Mega-Test-5-N Ramp (Xi) : All The Best

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enjoy with subject.................
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MEGA-TEST-5-N
RAMP(XI)
There are 45 questions in physics , chemistry respectively and there are 90 questions in
biology . Each question is allotted 4 marks for correct response.
Candidates will be awarded marks as stated above in instruction for correct response.
1/4th marks will be deducted for indicating incorrect response of each question.
No deduction from the total score will be made if no response is indicated for a question
in the answer sheet.
There is only one correct response for each question.
Please Read Instructions carefully before attempting questions.
All the best
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Physics
1. The centre of mass of a system of particles is at (x0, y0, z0) where x0 0, y0 0. It is known
that no
particle lies in the region y < 0 and x < 0 then the position of centre of mass can be
(A) (0, 0, 4)
(B) (0, 4, 0)
(C) ( 4, 0, 0)
(D)(4,4,4,)
2. From the circular disc of radius 4 R two small disc of radius R are cut off. The
centre of mass of the new structure will be: (Centre of lower circular cavity lies
on x-axis and centre of upper circular cavity lies on y -axis)
(A) +
(B) +
(C)
(D) none of these
5
5
5
5
5
5
3. In the figure shown find out the distance of centre of mass of a system of a
uniform circular plate of radius 3 R from O in which a hole of radius R is cut
whose centre is at 2R distance from centre of large circular plate.
(A) R/4
(B) R/5
(C) R/2
(D) none of these
4. In the figure shown a hole of radius 2 cm is made in a semicircular disc of
radius 6 at a distance 8 cm from the centre C of the disc. The distance of the
centre of mass of this system from point C is:
(A) 4 cm
(B) 8 cm
(C) 6 cm
(D) 12 cm
5. An equilateral triangular plate of mass ' 4 m ' of side ' a ' is kept as shown. Consider two cases:
(i)a point mass ' 4 m ' is placed at the vertex P of the plate
(ii)a point mass ' m ' is placed at the vertex R of the plate
In both cases, the ' x ' co-ordinate of centre of mass is the same. Then the ' x ' co-ordinate of
centre of mass of the plate is:
6
2
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
3
6
7
3
6. Figure shows a cubical box that has been constructed from uniform metal plate
of negligible thickness. The box is open at the top and has edge length 40 cm.
The z co-ordinate of the centre of mass of the box in cm, is :
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(A) 12
(B) 16
(C) 20
(D) 22
7. A homogeneous plate PQRST is as shown in figure. The centre o f mass of plate
lies at midpoint A of segment QT. Then the ratio of is (PQ = PT = b; QR = RS
= ST = a)
(A)
13
4
(B)
13
(C)
13
2
(D)
13
4
8. A man of mass M stands at one end of a plank of length L which lies at rest on a
frictionless surface. The man walks to the other end of the plank. If the mass of
the plank is M/3, the distance that the man moves relative to the ground is
(A) 3 L/4
(B) 4 L/5
(C) L/4
(D) none of these
9. Both the blocks shown in the given arrangement are g ven together a hor izontal
velocity towards right. If a c m be the subsequent acceleration of the centre of
mass of the s ystem of blocks, then a c m equals:
(A) 0 m/s 2
(B) 5/3 m/s 2
(C) 7/3 m/s 2
(D) 2 m/s 2
10. In a free space a rifle of mass M shoots a bullet of mass m at a stationary block
of mass M distance D away from it. W hen the bullet has moved through a
distance d towards the block the centre of mass of the bullet -block system is at
a distance of :
()
()
(A)
from the block
(B)
from the rifle
+
()
(C)
(D) none of these
+
11. A particle A of mass m is situated at highest point of wedge B of mass 2 m is
released from rest. Then distanced travelled by wedge B (W ith respect to
ground) when particle A reaches at lowest position. Assume all surfaces are
smooth.
