Q1) AN ORGANISATION USES SMALL QUANTITITES OF

TOXIC CHEMICALS?

Q1A) Identify FOUR possible routes of toxic substances in

to body?
By INHALATION: If the chemicals agents is in the form of dust, vapor, fumes,
gas etc. It is the most rapid of entrance. It has been estimated that 90% of the
industrial poisons are ABSORED through lungs.

By INGESTION: any significant quality of harmful liquid or solid will be

swallowed without deliberate intent. It can occur directly (by mistake if
chemicals are not properly labeled) or indirectly where small amount of
contaminants are transferred from the fingers to the mouth if Eating, drinking, or
smoking in chemical areas.

BY ABSORPTION: contact with the skin> substances can enter through the
skin, cuts or abrasions and conjunctive of the skin.

1) Irritate the skin causing dermatitis.

2) Penetrate the skin, causing systemic toxicity.
3) Damage the skin directly (such as acid).

BY INJECTION: A forceful breach of the skin, perhaps as a result of injury, can

carry harmful substances through the skin barrier.

1) Chemical may injected hypodermically on sharps etc e.g. broken glass cuts
the skin and transfers a biological agent.

2) Chemical may be injected at high pressure e.g. Hydraulic hoses.

Q1B) Explain the difference between ACUTE AND

CHRONIC HEALTH EFFECTS?
1) Acute health effect: an adverse effect result from a single or short term
exposure, to a reversible offending agent. And producing an immediate or rapid
effect. E.g. corrosive action, narcosis and primary irritation.

2) Chronic health effects: an adverse health effect results from prolonged

or repeated exposures with a gradual or latent and often irreversible effect
that may often go unrecognized for a number of years. E.g. Cancer, sensitization
dermatitis and damage to burned organs.
Q1C) identify the sources of information which could be
used in the assessment of risk of toxic substances?
1) Manufacturers: material safety data sheet: provided by manufacturers
chronic substances product label.

2) Government bodies.

3) Enforcement agencies. Various countries enforcement HSE booklet.

4) ILO code of practice safety in the use of chemicals at work.

5) Trade associations.

6) Insurance companies.

7) Organizations involved in occupational health may also provide information.

Q1d) outline the control measures that might be

required to minimize risks to workers?
1) Elimination: this represents an extreme form of control to prohibit the
use of high risk and toxic substances.

2) Reduction: the substitution of a less toxic substance in a place of more toxic

substance one or same substance in less toxic form (e.g.) toluene for benzene.

3) Isolate: enclosure of hazard: totally enclosure the process and handling

system (e.g.) putting lids on substances that have high voltage vapors.

4) Local exhaust ventilation: remove toxic substances at ______ itself.

5) Dilution ventilation: provide sufficient general ventilation.

6) Control: people: restrict people to toxic substances in the forms (age,

distance, time and gender)

7) Period of exposure: reduce the time of exposure based on long term

exposure limits (or) short term exposure limits.

8) Good housekeeping: regular cleaning and disinfection of workplace and

contaminated areas.

9) Safe storage: provision of safe storage and disposal of toxic substances.

10) Prohibit: eating, drinking and smoking in areas where toxic contamination
occurs.

11) Personnel hygiene: arrangement for personal care washing facility etc.
12) Barrier creams and suitable hand protections are important considerations
for chemical and biological areas.

13) PPE: suitable PPE for the discipline, ensure produces and rules are being
followed and taking actions against not compiling.

Q2) Identify the control measures that could be

implemented to reduce the risk to pedestrian?
1) segregated systems for vehicular and pedestrian traffic.

2) Appropriate road markings.

3) Maintaining good visibility (mirrors, provision of lighting etc.)

4) Audible warnings on vehicles.

5) Drawing up and enforcement of site rules.

6) The provision of refuges.

7) The wearing of high visibility clothing.

8) A good standard of housekeeping.

9) Training and supervision of drivers.

10) Defined traffic routes.

11) One-way system speed control.

Q3) outline the specific hazards associated with use of

battery-powered forklift treks and state the

Q3a) identify FOUR hazards associated with the use of

battery-powered fork lift trucks?
1) Fumes from vehicles.

2) fire/explosion while charging and handling batteries.

3) Harmful gas and corrosive acids > give off hydrogen gas while charging and
sulphuric acid while filling batteries.

4) Electrical hazards: when contact with overhead power lines.

5) collisions-co-workers/pedestrians being hit by moving forklifts (or) moving

parts of a forklift.
6) Manual handling of batteries.

7) Falling objects/people: collisions between forklift and other vehicles (or)

stationary objects and forklift operators and others being hit by falling objects.
Operators falling while getting into (or) out of forklifts.

8) noise/vibration: from vehicle and external atmosphere.

9) Ergonomics: operators suffering muscular stress due to a combination of

inappropriate seating, vibration and manual handling.

10) Co-workers /pedestrians being trapped (or) caught between a moving

forklift/moving parts of a forklift and stationary object.

11) Overloading and overturning.

Q3b) control measures?

1) Designated battery charging area with good ventilation.

2) Hydrogen gas: ventilation, fire equipment, no smoking and signages.

3) Sulphuric acid: protective clothing, spillage procedure, clean water, first- aid
and topping up procedure.

4) Electricity: insulated tools, safe charging procedures and isolation.

5) Use appropriate PPE.

6) Segregation of pedestrian vehicles.

7) Strict enforcement of speed limits.

8) Securely bounded loads.

Q4) excavation work is being carried out on a

construction site! Identify the control measures needed
to reduce the risk to workers?
1) Detection of service (from plans, use of cable / pipe detector) before hand.

2) Support of side to avoid collapse.

3) Storage of materials and take it away from edges to protect excessive load.

4) Stop blocks to prevent vehicle from falling into the excavation.

5) Barriers and guard rails to avoid fall into excavation.

6) Ensure safe means of access / egress to the excavation.

7) Testing for and ventilation of fumes and other test substances.

8) Suitable means of pumping out water.

9) Only competent personnel are allowed to work from excavations.

10) Use of suitable PPE.

Q4a) identify FOUR mechanical hazards associated with

the use of a pedestal drill?
1) Entanglement: of hair with the drill bit (or) chunk.

2) Stabbing: injuries from the end of the bit. Contact with the drill bit (or) chuck
resulting in ablation.

3) Ejection (or) impact: by unclamped work pieces, made worse by the fact that
the work piece may be spinning at fast speed on the bit. Cutting hazards may
also be presented by metal.

4) Sward: produce by the drilling process.

Q5b) outline FOUR control measures to reduce the risk of injury to

operators of pedestal drill?

1) Secure work pieces with clamps to prevent movement.

2) Ensure equipment is properly maintained, remove faulty tools and disconnect

from power when not in use.

3) Wear appropriate PPE, suitable competent person are allowed to work on such
equipments.

4) Inform, instruct, and supervise the work place.

Q6) Outline the factors that may lead to occupational

stress amongst workers?
1) Culture of the organization.

2) Shift work, unsuitable hours, excessive overtime.

3) Job insecurity, fear of redundancy.

4) Repetitive / monotonous work.

5) Lack of breaks and control over job.

6) work rate too high (or) too low.

7) The working environment.

8) Harassment and bullying.

9) Fear of violence.

10) Lack of communication.

11) Personal and social factors.

Q7a) identify the effects on the human body from a

severe electric shock?
1) Electric shock: resulting in stopping of heart and respiratory rhythm, it also
leads to loss of consciousness.

2) Electrical burns: electrical burns are deeper than other burns, resulting from
heating effect of the current which burns the body tissue.

(Nervous system functions.

Q7b) identify FOUR factors that could affect the injury

resulting from contact with electricity?
1) Current path through the body.

2) Length of contact time (or) duration.

3) Conductivity / resistance of the body.

4) Voltage.

5) Frequency of current flow.

6) Conductivity of the environment.

7) Nature of the contact.

