SECTION 3 : VOCABULARY & READING COMPREHENSION

Time: 55 Minutes
50 Questions

DIRECTIONS
In this section, you will read a number of passages. Each one is followed by approximately ten questions about it. For
questions 1-50, choose the one best answer, (A), (B), (C), or (D), to each question. Then, find the number of the
question on your answer sheet, and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the on the basis of what is stated
or implied in that passage.

Questions I through 11 are based on the following passage.

(Line 1) The food we eat seems to have profound effects on your health. Although science has made enormous steps
in making food more fit to eat, it has, at the same time, made many foods unfit to eat. Some research has shown that
perhaps eighty percent of all human illnesses are related to diet and fourty percent of cancer is related to the diet as
well, especially cancer of the colon. People of different cultures are more prone to contract certain illnesses because
of the characteristic foods they consume.

(Line 8) That food is related to illness is not a new discovery. in 1945, government researchers realized that nitrates
and nitrites (commonly used to preserve colors in meats) as well as other food additives caused cancer. Yet, these
carcinogenic additives remain in our food, and it becomes more difficult all the time to know which ingredients on the
packaging labels of processed food are helpful or harmful.

(Line 13) The additives that we eat are not all so direct. Farmers often give penicillin to cattle and poultry, and
because of this, penicillin has been found in the milk of treated cows. Sometimes similar drugs are administered to
animals not for medicinal purposes, but for financial reasons. The farmers are simply trying to fatten the animals in
order to obtain a higher price on the market. Athough the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) has tried repeatedly to
control these procedures, the practices continue.

(Line 20) A healthy dies is directly related to good health. Often we are unaware of detrimental substances we ingest.
Sometimes well-meaning farmers or others who do not realize the consequences add these substances to food
without our knowledge.

1. How has science done a disservice to people?

(A) Because of science, disease caused by contaminated food has been virtually eradicated.
(B) It has caused a lack of information concerning the value of food.
(C) As a result of scientific intervention, some potential harmful substances have been added to our food.
(D) The scientists have preserved the color of meats, but not of vegetables.

2. The fact that the topic has been known for some time is discussed in line :
(A) 2-4
(B) 10-11
(C) 17-19
(D) 26-27

3. The word "prone" in paragraph 1 is nearest in meaning to :

(A) supine. (C) healthy.
(B) unlikely. (D) predisposed.

4. What are nitrates used for?

(A) They preserve flavor in packaged foods.
(B) They preserve the color of meats.
(C) They are the objects of research.
(D) They caused the animals to become fatter.

5. FDA means
(A) Food Direct Additives.
(B) Final Difficult Analysis.
(C) Food and Drug Administration.
(D). Federal Dairy Additives.

6. The word "these" in line 10 refers to :

(A) meats
(B) colors
(C) researchers
(D) nitrates and nitrites

7. In line 10, the word " carcinogenic" is closest in meaning to

(A) trouble-making
(B) color-retaining
(C) money-making
(D) cancer-causing

8. All of the following statements are true except :

(A) Drugs are always given to animals for medical reasons.
(B) Some of the additives in our food are added to the food itself and some are given to the living animals.
(C) Researchers have known about the potential hazards of food additives for more than fourty-five years.
(D) Food may cause fourty percent of the cancer in the world.

9. The word "additives" in line 10 is closest in meaning to :

(A) added substances
(B) dangerous substances
(c) natural substances
(D) benign substances

10. What is the best title for this passage?

(A) Harmful and Harmless substances in food.
(B) Improving Health Through a Natural Diet.
(C) The Food You Eat Can Affect Your Health.
(D) Avoiding Injurious Substances in Food.

11. In line the word "fit" is closest in meaning to :

(A) athletic
(B) suitable
(C) tasty
(D) adaptable

Question 12 through 21 are based on the following passage :

(Line 1) The ancient egyptians firmly believed in the afterlife and spent their time on earth preparing for it. Elaborate
burial rituals included preparing the burial site, preparing foar all the deceased's material needs (food, clothing,
jewels, and tools of their trade), and preserving the corpse so that it would not decay. This preservation was
accomplished through a process of mummification. The ancients left no written accounts as to the execution of this
process, so scientists have had to examine mummies and establish their own theories. The embalming process might
have taken up to seventy days for the pharaohs and nobility and only a few days for the poor.

