Question Papers

ExamCode: ECE1_15_B1

Version No : 1

1.

2.

What determines if resistor connections are in series, parallel or seriesparallel?

1) The voltage source
2) The power source
3) Resistance
4) Current flow

3.

Which resistive component is designed to be temperature sensitive?

1) Thermistor
3) Potentiometer

2) Rheostat
4) Photoconductive Cell

Superposition theorem is NOT applicable to networks containing1) Nonlinear elements

3) Dependent current sources

2) Dependent voltage sources

4) Transformers

4.

5.

6.

A triangular-wave oscillator can consist of an op-amp comparator, followed by a(n)1) Differentiator

2) Amplifier
3) Integrator
4) Multivibrator

7.

8.

For a base current of 10 A, what is the value of collector current in common emitter if dc = 100?
1) 10 A
3) 1 mA

2) 100 A
4) 10 mA

9.

10.

The phenomenon known as Early Effect in a bipolar transistor refers to a reduction of the effective base-width caused by1) Electron-hole recombination at the base
2) The reverse biasing of the base-collector junction
3) The forward biasing of emitter-base junction

11.

A Wheatstone bridge can be used to determine an unknown1) Current

3) Power

4) The early removal of stored base charge during saturation to

cutoff switching

2) Resistance
4) Voltage

12.

A series RLC circuit has a resonance frequency of 1 kHz and a quality factor Q = 100. If each R, L and C is doubled from its original
value, the new Q of the circuit is:
1) 25
2) 50
3) 100
4) 200

13.

The ratio of diffusion constant to mobility of carriers1) Depends on temperature

3) Varies with lifetime

2) Depends on type of semiconductor

4) Universal constant

14.

15.

16.

Acceptor in semiconductor is:

1) An impurity which increases hole concentration

2) An impurity which increases electron concentration

3) An extra energy level which increases electron energy

4) None of these

An example of heterojunction diode is:

1) Zener diode
3) Injection laser

2) LED
4) Both (B) and (C)

The leakage current of transistor are ICB0=3A and ICE0=0.3mA, IB=30A.The value of is:
1) 79
3) 99

2) 81
4) 56

17.

In Tunnel Diode characteristics, the peak in the characteristic curve is due to1) Large biasing
2) Tunneling phenomenon
3) Increase in impurity concentration
4) Impact Ionization

18.

The drift velocity of electrons is:

1) Very small as compared to speed of light
3) Almost equal to speed of light

19.

20.

2) Equal to speed of light

4) Half the speed of light

If 1, 2, 3, 4 are the mobility constants of electron and holes of Ge& Si respectively at T=27 C, then1) 1>2>3>4

2) 1>3 >2>4

3) 4>2>3>1

4) 1>3 >4>2

Find out the percentage increase in the reverse saturation current of the diode if the temperature is increased from 25C to 50C.
1) 56.57%
3) 5.657%

2) 565.7%
4) No change in reverse saturation current

21.

22.

23.

24.

25.

26.

27.

If the mobility of holes in a silicon material is doubled then the mobility of electrons will be1) Double
3) Remains same

2) Half
4) Four times

In a n-type semiconductor, as temperature T increases, the Fermi level1) Moves towards conduction band
3) Does not shift

2) Moves towards middle of forbidden energy

4) Shifting depends on concentration of donor atoms

An increase in collector base voltage1) Increases collector base depletion width

3) Increases emitter base depletion width

2) Decreases effective width of base

4) Both (A) and (B)

In p-type Ge of a MOS transistor, the impurity doping concentration is Na=1016cm-3. At T=300K, the maximum space charge width is:
1) 0.235 m
3) 23.5 m

2) 2.35 m
4) None of these

In a transistor amplifier, the reverse saturation current Ico :

1) Doubles for every 10C rise in temperature
3) Increases linearly with temperature

2) Doubles for every 1C rise in temperature

4) Doubles for every 50C rise in temperature

If the unit step response of a system is (1 - e)-2t, then its unit impulse response is _____.
1) 2e-2t

2) 12e-2t

3) 1+e-2t

4) 1-12e-2t

A Hilbert transformer is a ______ system.

1) Low pass
3) Non-casual

2) Time-varying
4) Non-linear

28.

Let x[n] defined in the interval 3 n 5 and h(n), defined for 2 n 6 be two finite length sequence. The range of interval for which
x[n] * h[n] is defined is _____.
1) 7 n 9
2) 3 n 9
3) 2 n < 3
4) 5 n 6

29.

For a dipole antenna1) The radiation intensity is maximum along the normal to the dipole axis
3) The effective length equals its physical length

2) The current distribution along its length is uniform irrespective

of the length
4) The input impedance is independent of the location of the feed
point.

30.

31.

A TE10 rectangular waveguide is to be designed for operation over 25-35 GHz and the band centre is 1.5 times the cut-off frequency.
What should be the dimensions of the broad side?
1) 15 mm
3) 9 mm

32.