Q7c) outline how earthling can reduce the risk of

receiving an electric shock)
It is a means of connecting electrical equipment and conductive items to earth
by a cable (or) pipework such that the route to earth provides the path of least
resistance to a current flowing under faulty conditions.
Q8a) in relation to the classifications of fires, give an
example of a material (fuel) that falls within EACH of the
classes A,B,C and D?
Fire class EXAMPLE

Solid A wood, clothing paper plastic

Liquid B diesel, petrol, oil, paints and thinner.

Gases C acetylene, H2s, LPG and natural gas.

Metals D sodium, aluminum.

Electrical/heat E fire involving, fire apparatus.

Oil and fat F cooking oils.

Q8B) Identify TWO methods of heat transfer AND

explain each method contributes to the spread of fire?
1) Convection: the movement of hotter gases up through the air (hot air rises).
(e.g.) smoke and hot gases rising up a staircase through an open door.

Control measures: protection of openings by fire doors and the creation of fire
resistant of compartments in buildings.

2) Conduction: the movement of heat through materials (usually solid). (e.g.) a

metal beam (or) pipe transmitting heat through a solid wall.

Control measures: insulating the surface of a beam (or) pipe with heat resistant
materials.

3) Direct burning: combustible materials in direct contact with naked flame.

(e.g.) curtains (or) carpets tiles may be consumed by combusting and enable fire
to be transferred along them to other parts of a building.

Control measures: the use of fire retardant materials.

Q9) outline the hazards that a worker could be exposed

to when using petrol driven chainsaw to cut down a
tree?
Operational hazards: kickback is when a chain tooth at the upper quadrant of
the bar tip cuts into wood without cutting through it, the chain cannot continue
moving and the bar is driven in an upward arc toward the operator.
1) Equipment hazards: as cutting, ejection, noise, vibration etc.

2) Flying sticks: leading to eye injury.

3) Heat hazard: due to working under the sun.

4) Tripping hazard: due to obstruction by tree parts.

5) Biological hazards: due to contaminate ground, insects etc.

6) Wood dust hazards: leading to asthma, dermatitis etc.

7) Petrol hazards: as a carbon monoxide hazards, fire fumes etc.

Q10) a maintenance worker regularly uses a hand held

grinder and is exposed to vibration!

Q10a) identify the symptoms that the worker may

experience due to this exposure?
The typical symptoms are,

1) Numbness of fingers

2) Blanching of fingers

3) Swollen painful joints

4) Reduction in manual dexterity (things may fall from hands and fine
adjustment by hand cannot be achieved.

Q10b) outline SIX control measures that can be used to

reduce the risk from vibration?
1) Eliminate the risk: by process change to eliminate the need for using vibrating
hand held tools.

2) reduce the risk: to modify operating procedure so that the pressure upon the
tool. Required by operator is reduced.

3) Proper selection of equipment and maintenance.

4) Reducing time of exposure of operators to vibration.

5) Health surveillance to detect the early signs and symptoms of vibration

illness.

6)use of appropriate PPE (as gloves to keep hand warm)

 Q11) Identify EIGHT common course of fires in the
workplace?
1) Electricity: neglect and misuse of wiring and electrical appliances.

2) Refuse / rubbish: accumulating in work / storage areas.

3) Smoking: discarded cigarettes, matches. Inadequate ashtrays.

4) Heaters: portable heaters can be knocked over, poorly sited (or)

inadequately guarded. All heaters could over heat if obstructed.

5) Hazardous goods: includes materials such as paints, adhesives (or) other

chemicals.

6) Arson: by mischievous children and adult fire raisers, facilitated by

ineffectively secured buildings.

7) Specific hazards: machinery in dusty environments, heated equipment

(e.g.) blows, lamps, cutting and welding equipment, flammable liquids.

Q12a) out line possible effects on workers health when

exposed to high noise levels?
1) The outer ear channels the sound pressure waves through to the eardrum.

2) The middle ear, the vibrations of the eardrum is transmitted through three
small bones (hammer, anvil and stirrup) to the inner ear.

3) The COCHIEA in the inner ear is filled with fluid and contains tiny ears
(nerves), which respond to the sound signals are then sent to the brain via
acoustic nerves.

SHORT TERM EFFECTS

1) Acute acoustic trauma: sudden damage of ear drum, due to intense noise
levels as in explosion.

2) Temporary threshold shift: due to fatigue of hearing cells conveying

frequencies outside the conversation speech range.

LONG TERM EFFECTS:

1) Tinnitus: ringing in the ear, due to intense stimulation of auditory nerve over a
period of time.

2) Permanent threshold: due to death of hearing cells conveying frequencies

outside the conversation speech.
3) Noise included hearing loss: due to death of hearing cells conveying
conversation speech frequencies.

4) Fatigue (or) stress.

Q12b) out line factors to be considered when selecting personnel

hearing protection for workers?

1) Provision of information and training.

2) Readily available.

3) Comfort and personnel choke.

4) Issue to visitors.

5) Care and maintenance.

6) Noise reduction.

Q12c) describe with practical examples noise control

techniques that would reduce noise levels in the work place?
1) absorption: using barriers of POROUS materials: (e.g.) foam, mineral etc), to
reduce sound energy (e.g.) baffles

2) Damping: mechanical vibration can be converted into heat by damping (e.g.)

motel / plastic panels)

3) Silencers: pipe / boxes can be designed to reduce air /gas noise (e.g.) engine
exhaust silencers, duct silencers etc.

4) Isolation: positioning an elastic element (e.g.) rubber mount etc). in the path
of vibration can isolate a noise radiating area from a vibration input.

5) Insulation: imposing a barrier (e.g.) a brick wall lead sheet etc.,) between
the noise source and the receivers will provide noise insulation.

Q12d) out line factors that are likely to affect the performance
of personnel of hearing protection?
1) Long hair, spectacles earnings etc, may cause a poor seal to occur.

3) Not fitted properly, due to lack of training.

4) Not wearing ear protectors all of the time.

5) Specification of protectors does not provide sufficient attenuation.

Q13) identify control measures to reduce the risk of
electric shock, when using a portable electric drill?
1) Inspect wiring of equipment before each use.

2) Avoid contact with energized electrical circuits.

3) Avoid using damaged drills which leads to serious electrical problems.

4) Hand held tools should have insulated grip. Do not use with damaged
insulation.

5) Avoid wet working conditions and other dangers.

6) Avoid overhead power lines.

7) Use proper wiring connection.

8) Use and maintain tools properly.

9) Appropriate guarding and shields may be used to protect against exposed live
parts.

10) Wear corrects PPE.

11) Grounding is a safe path for the electric current to flow away from your body;
improper grounding of a tool could result in serious shock.

Q14a) identify FOUR types of ignition source that cause

a fire in the workplace?
1) Smokers materials

2) Naked flames.

3) Fixed (or) portable heaters.

4) Hot process (e.g.) welding

5) Cocking.

6) Electrical equipment (or) machinery

7) Static electricity.

Q14b) outline control measures for each of the ignition

sources identified in?
1) Naked flame: care in using instrument with naked flame and to exclude any
flammable substance nearby.

2) Electrical sparks: electrical protective measures (as) isolation, earthing, fuses,

maintenance and safe system of work, spark proof equipment.

3) Heat build up: machine lubrication, avoid covering ventilation holes.

4) Hot work: hot work permits, warning signs.

5) Cigarettes: prohibiting smoking.

Q15) identify EIGHT types of mechanical hazard

associated with machinery?
1) Entanglement: where hair, cloths, jeweler etc are caught in parts of a
revolving machine.

2) Impact: where the body impacted by moving parts (or) processed items.

3) Ejection: where the parts of the machine (or) materials being used fly out and
hit the body.

4) Friction and abrasion: friction burns and encountering rough surfaces moving
at high speed.

5) Cutting: saw blades, knives and even rough, edges especially, when moving
at high speed, can

Result in serious cuts and even amputation injuries. The dangerous part can
appear stationary.

6) Shear: when two (or) more machine parts move towards / past, one another a
trap is created. This can result in crash injury (or) even an amputation.

7) Stabbing and puncture: the body may be penetrated by sharp pieces of

equipment (or)

Material contained in the equipment.

8) Crushing: caused when part of the body is caught between either two
moving parts of machinery (or) a moving part and a stationary object.

Q16a) identify TWO types of hazardous substance?

