is
4) None of these
1 3 2 2
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1) m 2 2) m 2 3) m 2 4) m 2 59. A particle executes SHM on a straight
2 2 5 3 path. The amplitude of oscillation
56. Two semicircular rings of linear mass is 2 cm. When the displacement of the
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densities and 3 and of radius R particle from the mean position is
each are joined to form a complete 1 cm, the numerical value of
ring. The distance of the centre of the magnitude of acceleration is equal to
mass of complete ring from its
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the numerical value of magnitude of
geometrical centre is velocity. The frequency of SHM is (in
2R R 2R R second-1) :
1) 2) 3) 4)
3 3 2 3 1
57. The diagram shows a uniform disc of
mass M and radius a. If the moment
of inertia of the disc about the axis XY
ra 60.
1) 2 3 2)
3
3)
2
4)
a/2
en a/2
C
O
4 1 2) L2 > L1 and K2 = K1
1) Ma 2 2) I + Ma 2
3 4 3) L2 = L1 and K2 = K1
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I 4) L2 = L1 and K2 > K1
3) 2I 4)
2
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Page 7
61. A block of mass m is having two similar 64. A gas is found to obey the law
rubber ribbons attached to it as shown in the P2V = constant. The initial
temperature and volume are T0 and V0.
figure. The force constant of each rubber If the gas expands to a volume 3V0, its
ribbon is K and surface is frictionless. The final temperature becomes
block is displaced from mean position by x T0 T0
1) 2) 3) 3T0 4) 3 T0
cm and released. At the mean position the 3 3
65. An insulated container contains
et
ribbons are underformed. Period of
4 moles of an ideal diatomic gas at
vibration of the block is temperature T. Heat Q is supplied to
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this gas, due to which 2 moles of the
gas are dissociated into atoms but
temperature of the gas remains
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constant. Then
m 1) Q = 2RT 2) Q = RT
3) Q = 3RT 4) Q = 4RT
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66. Two rods of lengths L1 and L2 are
m ( 2k ) 1 m ( 2k ) welded together to make a composite
1) 2 2
2) rod of length (L1+L2). If the
k 2 k2
coefficients of linear expansion of the
3) 2
m
4) 2
m
ra rods are 1 and 2 respectively, the
effective coefficient of linear
up
k k+k expansion of the composite rod will
62. The diagram shows a venturimeter, be
through which water is flowing. The 2
1) 1 2 2) ( 1 + 2 )
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1) 23 cm/s 2) 32 cm/s
250 0 25 0
3) 101 cm/s 4) 1024 cm/s 1) C 2) C
3 3
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Keeping temperature constant, the 68. Two spherical black bodies of radii r1
radius of the soap bubble is doubled, and r2 and with surface temperature T1
the energy necessary for this will be and T2 respectively radiate the same
power. Then the ratio of r1 and r2 will
1) 24 r 2 T 2) 8 r 2 T be
3) 12 r 2 T 4) 16 r 2 T T2 2 T2 4 T1 2 T1 4
1) 2) 3) 4)
T1 T1 T2 T2
Page 8
69. A substance of mass m kg requires a 73. A moving coil galvanometer has 150
power input of P watts to remain in equal divisions. Its current sensitivity
the molten state at its melting point. is 10 divisions per milli ampere and
When the power is turned off, the voltage sensitivity is 2 divisions per
sample completely solidifies in time milli volt. In order that each division
t sec. What is the latent heat of fusion read 1 volt, the resistance in ohms
of the substance to be connected in series with
Pm Pt m t the coil will be
1) 2) 3) 4)
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t m Pt Pm 1) 9995 2) 995 3) 103 4) 105
74. A paramagnetic sample shows a net
70. Focal length of a lense is f ( of glass is
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magnetisation of 8 A/m when placed
3 ). Now it is immersed completely in in an external field of 0.6 T at a
2
temperature of 4K. When the same
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water ( = 4 3 ) . Then its focal length sample is placed in an external
magnetic field of 0.2 T at a
changes to
temperature of 16 K, the
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magnetisation will be
1) 4f 2) 2f
32 2
1) A/m 2) A/m
3) 3f 4) f/2 3 3
71. If the focal length of objective lens is
increased, magnifying power of
1) Microscope and telescope both will
ra 75.
