dx img 3 final

Study online at quizlet.com/_1r8vjk

1. A 2cm long ovoid sclerotic lesion with BONE ISLAND 11. Approximately ___% of giant cell 20%
a thorn-like ... year old male is most tumors are malignant.
likely to represent a:
a) 0
2. All of the following are classic named PEDICLE SIGN
b) 20
x-ray signs associated with Paget's
c) 80
except:
d) 95
3. all of the following are radiographic CORTICAL
12. An arcuate foramen in POSTERIOR PONTICLE
features of generalized spinal DESTRUCTION
associated with this congenital
osteoporosis EXCEPT:
anomaly.
a) accentuation of the primary
a) spina bifida occulta
(vertical) trabeculae
b) downs syndrome
b) cortical destruction
c) sprengles deformity
c) codfish vertebrae
d) posterior ponticle
d) decreased bone density
13. An asymptomatic, expansile FIBROUS DYSPLASIA
4. All of the following conditions occur PLASMACYTOMA
geographic rib lesion with a
during childhood and adolescence
ground glass matrix is most
except:
likely to be caused by ______.
5. All of the following produces lytic FIBROUS
lesions in the epiphyses of long bones, DYSPLASIA a) plasmacytoma
except: b) osteochondroma
6. All of these are radiographic signs of SUNBURST c) fibrous dysplasia
osseous metastatic carcinoma except PERIOSTITIS d) osteoid osteoma
______. (osteosarcoma) 14. Atlanto-axial instability is NOT Osteoarthritis
associated with:
a) winking owl sign
15. Bence Jones proteinuria is most MULTIPLE MYELOMA
b) cookie-bite lesion
often:
c) sunburst periostitis
d) ivory vertebrae 16. Bilateral but asymmetric joint psoriatic arthropathy
space narrowing with erosions
7. Ankylosis of the cervical apophyseal RHEUMATOID
involving the PIP and DIP joints
articulations is a common finding in ARTHRITIS
in the hands and the S-I joints is
all of the following conditions except:
most likely to be due to
8. Anterior scalloping of the involved POTT'S DISEASE
17. The "blind vertebra" sign is LYTIC METASTASIS
vertebra is most likely to be seen in
associated with:
association with:
18. Bridging ossification of the Forestier disease
9. Anterior scalloping of the involved STAPHYLOCOCCUS
anterior longitudinal ligament
vertebra is most...with osteomyelitis AUREUS
with relatively normal disc
caused by:
spaces and visualization of the
10. Anterior squaring of the vertebral MARIE facet joints is seen from C2-C5
bodies with "shiny" (sclerotic) corners STRUMPELL'S on a well-exposed lateral
are early signs of _____. DISEASE cervical x-ray. Which of these is
the most likely diagnosis?
a) AS
19. "Brown tumors" are associated HYPERPARATHYROIDISM
b) RA
with ______.
c) CPPD
d) DISH
a) hyperparathyroidism
b) osteonecrosis
c) pagets
d) multiple myeloma
20. A bubbly lytic lesion is found in the GIANT CELL 31. Downward displacement of the ARNOLD-CHIARI
sacral ala of a 35 y/o. Lesion to have a TUMOR brainstem and cerebellar tonsils is MALFORMATION
defined non-sclerotic margin. The joint described as:
space is normal. Which is the most
likely: a) klippel feil syndrome
b) madelung's deformity
21. A centrally located geographic lesion, SIMPLE BONE
c) arnold-chaiari malformation
with a well defined, but non-sclerotic, CYST
d) sprengles deformity
margin is seen in proximal femoral
diaphysis of a of a 12 year old boy. This Is 32. An eccentric ovoid geographic lesion is NON-OSSIFYING
most likely to be: found at the diaphyseal-metaphyseal FIBROMA
junction of the femur in a 15 year-old
22. The classic x-ray finding of Eosinophilic VERTEBRA
patient. The lesion is sharply
granuloma in the spine is the: PLANA
marinated and no periosteal response
is present. What is the most likely
a) vertebrae plana
cause?
b) inflated spine appearance
c) winking owl sign 33. Elevated serum alkaline phosphatase OSTEOPOIKILOSIS
d) picture frame vertebrae levels are common with all of the these
conditions EXCEPT: _______.
