Test-1 (Code C)

All India Aakash Test Series (Junior) - 2017 (Class X)

TEST-1

Time : 3 Hrs.

MM : 600

[ SCIENCE]
Choose the correct answer :
1. The value of proportional constant used in Coulomb's
law for vacuum is

5.

(1) 9 109 Nm/C

(2) 9 109 N2m/C

In the below shown figure, two fixed equal charges

of opposite signs are placed at a distance x apart.
The point between the two charges where net electric
field becomes zero is
x

(3) 9 109 Nm2/C2

(4) 9
2.

109

Nm/C2

Choose the correct option representing the nature of

electric field lines linked with the charge

(1)

(2)

(1) At a distance

x
from q
2

(2) At a distance

x
from q
3

(3) At a distance

x
from q
6

(4) There is no such point

6.

In the below given circuit, n identical resistances each

of resistance R are connected in parallel across a
voltage sources V. The current in any of the resistor is

(3)

3.

(4)

R
n times
R

In the figure shown below, block-2 having mass m

and charge Q is held stationary in air with the help
of block-1 carrying some charge. If the distance
between the blocks is h, then the charge on block-1
is [Symbols have their usual meanings]

m, Q

V
(1)
R

Block-2

(3)

h
7.

V
nR

mgh2
kQ
kQ

(3) mgh2
4.

(2)

nV
R

(4)

n 2V
R

In the below shown circuit, the net resistance is

Block-1

(1)

(2)

mgh
kQ

kQ

(4) mgh

If a body looses 1 C of charge, then its mass decreases

by about [Take mass of one electron = 9.1 1031 kg]
(1) 9.1 1012 kg

(2) 1.6 1019 kg

(3) 5.7 1019 kg

(4) 5.7 1012 kg

(1) 2
(3)

10

(2) 5
(4) Zero
1/14

All India Aakash Test Series (Junior) - 2017 (Class X)

8.

For the below shown circuit, the ratio of current in

ammeter-1 to that of in ammeter-2 is

Test-1 (Code C)
(1) 3
(3)

A
Ammeter-1

9.

A
Ammeter-2

(1) 1 : 2
(2) 2 : 1
(3) 3 : 1
(4) 1 : 3
The total resistance in between the points A and B
in the below shown circuit is

30
A
30

30

10

(1) 30
(2) 20
(3) 50
(4) 40
10. A uniform cylindrical rod has total resistance R
across its end. If the diameter of the rod is made
triple by compression, then new resistance will be
(1) 9 R

(2)

R
81

(3) 3 R

(4)

R
3

11. An electron having charge q is accelerated through

a potential difference of V. If mass of electron is m,
then speed acquired by the electron is
(1)

2qV
m

(2)

qV
m

(3)

m
2qV

(4)

m
qV

R3

R2 = 10

30 V
2/14

10

13. A copper wire of resistance R is cut into x parts of

equal length. Then
remaining

x
parts are joined in series and
2

x
parts are joined parallel. The ratio of
2

the effective resistance of the series and parallel

combination is
(1) 4 : x2

(2) x2 : 4

(3) x : 2

(4) 2 : x

(1) 1 : 2

(2) 2 : 1

(3) 1 : 4

(4) 4 : 1

15. The equivalent resistance between the points A and

B for the given circuit is [resistance of each resistor
is r]

r
r

A
r

(1)

4r
3

(2)

(3) r

3r
4

(4) 4r

16. Which of the following elements follows the nature of

voltage versus current graph?

12. In the below circuit resistor R1 = 20 and resistor

R2 = 10 . The power expended across R1 is 20 W.
If the voltage of the source is 30 V, then value of
resistor R3 is

R1 = 20

(4)

14. Two resistors R and 2R are connected in parallel in

an electric circuit. The thermal energy developed in
R and 2R is in ratio

90

10

Voltage

(2) 10

Current

(1) Wood

(2) Silicon

(3) Germanium

(4) Iron

17. Two identical bulbs having power ratings as (200 W,

220 V) are connected in series to a power source of
220 V. The total power expended in the circuit will be
(1) 400 W

(2) 100 W

(3) 200 W

(4) 300 W

Test-1 (Code C)

All India Aakash Test Series (Junior) - 2017 (Class X)

18. A proton beam goes from North to South. The

direction of current will be

24. Which of the following is a non-spontaneous process?

(1) Expansion of a gas (2) Mixing of gases

(1) North to South

(3) Burning of a gas

(2) South to North

25. The total number of moles of colourless gas formed

by the thermal decomposition of two moles of lead
nitrate is

(3) East to West

(4) West to East
19. A hollow cylindrical conductor of length 1 m has inner
and outer radii 1 mm and 2 mm respectively. If
resistivity of the material is 2 108 m, then
resistance in between the terminals A & B as shown
below is

A
2 mm

(4) Evaporation of water

(1) 1

(2) 2

(3) 3

(4) 4

26. Consider the given equation

heat

xFeSO4(s) yFe2O3(s) + zSO2(g) + SO3(g)

The ratio of x : y in the balanced chemical equation
is

1 mm

(1) 1 : 2

(2) 2 : 1

(3) 3 : 4

(4) 4 : 3

27. The acid that can be used to preserve food and treat
scurvy disease is

1m
(1) 1.2 103

(2) 1.2 106

(3) 2.1 106

(4) 2.1 103

20. When current flows through electric conductor, then it

(1) Gets positively charged
(2) Gets negatively charged
(3) Remains electrically neutral
(4) First gets positively and then negatively charged
21. On mixing the aqueous solution of sodium chloride
with the aqueous solution of silver nitrate a white
coloured precipitate is formed. The chemical formula
of this white coloured compound is
(1) Na2O

(2) NaNO3

(3) AgCl

(4) Ag2O

22. The ratio of the volumes of the gases liberated at

cathode and anode respectively during the
electrolysis of water is

28.