(Line 10)The embalmers spread a variety of compounds of salt, spices and resins in and over the corpse to preserve
it. They followed this with preserved wrapping, a procedure in which they wound strips of five linen around, over and
under the body while placing various amulets within the wrappings to protect the deceased from harm on the long
journey to the afterlife. They also painted resins over the wrapped linen. Finally, a pharaoh or or noble would have
been encased in a wooden box before being placed in sarcophagus.

12. How have we been able to learn about the mummification process?
(A) Accurate records have been handed down to us.
(B) Interviews with embalmers who still use the process have revealed the secret.
(C) After studying mummies, scientists have developed their own theories.
(D) Chemical analysis of the compounds has let us to an explanation of the method used.

13. The word "accomplished" in line 5 refers to

(A) performed
(B) forsaken
(C) reproduced
(D) dwindled

14. The word "they" in line 14 refers to :

(A) embalmers
(B) spices
(C) pharaohs
(D) the poor.

15. The embalming process can best be described as :

(A) lengthy and complicated
(B) short and simple

(C) strict and unfaltering

(D) wild and terrifying

16. The word "decay" in line 4 is closest in meaning to :

(A) die
(B) deteriorite
(C) embalm
(D) rejuvenate.

17. All of the following statements are true EXCEPT :

(A) Bodies were preserved as a matter of religious belief.
(B) All mummification took seventy days to complete
(C) Special compounds were used to embalm the bodies
(D) It has been difficult to determine the process used.

18. Why did the ancient Egyptians mummify the deceased?

(A) To preserve the body from destruiction.
(B) To scare tomb robbers
(C) To encase the body in sarcophagus.
(D). To protect the body from harm on the journey to the afterlife.

19. It can be inferred that Egyptians burried food, clothing, jewels, and tools with the deceased because :
(A) the family did not want anyone else to share them.
(B) that was the wish of the deceased.
(C) they were afraid

(D) the deceased would need them while enroute to the afterlife.

20. The word "amulets" in line 14 is closest in meaning to :

(A) weapons
(B) coins
(C) charms
(D) curses

21. The distinction between mummification of bodies from different classes is explained in lines :
(A) 2-6
(B) 10-12
(C) 13-14
(D) 15-17.

Question 22 through 30 are based on the following passage

(1) A tapeworm is a parasite that lives in the intestines of humans and animals. Some tapeworms attach themselves
to the intestinal wall by means of suckers in their heads. Others float freely in the intestines and absorb food through
the walls of their bodies.

(5) A tapeworm consists of numerous segments. When a new segment forms, the older ones move to the back of the
animal. Each segment contains hermaphroditic sexual organs (that is male and female organs). The uterus of each
segment fills with eggs, which develop into embryos. Generally, when the eggs are ready to hatch, the segment
breaks off and is eliminated through the host's excretory system. These embryos hatch, develop into larvae, and grow
to adults only if ingested by an intermediate host.

(12) One may be infected by tapeworms by eating under cooked beef, pork, or fish. Symptoms include irregular
appetite, abdominal discomfort, anemia, weakness, and nervousness.

22. The passage implies that all of the following are true EXCEPT :
(A) an embryo will cease to develop if not ingested by host.
(B) a tapeworm will continue to live even when segments break off.
(C) the segment farthest back on the tail is the oldest.
(D) tapeworms always float freely in the digestive system.

23. A tapeworm attaches itself to the intestinal wall by

(A) suction
(B) liquid
(C) food
(D) teeth

24. The word "eliminated" in line 12 is closest in meaning to :

(A) ingested
(B) expelled
(C) eaten
(D) grown

25. A hermaphrodite is..

(A) a tapeworm
(B) a segment containing an embryo
(C) a being that contains male and female sexual organs.
(D) an animal made of segments

26. The word "others" in line 3refers to :

(A) segments
(B) embryos
(C) eggs
(D) tapeworms

27. Which of the following is probably NOT a symptom of tapeworm infestation?

(A) Unusual eating habits
(B) Excitability
(C) deficiency of red blood cells
(D) Euphoria

28. Which of the following statements is true?

(A) A tapeworm uterus contains one egg.
(B) overcooked beef is a cause of tapeworms.
(C) a male tapeworm must always be ingested before reproduction will occur.
(D) Tapeworms vary in their methods of ingesting food.