2) 10 mm
4) 7.5 mm

A (75 j40) load connected to a coaxial line of Z0 = 75 at 6 MHz. The load matching on the line can be accomplished by connecting1) A short-circuited stub at the load
3) A shortcircuited stub at a specific distance from the load

2) An inductance at the load

4) A capacitance at a specific distance from the load

33.

For a quarter wavelength ideal transmission line of characteristic impedance 50 ohms and load impedance 100 ohms, the input impedance
will be1) 25
2) 50
3) 100
4) 150

34.

A circular air filled waveguide of radius 5 cm is operated in the TH01 mode. The waveguide is then completely filled with a dielectric
of relative permittivity 2.25 and relative permeability 1.0. The cut-off wavelength for the TH01 mode is 0.082m when the waveguide is
air-filled. When the waveguide is filled with the dielectric, the cut-off frequency will become nearly:

1) 1.06 GHz
3) 3.66 GHz

2) 2.44 GHz
4) 4.00 GHz

35.

36.

For TM waves in a parallel plate waveguide, the minimum attenuation arising from imperfect conductors would occur at a frequency
of : (c is the cut-off frequency)
1) 3c
3) 2c

37.

2) 3c
4) 2c

A 60 coaxial cable feeds a 75 + j25 dipole antenna. The voltage reflection coefficient and standing wave ratios are respectively:
1) 0.212 48.55, 1.538
3) 0.48641.45, 2.682

2) 0.486 68.4, 2.628

4) 0.212 68.4, 1.538

38.

39.

A transmission line of characteristic impedance Z0 = 50 ohms, phase velocity vp = 2 x 108m/s and length = 1m is terminated by a
load Z1(30 j40) ohms. The input impedance of the line for a frequency of 100 MHz will be:

1) (30+j40) ohms
3) (50+j40) ohms
40.

2) (30-j40) ohms
4) (50-j40) ohms

When electromagnetic waves are reflected at an angle from a wall, their wave length along the wall is
1) Same as in the free space

2) Same as the wavelength perpendicular to the wall

3) Shortened because of the Doppler effect

4) Greater than in the actual direction of propagation

41.

The electric field at a point from a transmitter radiating a certain power is 2.5 mV/m. If transmitter power is doubled, then yield
strength at that point will be about:
1) 2.5 mV/m
2) 3.5 mV/m
3) 5 mV/m
4) 10 mV/m

42.

If in an air line, adjacent maxima are found at 12.5 cm and 37.5 cm, then operating frequency is1) 1.5 GHz
2) 600 MHz
3) 300 MHz
4) 1.2 GHz

43.

A circular waveguide carries TE11 mode whose radial electricfield is given by Er = E01, J1 (r) sin V / m where r is radial distance in
cm from the waveguide axis. Cutoff wavelength of the mode is:
1) 10 cm
3) 2 cm

44.

45.

2) 3 cm
4) 8 cm

46.

47.

48.

49.

50.

The output of a feedback control system must be a function of1) Reference input and output
3) Reference input

2) Output
4) Reference input and error signal

The steady state error of a feedback control system with an acceleration input becomes finite in a:
1) Type 0 system
3) Type 2 system

2) Type 1 system
4) Type 3 system

Signal flow graph is used to obtain the1) Stability of a system

3) Controllability of a system

2) Transfer function of a system

4) Observability of a system

51.

52.

53.

The intersection point of the asymptotes for G(S) H(S) = K/S (S + 5) (S+10) is:
1) 0
2) -5
3) -10
4) -

54.

55.

56.

57.

58.

59.

60.

61.

The speed of conversion is maximum in 1) Successive-approximation A/D converter

3) Counter ramp A/D converter

2) Parallel-comparative A/D converter

4) Dual-slope A/D converter

How many 3-line-to-8-line decoders are required for a 1-of-32 decoder?

1) 1
3) 4

2) 2
4) 8

The terms "low speed" and "high speed," applied to logic circuits, refer to the ________.
1) Rise time
3) Propagation delay time

2) Fall time
4) Clock speed

The MSI chip 7474 is:

1) Dual edge triggered JK flip-flop (TTL)
3) Dual edge triggered D-flip-flop (TTL)

2) Dual edge triggered D-flip-flop (CMOS)

4) Dual edge triggered JK flip-flop (CMOS)

The excess 3 code of decimal number 26 is:

1) 0100 1001
3) 1000 1001

2) 01011001
4) 01001101

62.

A four bit ripple counter consisting of flip-flops that each has a propagation delay of 12ns from clock to Q output. For the counter to
recycle from 1111 to 0000, it takes a total of:
1) 12ns
2) 24ns
3) 48ns
4) 26ns

63.

How many select lines will a 16 to 1 multiplexer have?

1) 4
3) 5

64.

While obtaining minimal sum of products expression1) All dont cares are ignored
3) All dont cares are treated as logic ones

2) 3
4) 1

2) Only such dont cares that aid minimization are treated as

logic ones
4) All dont cares are treated as logic zeros

65.

