Narayana Medical Academy

TELANGANA, ANDHRA PRADESH

Course: SR N-SPARK+ LT BIPC Date: 04-04-2017
Time : 1 Hrs DPT Max.Marks : 360M

PHYSICS terminal voltage during discharge is 14 V.

The Watt-hour efficiency of the battery is
1) 82.5% 2) 80% 3) 90% 4) 87.5%
1. An electric cell of e.m.f E is connected 6. A meter bridge is set-up as shown, to
across a copper wire of diameter d and length determine an unknown resistance X
l . The drift velocity of electrons in the wire is using a standard 10 ohm resistor. The
d . If the length of the wire is changed to 2 l , the galvanometer shows null point when
new drift velocity of electrons in the copper wire tapping key is at 52cm mark. The end-
will be corrections are 1cm and 2cm respectively
for the ends A and B. The determined
1) d 2) 2d
value of X is
3) d / 2 4) d / 4
2. The colour sequence in a carbon resistor is red,
brown, orange and silver. The resistance of the
resistor is
1) 21 103 10% 2) 23 101 10% 1)j 10.2 ohm 2) 10.6 ohm
3 3
3) 21 10 5% 4) 12 10 5% 2) 10.8 ohm 4) 11.1 ohm
3. A 5V battery with internal resistance 2 and a 7. A potentiometer having the potential
2V battery with internal resistance 1 are gradient of 2 mV/cm is used to measure
connected to a 10 resistor as shown in the figure the difference of potential across a
resistance of 10 ohm. If a length of 50 cm
of the potentiometer wire is required to get
the null point, the current passing
through the 10 ohm resistor is (in mA)
1) 1 2) 2 3) 5 4) 10
The current in the 10 resistor is
8. Electric field (E) and current density (J)
1) 0.03A P1 to P2 2) 0.03A P2 to P1
have relation
3) 0.27A P1 to P2 4) 0.27A P2 to P1
4. Kirchhoffs I law and II law of current, 1) E J 1 2) E J
prove the 1 2 1
3) E 4) E
1) Conservation of charge and energy J2 J
2) Conservation of current and energy 9. You are given several identical resistances
3) Conservation of mass and charge each of value R=10 and each capable of
4) None of these carrying maximum current of 1 ampere. It is
5. A battery is charged at a potential of 15V required to make a suitable combination of these
for 8 hours when the current flowing is resistances to produce a resistance of 5 which
10A. The battery on discharge supplies a can carry a current of 4 ampere. The minimum
current of 5A for 15 hours. The mean

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 number of resistance of the type R that will be through a section of the conductor during
required for this job t = 2 sec to t = 3 sec is
1) 4 2) 10 3) 8 4) 20 1) 10 C 2) 24 C 3) 33 C 4) 44 C
10. The potential difference across 8 ohm resistance is 15. Two conductors have the same resistance
48 volt as shown in the figure. The value of at 00C but their temperature coefficients of
potential difference across X and Y points will be resistance are 1 and 2 . The respective
temperature coefficients of their series and parallel
combinations are nearly
1 2 1 2 1 2
1) , 2) , 1 2
2 2 2
2
3) 1 2 , 1 4) 1 2 , 1 2
2 1 2
1) 160 volt 2) 128 volt
16. Ten identical cells connected in series are needed
3) 80 volt 4) 62 volt
to heat a wire of length one meter and radius r by
11. An ionization chamber with parallel
100C in time t. How many cells will be required to
conducting plates as anode and cathode
heat the wire of length two meter of the same
has 5 107 electrons and the same number of
radius by the same temperature in time t
singly-charged positive ions per cm3. The electrons
1) 20 2) 30 3) 40 4) 10
are moving at 0.4 m/s. The current density from
2
anode to cathode is 4 A / m . The velocity of 17. In the following circuit, 5 resistor develops 45 J/s
positive ions moving towards cathode is due to current flowing through it. The power
1) 0.4 m/s 2) 16 m/s developed per second across 12 resistor is
3) Zero 4) 0.1 m/s
12. In the given circuit, with steady current, the
potential drop across the capacitor must be