29. What would be the best title for this reading passage?
(A) Parasites
(B) Reproduction of the Tapeworm
(C) The Tapeworm, a Harmful Parasite
(D) Segmented Parasites

30. The word "segments" in line 5 closest in meaning to

(A) types (B)sections (C) organs (D) worms

Question 31 through 40 are based on the following passage

(1) After inventing dynamite, Swedish - born Alfred Nobel became a very rich man. However, he foresaw its
universally destructive power too late. Nobel preferred not to be remembered as the inventor of dynamite, so in 1895,
just two weeks before his death, he created a fund to be used for awarding prizes to people who had made worthwile
contributions to humanity. Originally, there were five awards : literature, physics, chemistry, medicine, and peace.
Economics was added in 1968, just sixty seven years after the first awards ceremony.

(8) Nobel's original legacy of nine million dollars was invested, and the interest of this sum is used for the awards
which vary from $30.000 to $125,000.

(10) (Every year on December 10, the annyversary of Nobel's death, the award (gold medal. illuminated diploma, and
money) are presented to the winners. Sometimes politics play an important role in the judge's decisions. Americans
have won numerous science awards, but relatively few literature prizes.

(14) No awards were presented from 1940 to 1942 at the beginning of world war II. Some people have won two
prizes, but this is rare; others have shared their prizes.

31. The word "foresaw" in line 2 is nearest in meaning to :

(A) prevailed
(B) postponed
(C) prevented
(D) predicted

32. The Nobel prize was established in order to

(A) recognize worthwile contributions to humanity
(B) resolve political differences
(C) honor the inventor of dynamite

(D) spend money

33. In which area have Americans received the most awards?

(A) Literature
(B) Peace
(C) Economics
(D) Science

34. All of the following statements are true EXCEPT

(A) Awards vary in monetary value
(B) Ceremonies are held on December 10 to commemmorate Nobel's invention.
(C) Politics plays an important role in selecting the winners
(D) A few individuals have won two awards.

35. In how many fields are prizes bestowed?

(A) 2
(B) 5
(C) 6
(D) 10

36. It is implied that Nobel's profession was in

(A) economics
(B) medicine
(C) literature
(D) science

37. In line 5, "worthwile" is closest in meaning to

(A) economic
(B) prestigious
(C) trivial
(D) valuable

38. How much money did Nobel leave for the prizes?
(A) $30.000
(B) $125.000
(C) $155.000
(D) $9.000.000

39. What is the main idea of this passage?

(A) Alfred Nobel become very rich when he invented dynamite.
(B) Alfred Nobel created awards in six categories for contributions to humanity.
(C) Alfred Nobel left all of his money to science.
(D) Alfred Nobel made a lasting contribution to humanity

40. The word "legacy" in line 8 means most nearly the same as
(A) Legend
(B) Bequest
(C) Prize
(D) Debt

Questions 41 through 50 are based on the following passage.

(1) Ever since humans have inhabited the earth, they have made use of various forms of communication. Generally
this expression of thoughts and feelings have been in the form of oral speech. When there is a language barrier,
communication is accomplished through sign language in which motions stand for letters, words, and ideas. Tourists,
the deaf, and the mute have had to resort to this form of expression. Many of these symbols of whole words are very
picturesque and exact and can be used internationally; spelling, however, cannot.

(8) Body language transmits ideas or thoughts by certain actions either intentionally or unintentionally. A wink can be
a way of flirting or indicating that the party is only joking. A nod signifies approval, while shaking the head indicates a
negative reaction.

(12) Other forms of nonlinguistic language can be found in Braille ( a system of raised dots read with the fingertips),
signal flags, morse code, and smoke signals. Road maps and picture signs also guide, warn, and instruct people.

(15) While verbalization is the most common form of language, other systems and techniques also express human
thoughts and feelings.

41. Which of the following best summarizes this passage?

(A) When language is a barrier, people will find other forms of communication.
(B) Everybody uses only one form of communication.
(C) Nonlinguistic language is invaluable to foreigners.
(D) Although other forms of communication exist, verbalization is the fastest.