23. A congenital anomaly of the spine in BUTTERFLY
which a sagittal radiolucent cleft VERTEBRA
a) osteopoikilosis
separates a vertebral body into
b) pagets
relatively equal halves is referred to as a
c) osteosarcoma
______.
d) osteoblastic metastasis
a) spina bifida 34. An expanded ivory vertebra is most PAGETS
b) butterfly vertebrae likely to be caused by.
c) vertebra plana
d) hemivertebrae a) metastatic carcinoma
b) pagets
24. A cortical lesion with a small (less than 1 OSTEOID
c) AS
cm) radiolucent, surrounded by OSTEOMA
d) non-hodgkins
sclerotic bone best describes this
condition: 35. An expansile, geographic lesion GIANT CELL
involving the distal epiphysis and TUMOR
25. CREST syndrome is associated with this SCLERODERMA
metaphysis of the radius of a 39 year
condition.
old patient is most likely to be caused
26. "Cumulus cloud" matrix opaque bone OSTEOSARCOMA by:
matrix is most likely to occur with a:
27. Cupid's bow sign is associated with GIANT a) pagets
what anomaly? SCHMORL'S b) ewings sarcoma
NODES / c) giant cell tumor
NOTOCHORDAL d) hemangioma
IMPRESSION 36. expansile lesions of the mandible and b) metastatic
28. Deformities that are associated with BAYONET cherub-like facial features are findings carcinoma
Paget's disease include all of the DEFORMITY of
following except:
a) multiple myeloma
29. Describe the Sprengel's deformity. UNDESCENDED
b) metastatic carcinoma
SCAPULA
c) osteoarthritis
30. Diaphyseal aclasis is the form of HME d) osteomalacia
dysplasia associated with _____.

a) HME
b) osteogenesis imperfecta
c) polyostotic fibrous dysplasia
d) osteopoikolosis
37. An expansile rib lesion with a narrow ENCHONDROMA 44. A geographic skull lesion that exhibits a HEMANGIOMA
zone of transition and a stippled or matrix with a spoked or wagon wheel
flocculent matrix is likely to be due to appearance is likely to represent ______.
________.
a) osteoma
a) pagets b) myeloma
b) osteoma c) hemangioma
c) lymphoma d) fibrous dysplasia
d) enchondroma 45. The Gibbus deformity is associated TB
38. Fibrous dysplasia, precocious puberty & ALBRIGHT with: OSTEOMYELITIS
caf au lait spots are found SYNDROME OF THE SPINE
simultaneously in ____ syndrome: 46. Hahn's venous clefts are a normal vertebral body
39. The fourth Stage of Paget's disease is: MALIGNANT anatomic variant characterized by well-
DEGENRATION defined horizontal linear
radiolucencies that are found in the:
40. Generalized osteopenia, and step off SICKLE CELL
deformities of the vertebral endplates ANEMIA
a) vertebral body
resulting in "H shaped" vertebra are the
b) diaphysis of long bone
x-ray findings associated with this
c) body of rib
condition.
d) dens of C2
a) pagets 47. Heberden's nodes are clinical and OSTEOARTHRITIS
b) fibrous dysplasia radiographic finding of _______.