(A) 4/3 cm
(B) 8/3 cm
(C) 2/3 cm
(D) none of these
12. An object A is dropped from rest from the top of a 30 m high building and at the
same moment another object B is projected vertically upwards with an initial
speed of 15 m/s from the base of the building. Mass of the object A is 2 kg while
mass of the object B is 4 kg. The maximum height above the ground level
attained by the centre of mass of the A and B system is ( take g = 10 m/s 2 )
(A) 15 m
(B) 25 m
(C) 30 m
(D) 35 m
13. A disc of mass m and radius R is placed on a smooth horizontal floor such that the plane
surface of the disc is in contact with the floor. A man of mass m/2 stands on the disc at its
periphery. The man starts walking along the periphery of the disc. The size of the man is
negligible as compared to the size of the disc. Then the centre of disc.
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(A) moves along a circle of radius

(C) moves along a circle of radius
(B) moves along a circle of radius
2
3
(D) does not move along a circle
14. Two men A and B are standing on a plank. B is at the middle of the plank
and A is the left end of the plank. System is initially at rest and masses are as
shown in figure. A and B starts moving such that the position of B remains
fixed with respect to ground thenA meets B. Then the point where A meets B
is located at :
40 kg
60 kg
40 kg
smooth
(fpd uh)
120 cm
(A) the middle of the plank

(B) 30cm from the left end of the plank
(C) the right end of the plank
(D) None of these
15. W hich of the following is incorrect ?
(A) If centre of mass of three particles is at rest, and i t is known that two of
them
are along different lines then the third particle must also be moving.
(B) If centre of mass remains at rest, then net work do ne by the forces acting on
the s ystem must be zero.
(C) If centre of mass remains at rest then net external force must be zero
(D) None of these statement is incorrect
16. A rigid system consists of two point masses, A and B of masses 1 kg and 2 kg respectively.
At an instant the kinetic energy of A with respect to the centre of mass is 2 Joules and the
velocity of centre of mass is 2 m/s. The kinetic energy of the system at this instant is :
(A) 9 J
(B) 11 J
(C) 13 J
(D) none of these
17. Two balls having mass 2 kg and 3 kg are approaching each other with velocities
3 m/s and 2 m/s respectively on the horizontal frictionless surface. They
undergo a head on elastic collision. Find out the maximum potential energy of
deformation.
(A) zero
(B) 12.5 J
(C) 15 J
(D) none of these
18. A ball of mass m moves towards a moving wall of infinite mass with a speed 'v' along the
normal to the wall. The speed of the wall is 'u' toward the ball. The speed of the ball after
elastic collision with wall is:
(A) u + v away from the wall
(B) 2u + v away from the wall
(C) | u v| away from the wall
(D) | v 2u | away from the wall
19. If a ball is dropped from rest, it bounces from the floor repeatedly. The coefficient of restitution
is 0.5 and the speed just before the first bounce is 5ms1. The total time taken by the ball to
come to rest finally is :
(A) 1.5s
(B) 1s
(C) 0.5s
(D) 0.25s
20. A particle A of mass m collides head on with another stationary particle B of the same mass
m.The kinetic energy lost by the colliding particle will be maximum if the coefficient of the
restitution is
(A) 1
(B) 0
(C) 0.5
(D) none
21. Two blocks A and B each of mass m are connected to a massless spring of
natural length L and spring constant K. The blocks are initiall y resting on a
smooth horizontal floor with the spring at its natural length as shown in the
figure. A third identical block C also of mass m moves on the floor with speed v
along the line joining A and B and collides elastically with A, then :
K
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(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
the K.E. of the A B system at maximum compression of the spring is zero

the K.E. of the A B system at maximum compression of the spring is mv 2 /4
the maximum compression of the spring is v
none of these
22. Three blocks A, B and C each of mass m are placed on a surface in the figure.
Block A is moving to the right with speed V. It collides with block B and sticks to
it. The A B combination collides elastically with block C. W hich of the
following statement(s)
is(are) true about the velocity of block B and C
.
(A)Velocity of the block C after collision is (2/3) V towards right
(B)Velocity of the A B combination after collision is (2/3) V towards right
(C)Velocity of the A B combination after collision is (2/3) V towards left
(D)Velocity of the block C after collision is (2/3) V towards left.