3) 6 A/m 4) 2.4 A/m
In a double slit experiment, the two
slits are 1 mm apart and the screen is
up
increase placed 1 m away. A monochromatic
2) Microscope and telescope both will
light of wavelength 500 nm is used.
decrease
What should the width of each slit
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76.
heard by the driver has a frequency 2f.
across one gap of a meter-bridge (the
If V be the velocity of sound, then
length of the wire is 100 cm) and an
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77. A monoatomic gas at a pressure P, 80. An infinite, uniformly charged sheet
having a volume V expands with surface charge density cuts
through a spherical Gaussian surface
isothermally to a volume 4V and then
of radius R at a distance x from its
adiabatically to volume 16 V. The final centre, as shown in the figure. The
3 electric flux through the Gaussian
pressure of the gas is (Take = )
2 surface is
P P
1) 32 P 2) 3) 4) 64 P
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32 64
R
x
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78. In the electric network shown, when
no current flows through the 4
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resistor in the arm EB, the potential
difference between the points A and 1)
R 2
2)
(
2 R 2 x 2 )
D will be 0 0
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F
2
E 3)
(R x )
2
4)
(
R 2 x2 )
D
0 0
2V
4
2
4V
R ra 81. Shown in the figure is a conductor
carrying a current I. The magnetic
up
field intensity at the point O (common
A B C centre of all the three arcs) is
9V 3V I
1) 3V 2) 4V 3) 5V 4) 6V
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24 r
C3 C1 82. A conducting circular loop is placed in
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83. In a series resonant LCR circuit, the 1) Kinetic energy decreases, potential
voltage across R is 100 volts and energy increases but total energy
remains same
R=1K with C=2 F. The resonant
2) Kinetic energy increases, potential
frequency is 200 rad/s. At resonance energy decreases but total energy
the voltage across L will be remains same
3) Its kinetic energy increases but
1) 4103 V 2) 2.5103 V
potential energy and total energy
3) 40 V 4) 250 V decreases
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84. A fully charged capacitor C with 4) Kinetic energy, potential energy and
initial charge q 0 is connected to a coil total energy decreases
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of self inductance L at t = 0. The time 87. Half-lives of two radioactive elements
at which the energy is stored equally A and B are 20 minutes and 40
minutes, respectively. Initially, the
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between the electric and magnetic
fields is samples have equal number of nuclei.
After 80 minutes, the ratio of decayed
numbers of A and B nuclei will be
1) LC 2) LC
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4 1) 1 : 16 2) 4 : 1 3) 1 : 4 4) 5 : 4
88. Three photodiodes D1, D2 and D3 are
3) 2 LC 4) LC made of semiconductors having band
85. When photons of wavelength 1 are gaps of 2.5 eV, 2 eV and 3 eV
incident on an isolated sphere, the
corresponding stopping potential is
ra respectively. Which one will be able to
detect light of wavelength 6000A0 ?
1) D1 2) D2
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found to be V. When photons of 3) D3 4) All the above
wavelength 2 are used, the
89. Statement-A : If the earth did not have
corresponding stopping potential was an atmosphere, its average surface
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1
2) + 1) Both A & B are true
e 3 2 2 1
2) A is true, B is false
hc 1 1 3) A is false, B is true
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1
3) 4) Both A & B are false
e 3 2 1
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C) User of information
86. As an electron makes a transition from D) Channel E) Receiver
an excited state to the ground state of Choose the correct sequence in which
hydrogen like atom / ion these are arranged in a basic
communication system.
1) A, B, C, D, E 2) B, A, D, E, C
3) B, D, A, C, E 4) B, E, A, D, C
Page 11
BIOLOGY : 95. Ulothrix, Riccia and ferns are similar
91. The taxonomical aid which is an index in having
of plant species in an area is 1) Dominant gametophyte
1) Grade 2) Manuals 2) Unicellular gametangia
3) Monographs 4) Flora 3) Absence of vascular tissues
92. Match the following column-I and 4) Presence of flagellated gametes
column II 96. Match the followings and choose correct
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option.