c) thalassemia
d) sickle cell anemia a) rheymatoid arthritis
b) osteoarthritis
41. generalized osteopenia is a common x- c) osteoarthritis
c) psoriatic arthritis
ray finding with all of the following
d) gout
except:
48. Hypertrophic osteoarthropathy is most BRONCHOGENIC
a) multiple myeloma commonly caused by _____. CARCINOMA
b) metastatic carcinoma
c) osteoarthritis a) bronchogenic carcinoma
d) osteomalacia b) sickle cell anemia
c) DISH
42. Generalized osteopenia, loss of cortical OSTEOMALACIA
d) hyperparathyroidism
definition and looser's lines are found
with: 49. Hypertrophy of a C7 transverse process the C7 TVP is
/ TVP is indicated by this finding: longer than the
a) hyperparathyroidism T1 TVP
b) osteopetrosis 50. Hypoplasia of the clavicles, wormian CLEIDO-CRANIAL
c) osteomalacia
bones and delayed closure of the DYSPLASIA
d) ollier's dz
cranial sutures are x-ray findings of
43. Generalized osteoporosis of the spine HEMANGIOMA _____.
may mimic the radiographic
appearance of this neoplasm. a) neurofibromatosis
b) cleido-cranial dysplasia
a) hemangioma c) ollier's dz
b) ABC d) rickets
c) osteochondroma 51. In an adult, an ununited apophysis at a LIMBUS BONE
d) osteoid osteoma
vertebral endplate is referred to as
a(n)____.

a) oppenheim ossicle
b) nuchal bone
c) limbus bone
d) osterminale
52. Increased density, fragmentation and KEINBOCH'S 62. a levorotatory scoliosis has these LEFT CONVEXITY W/
flattening of the carpal lunate, in a 20 DISEASE features: _______. LEFT BODY
year old patient is most likely to be ROTATION
due to: a) left concavity with left body
rotation
53. Increased levels of serum alkaline OSTEOSARCOMA
b) left convexity with left body
phosphatase are most likely OSTEOMALACIA
rotation
association with: METASTATIC
c) left concavity with right body
PAGET'S
rotation
d) left convexity with right body
NOT
rotation
osteopoikilosis
63. A localized area of necrotic bone SEQUESTRUM
54. The "inflated spine" appearance is ANEURYSMAL
due to superactive osteomyelitis:
associated with _____ BONE CYST
64. A localized (solitary) focus of PLASMACYTOMA
a) neurofibromatosis myeloma is termed a solitary _____.
b) aneurysmal bone cyst
c) eosinophilic granuloma a) plasmacytoma
d) metastatic carcinoma b) fibrosarcoma
c) hemangioma
55. In the context of Osteomyelitis an THICK WALL OF
d) osteochondroma
Involucrum is a: PERIOSTEAL BONE
SURROUNDING 65. marginal erosions of the IP joints c) psoriatic arthritis
INFECTION with adjacent fluffy periostitis,
combining to produce a "mouse
56. In the hands, RA usually spares the DIP joints
ears" appearance are radiographic
______ intercarpal joints.
findings of:

a) MCP
a) OA
b) PIP
b) rheymatoid arthritis
c) DIP
c) psoriatic arthritis
57. Intraosseous and periarticular Gout d) gout
erosions, and areas of increased soft
66. marginal syndesmophytes and AS
tissue density arex-ray signs of:
positive HLA-B27, are findings
58. It can take up to three ___ for the early WEEKS associated with
signs of spinal osteomyelitis to be
visualized On plain x-rays: a) AS
59. An ivory vertebra, with anterior b) hodgkin's b) RA
erosive scalloping of the vertebral lymphoma c) erosive OA
body is commonly associated with. d) gout
67. A metaphyseal bony exostosis OSTEOCHONDROMA
a) pagets projecting upward:
b) hodgkin's lymphoma
68. A metaphyseal ivory eccentric OSTEOCHONDROMA
c) non-hodgkin's lymphoma
projecting away from the nearest
d) hemangioma
joint describes as?
60. Jevenile osteonecrosis of the PANNER'S
69. A metaphyseal lesion with a OSTEOSARCOMA
capitellum is referred to as _____.
spiculated periosteal reaction in a
61. A large painful geographic lesion with EOSINOPHILLIC long bone under 25 is most likely?
a beveled edge in the skull of a 10 year GRANULOMA
70. The most common anatomic KNEE
old patient is most likely to be caused
location for giant cell tumors is the:
by ______.