42. what is the best title for the passage?

(A) The importance of sign language
(B) The Many Forms of Communication.
(C) Ways of Expressing Feelings

(D) Picturesque symbols of Communication

43. The word "these" in line 6 refers to

(A) tourists
(B) the deaf and the mute
(C) thoughts and feelings
(D) sign language motions

44. All of the following statements are true EXCEPT

(A) There are many forms of communication in existence today.
(B) Verbalization is the most common form of communication.
(C) The deaf and the mute use an oral form of communication.
(D) Ideas and thoughts can be transmitted by body language

45. Which form other than oral speech would be most commonly used among blind people?
(A) Picture signs
(B) Braille
(C) Body language
(D) Signal flags

46. How many different forms of communications are mentioned here?

(A) 5
(B) 7
(C) 9
(D) 11

47. The word "wink" in line 9 means most nearly the same as
(A) close one eye briefly
(B) close two eyes briefly
(C) bob the head up and down
(D) shake the head from side to side.

48. Sign language is said to be very picturesque and exact and can be used internationally EXCEPT for
(A) spelling
(B) ideas
(C) whole words
(D) expressions

49. People need to communicate in order to

(A) create language barriers
(B) keep from reading with their fingertips
(C) be picturesque and exact
(D) express thoughts and feelings

50. Who should be MOST likely to use morse code?

(A) a scientist
(B) a spy
(C) an airline pilot
(D) a telegrapher

STOP. THIS IS THE END OF THE EXAMINATION. IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS UP, CHECK YOUR WORK,
THEN EMAIL YOUR ANSWERSHEET AS ATTACHMENT TO : MANAGEMENT@TOEFLINDONESIA.COM &
MANAGEMENT@TOEFLINDONESIA.NET

START YOUR TEST NOW!

SECTION 1 : LISTENING COMPREHENSION

KLIK TOMBOL BERIKUT :

Part A
DIRECTIONS
In Part A, you will hear short conversations between two speakers. At the end of each conversation, a third voice will
ask a question about what was said. The questions will be spoken just one time. After you hear a conversation and a

question about it, read the four possible answers and decide which one would be the best answer to the question you
have heard. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the problem and mark your answer.
1.
(A). April
(B). May
(C). June
(D). July
2.
(A). Philadelphia.
(B). Chapmans.
(C). Doctors.
(D). Arizona.
3.
(A). He'll see if he can get the computer going.
(B). It's a very good computer.
(C). Dana has a copy of the manual in the back office.
(D). The woman was wise to have copied her data.
4.
(A). a gas station.
(B). a police station.
(C). a lost-and-found department.
(D). a bar.
5.
(A). Jason Daniels isn't home right now.
(B). The caller dialed the wrong number.
(C). Jason Daniels can't come to the phone right now.
(D). Jason Daiels doesn't want to speak to the caller.
6.
(A). She's on a committee.
(B). She's been working late.
(C). She exercises too much.
(D). She's trying to budget her sleep.
7.
(A). better.
(B). sick.
(C). fine.
(D). tired.
8.
(A). No, because it's not for sale
(B). Yes, because he has plenty of money.
(C). Yes, if he borrows the money from the woman.
(D). No, because he didn't bring enough money.
9.
(A). Europe.
(B). Where the speakers are.
(C). Canada.
(D). California.
10.
(A) Her car is being repaired at the gas station.
(B). Frank is going to the gas station to pick up her car.
(C). She has gone to get her gas tank filled with gasoline.
(D). Her car isn't working properly because of the type of gasoline she is using.