Column-I Column II Group-A Group-B
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1)Endogenous i) Basidiospore
A)Aleurone layer i) Without fertilization
mitospore
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B)Parthenocarpic ii) Nutrition fruit
2) Exogenous ii) Conidia
C) Ovule iii) Double fertilization
mitospore
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3)Exogenous iii) Ascospore D) Endosperm iv) Seed
meiospore Option :
3) 1-iv, 2-iii, 3-i, 4-ii 97. Which of the following group of plants
4) 1-iii, 2-i, 3-ii, 4-iv have root to provide the support to the
upright shoot system like ropes of a
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94. Which of the following are not a group 4) Screw pine, Maize, Sweet potato
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of brown algae ?
1) Sargassum and Fucus
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2) Ectocarpus. Dictyota
3) Dictyota, Laminaria
4) Sargassum and Ficus
98. Floral formula of Solanaceae is 101. Annual rings comprises
1) Primary and secondary xylem
1) O P2 A3 G2
+ 2) Secondary xylem and secondary
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4) O K(5) C(5) A5 G(2)
+ secondary growth in dicot root
99. Examine the types of aestivation shown in
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1) Activity of vascular cambium
the following diagram and select the
correct answer. 2) Formation of cambium strip from
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pericycle part
3) Origin of cambium strips for
conjuctive tissue
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4) Origin of cork cambium from
1) A-Twisted, B-Imbricate, C-Vexillary, D-
Valvate pericycle
1) Lysosome 2) Glyoxisome
4) A-Valvate, B-Twisted, C-Imbricate, D-
Vexillary
3) Ribosome 4) Peroxisome
104. One of the following serves as a
100. Select the incorrect match
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component ?
1) Activity will be increased
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107. The graph shows 110. Mark the incorrect statement
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1) Water moves from hypotonic solution
to hypertonic solution
2) Water moves from cell having higher
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water potential to cell with lower
water potential
3) Water moves from cell with high
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w to cell with low w
1) Effect of CO2 concentration on rate of 4) Water moves from cell with lower
photosynthesis.
2) Effect of O2 concentration on rate of
ra111.
turgor pressure to cell with higher
turgor pressure
Zn is required for synthesis of
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photosynthesis. precursor of
3) Effect of H 2O concentration on rate of 1) Auxin 2) Gibberellin
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1)Anaphase I-Homologous
chromosomes are separated 3) Zinc iii) Plastocyanin
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chromosomes
4) Prophase-Non- homologous 1) 1-iii, 2-i, 3-iv, 4-ii
chromosomes are separated 2) 1-iii, 2-ii, 3-i, 4-iv
3) 1-i, 2-iv, 3-ii, 4-iii
4) 1-iv, 2-iii, 3-i, 4-ii
113. Choose the correct combinations of 118. Abscissic acid acts as an inhibitor of
labeling the carbohydrate molecule
involved in the Calvin cycle.
plant growth and metabolism. In other
words we can say that is
1) Stimulates seed germination
2)Stimulates closure of stomata
3) Decreases the tolerance of plants to
various kinds of stress
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4) Inhibits dormancy in seeds
1) (i) RuBP (ii) Triose phosphate (iii) PGA
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119. In haplontic life cycle, meiosis occurs
2) (i) PGA (ii) RuBP (iii) Triose phosphate
at the time of
3) (i) PGA (ii) Triose phosphate (iii) RuBP
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1)Spore formation
4) (i) RuBP (ii) PGA (iii) Triose phosphage
2) Gamete formation
114. Components of cytochrome C 3) Zygote germination
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reductase complex of ETS in 4) Zygote formation
mitochondria are 120. Select an incorrect statement
1) Cyt a , a3
3) Cyt b , FeS & Cyt c1
2)Cyt c, c1
4) FMN, FeS
ra regarding endosperm formation
from central cell
up
1) PEN (primary endosperm nucleus)
115. Maximum RQ value is seen when divides by free nuclear division in
many plants
1) Malic acid is respiratory substrate
2) Endosperm is main nutritive tissue in
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1) 28 2) 21 3) 42
117. Antibiotics are mostly obtained from 4) None endosperm will be produced
1) Fungi
2) Actinomycetes
3) Cyanobacteria
4) Both 1 and 2
122. Arrange the stages of embryogeny in a 1) Ribosomal RNA 2) snRNA
dicotyledonous embryos in correct 3) t RNA 4) All of these
order - 127. Four samples of double stranded DNA
1) Zygote, proembryo, globular, heart- are analysed and the following
shaped, mature embryo information is obtained
2) Zygote, globular, proembryo, heart 1) Sample 1-15% thymine
shaped, mature embryo 2) Sample 2-20% guanine
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3) Zygote, heart- shaped, globular, 3) Sample 3-30% adenine
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proembryo, mature embryo 4) Sample 4-40% cytosine
4) Zygote, mature embryo, globular, Which of these samples represent
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heart- shaped, proembryo DNA from the same source ?