(1) Tartaric acid

(2) Ascorbic acid

(3) Hydrochloric acid

(4) Oxalic acid

Below 200C

NaCl(s) + H2SO4 (aq) X + HCl

Above 200C

2NaNO3 + H2SO4 (aq) Na2SO4 + 2Y

'X' and 'Y' in the given chemical equations is

(1) NaHSO4 and HNO3 (2) HNO3 and NaHSO4
(3) Na2SO4 and HNO3

(4) NaHSO4 and NaNO3

29. Which of the given acids has basicity 4?

(1) CH3COOH

(2) H4SiO4

(3) H3PO4

(4) COOH

COOH
30. The substance that can act as a drying agent is

(1) NH4OH

(2) Al(OH)3

(3) Mg(OH)2

(4) CaO

31. Read the given statements carefully

(1) 2 : 1

(2) 2 : 3

Statement I : In our stomach, hydrochloric acid is

produced which helps in the digestion of food.

(3) 3 : 4

(4) 4 : 1

Statement II : Antacids are used to cure acidity.

23. The change in the oxidation state of iron in the given

redox reaction is
FeO + CO Fe + CO2

Now, choose the correct option

(1) Only statement I is correct
(2) Only statement II is correct

(1) 0 to +3

(2) +3 to 0

(3) Both the statements are correct

(3) +2 to 0

(4) 0 to +2

(4) Both the statements are incorrect

3/14

All India Aakash Test Series (Junior) - 2017 (Class X)

Test-1 (Code C)
40. Zinc on reacting with sodium hydroxide produces

32. The pH of distilled water is

(1) 3

(2) 4

(1) Sodium zincate and hydrogen gas

(3) 7

(4) 12

(2) Sodium oxide and zinc hydroxide

33. Which of the following will have the maximum

concentration of H+ ions?

(3) Zinc oxide, sodium oxide and hydrogen

(4) Sodium zincate and water
41. Which of the following options is correct for the
categorization of different processes?

(1) Solution with pH 4

(2) Solution with pH 10

Anabolism
(1) Photosynthesis
(2) Respiration

(3) Solution with pH 2

(4) Solution with pH 7
34. Complete the given reaction

S
(Sulphur)

O2
(Oxygen)

'X'

'X'

H2O
(Water)

'Y'

'X' and 'Y' respectively are

Catabolism
Respiration, Digestion
Photosynthesis,
Digestion
(3) Photosynthesis, Fermentation
Digestion
(4) Fermentation,
Photosynthesis
Digestion
42. In green plants, photolysis of water molecule is
necessary to

(1) SO2 and H2SO4

(2) SO3 and H2SO3

(1) Produce ADP

(2) Oxidise carbon dioxide

(3) SO2 and H2SO3

(4) SO and H2SO3

(3) Oxidise glucose

(4) Reduce carbon dioxide

35. Which of the following chemical reactions is

endothermic in nature?

43. A

(1) Reaction of barium hydroxide and ammonium

chloride

Organisms obtain their nutrients from dead and

decaying organic matter.

(2) Oxidation of glucose during respiration

Two organisms are mutually benefited by living in

close association with each other.

Organisms take complex organic food materials

by the process of ingestion.

(3) Combustion of methane

(4) Decomposition of vegetable matter
36. The colour of the precipitate obtained during the
reaction of potassium iodide and lead nitrate is
(1) White

(2) Blue

(3) Yellow

(4) Grey

37. All of the following chemical compounds have

hydrogen in +1 oxidation states except
(1) H2O2

(2) H2O

(3) NaH

(4) CH4

38. Acidic anhydride of carbonic acid is

Organisms obtain food from other living

organisms by living on or inside their body.

Correct examples for A, B, C and D are

A

(1) Cuscuta

Amoeba

Yeast

Tape worm

(2) Lice

Mushroom Lichen

Amoeba Human

(3) Bread mould Lichen

Cuscuta

(4) Leech

Amoeba Human

44. In adult human, the number of premolars in upper

jaw is

(1) Carbon

(2) Carbon monoxide

(1) Two

(2) Four

(3) Carbon dioxide

(4) Carbonate

(3) Six

(4) Eight

39. The reaction products obtained when sodium

hydroxide reacts with carbon dioxide are

45. In human beings, the process shown below occurs in

Starch

pH 6.8

(1) Sodium metal and carbonic acid

(1) Stomach

(2) Sodium carbonate, hydrogen and oxygen

(2) Small intestine

(3) Sodium hydrogen carbonate and water

(3) Buccal cavity

(4) Sodium carbonate and water

(4) Large intestine

4/14

Amoeba

Maltose

Test-1 (Code C)

All India Aakash Test Series (Junior) - 2017 (Class X)

46. Bilirubin and biliverdin are formed from old RBCs in

(1) Liver

(2) Gall bladder

(3) Kidney

(4) Duodenum

51. Statement 1: One molecule of haemoglobin

combines with eight molecules of oxygen during
transportation.
Statement 2: Carbon dioxide combines with
haemoglobin to form carboxyhaemoglobin.

47. Which of the following conversion (s) occur (s) in ileum?

Invertase
(a) Sucrose
Glucose Fructose

(1) Only Statement 1 is correct

Lipase
(b) Emulsified fat

Fatty acid Glycerol

(3) Both the statements are correct

(2) Only Statement 2 is correct

(4) Both the statements are incorrect

Pepsin
(c) Protein
Peptides

52. Older parts of root do not have root hairs so the

exchange of gases in them occurs through

Lactase
(d) Lactose
Glucos e Galactose

(1) (a) & (c)

(2) (c) only

(3) (a), (b) & (d)

(4) (b) & (c)

(1) Stomata
(3) Xylem

53. All of the following are the significances of transpiration,

except
(1) It helps in temperature regulation
(2) It helps in translocation of starch

48. The energy required for various cellular processes is

produced when

(3) It helps in upward movement of water

(1) Carbon dioxide is converted into glucose

(2) Amino acid is converted into protein

(2) Cuticle
(4) Lenticels

(4) It affects climate

54.

Blood corpuscles

(3) Adenosine diphosphate is converted into

adenosine triphosphate
(4) Adenosine triphosphate is converted into
adenosine diphosphate
49. Select the incorrect differences between anaerobic
and aerobic respiration.