1) HAZARDDOURS SUBSTANCES: Harmful / toxic causing transient
(or) permanent damage to body functions (e.g.) solvents.
2) Corrosive: causing damage to living tissue (e.g.) sodium hydroxide,
sulphuric acid.

3) Irritant: causing local irritation to living tissue (e.g.) butyl /ester.

4) Sensitizing: causing an allergic reaction (e.g.) isocyanides.

5) Carcinogenic: causing cancer (e.g.) asbestos.

6) Mutagenic: causing genetic damage (e.g.) ethoxyethano.

7) A substance toxic to human reproduction (e.g.) arsenic.

Q16b) outline personal hygiene controls to reduce the

risk of ingestion of a hazardous substance?
1) Regular hand washing.

2) Restriction of smoking and eating in the workplace.

3) Removing and cleaning contaminated cloths.

4) The use suitable PPE (as gloves).

Q17a) outline the term reparable dust?

Repairable dust is an airborne dust is an airborne dust of such a size that
it is able to enter the lungs during normal respiration. Dust of 10 microns
size (or) less reparable.

Q17b) outline the methods airborne dust in the

workplace?
1) Visual signs of dust accumulation.

2) Dust lamps.

3) Direct reading instruments.

4) Sampling using pumps and filters followed by analysis.

Q18) control measures to reduce the risk of accidents

from reversing vehicles in the workplace?
1) Remove people from the reversing area, create a vehicle only area and
keep the area free from obstructions.
2) Ensure that there is adequate space for reversing; provide large
reversing areas where possible, if the workplace is small, you may have to
restrict the size of vehicles allowed to access your site.

3) Ensure that reversing areas are well laid out, cleanly identified tor both
drivers and pedestrians have adequate markings, signage and aids to
increase visibility such as mirrors.

4) The provision of longitudinal guides, lateral white lines on the ground

(or) fixed mirrors can all be of assistance to the driver in positioning the
vehicle correctly.

5) Place fixed mirrors in reversing areas, if required.

6) Where vehicles have to reverse up to structures services (or) edges,

provide physical stops such as barriers, bollards buffers (or) wheel stops
to warn rivers that they need to stop and to prevent vehicles from over -
turning edges. All physical stops should be highly visible, appropriately
positioned and well maintained.

7) Ensure that there is adequate lighting in the reversing area.

8) consider reversing aids (or) safety devices if appropriate for example

sensing or trip systems can assist in the detection of people (or)
obstacles behind the reversing vehicle.

9) Audible reversing alarms which warn people of the danger can be of

assistance.

10) Consider installing a speed limiting a speed limiting device to the

vehicle when reversing.

11) Fix guards, where required the rear wheels / hazardous vehicle access
points to prevent people from being under the vehicle.

12) Select conspicuous vehicle colors and marking to assist the vehicle in
standing out.

Q19a). The load:

1) Consideration should be given to reducing the weight although this
may mean increasing the frequency of handling.
2) If there is a great verity of weight to be handled it may be possible to
sort the loads into weight categories, so that precautions can be applied
selectively.

3) Where the size, surface texture (or) nature of a load makes it difficult to
grasp, consideration should be given to the provision of handles, hand
grips, indents etc, to improve to grasp.

4) Loads in packages should be such that they cannot shift unexpectedly,

where being handled.

5) Any loads to be handled should not have sharp comers, jagged edges,
rough, very hot (or) very cold surfaces and the like.

6) Good practice would include information on the load packaging to give

a general indication of the weight and nature of the loads to be handled
should from part of any basic training, so that workers have sufficient
information they are likely to be asked to do.

Q19b) the individuals state of health, fitness, height

and strength can significantly affect the ability to
perform a task safely.
2) An individuals physical capacity can also be age-related, typically
climbing until the early 20s and declining gradually from the mid 40s. A
key high risk group would be expectant mothers (or) workers with
disabilities.

3) It is clear then that an individuals condition and age could

signisificantly affect the ability to perform a task safely.

Q20) identify EIGHT safe working practices that should

be considered to reduce the risk when using a mobile
tower scaffold?
1) The height of an untied, independent tower must never exceed the
manufactures recommendations, a good practice may be:

a) Outdoor use 3 times, the minimum base width.

b) Indoor use 3.5 times, the minimum base width.

2) If the height of the tower is to exceed these maximum figures than the
scaffold must be secured. (Tied) to the structure (or) out riggers used.

3) Working platforms must only be accessed by safe means.

4) All parts must be sound and from the same manufacture.

5) Never use a tower near a live overhead power lines (or) cables.

6) Before climbing a tower the wheels must be turned outwards the wheel
breaks on locked and kept locked.

7) Working platform must always be fully boarded out.

8) Guard nails and toe boards must be fitted.

9) A safe maximum working load must also be stated.

Q21b) precautions that should be taken when leaving a

fork-lift truck unattended?
1) Designated parking area should be provided with sufficient spaces.

2) Restrict the access from unauthorized people and define the reaffix
routes.

3) Turn off the motor and apply brakes.

4) Set the controls in neutral position.

5) Removing key from the vehicle.

6) Must tilt slightly forward.

7) Forks resting on floor.

8) Forklifts that are parked on an inclined (or) sloping floor must be

blocked.

9) Parked should not obstruct the walk ways.

10) Parking should no obstructing fire exits / fire points.

11) Returning key to responsible person.

Q22) identify precautions that should be considered to
prevent accidents to children, who may be tempted to
gain access to a construction site?
1) Unauthorized entry can be prevented by secure fencing and signs.

2) Monitoring the site by the use of security patrols and closed circuit
television.

3) Entry should be permitted with reference (or) entry pass/tag/ badge.

4) Isolating the site and securing the tools, chemicals, equipments and
machinery

5) Reducing heights of materials.

6) Covering (or) fencing the excavation areas.

7) Denying access and removing the ladders to scaffolding.

8) Secure from electrical lines present in the site if any.

Q23) outline FOUR main types of guards and

safeguarding devices that may be used to minimize the
risk of contact with dangerous parts of machinery?

FIXED GUARDS: a fixed guards / fence must be fitted. Such that it

cannot be removed, other than by the use of specialist tools. Which are
not available to operators of the equipment a fixed guard may be
designed to enable access by authorized personnel for maintenance (or)
inspection but only when the dangerous parts of the machine have been
isolated?

LIMITATIONS OF FIXED GUARDS:

1) Do not disconnect power when not in place, therefore machine can still
be operated without guard/

2) May cause problems with visibility for inspection.

3) If enclosed, may create problems with heat.

INTERLOCKING GUARDS:
An interlocking guard is similar to a fixed guard, but has a movable part, if
the movable part is in the open / lifted position the dangerous moving
part at the work point cannot operate.

This can be arranged, so that the act of closing the guard activates the
working part (e.g.) the front panel of a photo- copier interlocked guards
are useful if operators used. Regular to the danger area.

LIMITATIONS:
1) Have moving parts therefore need regular maintenance

2) Can be over- ridden.

3) If interlock is in the form of a gate, a person can step inside and close
gate behind them.

AUTOMATIC GUARD: A guard which operates as the machine goes

through its cycle. In some causes it physically moves the operator away
from danger and his therefore only suitable for slow cycling equipment
(e.g.) on guillotine (or) large panel press.

LIMITATIONS: usually restricted to slow cycling machinery.

TRIP DIVICES: A sensitive rod cable (or) other mechanism which cause
the device to activate, a further mechanism which either stops (or)
reverses the machine. It is a sensitive rod cable (or) other mechanism
which cause the device to activate, a further mechanism which either
stops (or) reverses the machine. It is critical to note, that is not classed as
a guard. A guard is something that physically prevents access to the
hazard whereas a trip device detects the person in the danger zone and
responds to this (e.g.) pressure sensitive mats.

LIMITATIONS: 1) can be over ridden.

2) May not prevent harm from occurring.

3) May cause production delays increase stress in users with false trips

Q24a) identify three forms of biological agents?

1) Hepatitis

2) Wiles diseases.
3) Legionnaires disease.

4) Anthrax.

5) Tetanus.