71. The most common benign bone OSTEOCHONDROMA
a) hyperparathyroidism tumor (entire skeleton) is the:
b) pagets
c) eosinophilic
72. The most common cause for a IDIOPATHIC 83. Ollier's diease is associated with ENCHONDROMA
structural scoliosis is _______. _______.

a) idiopathic a) enchondroma
b) congenital b) osteochondroma
c) neuromuscular c) cafe au lair spots
d) nuerofibromatosis d) osteoma
73. The most common primary malignant MULTIPLE 84. Osteoblastic metastasis, in BREAST
neoplasm of bone: MYELOMA women, is most often from a
primary tumor of the:
74. The most common site for osseous RIBS
bone disorder: 85. osteopenia, b/l widening of SI joint hyperparathyroidism
and increased serum calcium and
75. The most common skeletal location SPINE
alkaline phosphate levels are
for the most common malignant bone
found with _____
tumor is the _____.
a) skull
a) hyperparathyroidism
b) knee
b) osteoporosis
c) spine
c) osteomalacia
d) hand
d) psoriatic arthritis
76. the most likely cause for a painless OSTEOPOIKILOSIS
86. osteoporosis circumscripta refers a) skull
symmetric polystotic sclerotic lesions
to the lytic phase of pagets dz in
is _____.
the __

a) osteitis condensans illi

a) skull
b) multiple myeloma
b) tibia
c) osteopoikilosis
c) vertebrae
d) metastatic carcinoma
d) pelvis
77. The most sensitive test for screening BONE SCAN
87. Osteoporosis cirucmscripta refers SKULL
known cancer patient for skeletal
to the lytic phase of paget's disease
metastasis prior to providing
in the _____.
chiropractic adjustment is a:
88. The "overhanging margin" sign is as GOUT
78. Multiple block vertebrae, chronic KLIPPEL-FEIL
an x-ray finding of _____:
neck stiffness and a low hairline are
findings associated with:
a)
79. Multiple bony outgrowths with HEREDITARY b) psoriatic arthritis
calcified "cauliflower" ... widening of MULTIPLE c) erosive OA
the femoral necks, are most likely to EXOSTOSIS d) gout
be:
89. An ovoid or round geographic lytic CHONDROBLASTOMA
80. Multiple geographic expansible lesions FIBROUS lesion found in the epiphysis of a
with a smoky or ground glass DYSPLASIA long bone of a patient under 18 yrs
Radiographic appearance of: old is most likely to be:
81. Multiple, tiny lytic lesions with PERMEATIVE/ 90. Paget's disease is also known as OSTEITIS
imperceptible borders within a single INFILTRATIVE AKA: DEFORMANS
bone is the _____ (1-2 words) pattern of
91. A painful, expansile lytic lesion in ANEURYSMAL BONE
Osteolysis:
the vertebral arch of a child: CYST
82. Name one spinal tumor that usually OSTEOBLASTOMA
causes an antalgic scoliosis in patients
< 25 y/o
92. A painful poorly marginated lytic FIBROUS DYSPLASIA 100. . Rheumatoid arthritis does DIPS
rib lesion is found in associated NOT commonly affect the
with an extrapleural sign in a 55 y/o _______ articulations.
patient. Which of these is most 101. The rugger jersey spine HYPERPARATHYROIDISM
likely diagnosis?
appearance is a radiographic
finding of _____.
a) plasmacytoma
b) simple bone cyst
a) scurvy
c) fibrous dysplacia
b) hyperparathyroidism
d) chondroma
c) thalassemia
93. Paintbrush metaphases, generalized RICKETS d) rickets
osteopenia, widening of the growth 102. "Sandwich vertebra" is a sign of OSTEOPETROSIS
plates, loss of the zone of
_____.
provisional calcification, bowing
deformities and fractures are
a) osteomalacia
associated with this condition.
b) pagets
c) osteopetrosis
a) scurvy
d) hodgkins lymphoma
b) rickets
c) thalasssemia 103. A sharply marginated, CHONDROBLASTOMA
d) hyperparathyroidism geographic lesion within the
proximal epiphysis of the
94. The "picture frame vertebra" PAGET'S DISEASE
humerus, of a 12 year-old
appearance is associated with this
patient, is most likely which of
condition:
the following?