Erythrocytes 'X' Thrombocytes

High count of cells 'X' in blood is termed as
(1) Leucopenia
(2) Leucocytosis
(3) Leukemia

Anaerobic respiration

Aerobic respiration

(a)

It occurs in cytoplasm and

mitochondria

It occurs in cytoplasm

(b)

Oxygen if not required

Oxygen is required

(c)

Less oxygen is released

More oxygen is released
due to complete oxidation due to incomplete
oxidation of organic food
of organic food

(d)

End products are carbon

dioxide and water

End products are ethyl

alcohol and lacti c acid

(1) (a), (b) & (d)

(2) (a) & (c) only

(3) (a), (c) & (d)

(4) (c) & (d) only

50. The specialised structure(s) which helps in the outward

and inward movement of ribs is/are
(1) Inter costal muscles
(2) Diaphragm
(3) Larynx
(4) Cartilaginous rings

(4) Polycythemia
55. Match the following columns and select the correct
option.
Column I
Column II
Column III
(a) Capillaries (I) Thin
(i) Carry deoxygenated
walled
blood from the
body parts other
than lungs
(b) Veins
(II) Lack
(ii) Exchange of
valves
materials
between blood
and surrounding
cells
(c) Arteries
(III) Have
(iii) Carry oxygenated
valves
blood to the
body part other
than lungs
(1) (a I ii), (b III i), (c II iii)
(2) (a II ii), (b III i), (c I iii)
(3) (a I ii), (b II iii), (c III i)
(4) (a III i), (b I ii), (c II iii)
5/14

All India Aakash Test Series (Junior) - 2017 (Class X)

56. Which of the following representation of cardiac
cycle for human heart is correct?

0.1s

Atrial
systole

0.3s

(1) Quinine

(2) Morphine

(3) Heparin

(4) Nicotine

61. All of the following are inorganic energy sources for

chemoautotrophic bacteria, except

(3) Ammonia
(4) Elemental sulphur
62. Colour of visible light spectrum which is reflected by
chlorophyll is

Atrial
systole

(1) Green

(2) Blue

(3) Red

(4) Yellow

63. Which of the following statements is/are incorrect

regarding dark reaction of photosynthesis?

Ventricular
diastole

Joint
diastole

60. Which of the following is not toxic waste product of

plant?

(2) Carbon dioxide

0.3s

0.4s

(4) His blood does not contain urea

(1) Hydrogen sulphide

Joint
diastole

Ventricular
systole

Atrial
systole

0.1s

(3)

(1) Due to renal failure there is excess urea in his

blood

(3) Due to renal failure there is excess urea in his

urine

0.3s

(2) 0.4s

59. A person is suffering from uraemia. It means

(2) Due to disfunction of liver there is no formation

of urea

int e
Jo stol
dia

Ven
tr
sys icular
tole

(1) 0.4s

Test-1 (Code C)

(a) It occurs in grana

(b) Electrons are released by splitting of water

0.1s

(c) Carbon dioxide is reduced to glucose

0.1s

Joint
diastole

Ven
tr
sys icular
tole

(4) 0.4s

(d) It occurs only when there is no light

l
ria
At tole
s
sy

0.3s

57. Lymph does not contain

(1) Proteins

(2) White blood cells

(3) Red blood cells

(4) Fats

58. The structural and functional unit of kidney is

(1) Malpighian corpuscle

(1) (a), (b) & (d)

(2) (a) & (b) only

(3) (c) & (d)

(4) (c) only

64. Other than carbon, hydrogen and oxygen, which of

the following elements is also used in the synthesis
of proteins?
(1) Chlorine

(2) Iodine

(3) Nitrogen

(4) Calcium

65. Select the correct sequence of the different steps

that takes place between ingestion to egestion in a
holozoic organism.
(1) Digestion Assimilation Absorption

(2) Uriniferous tubule

(2) Assimilation Digestion Absorption

(3) Proximal convoluted tubule

(3) Absorption Digestion Assimilation

(4) Bowman's capsule

(4) Digestion Absorption Assimilation

6/14

Test-1 (Code C)

All India Aakash Test Series (Junior) - 2017 (Class X)

66. The hardest substance that covers the upper portion

of tooth and the substance that holds the tooth in
its socket are respectively
(1) Enamel and cementum

(3) Cementum and dentine

(3) One molecule of lactic acid and two molecules

of ATP

(4) Cementum and enamel

Cells

Secretion

Mucus

Zymogenic cells

Function
Protect the
stomach from
the action of
HCl

Digestion of
proteins

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Castle's
intrinsic
factor

Chief cells

Hydrochloric
a ci d

Zymogenic
cells

Pepsinogen

Parietal
cells

Mucus

Chief
cells

Hydrochloric
a ci d

Zymogenic
cells

Pepsinogen

Pepsinogen

Oxyntic
cells

Mucus
cells

Goblet
cells

(4) One molecule of ethanol and two molecules of

ATP
71. The cartilaginous flap which covers glottis while we
swallow the food is
(1) Larynx

(2) Epiglottis

(3) Pharynx

(4) Trachea

72. In women the vocal cords are usually (i) and (ii) than
the vocal cords of men.
Select the correct option for the blanks (i) and (ii).

Makes the food

a ci d i c

Select the correct option for A, B, C and D.

A

(1) Two molecules of ethanol and two molecules of

ATP
(2) Two molecules of lactic acid and four molecules
of ATP

(2) Dentine and enamel

67.

70. In our muscles, one molecule of pyruvate

anaerobically produces

(i)

(ii)

(1)

Longer

Thicker

(2)

Shorter

Thicker

(3)

Shorter

Thinner

(4)

Longer

Thinner

73. All of the following must be the characteristics of

respiratory surface, except
(1) It must be moist either with water or mucus
(2) It must be highly vascular
(3) It must have very less surface area
(4) It must be thin and permeable to gases

Hydrochloric
a ci d

68. Which of the following is not a function of liver?

(1) It filters urea from blood
(2) It is responsible for the secretion of bile
(3) It synthesises vitamin A from carotene
(4) It stores vitamin A, D, E, K and B12

74. Which of the following differences between breathing

and respiration is correct?

Breathing

Respiration

(1)

It is a biochemical
process.

It is a physical
process.

(2)

It utilizes and releases

energy.

It uti lizes
energy.

(3)

Several enzymes are

required.

No enzymes
are required.

(4)

It is extracellular
phenomenon.

It is both
extracellular.
and intracellular
process.

69. Select the incorrect match.

(1) MicrovilliIncrease the surface area of small
intestine
(2) Gall bladderSynthesises digestive enzymes
(3) LactealCarries absorbed fats to the lymphatic
vessel
(4) Blood capillaries of villusAbsorb glucose and
amino acids

7/14

All India Aakash Test Series (Junior) - 2017 (Class X)

75.