Q24b) identify THREE possible routes of entry in to the

body for a biological agent?
1) Inhalation,2) ingestion,3) injection,4) entry through open wounds.

Q24c) give two control measures to reduce the risk of

exposure to a biological agent?
1) Disinspection for materials (or) equipment contaminated with the
agent.

2) Good personal hygiene.

3) Immunization vaccination (or) seroprophylaxis.

4) Water control (by boiling (or) chlorination.

5) Proper disposal of wastes.

6) Use of the appropriate PPE.

A25) Identify the information that should be included on

a manufactures safety data sheet supplied with
hazardous substances?
1) Hazards identification

2) First aid measures

3) Fire fighting measures

4) Accidental release measures

5) Handling and storage

6) Exposure controls / personnel protection.

7) Identification of the substance.

8) Physical and chemical properties.

9) Stability and reactivity.

10) Toxicological information.

11) Ecological information.

12) Disposal consideration.

13) Transport information.

14) Regularity information.

Q26 a) identify for types of injury that the worker could

suffer while caring out this activity?
1) Rupture of interuertebral (slipped disc) in the lower spine.

2) Muscle strain and sprain and sprain.

3) Tendons and ligaments can also be over stretched and torn.

4) Rupture of a section of the abdominal wall can cause a hernia.

5) Loads with sharp edges can cause cuts.

Q26b) identify factors in relation to the task that could

increase the risk of injury?
1) Handling loads at a distance from the body.

2) Excessive caring, lifting (or) lowering distances.

3) Excessive pushing (or) pulling.

4) Pushing (or) pulling loads, above (or) below waist level.

5) The need to lift from and to return load to the ground level.

6) Task requiring stooping, twisting (or) overreaching.

7) Task requiring repetitive handling with no sufficient rest per.

Q27a) indentify the principle of the fire triangle?

1) Stating: is removal of the fuel from the neighborhood of the fire.
Dividing the fire into small fire can be considered also as a starving
method.

2) Smothering: is exclusion of oxygen from the fire environment. Fire

needs oxygen to continue same as human needs oxygen to breath, dry
powder co2 and sand are extinguishing agents acting by smothering.

3) Culling: is removal of the heat component, water extinguishers act by

this way.

Q27b) identify three methods of heat transfer and state

how each contributes to the spread of fire?
1) Convection: the movement of hotter gases up through the (hot air
rises).

2) Conduction: the movement of heat through a material.

4) Direct brining: combustible materials in direct contact with necked

flame.

Q28a) identify FOUR types of ionizing radiation?

1) Alpha particles: are comparatively large, alpha particles travel short
distances in dense materials and can only just penetrate the skin. The
principle risk is through ingestion (or) inhalation of a source (e.g.) radon
gas an alpha particles emitter which might place the material close to
vulnerable tissue, when this happens the high localized entry effect will
destroy adjacent tissue of the organs affected.

2) Beta particles: are much faster moving than alpha particles, they are
smaller in mass than alpha particles, but have longer range, so they can
damage and penetrate the skin, whist they have greater penetrating
power than alpha particles. Beta particles are less ionizing and take longer
to affect the same degree of damage.

3) Gamma rays: have great penetrating power; gamma radiation passing

through a normal atom will sometimes force the loss of an electron
leaving the atom positively charged this is called an ion.

4) x rays: are very similar in their effects to gamma rays, x rays are
produced by sudden acceleration (or) deceleration of a charged particle,
usually when high speed electrons strike a suitable target under
controlled condtions.the electrical potential required to accelerate
electrons to speeds when x ray production will occur is a minimum of
15,000 volts x rays and gamma rays have high energy and high
penetration power through fairly dense material. In low density,
substances include air they may the travel long distances.

Q28b) outline the main principles of control for ionizing

radiation?
1) Reducing time of exposure for ionizing radiation.

2) Shielding (interposing material between radiation source and exposed

person) materials of high mass number are chosen for shielding as lead.

3) Distance: increasing the distance between radiation source and those

exposed will reduce the radiation does receive.

4) Automatic alarms: if radiation level exceeds certain limits.

5) Monitoring external radiation does: by use of film badges (or) thermo

luminescent dosimeter.

6) Health surveillance: to detect early signs of explosive to radiation.

7) Proper disposal of radioactive wastes.

8) Wearing the suitable PPE. to prevent radioactive material from being

inhaled ingested (or) coming into contact with skin.

9) Wearing signs to refer to radiation hazard.

Q29) identify the main hazards that may be present

during the demolition of a building?
1) Falls of workers, falls of materials, flying materials, dust and debris
resulting in wide range of injuries and conditions, some of which are of a
fatal nature.

2) Collapse of building (or) structure either deliberately (or) unplanned.

3) Overloading of floors (or) the structure with debris, resulting in floor an

(or) building collapse.

4) Explosions in tanks (or) other confined spaces.

5) Presence of live electric cable (or) gas mains.

6) Presence of dusty, corrosive and poisonous materials and (or)

atmospheres.

7) Projecting nails in timber (or) broken glass may penetrate in the parts
of the body.

Q30) a THREE meter deep trench has to be dug across a

car park?

Q30a) identify hazards associated with the work?

1) The hazards of work in and around excavations: falls of

equipment, materials and persons falling into the excavation:

When workers are working below ground in excavations, the problems are
very similar to those faced when workers are working at a height falls
and falling objects. Particular problems arise, when: materials, including
spoil (ground which has been excavated) are stored too close to the edge
of the excavation.

2) The excavation is close to another building and the foundations may be

undermined.

3) The edge of the excavations is not clear, especially if the excavation is

in a public area.

4) Absence of barriers (or) lighting.

5) Poor positioning (or) the absence of access ladders allowing workers to

fall.

6) Absence of organized crossing points.

7) Badly constructed ramps for vehicle access which can cause the
vehicle to topple.

8) No stop blocks for back filling.

9) Routing of vehicles too close to the excavation.

2) Collapse of the excavation: often, the soil and earth that make
up the sides of the excavation cannot be relied upon to support their own
weight, leading to the possibility of collapse. The risk can be made worse
if,

1) The soil structure is loose (or) made unstable by water logging.

2) Heavy plant (or) materials too closes to the edge of the excavation.

3) Machinery (or) vehicles causes vibration.

4) There is inadequate support for the sides.

Q30b) identify control measures that could be

implemented to reduce the risk?
1) Manual handling hazard: controlled by the use of mechanical aids as
conveyer belts for example, by reducing the weight of answer in 4 the
question.

Q31) outline precautions that should be taken when

using a mobile crane?
1) Erection should be in accordance with manufactures recommendation.

2) Erection alteration and dismantling to be done by competent persons.

3) If should stand on a firm level base.

4) Scaffold tubes to be free from defects (e.g.) bent sections.

5) Proper branching to prevent twisting and collapse.

6) The ratio of the minimum base dimensions to the height should not
exceed 1:3 external use and 1:3:5 in internal use.

7) The maximal height of tree standing tower is 9.75 meters.

8) The maximal height of tied tower is 12 meter.

9) A safe means of access to be provided on the narrowest side of the
tower as vertical ladder attached internally.

10) Platforms should be properly support and fully boarded.

11) Ladder (or) stepladders should not be placed on the platform to gain
extra height for working.

12) Toe boards and guard rails to be prevent falls of workers and / or
materials.

13) Tie the mobile tower if, the scaffold is likely to be exposed to strong
winds, the tower base is too small for the height, the tower is to be used
for operate like,1) grid blasting,2) heavy drilling,3) water jetting.

If necessary to lifting materials and equipment up.

14) On using a mobile tower, make sure the castors are locked.

15) Toe boards and guard rails are to be provided for a platform of more
than 2 meter height, the guard rails should be 3 feet above the platform.

16) Before moving, tower is sure no power lines obstructions holes in the
ground etc.

17) Push the tower from the base.

Q32) a portable electric drill is being used on a building

site?