1) 16 W 2) 192 W 3) 36 W 4) 64 W
18. If a wire of resistance 20 is covered with ice and
1) V 2) V/2 3) V/3 4) 2V/3 a voltage of 210 V is applied across the wire, then
13. In the circuit element given here, if the the rate of melting of ice is
potential at point B, VB=0, then the 1) 0.85 g/s 2) 1.92 g/s
potentials of A and D are given as 3) 6.56 g/s 4) All of these
19. Water of volume 2 litre in a container is heated
with a coil of 1 kW at 270C. The lid of the container
is open and energy dissipates at rate of 160 J/s. In
1) VA = - 1.5V, VD= +2V How much time temperature will rise from 270C to
2) VA = + 1.5V, VD= +2V 770C [Given specific heat of water is 4.2 kJ/kg]
3) VA = +1.5V, VD= +0.5V 1) 8 min 20 s 2) 6 min 2 s
4) VA = +1.5V, VD= -0.5V 3) 7 min 4) 14 min
14. The current in a conductor varies with 20. A 100 W bulb B1, and two 60-W bulbs B2 and B3 are
time t as I = 2t + 3t2 where I is in ampere connected to a 250 V source, as shown in the
and t in seconds. Electric charge flowing figure. Now W1, W2 and W3 are the output powers
of the bulbs B1, B2 and B3 respectively. Then

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 1) W1 W2 W3 2) W1 W2 W3
3) W1 W2 W3 4) W1 W2 W3
21. The equivalent resistance between the points P
and Q in the network given here is equal to
3
(given r = )
2

1 3
1) 2) 1 3) 4) 2
2 2
22. In the shown arrangement of the
experiment of the meter bridge if AC
corresponding to null deflection of
galvanometer is x, what would be its value
if the radius of the wire AB is doubled

1) x 2) x/4 3) 4x 4) 2x
23. If voltage across a bulb rated 220 Volt
100 Watt drops by 2.5% of its rated value,
the percentage of the rated value by which
the power would decrease is
1) 20% 2) 2.5 % 3) 5% 4) 10%

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 CHEMISTRY
24. Which of the following acids on
decarboxylation gives isobutane
1) 2,2-Dimethyl butanoic acid 29.
2) 2,2-dimethyl propanoic acid
3) 3-Methyl pentanoic acid
4) 2-Methyl butanoic acid
25.

26.

30. The addition of Br2 to cis-2-butene produces

1) (+)-2, 3-dibromobutane only
2) (-)-2, 3-dibromoburane only
3) racemic -2,3-dibromoburane
4) meso -2, 3-dibromobutane
31. Which of the following alkenes on ozonolysis give
a mixture of ketones only

27.

32.

28. Which of the following is maximum reactive

for NBS

33.

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 1) CH 3CH 2CHO, CH 3COCH 3
2) CH 3COCH 3 , CH 3CH 2CHO
3) CH 3COCH 3 both
4) CH 3COCH 3 , CH 3CH 2 CH 2OH
34. 39. Which of the following reaction gives t-butyl
benzene;
AlCl
1) C6 H 6 t butyl chloride,
3

HF
2) C6 H 6 (CH 3 ) 2 C CH 2
H 2 SO4
3) C6 H 6 t butyl alcohol
4) All of them
1) An optically active compound 40. Which of the following give acetylene by
2) An optically inactive compound electrolysis
3) A racemic mixture 1) Sodium fumarate
4) A diasteromeric mixture 2) Sodium succinate
3) Sodium maleate
CH 3 MgBr
CH CH A( gas ) B, 4) (1) & (3) both
35.
CH 3 1
B C .C is 41.
1) CH 4
2) CH 3 CH 3
3) CH C CH 3
4) CH 3 C C I
36. Which of the following reaction shows that there
are three C=C bond in benzene
FeBr
a) C6 H 6 Br2
3

H 2 SO4 42. Among the following the most reactive towards
b) C6 H 6 HNO3
alcoholic KOH is
c) C6 H 6 O3
1) CH 2 CHBr
Ni
d) C6 H 6 3H 2 ; code is 2) CH 3COCH 2CH 2 Br
1) a,c 2) b,d 3) b,c,d 4) c,d 3) CH 3CH 2 Br
37. Chlorination of toluene in the presence of
light and heat followed by treatment with 4) CH 3CH 2CH 2 Br
aqueous NaOH gives 43. Products of the following reaction are
1) o cresol 1) O3
CH 3C C .CH 2CH 3
2) Hydrolysis
2) p cresol
3) 2,4-dihydroxy toluene 1) CH 3COOH CH 3COCH 3
4) Benzyl alcohol
38. 2) CH 3COOH HOOC.CH 2CH 3
3) CH 3CHO CH 3CH 2 CHO