Test-1 (Code C)

It occurs at night or early morning.

(3)

Water is lost through hydathodes.

Body parts
other than
lungs

Right
ventricle

Right
atrium

Lungs

Vena
cava

Aorta

Left
ventricle

Pulmonary
vein

Pulmonary
artery

Left
atrium

Lungs

Vena
cava

Right
atrium

Right
ventricle

Body
parts
other
than
lungs

Aorta

Pulmonary
artery

Left
ventricle

Pulmonary
vein

Left
atrium

For which of the following processes the information

is given above?
(1) Guttation

(2) Transpiration

(3) Transportation

(4) Translocation

76. Statement 1: Engulfing of foreign particles by

WBCs is called diapedesis.
Statement 2: Platelets help in clotting of blood at
the site of injury.

(4)

(1) Only statement 1 is correct

(2) Only statement 2 is correct
(3) Both the statements are correct
(4) Both the statements are incorrect
77. Which of the following representations is correct for
the circulation of blood in human beings?
(1)

(2)

Aorta

Body parts
other than
lungs

Left
ventricle

Left
atrium

Body parts
other than
lungs

Vena
cava

Pulmonary
vein

Right
atrium

Vena
cava

Right
atrium

Right
ventricle

Lungs

Pulmonary
artery

78. Normal systolic pressure in human beings is

(1) 100 mm of Hg

(2) 150 mm of Hg

(3) 80 mm of Hg

(4) 120 mm of Hg

79. Which of the following parts of nephron opens into

collecting duct?
(1) Proximal convoluted tubule
(2) Distal convoluted tubule
(3) Descending limb of Henle's loop

Right
ventricle

Lungs

Left
atrium

Pulmonary
artery

(4) Ascending limb of Henle's loop

80. Pale yellow colour of urine is due to the presence of

Left
ventricle

Aorta

Pulmonary
vein

(1) Urochrome

(2) Haemoglobin

(3) Sodium chloride

(4) Potassium chloride

[ MATHEMATICS ]
81. The largest number which divides 90, 198 and 126
is equal to
(1) 9

(2) 18

(3) 45

(4) 12

82. If the graph of the polynomial f (x) is as shown in the

figure, then the number of real zeroes of f (x) is
Y

12
1212

255 255
83. If x 1212
digit of x is equal to

255

3636

(1) 7

(2) 6

(3) 1

(4) 3

( x 1)(x 1)( x 2)( x 3)

X

(2) 2x5 + 3x + 7

(1) 5

(2) 6

(3) 3x3 + x

(3) 2

(4) 7

(4) 8x2 + 9x 8

8/14

is , then which of

the following polynomial has as one of its zero?

(1) 3x2 + 3x + 5

, then the unit

84. If the degree of the polynomial

( x 2 4 x 3)( x 2 3 x 2)
X

3636

Test-1 (Code C)

All India Aakash Test Series (Junior) - 2017 (Class X)

85. The least positive integer which is divisible by 36,

100 and 108 is equal to
(1) 10800

(2) 5400

(3) 21600

(4) 2700

92. If x

(1)

are the natural numbers) is a rational number, then

the relation between n and k can be
(1)

(3)

= k

(3) n2 + 4 = 3k
(4)

4
3

+ 3k = 10

87. If and are the zeroes of the quadratic polynomial

f (x) =

3x 2

114

9x + 7, then

114

is always

divisible by
(1) 7

(2) 9

(3) 3

(4) 2

88. If p is the product of first 50 prime numbers and q

is the product of first 100 prime numbers, then pq is
not divisible by
(1) 484

(2) 196

(3) 676

(4) 264

2100
6 56

(3) 1

(2)

(4)

49 52

4
3
and

120
25 6

63 136
18 78

can be equal to

(1) x2 4x + 64

(2) x2 16x + 4

(3) x2 32x + 256

(4) x2 + 4x + 4

94. The total number of factors of 23 67 395 is equal

to
(1) 858

(2) 198

(3) 105

(4) 600

95. If the graph of the quadratic polynomial f(x) = ax2 +

bx + 5 is as shown in the figure, then which of the
following is always incorrect?
Y

(4) 2

(1) 64

(2) 1

(3) 8

(4) 63

91. If a, b and c are the prime numbers such that

a + b + c = 10, then a, b and c are the zeroes of

f (x) = ax + bx + 5

a
b

90. If 834 is divided by 65, then remainder is

(1) x3 10x2 + 31x 35

(2)

56

89. If the product of zeroes and the sum of the zeroes

of the polynomial a2x2 + b2x + b3, a 0 are equal,
then the real value of b can be
(1) a

, where a, b and c are the whole

93. and are the zeroes of the polynomial x2 16x

+ 64, then the polynomial whose zeroes are

(2) n2 2 = k

n3

a 1 5c b

numbers and x is a terminating decimal number,

then x cannot be equal to

86. If x n k n 3 k 3 (where n and k

n2

(10a ) b a b

(1)

a2x2

+ abx < 5a

(2) ax 2 + bx > 5
(3) ax 2 + bx = 5 2a
2

x
bx 5
(4)

a
a3 a3

96. If (p1 p2 p3 p4 )a = (210)210, where p1, p2, p3

and p4 are the prime numbers, then the value of

(2) x3 10x2 + 35x + 30

17a
is equal to
( p1 p2 p3 p4 )

(3) x3 10x2 + 31x 30

(1) 17

(2) 1

(4) x3 10x2 + 31x 77

(3) 210

(4) 21
9/14

All India Aakash Test Series (Junior) - 2017 (Class X)

97. If , + and 2 are the zeroes of the
polynomial f(x) = x3 2x2 19x + 20, then which of
the following is always true?

Test-1 (Code C)
104. If a quadratic polynomial y = ax 2 + bx + c is
represented by the graph as shown in the figure, then
which of the following is true?