Q32a) other than electricity identifies FOUR hazards

associated with the use of the drill?
1) Inhalation (fumes, dust)

2) Moving and rotating parts (blades and bits, tool disintegration)

3) Waste ejection (waste materials from cutting blades)

4) Heat (burns from hot materials (or) friction)

5) Movement (piece moving),

6) Stabbing of drill bit in to the hands (or) legs,

7) When drilling clamp (or) anchor the materials being drilled to prevent
whipping and possible injury.

Q32b) outline FOUR precautions that could be taken to

reduce the risk to workers?
1) Guards and safety devices designed for the portable machine must be
in place.

2) Adequate ventilation should be available. The inhalation of dust (or)

fumes from design technology workplace activities should be limited.

3) Adequate instruction in the correct operation of the portable tools

should be given.

4) Use appropriate PPE.

5) Work areas should be well lighted

Q33) identify precautions that would need to be

considering before welding work can commence?
1) Only use competent trained worker.

2) Regulations should be of a recognized standard.

3) Clearly identify try color code the hoses for oxygen, acetylene,
propane.

4) Fit non return valves at blow pipe / torch inlet on both gas lines.

5) Fit flash back arrestors incorporating cut off valves and flame arrestors
fitted to outlet of both gas regulators.

6) Use crimped hose connections not jubilee clips.

7) Do not let oil (or) grease contaminate oxygen supply due to explosion
hazard.

8) Check equipments visually before use and check new connections with
soapy water leaks.

9) Secure cylinders in upright position.

10) Keep hose lengths to a minimum.

Q34) outline contract measure to reduce the risks to
workers when using non-powered hand tools?
1) Hammer: avoid split, broken (or) loose shafts (handles) and worn (or)
chipped heads, heads should be properly secured to the shafts.

2) Files: these should have a proper handle, never use the as levers.

3) Chisels: the cutting edge should be sharpened to the correct angle, do

not allow the head of cold chisels to spread to a mushroom agape-grid off
the sites regularly use a hand guard, on the chisel.

3) Screwdrivers: never use those chisels and never use the correct size
and type of screwdriver for the screw, split handle are dangerous.

4) Spanners: avoid spayed jaws, scrap any which show signs of slipping,
have enough spanners of the right size. Do not improve by using pipes
etc. as extensions to the handle.

Q35) identify FOUR forms of hazard as substance for

which respiratory protective equipment could be used
to reduce the risk of harm

1) Dust: are solid particles suspended in the air, it is

created by such operations as grinding.
2) Vapor: is the gaseous form of a liquid: it results from heating a liquid.

3) Fume: fine particulate solids resulting from condensation of a vapor.

4) Gas: is a formless chemical that occupies the area in which it is

enclosed.

Q35b) outline factors that could reduce the

effectiveness of the respiratory protective equipment?
1) Damage ducting.

2) Unauthorized alterations.

3) Process changes leading to overwhelming amounts of contamination.

4) Incorrect hood location.

5) Fan strength (or) incorrect adjustment of fan.

6) Too many bends in ducts.

7) Blocked (or) defective filters.

8) Leaving too many ports often.

9) The cost of heating make up air may encourage employers to reduce

flow rates.

Q36a) identify the possible effects of electricity on the

body?
1) Damage to the nervous system.

2) Ventricular fibrillation (irregular heartbeat).

3) Tissue burns at entry and exit.

4) Damage to internal organs.

5) Muscular contractions.

6) Physical trauma.

7) Stopping breating (respiratory paralysis)

8) Stopping the heart (cardiac arrest)

9) Neurological effects.

Secondary effects:
1) Falls from height.

2) Unintentional movement of machinery.

3) Failure of control measures and security systems

4) Loss of information.

5) Corporate reputation.

Throw off (sudden movement of the body).

Q36b) outline emergency action to take, if a person
suffers a severe electric shock?
1) Switch off (or) remove the plug.

2) Check that there is no remaining connection to the supply and if

possible. Prove that the system is discharged and dead.

3) Assess the situation and any remaining danger to yourself (or) the
causality.

4) Call for qualified support which may be the emergency service.

5) If safe, check the causalitys response (what is the degree of

consciousness.)

Check: a > airway- is it open?

b> breathing is the causality breathing normally?

c> circulation-does the causality have a normal pulse?

Action: if airway obstructed by teeth, food etc, remove if tongue tilt, head
back to clear and then provide cardio pulmonary resuscitation (CPR). If
trained, place in the recovery position and / or apply resuscitation as
required, cool any burns with cold water, keep the causality under
observation for secondary effects until you hand over to a medically
qualified person.

Do not: do not go near the causality until the electrical supply is proven to
be off. This is especially critically with overhead high voltage lines; keep
you and others at least 18 meters away until the electricity supply,
company personnel advise- otherwise:

Do not delay: after 3 minutes without blood circulation irreversible

damage can be done to the causality.

Do not wait for an accident to happen: train in emergency procedure and

first aid now, plan procedures for an emergency (calling for help from the
emergency services, meeting ambulances and leading from the causality,
as seconds saved may save a life. Hold emergency drills.
Q37) outline the general role a fire marshal would be
expected to undertake in an emergency of a workplace
in event of a fire?
1) Check the source, type and severity of the emergency.

2) Sound the fire alarm system and order the evacuation of the floor.

3) Call the fire and rescue service.

4) Advice the emergency of the floor and the proposed.

5) Ensure that all occupants of the floor are aware that evacuation of the
floor is necessary and direct the occupants to the nearest accessible exit
(or) escape stairs through which they should proceed to the designated
assembly area.

6) Ensure that evacuation from is orderly and by means of the stairs.

7) DO NOT USE LIFTS.

8) Ensure that necessary assistance is given to disabled and other person

is need of special area.

9) Check fire doors to ensure that they are closed and post a watch so
that they are kept closed, except during the escape of occupants.

10) Provided it is safe to do so, make a thorough search of the whole floor
(or) area to ensure that no persons remain.

11) Carry out a roll call.

12) Assist the building warden in checking that all building occupants
have arrived at the assembly area.

Q38) identify safe working practices to the use of a

mobile elevating working platform (MEWP)?
1) Whoever is operation it is fully trained and competent.

2) The work platform is fitted with guard rails and toe boards.

3) It is used on suitable firm and level ground; the ground may have to be
prepared in advance.

4) Tires are properly inflated.

5) The work area is cordoned off to prevent access below the work
platform.

6) That it is well it, if being used on a public highway in poor lighting.

7) Outriggers are extended and choked as necessary before raising

platform.

8) All involved know, what to do if the machine fails with the platform, in
the raise and position.

Q39) outline the hazards associated with slips and trips

in the workplace?
1) Poorly maintained surface: (e.g.) highly polished surfaces, damaged
floor tiles, holes in roads, site debris, insecure ducting (or) grates, poor
(or) walk ways.

2) Changes in level: caused by ramp, slops kerfs (or) steps not clearly
marked.

3) Slippery surfaces: cause by water, oils, fuel, site mud (or) mixed
compounds such as plaster.

4) Inappropriate footwear.

5) Rules not followed (e.g.) running (or) not taking care when walking.

6) General obstructions: in walkways such as trailing cables, pipes and air

hoses.

FALLS FROM HEIGHT.

1) Inadequate access to and from the workplace.

2) Fragile roofs.

3) Inadequate barriers (e.g.) hand rails, edge protection boards.

4) trenches- barriers /fences.

Q40a) identify possible risks to health associated with

the use of display? (DSE)
1) Work related upper limb disorders (WRULDs)
2) Musculoskeletal disorders.

3) Eye and eyesight problem.

4) Fatigue and stress.

5) Other minor (or) alleged health effects.

6) Epilepsy

7) Facial dermatitis.

8) Radiation.

9) Effects on pregnant women.

Q40b) identify the features of a chair to ensure is suitable for use at DSE
workstation?

1) Good lumber support.

2) Ability to adjust the seat back and seat height.

3) Provision of foot rests,

4) Stability of the seat base.

5) Swivel ability.

6) Provision of arm rests.

Q41a) outline the process to clean, keep and dispose

the chemical spillage in the workplace?
The ways in which persons might be harmed are:

1) Direct contact with the skin.

2) Direct contact with eyes.

3) Inhalation of fumes (or) particles.

4) Ingestion of the materials (direct which is rare and indirect through

contaminated hands and ingestion while eating, drinking (or) smoking at
work.)