95. "Popcorn" matrix Opacification is CHONDROSARCOMA
most likely to be present with a: a) ewings sarcoma
b) chondroblastoma
96. posterior scalloping of the vertebral a) neurofibromatosis
c) osteochondroma
body and erosive widening of the (posterior and wide
d) hodgkins lymphoma
intervertebral foramina are findings ivf)
that are associated with 104. A sharply marinated lytic lesion ENCHONDROMA
(achondroplasia = in the small tubular bones of
a) neurofibromatosis posterior scalloping the hands:
b) pagets w/ small ivf) 105. The "shiny corner" sign is ANKYLOSING
c) enchondroma
associated with what SPONDYLITIS
d) AS
condition?
97. A "pseudo-amputation" of the Neurotrophic 106. Sickle cell anemia is a risk OSTEONECROSIS
humeral head is most likely to be a arthropathy
factor for ______.
sign of:
98. Regional osteoporosis is the classic REFLEX a) osteonecrosis
radiographic finding for which of SYMPATHETIC b) metastatic carcinoma
the following conditions? DYSTROPHY c) DISH
SYNDROME (RSDS) d) upper cervical instability
a) multiple myeloma 107. Significant narrowing of the neurotrophic
b) reflex sympathetic dystrophy
acromiohumeral joint space is arthropathy
syndorme
a radiographic sign of: (or ant. Gh dislocation)?
c) hyperparathyroidism
d) cortiosteroid treatment 108. Soft tissue masses, cortical PRIMARY MALIGNANT
destruction and periosteal TUMORS
99. Reynaud's phenomenon is SCLERODERMA
reactions are found in
commonly associated with _____.
association with:

a) erosive OA
b) psoriatic arthropathy
c) scleroderma
d) gout
109. Soft tissue swelling, JUVENILE RA 120. T/F: Hemangioma of bone causes false
osteoporosis, periostistis, loss cortical thickening
of jt space, growth 121. T/F: ossification of the PLL is a false (DISH)
disturbances, joint ankylosis,
complication associated with
subluxation, and epiphyseal
rheumatoid arthritis
compression fractures are
radiographic findings 122. T/F: Pain relieved by aspirin is a FALSE
associated with ______. common findings of multiple myeloma.
123. T/F: periosteal reactions are a common false
a) HME x-ray feature of fibrous dysplasia
b) juvenile RA
124. T/F: solid periosteal reaction is a false
c) ollier's
common finding in Ewing"s sarcoma
d) paget's
125. The name (one word) of the common COBB METHOD
110. Spina bifida occulta at C6 is Dysplastic
method of measurement of scoliosis is
found in association with spondylolisthesis
the _______ method
_________.
126. The term (one word) ______ is defined as a osteopenia
111. Spinal tuberculosis is AKA POTT'S
generalized loss of bone density of 1.0-
_______ disease:
2.5 standard deviations below normal
112. A striated vertebral body with HEMANGIOMA
127. The third stage of Paget's disease is SCLEROTIC
prominent vertical
_______. PHASE
trabeculations are
radiographic findings of:
a) sclerotic phase
b) lytic phase
a) multiple myeloma
c) mixed phase
b) hemangioma
d) malignant degeneration phase
c) osteoma
d) fibrous dyaplasia 128. This condition affects the vertebral EOSINOPHILLIC
body in children and results in a GRANULOMA
113. Subperiosteal bone resorption HYPERPARATHYROIDISM
pathological collapse termed a
is the radiographic hallmark of
"vertebra plana":
______.
129. Vertebral endplate sclerosis, disc space DDD
114. Tapering of the cervical spinous Juvenile rheumatoid
narrowing and spondylophytes are
processes, ankylosis of the arthritis
cardinal radiographic findings of:
facet joints from C2-C4,
osteopenia and mild loss of
a) AS
disc height are often found
b) DISH
with this condition.