(1) 3 + 2 + 4 + 5 = 0

(2) 3 2 4 6 = 0
(3) 23 2 + 4 5 = 0

(4) 3 22 + 5 + 4 = 0
98. If a and b are rational numbers, where b > 0 such
that 3a 5 5 3b , then the value of 3(a + b)
is equal to
(1)

10
3

(3) 10

(2)

5
3

y = ax + bx + c

(1) a is positive real number

(2) The coordinates of point A is 0,

2a

(4) 8

99. If and are the zeroes of the quadratic polynomial

f(x) = x 2 x + 1, then the value of
1 2
2
1
1
3 3 3 3 3 2( ) 3 is equal to

(1) 1

(2) 0

(3) 1

(4)

1
3

(3) b2 4ac < 0

(4) b2 = 4ac
105. The polynomial f(x) = ax3 + bx2 + cx + d, a 0 can
not be represented by which of the following graph?
Y

(1)

100. If n is an odd positive integer greater than 3, then

n3 n2 3 n 2 n is always a multiple of
(1) 5

(2) 6

(3) 12

(4) 8

101. The cubic polynomial with sum of zeroes, sum of

product of its zeroes taken two at a time and
product of its zeroes as 3, 5 and 7 respectively, is
(where k is any non-zero constant)

Y
Y

(2)

(1) k[x3 3x2 + 5x 7] (2) k[x3 + 3x2 + 5x + 7]

(3) k[x3 3x2 + 5x + 7] (4) k[x3 5x2 + 3x + 7]
102. The greatest number which divides 1101, 1651 and
830 leaving remainders 5,7 and 8 respectively is
(1) 132

(2) 137

(3) 274

(4) 271

(3)

(3)
10/14

a
b

(4) a 2 b

(4)
(2) ab

103. The quadratic product of HCF and LCM of two

positive co-prime integers a and b is always equal
to
(1) 2ab

Test-1 (Code C)

All India Aakash Test Series (Junior) - 2017 (Class X)

106. Five bells commence tolling together and toll of

intervals are 12 sec, 2 sec, 6 sec, 5 sec and 24 sec,
repectively. How many times will they toll together
in the span of 3 hours (including the toll at the
start)?
(1) 90

(2) 91

(3) 100

(4) 180

107. If the sum and the twice of the difference of the

zeroes of a polynomial f(x) = ax 2 + bx + c(a 0)
are equal, then the zeroes of the given polynomial
can be
(1)

4b
3b
and
a
a

(2)

4b
3b
and
a
a

113. If k is any non-zero constant and a, b and c are the

zeroes of the polynomial 2x3 39x + 8, then the
polynomial whose zeroes are (a3 + b3 + c3) and
2abc is
(1) k [x2 + 9x + 20]

(2) k[x2 96x + 20]

(3) k[x2 20x + 96]

(4) k[x2 + 20x + 96]

114. The greatest number that will divide 132, 176 and 320
leaving the same remainder in each case, is equal to
(1) 4

(2) 16

(3) 20

(4) 8

115. If (x 1) and (x + 1) are the factors of the

polynomial ax5 + bx 4 + cx3 + dx2 + en + f, then
which of the following is incorrect?
(1) d + f = b

(3)

3b
b
and
4a
4a

(4) 0 and

b
c

(2) a + c = e
(3) (a b) + (c d) = (f e)

108. The square of any positive integer cannot be of the

form (where m is an integer)
(1) 3m

(2) 3m + 1

(3) 3m2 + 8

(4) 3m + 10

109. If f(x) = x100 2x + 1 is divided by x 2 1, then the

remainder is equal to
(1) 2(1 x)

(2) 2(1 x)

(3) 2(x 1)

(4) (x + 1)

(2) 1155 a6

(3) 105 a6

(4) 1105 a5

116. There are 247 men and 481 women in a village

which are to be divided into different sections. In each
section, there are either men or women and the
number of members in each sections is equal. The
total number of sections thus formed is equal to
(1) 37

(2) 19

(3) 56

(4) 112

117. The value of x for which the value of polynomial

3x 2 + 5x + 9 is minimum is equal to

110. Four numbers are in the ratio 3 : 5 : 7 : 11, their

HCF is a and the product of the given four numbers
is 'b'. The LCM of a6 and b (where a is a composite
number) is equal to
(1) 1155 a4

(4) d = b + f

(1)

5
3

(2)

5
3

(3)

1
3

(4)

5
6

118. If N = 23 (6)3 52 32, then the unit digit of sum

of all the factors of N is equal to

111. If one of the zeroes of the cubic polynomial

(1) 7

(2) 5

p(x) = x3 x2 3x + 3 is 3 , then the other two

zeroes can be

(3) 8

(4) 6

(1) 1 and 2
(3)

3 and 2

(2) 1 and 3
(4) 1 and

112. If n = (5 3 2) 100 + (3 7 5 24) 39 +

(5 38)37, then the number of consecutive zeroes
starting from the unit place of n is equal to

119. If the polynomial x3 + 3x2 + 6 is divided by another

polynomial x2 + 3x + a, the remainder comes out to
be 6 5x, then the value of a is equal to
(1) 3

(2) 5

(3) 10

(4) 6

120. If a, b and c are the integers such that a = 16b + 70c,

where a is the greatest number which divides both
16 and 70 exactly, then (b + c) can be equal to

(1) 39

(2) 139

(1) 10

(2) 10

(3) 30

(4) 37

(3) 12

(4) 15
11/14

All India Aakash Test Series (Junior) - 2017 (Class X)

Test-1 (Code C)

[ MENTAL ABILITY ]
Directions (Q.121 to Q.124):- In each of the following
questions choose a correct option to complete the given
series.

Directions (Q.131 & Q.132):- A is father of P, who is

husband of R. L is brother of M and only son of P. M is
granddaughter of E, who is mother of P.

121. 8, 27, 125, 343, 1331, ?

131. How A is related to L?

(1) 1728

(2) 2197

(1) Brother

(2) Grand Father

(3) 2198

(4) 1782

(3) Uncle

(4) Father

122. 5, 4, 6, 15, 56, 275,?

132. How R is related to E?

(1) 1645

(2) 1875

(1) Mother in law

(3) 1644

(4) 1954

(2) Mother

123. x y _ p q x _ z p _ _ y z _ q x y _
(1) z q y x p z

(2) z y q x p z

(3) z y x q p z

(4) z y q x z p

124. AYCW, BXDV, CWEU, DVFT,?

(3) Daughter in law

(4) Sister
Directions (Q.133 & Q.134):- Study the given information
carefully and answer the following questions.