23. A body of mass 2 kg is projected up ward from the surface of the ground at t = 0 with a
velocity of 20 m/s. One second later a body B, also of mass 2 kg, is dropped from a
height of 20 m. If they collide elastically, then velocities just after collision are:
(A) V A = 5 m/s downward, V B = 5 m/s upward
(B) V A = 10 m/s do wnward, V B = 5 m/s upward
(C) V A = 10 m/s up ward, V B = 10 m/s downward
(D) both move downward with velocity 5 m/s
24. In an oblique elastic collision (on a horizontal smooth plane )of two equally massive objects
one of which is at rest before collision,
(A) velocities are exchanged
(B) kinetic energy of each body is conserved.
(C) The line of impact is the line along which that particle gets velocity which was initially at
rest.
(D) The two particles may move along a straight line after collision.
25. A particle of mass m is given initial speed u as shown in the figure. It transfers to the fixed
inclined plane without a jump, that is, its trajectory changes sharply from the horizontal line to
the inclined line. All the surfaces are smooth and 90 0. Then the height to which the
particle shall rise on the inclined plane (assume the length of the inclined plane to be very
large)
(A) increases with increase in

(C) is independent of
(B) decreases with increase in

(D) data insufficient
26. A particle initially at rest is constrained to move on a smooth horizontal surface. Another
identical particle hits the stationary particle with a velocity v at an angle = 60 with
horizontal. If the particles move together after the collision, the velocity of the combination just
after the impact is equal to
(A)
(B)
(C) v
(D)
3
2
4
27. Three particles each of mass m are located at the vertices of an equilateral
triangle ABC. They start moving with equal speeds v each along the medians of
the triangle & collide at its centroid G. If after collision, A comes to rest and B
retraces its path along GB, then C
(A) also comes to rest
(B) moves with a speed v along CG
(C) moves with a speed v along BG
(D) moves with a speed along AG.
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28. Two equal billiard balls are in contact on a table. A third ball of double radius
strikes them symmetrically and remains at rest after impact. The co efficient of
restitution is:
(A)
2
3
(B)
(C)
9
16
(D)
3
2
29. A disk moving on a frictionless horizontal table collides elastically with another
identical disk. The directions of motion of the two disks make angles and
with the initial line of motion. Then:
(A) = 30 0
(B) = 60 0
(C) = 30 0
(D) = 60 0
30. Two ball of same mass are dropped from the same height onto the floor. The
first ball bounces upwards from the floor elastically. The second ball sticks to
the floor. The first applies an impulse to the floor of I 1 and the second applies
an impulse I 2 . The impulses obey:
(A) I 2 = 2 I 1
(B) I 2 = I 1 /2
(C) I 2 = 4 I 1
(D) I 2 = I 1 /4
31. As shown in the figure, two cubes of equal mass are moving towards each other
on smooth surface with equal speed. Assuming totally elastic collision and time
interval of contact to be from t 0 to (t 0 + t), which of the following graph is the
correct representation.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
32. A particle of mass m = 1kg moves in a circle of radius R = 2m with uniform speed v = 3m/s.
The magnitude of impulse given by centripetal force to the particle in one second is
(A) Ns
(B) Ns
(C) 2 Ns
(D) 3 Ns
33. A 20 g bullet acquires a velocity of 600 m/s in a gun barrel which is 1.5 m long.
The force (assuming constant) exerted on the bullet is:
(A) 2400 N
(B) 1200 N
(C) 120 N
(D) 240 N
34. Two balls A and B having masses 1 kg and 2 kg, moving with speeds 21 m/s
and 4m/s respectively in opposite direction, collide head on. After collision A
moves with a speed of 1m/s in the sam e direction, then incorrect statement is:
(A)The velocity of B after collision is 6m/s opposite to the direction before
collision.
(B)The coefficient of restitution is 0.2.
(C)The loss of kinetic energy due to collision is 200 J.
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(D) The impulse of the for ce between the two balls is 40 Ns.