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 4) CH 3COOH CO2 3) of the F2 generation receive a pair of
homozygous genes from male parent another
44. Basic strength of
pair from female parent

a) H 3C C H 2 2) H 2C C H and 4) Chromosomal aberrations are commonly
observed in cancer cells

c) HC C 52. Match the following about F2 generation of
1) (a) > (c) > (b) 2) (a) > (b) > (c) mendels dihybrid cross
Character Number of Individuals
3) (b) > (a) > (c) 4) (c) > (b) > (a)
A)Double heterozygous I) One
45. The major organic compound formed by the Phenotype
reaction of 1, 1, 1-trichloroethane with silver B)Double heterozygous II) Eight
powder is Genotype
1) 2-Butyne 2) 2- Butene C) Single heterozygous III) Four
3) Acetylen 4) Ethene Genotype
D) Double recessive IV) Nine
Genotype
A B C D
BOTANY 1) IV III II I
2) IV I II III
3) I II III IV
46. If a plant heterozygous for tallness is selfed,
4) III IV II I
the F2 genration has both tall and dwarf
53. Identify the genotype of organism which can
plants. This proves the principle of :
produce two types of gametes Ab and AB
1) Dominance
1) AABb 2) AAbb 3) aaBB 4) AaBB
2) Segregation
54. Which is correct?
3) Independent assortment
1) Each back cross is test cross
4) Incomplete dominance
2) Each test cross is back cross
47. If 2n = 20 in a plant, then how many linkage
3) Crossing F2 with F1 is called test cross
groups are present in this
4) Crossing F2 with either parent is called test
1) 20 2) 10 3) 5 4) 5 or 10
cross
48. More the distance between the two genes on
55. Sickle cell anaemia is an example of
a chromosome
1) Epistasis 2)Codominance
1) More is the linkage strength
3) Pleiotropy 4) Incomplete dominance
2) Lesser is the linkage strength
56. In Mendelian dihybrid cross the yellow and
3) Linkage strength remains unchanged
green colour of seed is segregated in the ratio
4) None of the above
of
49. A cross is made between pure tall and yellow
1) 3:1 2) 10:6 3) 9:4 4) 9:7
pod plant and pure dwarf and green pod
57. Drosophila melanogaster is found to be very
plant. Calculate the number of dwarfs in F2
suitable for genetic studies because
genaration:
i) They could be grown in simple synthetic
1) 3 2) 1 3) 9 4) 4
medium in the laboratory
50. The probability of spotted dotted individuals
ii) They complete their life-cycle in about 14
in F2 generation of codominance
days
1) 1/3 2) 2/3 3) 1/4 4) 1/2
iii) A single mating could produce a large
number of progenies
51. Find the correct expression
iv) Male and females are clearly
1) Several dihybrid crosses in Drosophila
distinguishable
were carried out by Sutton and Boveri
v) It has few hereditary variations that can be
2) Each homologous pair of chromosome
seen with high power microscopes
bears two pairs of factors
select how many are correct statement
1) five 2) four

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 3) two 4) three 4) Genotypic ratio is not equal to phenotypic
58. In Morgans experiments on linkage, the ratio
percentage of white eyed miniature winged 67. Arrange the following in descending order
recombinants in F2 generation is based on their numbers
1) 1.3 2) 62.8 3) 37.2 4) 37.5 I. Types of gametes produced from a
59. Distance between the mutated genes a,b, c heterozygous tall plant
and d in map units is a d = 3.5, b c =1, II. Varieties of pea seeds collected by Mendal
a b = 6, III. Alleles of tallness character present in each
c d = 1.5 and a c = 5 gamete
Find out the sequence of the genes IV. Pairs of contrasting characters choosen by
1) a d c b 2) a c d b Mendel for study
3) a b c d 4) a c b d 1) III, IV, II, I 2) II, IV, I, III
3) II, IV, III, I 4) IV, II, I, III
60. When two hybrids rrTt and Rrtt are crossed,
the phenotypic ratio of offspring shall be
1) 3:1 2) 1:1:1:1 3) 1:1 4) 9:3:3:1
61. Sutton and Boveri explained Mendels laws by
using
1) Movement of chromosomes during cell
division
2) Movement of nuclei during cell division
3) Movement of cell organelles during cell
division
4) Movement of proteins during cell division
62. Strength of linkage is inversely proportional to ZOOLOGY
1) distance between loci
TOPIC :
2) distance between telomeres
68. What is the correct surgical method for
3) distance between chromatids
preventing pregnancy in which the vas
4) distance between pairs of chromosomes
deferens is cut
63. The percentage of yr gametes in Y yRr is
1) Ovariectomy 2) Hysterectomy
1) 25% 2) 50% 3) 75% 4) 100%
3) Vasectomy 4) Castration
64. Among the progeny round and yellow are 3,
69. The egg is first fertilized outside the body and
round and green are 1, wrinkled and yellow
then zygote is inserted into the oviduct in
are 3 and wrinkled and green are 1, find out
1) GIFT 2) ZIFT
the genotypes of the parents that produce the
3) ICSI 4) IVF
above combinations
70. The highly sophisticated procedure of directly
1) Rr Yy x rr Yy 2) Rr Yy x rr yy
injecting a sperm into an egg is called
3) Rr Yy x Rr Yy 4) Rr yy x rr Yy
1) ICSI 2) ZIFT
65. Genetic map is one that
3) GIFT 4) AI
1) Shows stages of cell division
71. Emergency contraception may prevent
2) Establishes various stages seen in gene
pregnancy if used within 72 hrs of
evolution
1) Menstruation 2) Ovulation
3) Establishes sites of genes on a chromosome
3) Coitus 4) Implantation
4) Shows distribution of various chromosomes
72. Oral contraceptive pills help in birth control
in a cell
by
66. In the case of incomplete dominance F2
1) Killing sperm
generation has
2) killing ova
1) Genotype ratio 3:1
3) preventing ovulation
2)Phenotypic ratio 3:1
4) forming barrier between sperm and ova
3) Genotypic ratio equal to phenotypic ratio
73. MTP is considered safe up to how many
weeks of pregnancy