5) Slipping hazards: hazards: depending on the chemical nature of the

substances (as flammability) for example.
 b) The procedure in the event of a spillage:

1) Isolate (or) evacuate the area.

2) Make an initial assessment to determine extant of spillage type of

Spillage (liquid, powder, etc)

3) summon help: from emergency services (if this is required.

4) deal with the spillage according to its type (for example in liquid
spillage, use absorbent material)

5) Issue the appropriate PPE to those involved in dealing with the spillage.

6) Give appropriate first aid and medical treatment to any person who
might have been harmed by the initial spillage.

7) Ongoing health surveillance for the persons exposed to the initial

spillage.

8) Safe disposal of the spilled substances together with any contaminated

material.

Q1) a worker has received serious injuries from being

stuck by a reversing vehicle in a loading bay.
Q1a) identify FOUR reasons why the accident should be
investigated?

An accident is to identify the immediate and root causes, in order to prevent similar
accidents occurring in the future. In this respect, the main reasons for investigation
relate to the identification of possible weakness in risk assessment process and
other aspects of safety management systems , other relate to:

1) Facilitating compliance (make easier) with legal obligations (where applicable)

2) Collecting evidence to defend a civil, where applicable.

3) Determining economic loss.

4) Demonstrating management commitment to occupational health and safety.

Q1b) outline the information that should be included in the investigation

report?

1) The personal details of the injured party.

2) The date, time and location of the accident.

3) Environmental conditions the work activity at the time of the accident.

4) The control measures in place.

5) The precise circumstances of the accident.

6) The type and extent of injury sustained.

7) The details of witness and copies of their statements were taken.

8) Drawings and photographs.

9) Immediate and root causes identified.

10) Possible breaches of the law, where applicable.

11) The recommendations of the investigation team in relation to remedial action

required.

Q1c) out line FOUR possible immediate causes?

1) Human error (or) failure to comply with procedures.

2) Mechanical failure.

3) Poor visibility in the loading bay (e.g. absence of lighting)

4) Restricted view for the driver.

5) Environmental conditions such as high noise levels.

Q1d) FOUR possible underlying (root) causes of the accident?

1) Lack of driver and/or other employee training.

2) Lack of supervision.

3) Absence of site rules (or) procedures for the control of reversing vehicles.

4) Failure to separate vehicular and pedestrian traffic.

5) Lack of maintenance of vehicles and / or the workplace.

Q2a) identify TWO main purpose of first-aid treatment?

1) The preservation of life.

2) The promote recovery.

3) Treatment of minor injuries which would otherwise, receive no treatment.

Q2b) outline the factors to be considered when making an

assessment of first-aid requirement in a workplace?
1) Different work activities, example: few hazards in office and more hazards in
construction (or) chemical sites.

2) Difficult access to treatment an equipped first aid room may be required, if

ambulance access is difficult (or) likely to be delayed.

3) Workers working away from employers premises the nature of the work and its
risk will need to be considered.

4) Workers of more than one employer working together agreement can be made
to share adequate facilities, with one employer responsible for their provision.

5) Provisions for non- employees.

6) Employers do not usually make first-aid provisions for any person other than their
own workers.

7) Having made this assessment, the employer will then be able out the number
and size of first aid boxes required.

8) Additional facilities such as a stretcher (0r) first-aid room may also be

appropriate.

Q3) explain why the provision of personal protective

equipment (PPE) should be considered only after other
control measures?
1) PPE. Only protects the wearer and others who may be in the area and also at risk.

2) PPE. May not provide adequate protection. Because of such factors as poor
selection, poor fit, incompatibility with other types PPE, contamination and misuse
of non- use by workers.

3) PPE. Is likely to be uncomfortable and relies for its effectiveness on conscious

action by the user.

4) In certain circumstances, its use can actually create additional risks (for instance,
warning sounds, masked by hearing protection)

5) The introduction of PPE may bring another hazard such as impaired vision,
impaired movement (or) fatigue.
6) PPE may only be capable of minimizing injury rather than preventing it.

7) If PPE fails to give 100% protection, it is impossible to measure actual exposure

to hazards such as dust, vapors and noise.

Q4) identify issues that could be considered at a safety

meeting?
Topics may include a review of recent accidents / incidents, a review of proactive
monitoring strategies such as inspections and audits, reports following visits by
enforcement authorities. The effects of the company new (or) impending H&S
legislation and possible amendments to the companies H&S policy and risk
assessments.

The extent and effectiveness of any H&S training given to employees and the
introduction of new equipment & processes.

The agenda should consist of:

1) Study of statics.

2) Examination audit reports.

3) Safety rep.reports.

4) Monitor safety systems etc.

5) Effectiveness of training.

6) Health and safety communications.

7) Links with appropriate inspectors.

Q5) outline the key elements of a health and safety

management system?
Health and management systems may be structured in and a number of ways,
therefore the key elements may be described differently.

POLICY: health and safety aims and objectives of the organization and
management commitment.

ORGANISING: clear roles and line of responsibility, competence, commitment and

control, co-operation and communication.

PLANNING AND IMPLEMENTATION: identify hazards, assess the risk and

decide how risk can be eliminated (or) controlled, sets standards against which
performance can be measured.
MEASURING PERFORMANCE: a means of determining the extent to which
health and safety and objectives are being implemented and should be with
reactive and proactive.

REVIEING: analyzing data, gathered through monitoring to see whether

performance is adequate.

AUDIT: systematic critical examination of each stage of an organizations

management systems and procedures.

Q6a) identify reasons why young workers could be at

greater risk of being injured at work?
1) Work is beyond their physical (or) psychological capacity.

2) Work involving harmful exposure to agents, which are toxic, carcinogenic (or)
may cause heritable genetic damage.

3) Work involving harmful exposure to radiation.

4) Work involving risk of accidents, which may not be recognized (or) avoided by
young persons owing to their insufficient attention.

5) Work in which there is a risk to health from extreme cold (or) heat, noise (or)
vibration.

Q6b) outline the control measures that should be taken

that should minimize risks to young workers?
1) Should carryout risk assessment before young workers start work?

2) Measures to provide suitable work equipment and the organization of work and
processes.

3) Adequate health and safety training and monitoring and/or supervision would aid.

4) Also consider limiting hours of work.

Q7) outline the factors that should be considered when

assessing the health and safety competence of a
contractor?
Candidates should be able to list a good range of factors that include, amongst
many others.

1) The contractors previous experience with the type of work.

2) The reputation of the contractor amongst previous (or) current clients.

3) The content and quality of the contractors health and safety policy and risk
assessments.

4) The level of training and qualifications of staff.

5) Accident / enforcement history.

6) Membership of certification bodies.

7) Equipment maintenance and statutory examination records.

8) The detailed proposals. (E.g. method statement for the work to be carried out).

Q8) outline FOUR active (proactive) monitoring procedures

that could be used to assess the health and safety
performance of an organization?
Active methods of monitoring might include:

Safety audits involving comprehensive and independently executed examinations of

all aspects of an organizations health and safety performance against objectives:
safety surveys focusing on a particular activity, such as manual handling, training
programmers and workers attitude towards health safety.

1) Inspections: a formal structured examination of the workplace to identify

hazards and eliminate (or) control them and also identify good practices.

2) Audits: involving comprehensive and independent examinations of all aspects of

an organizations health and safety management systems against stated objectives.

3) Safety surveys: focusing on particular activities.

4) Sampling: involving the targeting of specifications.

5) Tours: where unscheduled less formal workplace inspections are carried out to
check on issues such as housekeeping (or) the use of PPE.

6) Benchmarking: where an organizations performance certain areas is compared

with that of similar organizations.

7) Environment and health monitoring.

Q8b) outline FOUR reactive monitoring procedures that

could be used to assess the health and safety
performance of an organization?
Methods of monitoring might include:

An analyses of statistics on accidents, dangerous, occurrences near misses and

cases of occupational ill health, assessment of the cost of these incidents including
damage to property and where applicable in some territories the number of
enforcement actions such as prosecutions and notices taken against the
organization and the number of civil claims for damages parsed on behalf of its
workers.

