Micro 1

Course No: MGDC2207 University of Palestine
Instructor Name: ______________

Course Title: Medical
Student No.: ()
Microbiology
Student Name: _______________
Date: 16/01/2010 Final Exam College Name: _______________
No. of Questions: First Semester Dep. / Specialist: ______________
Time: 2 hours 2009/2010 Using Dictionary (No)
Using Calculator (No) Total Grade:
Read instruction and questions carefully before answering.
QI. MCQs: Select ONE answer that is best for each question. (75 marks)
1. Each of the following statements concerning exotoxins is correct ECXEPT:
A Exotoxins are polypeptides B Exotoxins are more easily inactivated by
heat than endotoxin
C Exotoxins are less toxic than the D Exotoxins can be converted to toxoid
same amount of endotoxins
E Enterotoxins are part of exotoxins
2. All the following bacterial diseases are water-borne disease EXCEPT.

A. Cholera B. Bacillary dysentery
C. Typhus fever D. Typhoid fever
3. Each of the following statements concerning the Gram stain is correct ECXEPT:
A E. coli stains red because it has B S. pyogenes stains blue because it has a
a thin peptidoglycan layer thick peptidoglycan layer
C M. tuberculosis stains blue D Mycoplasma is not visible in the Gram
because it has a thick lipid layer stain because it does not have a cell wall
E C & D are correct
4. Fungi reproduce by:
A Spore formation B Bud formation
C Binary fission D Host cell synthesis of bacterial
components
E A & B are correct
5. Lipopolysaccharide are correctly described as:

A Found in gram-negative B Able to produce a febrile response
bacteria of all species
C Possessing somatic antigen D Containing lipid A as an integral part of
specificity their structure
E All of the above
6. Each of the following statements concerning yeasts is correct EXCEPT:

A Yeasts have chitin in their cell walls B Yeasts form ascospores when they invade tissue
and ergosterol in their membranes
C Yeasts have eukaryotic nuclei and D Yeasts produce neither endotoxin nor exotoxin
contain mitochondria in their
cytoplasm
E Yeasts reproduce by budding
7. Bacteria H antigen is derived from:
A Microtubule B Hemolysin
C Pillin D Flagellin
E Endotoxin
1/14
Student No.: ()
Microbiology
Student Name: _______________
8. The endotoxin of gram-negative bacteria is associated with :

A Mesosome B Cytoplasmic membrane
C Capsule D Cell wall
E Pilus
9. Each of the following statements concerning the killing of bacteria is correct ECXEPT:
A A 70% solution of ethanol kills B An autoclave uses steam under pressure to
more effectively than absolute reach the killing temperature of 121 C
(100%) ethanol
C The pasteurization of milk kills D Iodine kills by causing the formation of
pathogens but allows many thymine dimmers in bacterial DNA
organisms and spores to survive
E None of the above
10. Each of the following statements concerning Neisseriae is correct EXCEPT:
A They grow best under anaerobic B They are gram negative diplococcus
conditions
C They produce IgA protease as a D They are oxidase positive
virulence factor
E None of the above
11. The most common stain used in the clinical microbiology laboratory for detecting the
presence of bacteria and assessing the quality of specimens is the:
A Auramine-rhodamine stain B Grams stain
C Silver stain D Ziehl-neelsen stain
E Giemsas stain
12. Each of the following statements concerning hepatitis A is correct EXCEPT:
A The initial site of viral B Hepatitis A virus commonly causes
replication is the asymptomatic infection in children
gastrointestinal tract
C The diagnosis is usually made D Gamma globulin is used to prevent the
by isolating the virus in cell disease exposed persons
culture
E None of the above
13. In the Grams stain, forgotten the decolorization step will make the gram-negative
bacteria to appear:
A Blue in color B Red in color
C Colorless D Green in color
E None of the above
14. Each of the following statements concerning Clostridium perfringens is correct EXCEPT:
A It causes gas gangrene B It causes food poisoning
C It produces an exotoxin that causes D It is anaerobic, gram-negative rod
necrosis and hemolysis
E None of the above
2/14
Student No.: ()
Microbiology
Student Name: _______________
15. This hepatitis virus is characterized as an enveloped RNA virus that is the most common
cause of non-A, non-B hepatitis:
A Hepatitis A virus B Hepatitis B virus
C Hepatitis C virus D Hepatitis D virus
E Hepatitis E virus
16. Two hundred and fifty colonies were counted on a plate on which 0.1 mL of 10-3 dilution of
a urine sample was inoculated. The number of bacteria per 1 mL of the urine is:
A 2.5 x 105 B 25 X 105
6
C 2.5 X 10 D 2.5 X 107
E 25 X 104
17. Each of the following statements concerning endotoxins is correct EXCEPT:

A The toxicity is due to the lipid B Endotoxins are found in most gram-
protein of the molecule negative bacteria
C Endotoxins are located in the cell D The antigenicity of somatic (O) antigen
wall is due to repeating oligosaccharides
E None of the above
18. A gram-positive coccus that grows in pairs or short chains and that is alpha-hemolytic and
optochin-sensitive is:
A Streptococcus pyogenes B Neisseria meningitidis
C Staphylococcus epidermidis D Staphylococcus aureus
E Streptococcus pneumonia
19. Most organisms that cause urinary tract infection come from:
A Toilet seats B Normal bowel flora
C Sexual partners D The environment
E Normal skin flora
20. Of the organisms listed below, which one is the MOST frequent bacterial cause of
pharyngitis?
A Staphylococcus aureus B Streptococcus pneumoniae
C Streptococcus pyogenes D Neisseria meningitidis
E Candida albicans
21. Characteristics of the genus Neisseria include all of the following EXCEPT they are:
A Cocci B Gram-negative
C Oxidase-negative D Not acid-fast
E Found only in humans
22. All of the following bacterial agents can cause dental carries EXCEPT:
A Streptococcus mutans B Lactobacillus species
C Actinomyces species D Veillonella species
E None of the above
3/14
Student No.: ()
Microbiology
Student Name: _______________
23. The pathogenesis of which of the following diseases does NOT involve an exotoxin?
A Scarlet fever B Toxic shock syndrome
C Botulism D Typhoid fever
E Tetanus
24. An nonenveloped RNA hepatitis virus that is transmitted by the fecal-oral route:
E Hepatitis G virus
25. The most effective anti-plaque agent is:

A Chlorhexidine B Sodium lauryl sulphate
C Tetrahydropholate D Sodium fluoride
E All of the above
26. This hepatitis virus is an enveloped DNA virus that is transmitted by blood:
E Hepatitis G virus
27. All of the following factors may prevent penetration of intact oral mucosa by micro-
organisms EXCEPT:
A Saliva B Keratin
C Granular layer D Basement membrane
E None of the above
28. Lactoferrin that present in saliva and working as antimicrobial agent is described as:
A Heat stable protein, bacteriostatic to B Heat labile protein, bacteriostatic to
many microorganisms many microorganisms
C Heat stable antibacterial enzyme D Heat labile antibacterial enzyme
E Bactericidal by splitting the cell
wall
29. This form the major proportion of bacteria found in the dental plaque, especially at a
proximal sites:
A Staphylococci spp. B Streptococci spp.
C Actinomyces spp. D Lactobacilli spp.
E Neisseria spp.
30. Factors affecting the growth of oral microorganisms include all of the following EXCEPT:
A The diet B Host defences
C Salivary components D Hydrogen tension
E None of the above
4/14
Student No.: ()
Microbiology
Student Name: _______________
31. This hepatitis virus do not pose a major cross-infection hazard in dentistry:
A HBV B HAV
C HGV D HDV
E HCV
32. This toxin causes paralysis by blocking release of acetylcholine:

A Diphtheria toxin B Tetanus toxin
C Botulinum toxin D Cholera toxin
E Toxic shock syndrome toxin
33. Which one of the following outcomes is MOST common following a primary herpes
simplex virus infection?
A Complete eradication of virus B Persistent asymptomatic viremia
and virus-infected cells
C Establishment of latent infection D Persistent cytopathic effect in infected cells
E None of the above
34. This hepatitis virus is an enveloped RNA virus that has the surface antigen of another
virus and is transmitted by blood:
E Hepatitis G virus
35. Each of the following viral pathogens is likely to establish chronic or latent infection
EXCEPT:
A Cytomegalovirus B Hepatitis A
C Hepatitis B D Herpes simplex virus
E Human Immunodeficiency
Virus (HIV)
36. Herpes simplex virus and cytomegalovirus share many features. Which one of the
following features is LEAST likely to be shared?
A Important cause of morbidity B Important cause of serious disease in
and mortality in the newborn immunosuppressed individuals
C Mild or Inapparent infection D Congenital abnormalities due to
transplacental passage
E None of the above
37. Each of the following statements concerning hepatitis C virus (HCV) and hepatitis D virus
(HDV) is correct EXCEPT:
A HCV is an important cause of B Delta virus is a defective virus with an
post-transfusion hepatitis RNA genome and a capsid composed of
HBsAg
C HDV is transmitted primarily by D People infected with HCV commonly
body fluids as blood become chronic carriers and are in risk to
5/14
Student No.: ()
Microbiology
Student Name: _______________
develop hepatocellular carcinoma