35. A ball of mass m moving with velocity + hits a vertical wall of infinite mass as shown
in the figure. The ball slips up along the wall for the duration of collision and there is friction
between the ball and the wall. Neglect the effect of gravity. Pick up the correct alternative.
y
m
x
(A)The wall provides the ball with net impulse along the negative x-axis for the duration of
collision.
(B)The collision changes only the x- component of velocity of the ball
(C)The collision changes only the y- component of velocity of the ball
(D)The impulse provided by frictional force to the ball for the duration of collision cannot be
neglected in comparison to impulse provided by normal reaction.
36. The given figure shows a plot of the time dependent force F x acting on a particle
in motion along the x-axis. W hat is the total impulse delivered by this force to
the particle from time t = 0 to t = 2second?
(A) 0
(B) 1 kg-m/s
(C) 2 kg-m/s
(D) 3 kg-m/s
37. A spherical ball is dropped in a long column of a viscous liquid. The speed of the ball
as a function of time may be best represented by the graph:
(a) a
(b) b
(c) c
(d) d
38. A piece of wood is taken deep inside a long column of water and released. It will
move up:
(a) With a constant upward acceleration
(b) With a decreasing upward acceleration
(c) With a deceleration
(D) With a uniform velocity
39. The breaking stress of a wire depends on:
(a) Material of the wire
(b)Length of the wire
(c) Radius of the wire
(d)Shape of the cross section
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40. A uniform heavy rod of weight W, cross-sectional area A and length L is hanging from
a fixed support. Young modulus of the material of the rod is Y. Neglect the lateral
contraction. The elongation of the rod will be:
(a) WL/AY
(b) WL/3AY
(c) WL 2/2AY
(d) WL/2AY
41.
If YA and YB be the youngs modulus of the material, then
(A)YA> YB
(B) YA< YB
(C) YA= YB
42. The dimensions of Poisson ratio is:
(D) data insufficient
(a) M L T
(b) ML1T 2
(c) ML2T 4
(d) ML2T 3
43. Elongation-load graph within elastic limit is shown in figure of three wires A, B and C made
of same material and of same length. The thickest wire is:
0 0
(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) none of the above
44. What will happen if a metal wire is stretched a little beyond its elastic limit (or yield point)
and released?
(A) It loses its elastic property completely
(B) It does not contract
(C) It contracts, but its final length will be greater than its initial length
(D) It contracts only up to its length at the elastic limit
45. Water is flowing in a river. If the velocity of a layer at a distance 10 cm from the bottom is 20
cm/s, the velocity of layer at a height of 40 cm from the bottom is:
(A) 10 m/s
(B) 20 cm/s
(C) 30 cm/s
(D) 80 cm/s
Chemistry
46. Given that standard heat enthalpy of CH4, C2H4 and C3H8 are 17.9, 12.5, 24.8 Kcal/mol.
The H for CH4 + C2H4 C3H8 is (A) 55.2 Kcal
(C) 55.2 Kcal
(B) 30.2 Kcal

(D) 19.4 Kcal
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CH3CHCH3
CH3
47. CH3 CH2 CH2 CH3 and
are :(A) Position isomers
(B) Chain isomers
(C) Chain and position isomer
(D) Functional group isomer
48. In an isothermal expansion of an ideal gas against vacuum, the work involved is :(A) Zero
(B) Maximum
(C) Minimum
(D) None of these
CHO
OHCCHCHCHCHO
CH3
CH3
49. IUPAC name of
is :(A) 2,3-Dimethyl propane-1,2,-3-propanetricarbaldehyde
(B) 2,3-Dimethyl propane-1,2,3-propanetrialdehyde
(C) Pentane-2,3,4-tricarbaldehyde
(D) None
50.