c) DDD
115. The term associated with the "BLADE OF GRASS" d) psoriatic arthropathy
lytic lesion of paget's disease, in APPEARANCE
130. A well-defined, painless, sclerotic bone OSTEOMA
a long bone is:
lesion within a paranasal sinus is most
116. The terms spondyloschisis and SPINA BIFIDA likely to represent a(n) ______.
posterior rachischisis are
associated with: a) osteoma
117. T/F: A radiolucent nidus is a false b) metastatic lesion
classic sign of Ewing's sarcoma c) osteosarcoma
d) ABC
118. T/F: biconcave vertebral bodies FALSE
are a radiographic finding (pagets) 131. What are the 3 conditions that can METASTATIC
associated with Scheuerman's cause an ivory vertebra? CARCINOMA
disease PAGET'S
HODGKINS
119. T/F: gull wing sign is an x-ray false
LYMPHOMA
sign associated with psoriatic Gull wing sign = OA
arthropathy
132. What are the 3 radiographic criteria THICK BRIDGING 140. What pneumonic Is used to recall CANDIES
for the diagnosis of DISH? OSSIFICATION the causes of lytic lesions in young
(<25) patients? C=Chondroblastoma
PRESERVATION OF A=ABC & Abscess of
DISC HEIGHT Brodie (&O.O)
N=Non-Ossifying
preservation SI jt Fibroma (and FCD)
D=Dysplasias:
133. What diagnostic imaging exam CT IS THE
Fibrous dysplasia
would most commonly be used in MODALITY OF
(m/c) & Ollier's
an emergency dept. to evaluate CHOICE FOR ACUTE
I=Infection &
patients for acute intracranial INTRACRANIAL
Infarction
bleeding from a stroke or traumatic BLEEDING D/T
E=Ewing's sarcoma,
brain injury? _______ ___________ STROKE OR
Enchondroma,
TRAUMA
Eosinophilic
134. What finding on a LATERAL cervical LACK granuloma
x-ray is indicative of spina bifida SPINOLAMINAR S=Simple bone cyst
occulta? JUNCTION LINE and
135. What is the most common PERMEATIVE/MOTH- OSTEOSARCOMA
radiographic presentation of EATEN OSTEOLYSIS 141. What type of fx is associated with CARROT STICK
metastatic bone tumor? ankylosing spondylitis? FRACTURE
136. What is the (ONE word) term for the OSTEOPHYTES 142. Which 2 conditions are most often PAGET'S DISEASE
bone spurs that are a radiographic refereed to as the "great imitators"
hallmark of DJD? of other skeletal pathologies? FIBROUS
137. What is the pneumonic used for the ASEPTIC DYSPLASIA
causes of Osteonecrosis? 143. Which facet joint space may not be C2/C3
o A= anemias visualized on the lateral cervical
(SCA>Cooley's) view due to normal anatomic
o S= Steroids (Tx or variation /pseudofusion:
Cushing's disease)
144. Which of the following congenital OS ODONTOIDEUM
o E= EtoH
anomalies is most likely to cause
(Alcoholism)
upper cervical instability?
o P= Pancreatitis or
Pregnancy
a) ponticle posticus
o T= Trauma and
b) spina bifida occulta
Treatment with
c) os odontoideum
radiation
d) hypoplasia of posterior arch C1
o I= Idiopathic
o C= Collagen 145. Which of the following is least likely EWINGS SARCOMA
vascular disease & to be associated.... Vertebral
Caisson's pedicle?
138. What is the term (2 words) for the POSTERIOR 146. Which of the following is least likely OSTEOID OSTEOMA
congenital anomaly that forms the PONTICULUS to cause a pathologic fracture of a
arcuate foramen at C1? vertebral body?