123. The Mendelian principle which has 1) 1 and 2 2) 2 and 3
always stood true is 3) 3 and 4 4) 1 and 4
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1) The law of independent assortment 128. Khorana and his colleagues
2) The law of segregation synthesized a RNA molecule with
3) The law of dominance
4) All the above
ra repeating sequence of UG N-bases
(UGUGUGUGUGUG).It produced a
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124. Behaviour of chromosomes is parallel tetrapeptide with alternating sequence
to the behaviour of genes during of cysteine and valine. It proves that
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125. Which of the following is not included 129. Differentiation of callus into plant
in mendelian principles of inheritance ? parts is
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1) Dominance 1) Embryogenesis
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4) Independent assortment
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Column-I Column II
a)
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b)
a)Himgiri i)White rust
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stripe rust
c) Prabhani iii) Bacterial c)
d)
kranti blight
tib
d) Pusa komal iv) Yellow
mosaic virus 136. Study the stages in cross bridge cycle and
identify B, C and E respectively.
1) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
3) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
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2) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
4) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
132. Identify the statement which is not
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true for Bt- toxin ?
1) It is the product of cry gene of
Bacillus thuringienis
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larvae
1) ATP, P, ADP 2) ADP, ATP, P
4) The toxin causes cell wall damage to
Bacillus thuringiensis 3) ADP, P, ATP 4) ATP, ADP, P
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Salmonella With
1) Typhoid 1) Competitive release
typhi inspired air
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Streptococcus Droplet 2) Resource partitioning
2) Pneumonia
pneumoniae inhaling
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3) Interference competition
Contaminat
Wuchereria
3) Elephantiasis ed water 4) Competitive exclusion
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bancrofti
and food
142. Which scientist found that plots with more
Bite of
species showed less year - to - year variation
Plasmodium female
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4) Malaria in total biomass ?
vivax Culex
mosquito
1) David Tilman 2) Paul Ehrlich
139. Which is the best breeding method for
animals that are below average
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in 3) Robert May 4) Edward Wilson
up
productivity ? 143. Recognise the figure and find out the correct
matching with respect to green house gases.
1) Out Crossing
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2) Cross breeding
3) Out breeding
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4) Interspecific hybridization
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3) Regulate 4) 2 and 3
4) a - CFCs, b N2O, d - CO2, c - CH4
144. Match the Columns I and II, and choose the 147. PTH stimulates
correct combination from the options given. 1) Reabsorption of Ca2+ by the renal tubules
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intracellular receptor and then with genome
d) Dentalium 4) Squid
is
e) Aplysia 5) Tusk-shell
.n
1) Oxytocin 2) Aldosterone
1) a 3, b 4, c 1, d 5, e 2 3) Adrenaline 4) Glucagon
ha
2) a 4, b 3, c 2, d 5, e 1 149. Otolith organs are related to sense of
1) Touch 2) Hearing
3) a 3, b 4, c 1, d 2, e 5
tib
3) Smell 4) Balance
4) a 5, b 1, c 3, d 4, e 2
150. Study the given pathway of conduction of
145. Match the Columns-I and II, and choose the
correct combination from the options given. ra visual impulses.
ganglion cells
1) a 4, b 3, c 2, d 1 3) Formation of rhodopsin, ganglion cells,
2) a 3, b 4, c 1, d 2 bipolar cells
.e
4) a 3, b 4, c 2, d 1
2) LH and Oxytocin 2) Amount of light that enters into eye can not
be altered
3) Androgens and prolactin
3) Normal movements of eye ball are not
4) FSH and LTH possible
et
153. Match the given columns with respect to
human brain. 156. Cancer is caused due to activation of .. to
.n
.. or inactivation of ..