(1) EUGS

(2) EUGT

If a $ b = (a b) + (a + b) and a # b = (a b)2, then

(3) EUHS

(4) EVGS

133. The value of (4 $ 5) # ( 2 $ 3) is

125. 352 : 100 :: 263 : 121:: 633 : ?

(1) 169

(2) 225

(3) 144

(4) 256

126. ABSENCE: BAESECN :: ACADEMY : ?

(1) CADYAME

(2) CADAYME

(3) CADAYEM

(4) CDAAYME

Directions (Q.127 & Q.128):- Choose the odd one, out

of the following options.
127. (1) BCE

(2) FGK

(3) OPR

(4) TUW

128. (1) 59

(2) 89

(3) 49

(4) 29

129. If the code for A is 2, code for B is 6 and the code

for I is 90, then the code for W will be
(1) 553

(2) 563

(3) 551

(4) 552

130. How many letters are preceded and followed by an

odd numbers in the following pattern?

(1) 324

(2) 361

(3) 400

(4) 441

134. The value of (5 # 3) $ ( 6 # 2) is

(1) 83

(2) 85

(3) 84

(4) 90

135. Choose an answer figure which has same relation

with figure (c) as figure (a) and (b) have in problem
figures.
Problem Figure

(a)

(b)

(c)

Answer Figures

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2a1l8k7a5j8a6g9k11n6r13m75
(1) 1

(2) 2

(3) 3

(4) 4

12/14

(d)

Test-1 (Code C)

All India Aakash Test Series (Junior) - 2017 (Class X)

136. Choose a correct diagram which represents the best

relationship between the Parallelogram, Rhombus
and Square.

139. Choose a figure from answer figures which will

continue the same series as established by the
three problem figures.
Problem Figure

(1)
Answer Figures

(2)

(3)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

140. Choose an answer figure in which problem figure is

embedded.
(4)

Problem Figure

137. A dice(not a standard dice) is thrown 2 times and its

two different positions are given in the figure.
Answer Figures

2
5

3
1

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Which number is opposite to the number 6?

(1) 1

(2) 5

(3) 2

(4) 4

138. In the following question two statements followed by

two conclusions numbered I and II. Decide which of
the given conclusions logically follows from the two
given statements disregarding commonly known
facts.
Statements:
(A) All A are B.
(B) Some C are A.
Conclusions:
(I) All B are C.
(II) No B are C.
(1) Only conclusion I follows
(2) Only conclusion II follows

141. Point A is in the south-west of point B at a distance

of 200 2 metres. If C is in the south from point B
at a distance of 200 metres, then the position of A
with respect to point C is
(1) 300 m east

(2) 205 m North-west

(3) 200 m west

(4) 210 m South-west

142. Anil moves 100 metres towards south in a morning

at the time of sunrise and takes left turn and stops.
The shadow of Anil is lying
(1) Infront of him

(2) Behind him

(3) Left of him

(4) Right of him

143. In a class test Naman is ranked 5th from top and

Vihan is ranked 12 th from last. If there are 20
students are ranked between Naman and Vihan,
then rank of Vihan from top is

(3) Both I and II follow

(1) 24th

(2) 25th

(4) Neither I nor II follows

(3) 27th

(4) 26th
13/14

All India Aakash Test Series (Junior) - 2017 (Class X)

144. In the following question one portion of problem
figure is missing. Choose a correct answer figure to
complete the problem figure.

Test-1 (Code C)
147. Find the water image of following figure.

Problem Figure

?
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Answer Figures

(1)

(2)
148. Find the water image of word COURAGE.

(3)

(4)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Directions: (Q.149 & Q.150): In the following questions

145. If 21st September 2016 was Wednesday, then 26th
January 2017 will be
(1) Wednesday

(2) Monday

(3) Thursday

(4) Tuesday

find the mirror image of given word and number.

149. ZEAL

146. How many times in one day the hands (hour and
minute) of a clock are at 90o with each other?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

150. 214365

(1) 46

(2) 48

(1)

(2)

(3) 47

(4) 44

(3)

(4)

  

14/14

Test-1 (Code C) - (Answers & Hints)

All India Aakash Test Series (Junior) - 2017 (Class X)

TEST-1

ANSWERS
1.

(3)

31.

(3)

61.

(2)

91.

(3)

121. (2)

2.

(2)

32.

(3)

62.

(1)

92.

(3)

122. (3)

3.

(1)

33.

(3)

63.

(1)

93.

(3)

123. (2)

4.

(4)

34.

(3)

64.

(3)

94.

(1)

124. (1)

5.

(4)

35.

(1)

65.

(4)

95.

(1)

125. (3)

6.

(1)

36.

(3)

66.

(1)

96.

(3)

126. (2)

7.

(4)

37.

(3)

67.

(4)

97.

(2)

127. (2)

8.

(2)

38.

(3)

68.

(1)

98.

(3)

128. (3)

9.

(4)

39.

(4)

69.

(2)

99.

(3)

129. (4)

10.

(2)

40.

(1)

70.

(3)

100. (4)

130. (3)

11.

(1)

41.

(1)

71.

(2)

101. (3)

131. (2)

12.

(4)

42.

(4)

72.

(3)

102. (3)

132. (3)

13.

(2)

43.

(2)

73.

(3)

103. (2)

133. (1)

14.

(2)

44.

(2)

74.

(4)

104. (4)

134. (3)

15.

(1)

45.

(3)

75.

(1)

105. (4)

135. (2)

16.

(4)

46.

(1)

76.

(2)

106. (2)

136. (4)

17.

(2)

47.

(3)

77.

(1)

107. (3)

137. (1)

18.

(1)

48.

(4)

78.

(4)

108. (3)

138. (4)

19.

(4)

49.

(3)

79.

(2)

109. (1)

139. (2)

20.

(3)

50.

(1)

80.

(1)

110. (2)

140. (1)

21.

(3)

51.

(4)

81.

(2)

111. (4)

141. (3)

22.

(1)

52.

(4)

82.

(4)

112. (4)

142. (2)

23.

(3)

53.

(2)

83.

(1)

113. (4)

143. (4)

24.

(3)

54.

(2)

84.

(3)

114. (1)

144. (2)

25.

(1)

55.

(1)

85.

(4)

115. (4)

145. (3)

26.

(2)

56.

(4)

86.

(1)

116. (3)

146. (4)

27.