139. What pneumonic is used to recall PA Displeases MOM 147. Which of the following is the GENERALIZED
the cause of multiple lytic lesions? earliest radiographic finding of OSTEOPOROSIS/
multiple myeloma: (OSTEOPENIA)
148. Which of the following named FALLEN FRAGMENT 156. Which of these is a rare benign OSTEOBLASTOMA
radiographic findings is classically SIGN tumor, most commonly found in
associated with simple bone cysts? the vertebral arch, and known to
be highly expansile?
a) bone within a bone
b) popcorn ball a) osteoid osteoma
c) blister on a bone b) oseoblastoma
d) fallen fragment sign c) hemangioma
d) giant cell tumor
149. Which of the following statements squashed carpi and
regarding juvenile rheumatoid ballooned epiphyses 157. Which of these is most likely to BENIGN FIBROUS
arthritis is true? are common present as a well defined, CORTICAL DEFECT
geographic lesion, eccentrically
150. Which of the following terms is GEOGRAPHIC
located at the diametaphysis of a
associated with solitary lesions?
long bone in a patient under 25
151. Which of the following tumors is OSTEOCHONDROMA years old?
malignant or has the potential for
malignant degeneration? a)
152. Which of the following used to MCGREGOR'S LINE b) chondroblastoma
detect basilar c) ewings sarcoma
invagination/impression? d) benign fibrous cortical defect
158. Which of these is most likely to CHORDOMA
a) martins basilar angle produce a large purely lytic sacrum
b) macgregors line with a wide zone of transition and
c) furgusons line a soft tissue mass in a 40-year-old
d) kleins line patient?
153. Which of these anomalies is most HEMIVERTEBRA 159. Which of these is most likely to EWING'S SARCOMA
likely to be associated with a produce a poorly defined lytic
congenital scoliosis? lesion in the humeral diaphysis of
an adolescent, associated with an
a) spina bifida occulta "onion skin" periosteal reaction?
b) agenesis of dens
c) hemivertebrae a) plasmacytoma
d) cervical rib b) fibrous dysplasia
154. Which of these conditions is Neurotrophic c) ewings sarcoma
associated with tapering of the arthropathy d) giant cell tumor
articular end of a bone producing a 160. Which of these is most sensitive for MRI (and bone scan)
"licked candy stick" sign?: early detection of osteomyelitis:
161. Which of these is part of Ollier's ENCHONDROMA
a) osteomyelitis
disease?
b) erosive OA
c) systemic lupus erythematosus 162. Which of these tumors appears as OSTEOCHONDROMA
d) neurtrophic arthropathy an asymmetric widening of a bone
with normal cortex and
155. Which of these conditions is most PAGETS
trabeculation extending from the
likely to cause basilar
normal bone into the lesion?
invagination?

a) osteochondroma
a) osteoma
b) enchondroma
b) ewings sarcoma
c) giant cell tumor
c) pagets
d) oteosarcoma
d) osteochondromatosis
163. Which of these tumors is most likely to affect the clivus of the sphenoid? CHORDOMA
a) osteochondroma
b) fibrosarcoma
c) chordoma
d) giant cell tumor
164. Which of these x-ray findings is more likely to be found with surgically fused cervical vertebra ABSENCE OF ANY DISC
than with congenitally blocked vertebra? SPACE
165. Which pattern of bone density behavior is most frequently produced by fibrosarcoma? PERMEATIVE OSTEOLYSIS

a) geographic osteolysis
b) mixed lysis and sclerosis
c) permeative osteolysis
d) ivory bone
166. Which pattern of bone density is classic for multiple myeloma? PUNCHED-OUT LYTIC
LESIONS
a) punched-out lytic lesions
b) ground glass
c) ivory vertebrae
d) geographic osteolytis
167. Which type of periosteal reaction is virtually always a sign of a primary Malignant Tumor? SPICULATED/ (LAMINATED)
168. The "winking owl" sign is associated with? OSTEOLYTIC METASTATIC
CARCINOMA