11.
(A). Although they knew there was going to be a meeting, they didn't come.
(B). They didn't want to attend the meeting, but they came anyway.
(C). They didn't know about the meeting.
(D). They didn't let anybody know about the meeting, so nobody attended.
12.
(A). He made the best grade in his class.
(B). He is an exceptionally good student.
(C). His classmates made good grades, but he didn't.
(D). He is one of the better students in his class.
13.
(A) The dean was asked to question several students.
(B). The humanities professor questioned several students.
(C). The humanities professor was able to answer students' questions.
(D). The humanities professor has asked the dean a question about some students.
14.
(A). refuse to work.
(B). leave early.
(C). request to work overtime.
(D). ask for assistance.
15.
(A). He went to the concert because he didn't want to work.
(B). He didn't go to the concert because he had too much work to do.
(C). Although he had a lot of work to do, he went to the concert.
(D). He never goes to the concert if he has work to do.
16.
A. He lost the library's new books.
B. He is going to the new library to look for some books.
C. He may keep the library books longer.
D. He had to pay a late fee for the books.
17.
A. He is afraid to start smoking because of the hazardous effects.
B. He's afraid he'll become fat if he stop smoking.
C. He is afraid that he will become more nervous if he stops smoking. .
D. He doesn't realize the possible danger of smoking.
18.
A. He studies regularly but his grades are suffering.
B. He is so lazy that he never gets good grades..
C. He hasn't studied lately but likely will get good grades.
D. He probably will not pass because he hasn't studied. .
19.
A. His meat wasn't tender.
B. The speaker didn't have a good character..
C. It was difficult to meet new people in the crowd.
D. The meeting was cut short.
20.
A. He never forgets when he has a meeting.
B. It seems that he forgot about their meeting.
C. He should have canceled the meeting.
D. He has to come to the meeting.
21.

(A). Vegetables.
(B). Fruit.
(C). Meat.
(D). Cookies.
22.
(A). They couldn't afford a honeymoon.
(B). They went to Puerto Rico.
(C). They went to St. Augustine.
(D). They are still planning on going to Puerto Rico.
23.
(A). The first hot dog came from germany.
(B). Hot dogs originated in the United States.
(C). Some hot dogs are made from reindeer meat.
(D). Even countries like Finland have a food similar to Hot Dog.
24.
(A). His work is too simple to keep him interested.
(B). He has no time to relax.
(C). He has a flat tire.
(D). He has no work to do.
25.
(A). Tiffany is Stephanie's mother.
(B). Tiffany and Stephanie are sisters.
(C). Tiffany is older than Stephanie.
(D). Tiffany is younger than Stephanie.
26.
A. To find out how long it will take to repair the car.
B. To find a different repairman.
C. To find out what it will probably cost before the work is done.
D. To repair it himself.
27.
A. She watched TV last night instead of working on her paper.
B. She didn't watched TV last night because she had to write a paper.
C. She wrote her paper last night while she was watching TV.
D. She is writing a TV script.
28.
A. Franklin admired the deer's beauty from his bedroom window.
B. Franklin closed the door quickly.
C. Franklin shot a deer with a rifle.
D. Franklin took a photograph of a deer.
29.
A. start typing immediately.
B. have her paper typed by someone else.
C. change her topic.
D. find a different typing service.
30.
A. Yolanda injurred Anna.
B. Yolanda had to run downtown last week. .
C. Yolanda went downtown to exercise..
D. Yolanda met Anna downtown unexpectedly.

PART B
DIRECTIONS
In part B, you will hear longer conversations. After each conversation, you will be asked some questions. The
questions will be spoken just one time. They will not be written out for you, so you will have to listen carefully in order
to understand and remember what the speaker says.
When you hear a question, read the four possible answers in your test book and decide which one would be the best
answer to the question you have heard. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the problem and fill in the
space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.
31.
A. He was crazy..
B. They thought he was dead..
C. He had many broken bones..
D. He fell out of a plane.
32.
A. on a plane.
B. on television
C. on the ground
D. in a hospital.
33.
A. He fell out of a plane.
B. His two parachutes didn't open.
C. He fell while walking.
D. A parachute fell on him.
34.
A. He died.
B. He jumped from a plane again.
C. He broke his leg.
D. He went crazy.
35.
A. dentist - patient.
B. doctor - patient.
C. teacher - student.
D. pharmacist - customer.
36.
(A). in a few days.
(B). before leaving the office.
(C). very slowly.
(D). soon enough.
37.
(A). some medicine.
(B). some tests.
(C). exhaling slowly.
(D). filling her lungs with air.
38.
(A). She doesn't have enough air in her lungs.
(B). She's exhaling too slowly.
(C). She didn't do well in her tests.
(D). She has a little congestion.