(2)

57.

(3)

87.

(1)

117. (4)

147. (3)

28.

(1)

58.

(2)

88.

(4)

118. (3)

148. (2)

29.

(2)

59.

(1)

89.

(3)

119. (2)

149. (4)

30.

(4)

60.

(3)

90.

(1)

120. (2)

150. (1)

1/7

All India Aakash Test Series (Junior) - 2017 (Class X)

Test-1 (Code C) - (Answers & Hints)

Hints to Selected Questions

[ SCIENCE]
1.

Answer (3)

2.

Answer (2)

3.

Answer (1)

9.

Answer (4)
Redrawn circuit

30

Electrostatic force on block-2 by block-1

30

kQq

[q is charge on block-1]

h2

90

Block-2 is held stationary it means gravitational force

= Electrostatic force.

4.

kQq
h2

10

mg

30

30

mgh2
q
kQ

Answer (4)

15

90

Number of electrons contained in 1 C of charge

=

1.6 1019

6.25 1018

10

Mass of one electron = 9.1 1031 kg

45

Mass of 6.25 1018 electrons

10

= 9.1 1031 6.25 1018

= 5.7 1012 kg
5.

Answer (4)

6.

Answer (1)

90

V
Current in any one of the resistors =
R

As we know that in parallel combination potential

difference will be same across each resistor and
here, all resistors are similar.

40
=

We know that
R

Hence, by taking one resistor

V IR I

V
R

or
R

A
10. Answer (2)

l
A

V
A2

I
V

Answer (4)

2d 4

8.

Answer (2)

Now d = 3d
3V
R

Current in ammeter-1 =

6V
R

Ratio =

2/7

6V 3V
:
2 :1
R R

16v

7.

Current in ammeter-2 =

V
2
4d

(i)

16v
2

(3d )

16v
2

81d 4

Dividing equation (2)

R

R
81

(ii)

Test-1 (Code C) - (Answers & Hints)

All India Aakash Test Series (Junior) - 2017 (Class X)

11. Answer (1)

16. Answer (4)

1
mu 2 qv
2

17. Answer (2)

Total power expended

2qV
m

1
1
1

P 200 200

12. Answer (4)

Current through 20 resistance
I12R1

P = 100 W
18. Answer (1)

20

19. Answer (4)

I1 = 1 A
Voltage across R1

V2
P
R1

20. Answer (3)

21. Answer (3)

V 20 20 20 V

22. Answer (1)

Current through 10

23. Answer (3)

V
20
I2

2A
R2 10

24. Answer (3)

Total current through R3 = 1 + 2 = 3 A

Potential difference across R3 = 30 20 = 10 V
R3

10

25. Answer (1)

heat

2Pb(NO3)2(s) 2PbO(s) + 2NO2(g) + O2(g)

26. Answer (2)

13. Answer (2)

Resistance of series combination =

P x R

x 2 2

2R

Resistance of parallel combination = x x 2

x
R 2R

2FeSO4 Fe2O3 SO2 SO3

27. Answer (2)

28. Answer (1)
29. Answer (2)
30. Answer (4)

2
Ratio = 2 : 2 x : 4
x

31. Answer (3)

14. Answer (2)

32. Answer (3)

1
P
R

l
2 10 8 1

2.1 10 3
A (22 12 ) 10 6

33. Answer (3)

34. Answer (3)

P1 : P2 2R : R 2 : 1

35. Answer (1)

15. Answer (1)

Redrawn circuit is

36. Answer (3)

37. Answer (3)

38. Answer (3)

r
A

39. Answer (4)

Equivalent resistance =

2NaOH + CO2 Na2CO3 + H2O

40. Answer (1)

r
4r
r
3
3

41. Answer (1)

42. Answer (4)

3/7

All India Aakash Test Series (Junior) - 2017 (Class X)

Test-1 (Code C) - (Answers & Hints)

43. Answer (2)

61. Answer (2)

44. Answer (2)

62. Answer (1)

45. Answer (3)

63. Answer (1)

46. Answer (1)

64. Answer (3)

47. Answer (3)

65. Answer (4)

Pepsin is secreted in stomach.

66. Answer (1)

48. Answer (4)

67. Answer (4)

49. Answer (3)

Zymogenic cells produce pepsinogen.

50. Answer (1)

68. Answer (1)

51. Answer (4)

Haemoglobin molecule combines with four oxygen
molecules during transporation.
52. Answer (4)

69. Answer (2)

70. Answer (3)
71. Answer (2)

53. Answer (2)

72. Answer (3)

Translocation of food materials occurs through

phloem.

73. Answer (3)

74. Answer (4)

54. Answer (2)

75. Answer (1)

'X' represents WBCs.

76. Answer (2)

55. Answer (1)

56. Answer (4)

Diapedesis is the process by which neutrophils and

monocytes squeeze out through the capillary wall.

57. Answer (3)

58. Answer (2)

77. Answer (1)

59. Answer (1)

78. Answer (4)

60. Answer (3)

79. Answer (2)

Heparin is produced by basophils and mast cells.

80. Answer (1)

[ MATHEMATICS ]
81. Answer (2)

84. Answer (3)

82. Answer (4)

85. Answer (4)

83. Answer (1)

The unit digit of 255255

255

is 5 [ Last digit is 5]

36

The unit digit of 3636 is 6

can be written as 124k

Where k is an integer

Two perfect squares differ at least by 3 and

The unit digit of 12

n k n3 nk

rational number, when

will be a

n , k , n 3 and

k 3 all are rational numbers

1212

1212

is 6

Hence, the unit digit of x = Unit digit of (6 + 5 + 6) = 7

4/7

x =

1212

1212

Now 12

[ Last digit is 6]

86. Answer (1)

Hence, n and k both must be equal to 1

Test-1 (Code C) - (Answers & Hints)

All India Aakash Test Series (Junior) - 2017 (Class X)

90. Answer (1)

87. Answer (1)

f(x) = 3x2 9x + 7

and are the zeroes of the polynomial f(x)

+=3

64 64 .....17 times
will be equal to
65

Remainder of

...(i)

7
and =
3

...(ii)

(a + b) is always a factor of (an + bn) where n

is an odd positive integer
Now, 114 + 114 = (117 + 117)
114 + 114 will always be divisible by
( + )

remainder of

(1) (1) (1).....17 times

65

= Remainder of

1
65

= Remainder of

64 65
64
65

91. Answer (3)

92. Answer (3)
93. Answer (3)
94. Answer (1)

From (i) and (ii)

( + ) = 3

(8)34 = (64)17

[Given]

95. Answer (1)

3
7
3

96. Answer (3)

(p1 p2 p3 p4)a = (210)210
(p1 p2 p3 p4)a = (2 3 5 7)210

88. Answer (4)

By fundamental theorem of arithematic

Option (1)

a = 210,

484 = 2 2 11 11
2 and 11 are factors of p and 2 and 11 are the
factors of q also

484 is the factor of pq.