E None of the above
38. Each of the following statements concerning hepatitis A virus is correct EXCEPT:
A The initial site of viral replication B Hepatitis A virus commonly causes
is the gastrointestinal tract asymptomatic infection in children
C The diagnosis is usually made by D Gamma globulin is used to prevent the
isolating the virus in cell culture disease in exposed persons
39. Each of the following statements concerning human immunodeficiency virus is correct
EXCEPT:
A The western blot test is more B Transmission of HIV occurs primarily by
specific for HIV infection than the the transfer of blood or semen in adults
ELISA is
C The CD4 protein on the T-cell D There is appreciable antigenic diversity
surface is the receptor for the virus in the envelope glycoprotein of the virus
E None of the above
40. This virus causes infectious mononucleosis?

A Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) B Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
C Rhinovirus D Adenovirus
E Parainfluenza virus
41. Neutrophils are attracted to an infected area by:

A IgM B C1 (complement)
C C5a (complement) D C8 (complement)
E Interferon
42. Bacterial surface structures that show antigenic diversity include each of the following
EXCEPT:
A Peptidoglycan B Capsules
C Flagella D Pili
E Answer A & D are correct
43. A primary immune response in an adult human requires approximately how much time to
produce detectable antibody levels in the blood?
A 12 hours B 3 days
C 3 weeks D 1 week
E 2 months
44. The purified surface protein of this hepatitis virus is the immunogen in a vaccine:
A Hepatitis A virus B Hepatitis E virus
C Hepatitis G virus D Hepatitis D virus
E Hepatitis B virus
6/14
Student No.: ()
Microbiology
Student Name: _______________
45. Which one of the following genes in HIV genome is responsible for production of the
reverse transcriptase, integrase and protease enzyme?
A env gene B pol gene
C gag gene D vif gene
E nef gene
46. This organism is an obligate intracellular parasite:

A Mycobacterium avium B Treponemal pallidum
C Rickettsiae D Mycoplasma
E Neisseriae
47. This immunoglobulin contains 10 heavy chain and 10 light chains:

A IgM B IgG
C IgD D IgA
E IgE
48. The identification of bacteria by serologic tests is based on the presence of specific antigen.
Which one of the following bacterial components is LEAST likely to contain useful antigens?
A Ribosomes B Flagella
C Cell wall D Capsule
E None of the above
49. Complement can enhance phagocytosis because of the presence on macrophages and
neutrophils of receptors for:
A Factor D B C3b
C TNF D Interferon
E Histamine
50. Herpes simplex virus is:

A DNA enveloped virus B DNA nonenveloped virus
C RNA enveloped virus D RNA nonenveloped virus
E Viroid
51. Artificially acquired active immunity:

A Resulting from infection B Acquired trancplacentaly or via
colostrums
C Acquired by vaccination D Acquired through injection of antibody
E None of the above
52. All of the followings are characteristics of IgE antibody EXCEPT:

A Monomer B Has receptor on red blood cells and
neutrophils
C Present in allergic reaction D Causes lysis of parasitic worms
E None of the above
7/14
Student No.: ()
Microbiology
Student Name: _______________
53. This is the main site of action of antiviral antibody:

A Viral mRNA synthesis B Viral protein synthesis
C Viral genome DNA synthesis D Attachment and penetration of virion
E Assembly and release of progeny virus
54. All of the followings are capsular polysaccharide vaccines EXCEPT:

A Streptococcus pneumonia B Haemophilus influenza
C Salmonella typhi D Bordetella pertussis
E Neisseria meningitis
55. Which of the followings is live, attenuated bacterial vaccines ?
A Vibrio cholerae B Clostridium tetani
C M. tuberculosis D Bacillus anthracis
E Yersinia pestis
56. Each of the following statements concerning Neisseria meningitidis is correct EXCEPT:
A It is an oxidase positive, gram B It contains Endotoxin in its cell wall
negative diplococcus
C It has a polysaccharide capsule D It produces an exotoxin that kills the
that is antiphagocytic meninges
E None of the above
[
57. All of the followings are inhibitors of cell wall synthesis EXCEPT:
A Penicillin B Cephalosporin
C Vancomycin D Bacitracin
E Chloramphenicol
58. All of the following diseases can be transmitted via contaminated water or food EXCEPT:
A Shigellosis B Typhoid fever
C Cholera D Mumps
E Amoebic dysentry
59. Each of the following statements about human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is correct
EXCEPT:
A HIV is an enveloped RNA virus B The virion contains RNA-dependent
DNA polymerase
C A DNA copy of the HIV D Acyclovir inhibits HIV replication
genome integrates into cell
DNA
E HIV infect CD4+ cells
[
60. Each of the following statements concerning Staphylococcus aureus is correct EXCEPT:
A Enterotoxin is important pathogenic B The coagulase test is positive
factor in food poisoning
C Treatment should include a - D Gram-positive cocci in grapelike
lactamase resistant penicillin cluster
E None of the above
8/14
Student No.: ()
Microbiology
Student Name: _______________
61. This toxin inhibits the release of inhibitory transmitters causing muscle spasms:
A Diphtheria toxin B Tetanus toxin
C Botulinum toxin D Cholera toxin
E Toxic shock syndrome toxin
Question from 62 to 65
(A) Penicillin
(B) Aminoglycosides
(C) Chloramphenicol
(D) Rifampin
(E) Sulfonamides
62. Inhibit(s) bacterial RNA polymerase ( )

63. Inhibit(s) cross-linking of peptidoglycan ( )
64. Inhibit(s) protein synthesis by binding to the 30S ribosomal subunit ( )
65. Inhibit(s) folic acid synthesis ( )
66. One of the following bacteria does not have H antigens:

A. Vibrio cholerae B. Salmonella typhi
C. E. coli D. Klebsiella pneumoniae
67. The commonest cause of gas gangrene is:

A. Clostridium perfringens. B. Clostridium difficile.
C. Clostridium tetani. D. Clostridium botulinum
68. Epstein-Barr virus is implicated in:

A. shingles. B. Creutzfeldt-Jacob syndrome.
C. nasopharyngeal carcinoma. D. diarrhea.
69. The following are recognized routes of transmission of HIV infection EXCEPT:
A. blood transfusion. B. heterosexual intercourse.
C. breast feeding. D. nosocomial infection.
70. Gene expression occurs as:

A. transduction. B. translation.
C. transposon. D. transformation.
71. The immunoglobulin actively transported into secretions is the following:

A. IgM B. IgG
C. IgA D. IgD
72. To differentiate between Staphylococci and Streptococci the test used is:
A. Coagulase test B. Catalase test
C. Oxidase test D. urease test
9/14
Student No.: ()
Microbiology
Student Name: _______________
73. All of the following statements concerning Clostridium tetani are correct EXCEPT.
A. Its spore forming gram-negative bacilli.
B. Pathogenesis is due to the production of an exotoxin.
C. Its obligate anaerobes.
D. Soil is the primary natural habitat
74. Which of the following microorganisms commonly causes bacterial endocarditis:

A. Salmonella B. Escherichia coli
C. Lancefield group A Streptococcus D. Viridans streptococci
75. Which of the following component is not found in fungi:

A. Chitin B. Ergosterol
C. Periplasmic space D. Mitochondria
QII. Give the causative agent for the following diseases? (10 marks)
Disease Microbial causative agent
1 Whooping cough
2 Leprosy
3 Typhoid fever
4 Carbuncle
5 Impetigo
6 Syphilis
7 Gonorrhoea
8 Nongonococcal urethritis
9 Acne
10 Otitis externa
11 Jaw abscesses
12 Toxic shock syndrome
10/14
Student No.: ()
Microbiology
Student Name: _______________
13 Pyelonephritis
14 Peptic ulcer
15 Aflatoxins
16 Otitis media
17 Fungal meningitis
18 Scarlet Fever
19 Viral pneumonia
20 Infectious mononucleosis
QIII. What is the name of toxin that is responsible for each of the following
diseases? (10 marks)
Disease Toxin
1 Whooping cough
2 Impetigo
3 Toxic shock syndrome
4 Scarlet Fever
5
scalded skin syndrome
6 Food poisoning that caused

by S. aureus
7 Shigellosis
8 Travelers' diarrhea
9 Gastroenteritis caused by B.
cereus
10 Mycotoxin that produced by
Aspergillus flavus
11/14
Student No.: ()
Microbiology
Student Name: _______________
11 Toxin that causes gas
gangrene
12 Toxin that causes anthrax
13 Toxin that causes tetanus
14 Toxin that causes botulism
15 Cholera
16 Tuberculosis
17 Rheumatic fever
18 Typhoid fever
19 Periodontitis
20
Necrotizing fasciitis
QIV. Case study: (5 marks)

A 15-year-old boy sustained a broken tooth several weeks ago. He now has an inflamed area
on the skin over the broken tooth, in the center of which is a draining sinus tract. Gram stain
of the drainage fluid reveals filamentous gram-positive rods.
1. what is your diagnosis?
2. What is the causative agent?
12/14
Student No.: ()
Microbiology
Student Name: _______________
3. What is the drug of choice for this infection?
4. Is this microbe aerobic or anaerobic?
5. How this microbe infect this boy? or in other mean how boy got infected by this microbe?
With my best regards

Dr. Nahedh Al Laham
January/2010
Medical microbiology for dentistry

Answer sheet
Name:(________________________________)
Number:_____________
I. Multiple choice questions (75 marks)
1 16 31 46 61
2 17 32 47 62
13/14
Student No.: ()
Microbiology
Student Name: _______________
3 18 33 48 63
4 19 34 49 64
5 20 35 50 65
6 21 36 51 66
7 22 37 52 67
8 23 38 53 68
9 24 39 54 69
10 25 40 55 70
11 26 41 56 71
12 27 42 57 72
13 28 43 58 73
14 29 44 59 74
15 30 45 60 75
Important note: fill the answer sheet with your answers., Only the answer
sheet will be corrected!!!
January/2010
14/14

Micro 1

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Course No: MGDC2207 University of Palestine

Instructor Name: ______________

Read instruction and questions carefully before answering.

2. All the following bacterial diseases are water-borne disease EXCEPT.

5. Lipopolysaccharide are correctly described as:

6. Each of the following statements concerning yeasts is correct EXCEPT:

8. The endotoxin of gram-negative bacteria is associated with :

17. Each of the following statements concerning endotoxins is correct EXCEPT:

25. The most effective anti-plaque agent is:

32. This toxin causes paralysis by blocking release of acetylcholine:

develop hepatocellular carcinoma

40. This virus causes infectious mononucleosis?

41. Neutrophils are attracted to an infected area by:

46. This organism is an obligate intracellular parasite:

47. This immunoglobulin contains 10 heavy chain and 10 light chains:

50. Herpes simplex virus is:

51. Artificially acquired active immunity:

52. All of the followings are characteristics of IgE antibody EXCEPT:

53. This is the main site of action of antiviral antibody:

54. All of the followings are capsular polysaccharide vaccines EXCEPT:

62. Inhibit(s) bacterial RNA polymerase ( )

66. One of the following bacteria does not have H antigens:

67. The commonest cause of gas gangrene is:

68. Epstein-Barr virus is implicated in:

70. Gene expression occurs as:

71. The immunoglobulin actively transported into secretions is the following:

74. Which of the following microorganisms commonly causes bacterial endocarditis:

75. Which of the following component is not found in fungi:

Disease Microbial causative agent

12 Toxic shock syndrome

3 Toxic shock syndrome

6 Food poisoning that caused

11 Toxin that causes gas

12 Toxin that causes anthrax

13 Toxin that causes tetanus

14 Toxin that causes botulism

QIV. Case study: (5 marks)

1. what is your diagnosis?

2. What is the causative agent?

3. What is the drug of choice for this infection?

4. Is this microbe aerobic or anaerobic?

With my best regards

Medical microbiology for dentistry

I. Multiple choice questions (75 marks)

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