Part C
DIRECTIONS.
In this part of the test, you will hear several talks. After each talk, you will be asked some questions. The talks and
questions will be spoken just one time. They will not be written out for you, so you will have to listen carefully in order
to understand and remember what the speaker says.
When you hear a question, read the four possible answers in your test book and decide which one would be the best
answer to the question you have heard. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the problem and fill in the
space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.
39.
(A). 2
(B). 5
(C). 3
(D). 7
40.
(A). They attracted the attention of a private airplane.
(B). They ran out of gas.
(C). Some fishermen spotted them.
(D). Their families finally found them.
41.
(A). They knew that they had ran out of fuel.
(B). Their families had reported them missing.
(C). They hadn't met the private airplane when it was due to arrive.
(D). It was starting to get dark.
42.
(A). 15 miles.
(B). 7,5 miles.
(C). 2 miles.
(D). 5 miles.
43.
(A). to plan a special diet for the patient to lose weight.
(B). to show someone how to read an X-ray.
(C). to get the patient to join an exercise class.
(D). to inform the patient about how to deal with his illness.
44.
(A). She talked with a chiropractor.
(B). She read the X-ray.
(C). She did some back stretching exercises.
(D). She took some pain killers.
45.
(A). osteoarthritis.
(B). curvature of the spine
(C). pinched nerves.
(D). muscle spasms.
46.
(A). the judge may send them to an arbitrator.
(B). the judge will require mediation.
(C). the judge will set a trial date.
(D). The judge will give them an option, and the woman suggests a mediation.
47.
(A). that it is very useful.
(B). that it involves an arbitrator.
(C). That the court can be convinced to allow a trial.

(D). that it will cost too much money.

48.
(A). He feels that the opponents are entrenched in an incorrect position.
(B). He feels that an arbitrator could convince them.
(C). He feels that mediation is a great idea.
(D). He feels that the opposing party is being too sensitive.
49.
(A). that it is a waste of time.
(B). that the court should be talked out of it.
(C). that arbitration is better.
(D). that it often produces positive results.
50.
(A). to try mediation
(B). to resist mediation.
(C). to settle the case.
(D). to try arbitration.
STOP. THIS IS THE END OF LISTENING COMPREHENSION SECTION
_____________________________________________________________

SECTION 2 : STRUCTURE AND WRITTEN EXPRESSION

Time: 25 Minutes
40 Questions

Part A
DIRECTION
Question 1 15 are incomplete sentences. Beneath each sentence you will see four words or phrases, marked (A),
(B), (C), and (D). Choose the one word or phrases that best completes the sentences. Then on your answer sheets,
find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen. Fill
in the space so that the letter inside the oval cannot be seen.
1. I understand that the governor is considering a new proposal ___________________
A. what would eliminate unnecessary writing in government.
B. who wants to cut down on the amount of writing in government.
C. that would eliminate unnecessary paperwork in government.
D. to cause that the amount of papers written in government offices will be reduced.
2. George belongs to the ___________________
(A) class of the upper middle
(B) upper middle class
(C) class from the center up
(D) high medium class.
3. A good student must know __________________
(A) to study hard.
(B) tobe a good student.
(C) how to study effectively.
(D) the way of efficiency in study.
4. Jane changed her major from French to bussiness,________________