Column-I Column-II
1) Tumour suppressor gene, oncogene
A) Medulla I) Body temperature
ha
protooncogene
B) Limbic system II) Communication
2) Oncogene, tumour suppressor
C) Association
tib
III) Gastric secretions protooncogene
areas
1) IV
B
II
C
I
D
III
ra suppressor gene
K+ pump.
et
3) Formation of spermatozoa from primary 1) GIFT 2) ZIFT 3) ICSI 4) IUI
spermatocytes through mitosis
164. During prolonged fasting, the sequence of
.n
4) Formation of spermatids from organic compounds used by the body is
spermatocytes through meiosis
ha
1) Proteins, lipids, carbohydrates
160. Which of the following statements is not
2) Fats, carbohydrates, proteins
correct ?
tib
3) Carbohydrates, proteins, lipids
1) Oxyntic cells are present in the mucosa of
stomach and secrete HCl 4) Carbohydrates, fats, proteins
submucosa of stomach and secrete mucus of 166. What will be the pO2 and pCO2 in the
ad
161. Foetal membrane that provides the first 2) pO2 lesser, pCO2 lesser
blood corpuscles for circulation in embryo
.e
suffering from
162. Implants under the skin and injections are 1) Albinism 2) Phenylketonuria
w
1) Progestogens alone
2) Estrogen alone
168. Match the columns. 172. DNA polymorphism that has been used to
develop the DNA fingerprinting technology
Column-I Column-II
is based upon
1) Sickle cell
a) 7th chromosome 1) Single nucleotide polymorphism
anaemia
2) VNTRs
2) Phenylketonuria b) 16th chromosome
3) Number of protein coding genes
3) Cystic fibrosis c) 11th chromosome
et
4) Unique nucleotide bases present in genome
4) Alpha thalassemia d) X-chromosome
173. Resemblance between widely different
.n
5) Protanopia e) 12th chromosome
groups due to a common adaptation is
1) 1 a, 2 c, 3 d, 4 b, 5 e
1) Convergent evolution
ha
2) 1 c, 2 e, 3 a, 4 b, 5 d 2) Divergent evolution
3) 1 b, 2 c, 3 d, 4 e, 5 a
tib
3) Parallel evolution
4) 1 e, 2 c, 3 a, 4 b, 5 d 4) Retrogressive evolution
et
grow in streptomycin containing medium
due to
.n
1) Founder effect
ha
2) Natural selection
3) Induced mutation
tib
4) Dormency
1) Measles 2) Tuberculosis
en
1) Hepatitis, Syphilis
w
2) Typhoid, Tetanus
w
3) Rabies, Mumps
w
4) Cholera, Tetanus
1) d 2)a 3) b 4) c
KEY SHEET
CHEMISTY
1) 3 2) 3 3) 3 4) 2 5) 1 6) 2 7) 2 8) 3 9) 1 10) 3
11) 2 12) 3 13) 2 14) 4 15) 3 16) 2 17) 4 18) 2 19) 2 20) 4
21) 1 22) 3 23) 4 24) 3 25) 3 26) 4 27) 3 28) 1 29) 4 30) 1