Option (2)

p1 + p2 + p3 + p4 = 2 + 3 + 5 + 7 = 17

17a
17 210

210
p1 p2 p3 p4
17

97. Answer (2)

196 = 2 2 7 7

98. Answer (3)

2 and 7 are the factors of p and 2 and 7 are the

factors of q also

99. Answer (3)

f(x) = x2 x + 1

196 is the factor of pq.

and are the zeroes of polynomial f(x)

Option (3)

+=1

...(i)

and = 1

...(ii)

676 = 2 2 13 13

2 and 13 are the factors of p and 2 and 13 are

the factors of q also

1
1
= 3 3

676 is the factor of pq

Option (4)
264 = 2 2 2 3 11 =

1
2
1
1
Now, 3 3 3 3 3 2( ) 3

12
3

3
3
3

22

3 11 2

1
1
1
1

3
3
3
3
= 3

22 3 11 is the factor of pq and the remaining

2 is not the factor of pq

1 1
1
1
1
= 3( ) 3 3 3 3 3 3

264 is not the factor of pq

= ( + )

[From (ii)]

=1

[From (i)]

89. Answer (3)

5/7

All India Aakash Test Series (Junior) - 2017 (Class X)

100. Answer (4)
Given expression:

Test-1 (Code C) - (Answers & Hints)

109. Answer (1)

(n3

n2)

3(n2

f(x) = x100 2x + 1, g(x) = x2 1

n)

f(x) = g(x) q (x) + r (x)

x2 (x 1) 3x (x 1)

= (n 1) (n2 3n) = n (n 1) (n 3)

x100 2x + 1 = (x 1) (x + 1) q(x) + Ax + B

n is odd positive integer greater than 3

Least value of n = 5
Now,
For n = 5; n (n 1) (n 3) = 5 4 2 = 5 8
For n = 7; n(n 1) (n 3) = 7 6 4 = 7 3 8
For n = 9; n(n 1) (n 3) = 9 8 6 = 9 6 8
Clearly, n(n 1) (n 3) is always a multiple of 8
while it is not always a multiple of 5, 6 and 12

2x + 1 =

BA=4
A+B=0

B = 2 amd A = 2
Remainder r(x) = Ax + B = 2x + 2 = 2(1 x)
110. Answer (2)

112. Answer (4)

113. Answer (4)

104. Answer (4)

114. Answer (1)

105. Answer (4)

115. Answer (4)

106. Answer (2)

116. Answer (3)

The bells will toll together after time in second equal

to the LCM of 2, 12, 6, 5 and 24

117. Answer (4)

LCM of 2, 12, 6, 5 and 24 by prime factorization

method

119. Answer (2)

In one hour, the bells will toll together

3600
times 30 times
120
In 3 hours, the bells will toll together including
the toll at the start = 3 30 + 1 = 91 times
107. Answer (3)
108. Answer (3)

...(ii)

From (i) and (ii), we get

103. Answer (2)

LCM = 23 5 3 = 120

...(i)

On putting x = 1, we get

102. Answer (3)

2 1, 6, 3, 5, 12
3 1, 3, 3, 5, 6
2 1, 1, 1, 5, 2
5 1, 1, 1, 5, 1
1, 1, 1, 1, 1

1) q (x) + Ax + B

(1)100 2(1) + 1 = B A

111. Answer (4)

2 2, 12, 6, 5, 24

(x2

On putting x = 1, we get

101. Answer (3)

6/7

[Division Algorithm]

= n2 (n 1) (n2 3n)

x100

118. Answer (3)

120. Answer (2)

According to Euclid Division Lemma
70 = 16 4 + 6

...(i)

16 = 6 2 + 4

...(ii)

6 =41+2

...(iii)

4 =22+0
2=64
2 = 6 (16 6 2)
2 = 3 (70 16 4) 16
2 = 16 (13) + 70 (3)
On comparing (iv) with
a = 16b + 70c
We get
a = 2,
b = 13
and c = 3

[From (iii)]
[From (iii)]
[From (i)]
...(iv)

Test-1 (Code C) - (Answers & Hints)

All India Aakash Test Series (Junior) - 2017 (Class X)

[ MENTAL ABILITY ]
138. Answer (4)

121. Answer (2)

Cubes of prime numbers.

B A

122. Answer (3)

5 1 1 = 4, 4 2 2 = 6, 6 3 3 = 15,
15 4 4 = 56, 56 5 5 = 275, and so on

139. Answer (2)

Letters in the pattern have difference of three
position between them and mirror and water image
are coming alternatively.

123. Answer (2)

x y z | p q | x y z |p q | x y z | p q | x y z

140. Answer (1)

124. Answer (1)

141. Answer (3)

125. Answer (3)

142. Answer (2)

abc : (a + b + c)2

143. Answer (4)

126. Answer (2)

Total number of students in the class

127. Answer (2)

= 4 + 1 + 20 + 1 + 11 = 37.

128. Answer (3)

Therefore, rank of Vihan from top is 26th.

129. Answer (4)

Coding for A is 12 + 1 = 2, Coding for B is 22 + 2 = 6,
and so on. Hence, code for W is 232 + 23 = 552.

144. Answer (2)

145. Answer (3)
There are total 127 days between 21st september
2016 and 26th january 2017. There is one day extra
after completing 18 weeks. Hence, required day will
be thursday.

130. Answer (3)

131. Answer (2)
132. Answer (3)
133. Answer (1)

146. Answer (4)

134. Answer (3)

147. Answer (3)

135. Answer (2)

148. Answer (2)

136. Answer (4)

149. Answer (4)

137. Answer (1)

150. Answer (1)

  

7/7