Q9a) outline the purpose of the statement of intent

section of a health and safety policy?
An effective way to demonstrate to managements commitment to health and
safety and sets goals and objectives (e.g.) resources, training publicity etc.

A9b) identify the circumstances that would require a

health and safety policy to review?
A number of circumstances may lead to a need to review the policy, for example the
passage of time , technological, organization (or) legal changes, the result of
monitoring (or) following a major accident (or) incident.

As time passes the arrangements for control of health and safety are influenced
by workers finding different ways of doing the same thing, arrangements as
practiced can therefore differ greatly from the original way it was set out in the
policy.

Technological change is happening in the workplace all the time and this can
mean that, arrangements may be set out against circumstances that do not exist
anymore because equipment (or) substances have been altered, it might also be
that the organization has been able to take advantage of technological advantage
of technological advantages in something (e.g.) materials handling, yet the policy
refers to the earlier way of working.

Changes in organization have a specific bearing on the arrangements, for

example if reporting of accidents is set out in the policy and in relation to a certain
workers post, this may be influenced by a reorganization that removes the
position,similiarly changes in work patterns (e.g.) shift working could influence
arrangements that have been made.

Legislation changes periodically can its fair to say usually reflects a

strengthening of reflects expectations, this may mean that specific arrangements
set out in the policy may no longer conform with the law, in that it may be
incomplete (or) not to a satisfactory standard.
If monitoring methods are in place and are workings they could identify a gap in a
specific arrangement (or) that something is unclear (or) contractor.

This might be from enforcement action, professional advice such as an audit (or)
following an accident (or) incident investigation.

Q10) identify reasons for maintaining good standards of

health and safety in an organization?
1) Taking a systematic approach to management , makes managing your business
both easier and more effective, you work out the best way to handle each key
activity and make sure that everyone uses the same approach every time. A
constant approach like this reduces the number of mistakes and the cost of
correcting problems. It also reduces the level of risk ensures that you comply with
legislation. This can positively influence your business, improved health and safety
performance by your business will reduce the costs associated with accident and
incident.

2) Improved awareness of regulatory requirements, reduce the chance that you

commit any offences.

3) The health and safety executive will generally regulate your business with a
lighter touch if it is well managed.

4) If employees see that you are actively looking after their health and safety,
relations and morale will improve.

5) The public see that you are taking a responsible attitude towards your
employees; this improves your image and generates positive public realizations (PR)
for your business.

6) Improving the efficiency of your business reduces your costs.

You can demonstrate to your insurers.

That you are controlling risk effectively, this may help lower your insurance
premiums.

Banks and investors will be more willing to finance your business if you can show
that it is well managed.

7) Business partners have more confidence in your business, large companies and
government agencies may only buy from business that can show effective
management systems.

Q12 a) safety inspection: a safety inspection is a straightforward

observation of a workplace and the activities. It is usually carried out by a manager
(or) employee representative, often aided by the use of a checklist; it may be
carried out routinely with the aim of identifying hazards and assessing the
effectiveness of control measures.

Q12 b) safety audit: a safety audit is a through critical examination of an

organizations safety management systems and procedures. It is normally a lengthy
process carried out by a trained auditor, often someone from outside the
organization. It is a structured way of assessing the health and safety performance
of an organization by supplying answers to a series of questions, often involves a
scoring system such that improvement can be made.

Q12c) explain how the findings of an audit may be used to

improve health and safety performance?
A detailed report will be produced after every audit; this clearly gives the reasons
for each management failure.

1) The failure that has occurred.

2) The priority / sign fianc of the risk (the risk rating and control)

3) The safety standards that applied and followed / not followed.

4) Recommended to senior management also is made to summarize the most

significant issues and motivate action.

5) Based on the audit findings the organization takes action to feed the info the
safety system and implement the action required. The use of prioritized, timed and
allocated action plans will aid the process.

6) Implementation of the action plan is monitored.

The above mentioned action plan motivate the workforce, there by resulting in>

1) Lesser accident, 2) highly production, 3) happy workforce, 4) high morale, 5)

better competitive edge,6) better business reputation.

Q13 a) cost that the organization may include as a result?

Direct costs:

1) Lost time of injured worker and any continued payments to worker (or) family

2) Damage to the equipment, tools, property (or) materials.

3) Medical (or) first-aid costs.

4) Time and materials to clean up after the accident.

5) Insurance, compensation payments.

6) Court costs.

7) Fines.

Indirect costs:

1) lost time by workers, who stop work (or) reduce performance, (out of curiosity,
out of sympathy, weakened morale)

2) lost time by supervisor (or) other manages, (assisting injured worker,

investigating the cause of the accident, arranging for the injured workers production
to be continued by some other employee, selecting (or) training a new worker to
replace injured employee, preparing accidents reports, attending hearings, inquests
courts, interference with production leading to failure to fill orders on time, loss of
bonuses, penalty payments and similar causes.

Q15a) permit to work: a permit to work system is a formal safety control

system, designed to prevent accidental injury to personal , damage to plant,
premises and product , particularly when work with a foreseeable high hazard
content is undertaken and the precautions required are numerous and complex.

Hot work: typically involving welding operations, such as pipe work, where the
risk of sparks may ignite nearby flammable materials, elimination (or) protection of
such items will need to be considered. The provision of firefighting equipment and
trained personal to deal with ignition is also critical.

Work on electrical systems: work on electrical equipment, such as a

transformer, will require safe isolation, access and egress, work at a height and
heavy lifting to be considered.

Machinery maintenance: machinery / plant maintenance sometimes

requires workers with the plant may be spread over a number of floors in a building,
such as power generation. Plant, flour mills (or) lift systems in an office block.

Q16) out line general content of the THREE section of a health and safety policy?

This section of the policy details the practical arrangements for, planning,
organizing and controlling hazards, as well as monitoring compliance with and
assessing the effectiveness of the arrangements.

General arrangements:

1) Allocation of finance for health and safety.

2) Planning.
3) Organizing.

4) Control of hazards- general (e.g.) risks assessment.

5) Consultation.

6) Communication.

7) Competence.

8) Accident and hazard reporting.

9) Monitoring compliance.

Specific arrangements:

11) Fire, 2) electricity, 3) manual handling, 4) work at height.

Q17) explain how accident data can be used to improve

health and safety performance with an organization?
1) The need establish the causes of an accident both immediate and underlying to
take preventive action.

2) Identify weakness in the current systems to improve the standards.

3) Determine the economic losses.

4) Recommend actions to prevent recurrence.

5) Acquire statistics.

6) Prepare civil / criminal action and provide insurance /claims /worker

compensation data.

Q18) outline how induction training programs for new

workers can help to reduce the number of accidents in the
workplace?
The new recruits who join the process are totally unaware about the hazards and
risks associated with their work; induction training is thus conducted to make them
familiar with the system.

The influence of induction training in decreasing the accidents rates are as follows:

1) To understand the safety policy clearly and aware about the safety rules and
requirements.
2) Be clear about the hazards and incidents relating to hazards, to take extra care to
avoid getting into hazardous situations.

3) To undergo health surveillance so their fitness is perfect resulting in good

concentration and good alert behavior while at work.

4) To get trained in PPE. And their importance and use appropriately thus avoid
getting in to physical injuries.

5) To learn from line managers and supervisors and are up-t-date in knowledge,
regarding safety system and following it, it reflects in reduction of accidents.

6) To promote positive safety culture in the organization.

Q19a) give the meaning of the term risk?

Risk is the likelihood (or) probability that a hazard will cause a specified harm to
someone (or) something.

Q19b) identify the key stages of a workplace risk

assessment?
1) Identify the hazards associated with it (e.g.) chemical, physical, etc.

2) identify the people who might be harmed and how, this includes our own workers
and others workers with special significahence being given to vulnerable employees
such as pregnant women, the public, young workers, etc.

3) Evaluate the risk and decide on controls of precautions.

4) Review assessment and update if necessary.