correct IUPAC name is :(A) 2,3-Dimethyl-2-Pentene
(B) 3,4-Dimethyl-3-Pentene
(C) 2,3-Dimethyl-2-hexene
(D) 3,4-Dimethyl-3-hexene
CH3
Cl is :51. IUPAC name of
(A) 3-Methyl-4-pentanol
(C) 3,3-Dimethyl-2-pentanol
(B) 3-Ethyl-3-methyl-2-butanol
(D) 2-Ethyl-3-methyl-2-butanol
52. One mole of a perfect gas expands isothermally & reversibelly to ten times of original
volume. The change in entropy is :(A) 0.1 R
(B) 10.0 R
(C) 2.303 R
(D) 100.0 R
53. Latent heat of vaporisation of a liquid at 500 K and 1 atm pressure is 15.0 Kcal/mol. What
will be the change in internal energy (E) of 3 mol of liquid at same temperature :(A) 42.0 Kcal
(B) 42.0 Kcal
(C) 27.0 Kcal
(D) 27.0 Kcal
54. In a reaction, H and S both are more than zero. In which of the following cases, the
reaction would not be spontaneous :(A) H > TS
(B) STotal < 0
(C) H = TS
(D) All
55. G for the reaction Ag2O2 Ag +O2 at a certain temperature is found do be 10.0 kJ mol1.
Which one of the following statement is correct at this temperature :(A) Silver oxide decomposes to give silver and oxygen
(B) Ag and O combine to form Ag2O
(C) The reaction is in equilibrium
(D) The reaction can neither occur in the forward direction nor in the backward direction.
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B, H = 4 Kcal mol1 S = 10 cal mol1 K1. Reaction is spontaneous at the

56. For A
temperature :(A) 400 K
(B) 300 K
(C) 500 K
(D) None
57. If E, R and D represent the tendency of minimum energy, tendency for maximum randomness
and overall driving force respectively and arrow represent the direction and magnitude of
these tendencies, choose the correct option applies to following reaction :2HgO (s) 2Hg () + O2(g)
E
E
R
R
D
D
(A)
(B)
E
R
D
E
R
D
(C)
(D)
58. A system whose temp. is 37C gives 10 kJ energy to the surrounding (300 K) then calculate
change in entropy for surrounding :(A) 0.033 kJ / mole k
(B) 0.033 kJ / mole k
(C) 0.032 kJ / mole k
(D) 0.032 kJ / mole k
59. If a gas absorbs 200 J of heat and expands by
500 cm3 against a constant pressure of 2 105 Nm2 then change in internal energy is :(A) 300 J
(B) 100 J
(C) +100 J
(D) +300 J
60. Which one is incorrect statement :(A) In open system mass and heat can exchange
(B)Pressure & temperature are intensive properties
(C) Work is not a state function
(D) Volume and density are extensive properties
61. A system absorbs 10 kJ of heat at constant volume and its temperature rises from 27C to
37C. The E of reaction is :(A) 100 kJ
(B) 10 KJ
(C) 10kJ
(D) Zero
62. Which one is true :(A) Reversible process, involves fast change
(B) Irreversible process, involves slow change
(C) Work done on the system is positive
(D) Heat absorbed by system is negative
63. The first law of thermodynamics states that :(A) The internal energy of a system is constant.
(B) The enthalpy of a system is constant
(C)There is equivalence between mass & energy
(D) The energy can neither be created nor destroyed
64. One mole of an ideal gas at 300 K is expanded isothermally from an initial volume of 1 lit. to
10 lit. The H for this process is
(R = 2 Cal K1 mol1) :(A) 163.7 Cal
(B) 1381.1 Cal
(C) 9 L atm
(D) Zero
65. Formation of SO3 from SO2 & O2,
SO2 (g)+ O2 (g)
SO3(g) is exothermic by 100 kJ at 298 K & 1 atm measured in bomb
calorimeter. H will be :(A) 101.23
(B) +101.23
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(C) 98.77
(D) 98.77
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66. For a reaction: Br2 () + Cl2 (g) 2BrCl (g) at 300 K, the value of H = 7 Kcal and S =
25 Cal K1. The free energy change is:(A) 500 Cal
(b) 7493 Cal
(c) 18 Kcal
(d) 150 Kcal
The following questions consists of two statements each, printed as Assertion and Reason.
While answering these questions you are to choose any one of the following four responses.