66.

67.

Which of the following are known as universal gates?

1) NAND & NOR
3) XOR & OR

2) AND & OR
4) XOR & XNOR

If the input to T-flip-flop is 100 Hz signal, the final output of the three T-flip-flops in cascade is:
1) 1000 Hz
3) 333 Hz

2) 500 Hz
4) 12.5 Hz

Which of the following is NOT generally associated with flip-flops?

1) Hold time
3) Interval time

2) Propagation delay time

4) Set up time

68.

69.

When the frequency of applied voltage in a series RL circuit is increased what happens to the inductive reactance?
1) Decreases
3) Increases

2) Remains the same

4) Becomes zero

70.

71.

The r.m.s. value of pure cosine function is:

1) 0.5 of peak value
3) Same as peak value

2) 0.707 of peak value

4) Zero

72.

73.

What is the voltage of a battery that uses 800J of energy to move 40C of charge through a resistor?
1) 800V
2) 40V
3) 25V
4) 20V

74.

If a network contains B branches and N nodes, then the number of mesh current equations would be1) B-(N-1)
3) B-N-1

2) N-(B-1)
4) (B+N)-1

75.

76.

For a certain load, the true power is 100 W and the reactive power is 100 VAR. What is the apparent power?
1) 200 VA
2) 100 VA
3) 141.4 VA
4) 120 VA

77.

78.

A two element series circuit with an instantaneous current I=4.24sin(5000t+45) A, has a power of 180 watts and a power factor of 0.8
lagging. The inductance of the circuit must have the value :
1) 3H
3) 3 mH

2) 0.3 H
4) 0.3 mH

79.

80.

81.

Apparent power is expressed in1) Volt-amperes

3) Volt-amperes or watts

2) Watts
4) VAR

82.

83.

A 200 Hz sinusoid is sampled at 450 Hz. How many full periods of x(t) are required to obtain one period of the sampled signal?
1) 9
3) 8

84.

2) 4
4) 2

85.

86.

87.

88.

Which of the following system is linear? i) y(t) = tx(t) ii) y(t) = tx(t) iii) y(t) = tx(2t)
1) (i) only
3) (iii) only

2) (i) & (ii)

4) (i) & (iii)

89.

A carrier is simultaneously modulated by sine wave with modulation indices of 30% and 40% respectively. The overall modulation
index will be1) 50 %
2) 70%
4) Indefinite as modulation by two waves simultaneously is
3) 100 %
not possible

90.

V(t)=5(cos(106t)-sin(103t) sin(106t) represents :

1) DSB suppressed carrier signal
3) SSB upper sideband signal

91.

92.

93.

2) AM signal
4) Narrow band F.M. signal

Which of the following demodulator(s) can be used for demodulating the signal s(t)=5(1+2 cos 2000t)cos 2000t?
1) Envelope demodulator
3) Synchronous demodulator

2) Square law demodulator

4) All of these

PAM signals can be demodulated by using a1) Low pass filter alone (LPF)
3) A differentiator followed by LPF

2) A Schmitt trigger followed by LPF

4) A clipper circuit followed by LPF

The baud rate is:

1) Always equal to the bit transfer rate

2) Equal to twice the bandwidth of an ideal channel

3) Not equal to the signaling rate.

4) Equal to one-half the bandwidth of ideal channel.

94.

95.

A signal m1(t) is band limited to 3.6 KHz and three other signals m2(t), m3(t) and m4(t) are band limited to 1.2 KHz each and these signals
are transmitted by means of TDM. Then, what will be the transmission bandwidth of the channel?

1) 7.2KHz
3) 3.6KHz
96.

2) 14.4KHz
4) 2.4KHz

In a digital communication system employing FSK, the 0 and 1 bit are represented by sine waves of 10 kHz and 25 kHz respectively.
These waveforms will be orthogonal for a bit interval of :
1) 45 sec
3) 50 sec

2) 200 sec
4) 250 sec

97.

A comparison of frequency division and time division multiplexing systems shows that2) FDM has greater noise immunity and requires lower bandwidth
1) FDM requires a lower bandwidth, but TDM has greater noise immunity
than TDM
3) FDM requires channel synchronization, while TDM has greater noise
4) FDM requires more multiplexing while TDM requires band pass
immunity.
filter

98.

The Nyquist sampling rate for the signal g(t) = 10cos(50 t)cos2(150 t) when t is in seconds is:
1) 150 samples/second
3) 300 samples/second

2) 200 samples/second
4) 350 samples/second

99.

100.

In a modulation system, on doubling the modulation frequency, the modulation index gets halved while the modulating voltage
needed remains unaltered. The modulation system is :
1) AM
3) PM

2) FM
4) All of these

The envelope detector is a/an1) Synchronous detector

3) Product demodulator

2) Asynchronous detector
4) Coherent detector