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 1) 6 weeks 2) 8 weeks 81. Which of the following statement is wrong
3) 12 weeks 4) 18 weeks regarding MTP
74. In GIFT Syngamy takes place in 1) In India it is legal up to 20th week of
1) fallopian tube 2) uterus pregnancy
3) vagina 4) culture medium 2) MTP can be done without surgery at any
75. The permissible use of the technique stage of foetal development
amniocentesis is for 3) MTP is considered to be relatively safe
1) detecting chromosomal abnormality of the during first trimester
unborn foetus 4) It needs the assistance of qualified medical
2) detecting sex of the unborn foetus practitioners
3) artificial insemination 82. Given below are four methods (A-D) and their
4) Transfer of embryo into the uterus of modes of action (a-d) in achieving
surrogate mother contraception. Select the correct matching .
76. Which one of the following statements is Method Mode of action
incorrect regarding IUD A. The pill a) prevent sperm
1) plastic/metal devices that are inserted in reaching cervix
to the uterus B. Condom b)prevents
2) They should be removed only by a health implantation
care provider C. Vasectomy c) prevents ovulation
3) IUDs offer protection from sexually D. Copper T d) semen contains
transmitted diseases no sperm
4) IUDs prevent pregnancy by creating a mild
chronic inflammation
77. The technique called Gamete Intra Fallopian
Transfer (GIFT) is recommended for those A B C D
females 1) b c a d
1) Whose cervix is too narrow to allow 2) c a d b
passage for the sperms 3) d a b c
2) Who cannot provide suitable environment 4) c d a b
for fertilization 83. Identify the odd one
3) Who cannot produce an ovum 1) Vaults
4) Who cannot retain the foetus inside uterus 2) periodic abstinence
78. In vitro fertilization is a technique that 3) IUDs
involves the transfer of which one of the 4) diaphragms
following into the fallopian tube 84. Which among the following is / are not a
1) Zygote only copper releasing IUDs
2) Embryo only, up to 8 cell stage 1) Cu T 2) Lippes loop
3) either zygote or early embryo up to 8 cells 3) LNG 20 4) Both 2 and 3
stage 85. Contraceptive pills does not
4) Embryo of 32 cell stage 1) engulf the sperm
79. Cu ions released from copper releasing intra 2) Alter the quality of cervical mucus
uterine devices (IUDs) 3) prevents the entry of sperm
1) Prevent ovulation 4) inhibits implantation
2) Make uterus unsuitable for implantation 86. Find the correct pair
3) increase phagocytosis of sperms 1) IUDs cervical caps
4) Supress sperm motility 2) Invivo fertilization ZIFT
80. Sexually transmitted disease transmitted by 3) Intra Cytoplasmic Sperm Injection IUT
bacteria are 4) Invitro fertilization test tube baby
1) Syphilis 2) Gonorrhoea 87. Lactational amenorrhea is a kind of periodic
3) Chlamydia 4) All the above abstinence in which chances of fertilization is

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 prevented up to a maximum period after
parturition is
1) 2 months 2) 1 year
3) 1 month 4) 6 month
88. An ideal contraceptive should not be
1) user friendly
2) irreversible
3) effective with least side effects
4) easily available
89. After tubectomy which part of the female
reproductive system remains blocked
1) Cervix 2) Uterine cavity
3) Ovary 4) fallopian tube
90. Which of the following provides protection
against pregnancy for three months
1) implants 2) DMPA
3) vaginal ring 4) skin patches