Q19 c) outline THREE reasons for reviewing a risk

assessment?
1) accidents,2) changes in process,3) changes work methods,4) changes in
material,5) new plant (or) technology,6) new information,7)changes in legislation,8)
prosecutions / enforcement notices,9) changes in personnel, 10) monitoring results
not as expected.

Q19 d) explain the criteria which must be met for the

assessment to be suitable and sufficient?
For a risk assessment to be suitable and sufficient

1) Legal requirements with respect to risk assessment.

2) All hazards must be identified and risk should be evaluated.

3) Report writing skills.

4) Assessing sources of information such as organizational (or) legislation codes of

practice and in-house information, including accidents reports.

5) Risk control measures must be in place and reliable.

6) The risk assessment must remain current for a period of time and ensures the
outcomes of the assessment.

Q19 e) outline the information to be recorded in the risk

assessment?
1) the task / plant/ process /activity, together with the hazards involved their
association risks and workers / persons affected by them together with existing
control measures should be record, the necessary actions required to further reduce
the risk are than dealt with and are usually recorded separately.

2) Some items particularly those with a high-risk rating, may require a more
detailed explanation (or) there may be a series of alternative actions.

3) Information on risk assessments and any controls must be brought to the

attention of those assigned to task of work.

4) Risk assessment information should be included in lesson plans to ensure items

are not missed, when star are trained (or) retrained.

Q20 a) outline why an organization should have a system

for the internal reporting of accident?
According to international labor organization (ILO), code of practice for recording
and notifying of occupational accidents and diseases (RNOAD), sets our
requirements that employer should make arrangements in accordance with national
legislation to report and record occupational accidents, communicating accidents ,
occupational disease, dangerous occurrence and incidents. The employer should
ensure that records are prepared in accordance with national requirements and in
any case within 6 days.

Q20 b) identify the reasons why workers might not report

accidents at work?
1) Ignorance of reporting procedures.

2) A previous lack of management response.

3) An average to form filling.

4) The possibility of blame culture.

5) A desire to preserve companys safety record.

Q21 a) outline the purpose of an organizations health and

safety policy?
The purpose of safety policy is to demonstrate that the management is committed
to the health and safety of all its employees and has developed the three elements
of:

1) Policy: statement of intent an effective way to demonstrative managements

commitment to health and safety and sets goals and objectives. (e.g.) resources,
training, publicity, etc.

2) Organization: the formal systems and procedures to identify health and safety
responsibilities and reporting lines within the company. Responsibility of health and
safety should be identified for each level of managements from the top to individual
supervisors. (e.g.) works engineer, safety advisor, etc.

3) Arrangements: what has to be done to implement the policy set out detail the
specific and procedures for implementing the safety policy, it can be general (or)
specific. General: (e.g.) first aid, fire safety, welfare.etc. Specific: (e.g.) relating to
the work.

Q22) identify FOUR types of emergency that would require

an organization to have an emergency procedure?
Adequate emergency procedure should be in place (or) developed in control likely
incidents (e.g.) fire, spillage, exposure to poisoning and pathogens, etc. fire is a
specific risk which will need regular review throughout a major build (or)
modification project.

The 1. Fire and explosion,2) hazardous toxic gas release, 3) chemical spills, 4)
serious personal injuries, 5) folding and perhaps riots (or) terrorist activities.

Q23) contractors are carrying out a major building project

for an organization? (Or) outline how this organization
could reduce the risks to contractors carrying out the
projects?
1) Experience with type of work, 2) reputation. 3) Suitable reference (or)
recommendation. 4) Previous work record. 5) Adequacy of safety policy.6)
enforcement history.7) accident and ill health data. 8) Membership of trade
organizations. 9) Suitable training for employees. 10) Arrangements for sub-
contractors. 11) Suitable assessments etc. 12) managing of contractors on site
during work. 13) Co-coordinator. 14) Pre-contractors meeting. 15) Progress meeting.

Q25) identify EIGHT possible health and safety hazards

relevant to the role of a long distance delivery driver?
1) The demands of the route (complexity road conditions, etc.)

2) Communications and security issues (e.g.) the potential for violence.

3) Individual factors would relate to the physical and psychological capabilities of

the driver to cape with demands to the job, taking in to account the level of training
provided.

4) For the vehicle, ergonomic factors would relate to the design and layout of the
cab but other features of the vehicle such as tail lifts, would be particularly
important.

5) Lastly candidates should consider aspects of the road in terms of its nature (e.g.)
hazardous, heavyset.) The means of handling materials and any emergency
equipment and procedures that are, should be in place.

Q26 a) identify FOUR types of health and safety

information that could be displaced on a notice board
within a workplace?
1) General principles of communication: communication is a two way process
of the receiver are equally as critical as the needs of the speaker. The speaker
should not assume that the receiver understood what has been said, to ensure the
success of the communication.

2) Verbal communication: it is imperative that verbal communication is clear,

concise and easily understood, however this is not always the case and the reasons
listed below are some of the barriers to effective verbal communication.

3) Written communication: the primary purpose of written information is to

communicate, the use of plain text avoiding confusion must be encouraged this is
particularly critical for safety related material. One useful vehicle for conveying is
the report.

4) Graphic communication: health and safety signs and other public signs rely
heavily on information graphics, such as stylized human figures and emblems to
represent concepts such as PPE must be worn and the direction of traffic flow on a
construction site.
Q26 b) identify how the effectiveness of notice boards as a
method of communicating health and safety information
can be increased?
A traditional communication technique is to display safety information on notice
boards. The advantage of this method is that the communication is available to
everyone in a particular work area.

Notice boards should only to make general statement (or) to keep workers aware of
current information (or) proposed developments.

Notice boards should not be used where the information must be up to date (or)
completeness of the information impacts on safety critical issues.

The information must be kept up-to-date and maintained in a legible condition, if it

is to be effective.

Notice boards information relies on peoples ability on read. Understand and apply
the information correctly.

Information provided should be written in the languages relevant to the people in

the workplace.

Q27 a) define the term hierarchy of control?

Hierarchy of control would have been either a list of measures designed of control
risks which are considered in order of importance (or) effectiveness (or) measures
designed to control risk that normally begin, with an extreme measures of control
and end with use of PPE as a last resort.

Q27b) list the general hierarchy of risk control (or) explain

with example the general hierarchy of risk control of
health and safety of work?
On the application of the standard hierarchy candidates should have begun with the
possibility of eliminating the risk either by designing them out (or) changing the
process. The next step would be the reduction of the risks by, for example the
substitution of hazardous substances with others which were less hazardous. If this
were not possible, then isolation would have to be considered, using enclosures,
barriers (or) worker segregation. The application of engineering controls such as
guarding the provision of local exhaust ventilation systems, the use of reduced
voltage systems (or) residual current devices would follow with the final control
measure being the provision of PPE. Such as eat defenders (or) respiratory
protective equipment.
Q30) list the action to be performed following a major
accident?
Action following a serious accident:

a) Immediately after an accident:1) attend to the victim ,2)secure the scene of the
accident, 3)notify the next to kin, 4)report to enforcing authority if necessary.

b) Longer term actions will include: 1) identifying witnesses, 2) underlying an

investigation, 3) reviewing work procedures.

c) reporting a death at work following an accident should include informing: 1)next

to kin,2) the senior management, 3)health and safety specialist, 4)enforcing
authority (or) law enforcement agency where appropriate, 5)worker representatives,
6)other workers, 7)insurance company where applicable.

Q31) indentify the reasons why verbal instructions may

not be clear in the workplace?
1) Background noise.

2) Different languages, (accents (or) dialects).

3) The complexity.

4) Use of technical jargon. (In Tamil puriyada peechu).

5) Interference due to PPE.

6) Distractions.

7) Sensory impairment.

8) Ambiguity (in Tamil santhagam).

Q32a) define the term SAFE SYSTEM OF WORK

The integration of: People, Materials in the correct Environment to procedure the
safest possible condition in a specific work area.

q32 b) outline the sources of information that might be useful when developing
SAFE SYSTEM OF WORK?

1) legislations, 2) code of practices, 3) British / European international standards, 4)

HSE guidance, 5) manufacturers date , 6) accident records, 7) risk assessment, 8)
opinions of the workforce,9) medical records.