(A) with hopes to be able easier to locate employment

(B) hoping she can easier get a job.
(C) with the hope for being able to find better a job.
(D) hoping to find a job more easily.
5. He has received several scholarships _____________________
(A) not only because of his artistic but his academic ability.
(B) for both his academic ability as well as his artistic.
(C) because of his academic and artistic ability.
(D) as resulting of his ability in the art and the academy.
6. Harvey will wash the clothes _______________________
(A) iron the shirts, prepare the meal, dusting the furniture.
(B) ironing the shirts, preparing the meal, and dusting the furniture.
(C) iron the shirts, prepare the meal, and dust the furniture.
(D) to iron the shirts, prepare the meal, and dust the furniture.
7. _________________ that new information to anyone else but the sergeant.
(A) They asked him not to give
(B) They asked him to don't give
(C) They asked him no give
(D) They asked him to no give
8. ______________, he would have signed his name in the corner.
(A) If he painted that picture
(B) If he paints that picture
(C) If he had painted that picture
(D) If he would have painted that picture
9. The doctor insisted that his patient _________________
(A) that he not work too hard for three months.
(B) take it easy for three months.
(C) taking it easy inside of three months.
(D) to take some vacations for three months.
10. The manager was angry because somebody ___________________
(A) had allowed the photographers to enter the building.
(B) had let the photographers to enter into the building.
(C) permitting the photographers enter the building.
(D) the photographers let into the building without the proper documentation.
11. Richard was asked to withdraw from graduate school because ___________
(A) they believed he was not really able to complete research.
(B) he was deemed incapable of completing his research.
(C) it was decided that he was not capable to complete the research.
(D) his ability to finish research was not believed or trusted.
12. The committee members resented _____________
(A) the president that he did not tell them about the meeting.
(B) the president not to inform them of the meeting.
(C) the president's not informing them of the meeting.
(D) that the president have failed informing themselves that there was going to be a meeting.
13. ________________ did Arthur realize that there was danger.
(A) Upon entering the store
(B) When he entered the store
(C) After he had entered the store
(D) Only after entering the store
14. The rabbit scurried away in fright ________________
(A) when it heard the movement in the bushes.
(B) the movement among the bushes having been heard.

(C) after it was hearing moving inside of the bushes.

(D) when he has heard that something moved in the bushes.
15. The doctor told his receptionist that he would return _________________
(A) as early as it would be possible
(B) as the earliest as it could be possible
(C) as soon as possible
(D) as the nearest early possibility.

Part B
DIRECTIONS
In questions 16 40 each sentence has four underlined words or phrases. The four underlined parts of the sentence
are marked (A), (B), (C), and (D). Identify the one underlined word or phrase that must be changed in order for the
sentence to be correct. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill the space that
corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.
16. Neither of the girls have turned in the term paper to the instructor yet.
A
B
C

17. After studying all the new materials, the student was able to rise his test score by twenty five points.
A
B
C
D
18. The teacher told the students to don't discuss the take-home exam with each other.
A
B
C
D
19. The book that you see laying on the table belongs to the teacher.
A
B
C
D
20. I suggest that he goes to the doctor as soon as he returns from taking the exam.
A
B
C
D
21. She is looking forward to go to Europe after she finishes her studies at the university.
A
B
C
D
22 They said that the man jumped off of the bridge and plunged into the freezing water.
A
B
C
D
23. Mr. Anderson used to jogging in the crisp morning air during the winter months but now he has stopped.
A
B
C
D
24. The volume four of our encyclopedia set has been missing for two months.
A
B
C
D
25. I do not know where could he have gone so early in the morning.
A
B
C
D
26. The people tried of defending their village, but they were finally forced to retreat.
A
B
C
D
27. The professor was considering postponing the examination until the following week because the students'
confusion.
A
B
C
D
28. Having lost the election, the president candidate intends supporting the opposition despite of the objections of his
staff.
A
B
C
D
29. The congressman, accompanied by secret service agents and aides, are preparing to enter the convention
hall within the next few minutes.

D
30. Because the torrential rain that had devastated the area, the governor sent the national guard to assist in the
clean up operation.
A
B
C
D
31. Lack of sanitation in restaurants are a major cause of disease in some areas of the country.
A
B
C
D
32. Had the committee members considered the alternatives more carefully they would have realized that the second
was better as the first.
A
B
C
D
33. Malnutrition is a major cause of death in those countries where the cultivation of rice have been impeded by
recurrent drought.
A
B
C
D
34. The decision to withdraw all support from the activities of the athletes are causing an uproar among the athletes'
fans.
A
B
C
D
35. Underutilized species of fish has been proposed as a solution to the famine in many underdeveloped countries.
A
B
C
D
36. Because the residents had worked so dilligent to renovate the old building, the manager had a party.
A
B
C
D
37. John's wisdom teeth were troubling him, so he went to a dental surgeon to see about having them pull.
A
B
D

38. Hardly he had entered the office when he realized that he had forgotten his wallet.
A
B
C
D
39. Suzy had better to change her study habits if she hopes to be admitted to a good university.
A
B
C
D
40. Some bacteria are extremely harmful but anothers are regularly used in producing cheeses, crackers, and many
other foods.
A
B
C
D

STOP. THIS IS THE END OF STRUCTURE & WRITTEN EXPRESSION SECTION