31) 4 32) 1 33) 2 34) 3 35) 1 36) 3 37) 1 38) 4 39) 1 40) 4
et
41) 1 42) 3 43) 3 44) 1 45) 4
PHYSICS
.n
46) 3 47) 1 48) 2 49) 3 50) 2 51) 3 52) 2 53) 1 54) 3 55) 4
56) 2 57) 3 58) 3 59) 3 60) 4 61) 3 62) 2 63) 1 64) 4 65) 2
ha
66) 3 67) 1 68) 1 69) 2 70) 1 71) 4 72) 2 73) 1 74) 2 75) 2
76) 1 77) 2 78) 3 79) 3 80) 4 81) 1 82) 2 83) 4 84) 2 85) 4
tib
86) 3 87) 4 88) 2 89) 2 90) 2
BIOLOGY
91)
101)
4
3
92)
102)
2
2
93)
103)
3
4
94)
104)
4
4
95)
105)
ra
4
2
96)
106)
2
2
97)
107)
2
2
98)
108)
4
1
99)
109)
4
3
100)
110)
3
4
up
111) 1 112) 1 113) 4 114) 3 115) 1 116) 4 117) 4 118) 2 119) 3 120) 2
121) 4 122) 1 123) 2 124) 1 125) 3 126) 4 127) 2 128) 3 129) 3 130) 1
ad
136) 3 137) 1 138) 2 139) 1 140) 1 141) 3 142) 1 143) 2 144) 1 145) 1
en
146) 1 147) 1 148) 2 149) 4 150) 4 151) 3 152) 4 153) 3 154) 1 155) 4
156) 3 157) 4 158) 3 159) 4 160) 3 161) 1 162) 4 163) 1 164) 4 165) 3
.e
166) 4 167) 4 168) 2 169) 1 170) 2 171) 1 172) 2 173) 1 174) 2 175) 4
w
This model test paper was prepared and verified by Senior faculty
w
C e2
h =
et
a0 capacity
e 2 a0
capacity =
.n
hC
47. P
100 = 3
a
100 + 2
b
100 +
c
100 +
d
100
P a b c d
ha
9
48. V 2 = 12x 3x 3 a = 6 x2
2
dV 3 9
= 12 9x 2 = 6 x2
tib
2V
dx 2 2
dV 9 9 2
V = 6 x2 x = 4.5
dx 2 2
x2 = 1 x = 1
V 2 = 12 (1) 3(1)
3
ra
up
V2 = 9
V = 3 m/s
ad
V2
49. a= , is constant
r
1
Hence a ar = constant
en
r
50. ( )( )
A.B = i +j . i j = 11 = 0
.e
u 2 sin 2 10 10 sin 2
R= ,5 3=
g 10
w
3
sin 2 = 2 = 600 , = 300
2
w
2u sin 1 2 10 sin 30
T1 = = =1
g 10
2u sin 2 210 sin 60
T2 = = = 3
g 10
Difference in time = ( )
3 1 s
3 4
52. a = F / m = i + j
5 5
u = 6i12j
as finial velocity in along y-axis, its x-component must be zero
Vx = 0
3
ux + axt = 0 6 t = 0
5
t = 10 sec
et
150 50 150 50
53. = +
2 2 2 2
.n
150 50
(1 ) = (1 + )
2 2
3 3 = 1 +
ha
2 1
= =
4 2
54. Work done by the heart in 1 min = 0.5 x 72
tib
= 36 J
Power of the heart
36
55.
P=
60
= 0.6 W
V 2 4V 2 5
Vf = + = V
9 9 3
Loss of kinetic energy during the collision
en
1 1 1 5V 2
= m + 2m (3m)
2 2
2 2 2 3
.e
2
= m 2
3
w
=
M1 + M2 4M
w
Ma 2 a 2 Ma 2
57. I= + M =
4 2 2
2
Ma 2 a 2 a 2
Now I 0 = + M +
2 2 2
Ma 2 Ma 2
= + = Ma 2 = 2I
2 2
58. (I 1 1 + I 2 2 ) = (I 1 + I 2 ) /
I 1 1 + I 2 2
/ =
(I 1 + I 2 )
1
K f = (I 1 + I 2 ) /2
2
2
(I + I 2 2 )
= 1 1
2 (I 1 + I 2 )
et
2 3
59. V = a 2 (a / 2 ) = a
2
.n
n 2a
acc f =
2
ha
V = f
2a 3
= a
2 2
tib
2n = 3
3
n=
60.
2
Conceptual
1
ra
up
61. E= y (strain)2
2
2E
strain =
y
ad
2
62. V2 2 = V12 + 2gh = (2) + 2 10005.1101 = 1024
V2 = 32 cm/s
en
63. W = T (A )
= T2 4 (2r ) 4r 2
2
.e
(
= 2T 4r 2 3 )
= 24r 2 T
w
T2 V = T = 3 T0
T02 V0
w
et
L = L 0 + (L 1 1 + L 2 2 ) t
Effective coefficient of expansion of the composite rod is,
.n
L L 0 L 1 1 + L 2 2
= 1 =
L0t L1 + L2
ha
(d0 )w (d0 )B
67. =
(1 + w t ) (1 + B t )
68. P = A T 4 = 4 r 2 T 4 P r 2 T 4 or
tib
2
2 1 r1 T2
r 4 [As P=constant] =
T r2 T1
1 3 1 1
70. = 1
f 2 R1 R 2
1 3/ 2 1 1
= 1
en
f' 4/3 R1 R 2
f ' 1/ 2
= =4 f ' 4f
f 1/ 8
.e
L n 1
71. For microscope m = M
t0 te t0
w
t
For telescope m = 0 M t 0
te
w
V + a
72. t| = f 2V 2a = V + a
V a
w
V + a
2t = f V = 3a
V a
a = V/3
10
150 15
73. Vg = = 75mV 150 = (5 + R )
2 1000
150
ig = = 15mA 1000 = 5 + R
10
Vg 75
G= = = 5 R = 9995
ig 15
V = if (G + R)
C
et
74. as M = m H and m =
T
CH M 1 H1 T2
M= (or) =
.n
T M 2 H 2 T1
H T 0.2 4 2
M 2 = M 1 2 1 = (8) = A / m
ha
H T 0.6 16 3
1 2
10 D 2 D d 1mm
75. = a= = = 0.2mm
d a 5 5
tib
In a double slit experiment, the two slits are 1 mm apart and the screen is placed 1 m
away. A monochromatic light of wavelength 500 nm is used.
2 x + 20
76. = , =
77.
x 100 2 80
on solving we get x = 3
Isothermal process
ra
up
P1V1 = P2V2
P V = P2 ( 4V )
P2 = P/4
ad
4
3/2
P 1 P 1 P
Pf = = =
4 4 4 8 32
.e
78.
i 2
F E D
w
2V i
4
w
2 R
4V
w
A i i B C
9V 3V
Given no current pass through 4V
Apply KVL to EBCDE
4 + 3 + iR = 0 iR = 1V
Now VA9+3+iR=VD
VA9+3+1=VD
VAVD=931=94=5V
79.
C2=2C
3C C
4C=C4
V
Q4 = 4CV
6 6CV Q 6CV 1 3
et
Q 2 = C V = 2= =
11 11 Q4 11 4CV 22
80. (
Charge enclosed q en = R 2 x 2 )
.n
R
r
ha
x
tib
Here r = R 2 x 2
sphere =
(
R 2 x 2 )
81. B=
0I 1 1
+
0
1
4 r 2r 3r
ra
up
5 0 I
24 r
ad
82. = BA = Br 2
d dr
e= = B2r
dt dt
en
= 0.025 2 2 102
(1103 )
.e
= V
Vrms 100 1
83. at resonance i rms = = 3= A
w
R 10 10
1 1 1
VL = VC = i rms =
WC 10 200 2 106
w
1000 1000
= = 250V
w
4 1000
84. Charge on the capacitor at any instant t is q = q0 coswt . (1)
equal sharing of energy means
1
energy of a capacitor = total energy
2
1 q 2 1 1 q 02 q
= q= 0
2 C 22 C 2
q
from (1) 0 = q 0 cos wt wt =
2 4
et
t= t= LC
4W 4
.n
hC hC
85. eV = . (1)
1 0
ha
hC hC
3eV = . (2)
2 0
hC hC
eV | = . (3)
tib
3 0
hC 3hC hC hC 1 3 1
from (1), (2) = Put it is (3) we get V| = +
0 21 2 2 e 3 21 2 2
86.
87.
Conceptual ra
t = 80 min, for A 4 half lives and for B 2 half lives
up
N0 15
N0 4 N0
2 16 5
Ans. = =
N 3 4
N 0 20 N0
ad
2 4
12400
88. Energy of a photon of wavelength 6000A0 is E = 2.07 eV
600
For the photodiode to detect incident light E > Eg (Band gap). This condition is satisfied by
en
photodiode D2 where
Eg = 2eV
89. Conceptual
.e
90. Conceptual
w
w
w
This model test paper solutions were prepared and verified by Senior faculty
Sri Chaitanya Medical Academy
Telangana & Andhra Pradesh.