(A) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(B) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(C) If Assertion is true but the Reason is false.
(D) If Assertion & Reason both are false
67. Assertion : Absolute value of enthalpy can not be determined.
Reason: Enthalpy is defined as H = E + PV, and value of internal energy can not be
determined absolutely therefore absolute value of enthalpy can not be determined.
68. Assertion :When a rubber band is stretched entropy increases.
Reason : During expansion entropy increases.
69. Assertion : At constant pressure for the change H2O(s) H2O(g) work done is negative.
Reason: During phase transition work done is always negative.
70. Assertion : Enthalpy of graphite is lower than that of diamond.
Reason : Entropy of graphite is greater than that of diamond.
71. Assertion : The enthalpy of formation of gaseous oxygen molecules at 298 K and under a
pressure of one atm. is zero.
Reason : The entropy of formation of gaseous oxygen molecules under the same condition is
zero.
72. Assertion : Mass, Volume and pressure are extensive properties.
Reason : Extensive properties depend upon the amount of the substance.
73. Assertion: For a particular reaction, heat of combustion at constant pressure (qp) is always
greater than that at constant volume (qv).
Reason: Combustion reactions are invariably accomplished by increase in no. of moles.
74. Assertion: At constant temp 0 C and 1 atm, the change H2O(s) H2O(I) H and E both
are zero.
Reason : During isothermal process H and E both remains constant.
75. Assertion: The increase in internal energy (E) for the vaporization of one mole of water at 1
atm and 373 K is zero.
Reason : For all isothermal processes E=0
76. Assertion: In an isolated system the entropy increases.
Reason : The processes in an isolated system are adiabatic.
77. Assertion : C3O2 has linear structure.
Reason : Each C atom in C3O2 is sp-hybridised.
78. Consider the reaction: N2 + 3H2 2NH3 carried out at constant temperature and pressure. If
H and U are the enthalpy and internal energy changes for the reaction, which of the
following expressions is true ?
(A) H < U
(B) H > U
(C) H = 0
(D) H = U
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79. If the bond dissociation energies of XY, X2 and Y2 (all diatomic molecules) are in the ratio
of 1 : 1 : 0.5 and fH for the formation of XY is 200 kJ mol1. The bond dissociation
energy of X2 will be [AIEEE-2005]
(A) 200 kJ mol1 (B) 100 kJ mol1
(C) 800 kJ mol1
(D) 300 kJ mol1
80. The enthalpy of combustion of methane at 25C is 890 KJ. The heat liberated when 3.2 g of
methane is burnt in air is (A) 278 KJ
(B) 445 KJ
(C) 178 KJ
(D) 890 KJ
81. An ideal gas expands in volume from 1 103 m3 to 1 102 m3 at 300 K against a
constant pressure of 1 105 Nm2. The work done is
(A) 270 KJ
(B) 900 KJ
(C) 900 J
(D) 900 KJ
82. For a spontaneous process the correct statement is [AIIMS2006]
(A) Entropy of the system always increase
(B) Free energy of the system always increases
(C) Total entropy change is always negative
(D) Total entropy change is always positive
83. The enthalpy change (H) for the reaction, N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g) is 92.38 KJ at 298 K.
84.
85.
86.
87.
The internal energy change U at 298 K is [AIIMS-2006]

(A) 92.38 KJ
(B) 87.42 KJ
(C) 97.34 KJ
(D) 89.9 KJ
When you make ice cubes, the entropy of water [AIIMS-2006]
(A) Does not change
(B) Increases
(B) Decreases
(D) May either increase or decrease depending on the process used
For the reaction of one mole of zinc dust with one mole of suphuric acid in a bomb
calorimeter, U and w correspond to [AIIMS-2005]
(A) U < 0, w = 0
(B) U < 0, w < 0
(C) U > 0, w = 0
(D) U > 0, w > 0
The enthalpy of hydrogenation of cyclohexene is 119.5 KJ mol1. If resonance energy of
benzene is 150.4 KJ mol1, its enthalpy of hydrogenation would be [AIPMT-2006]
1
1
1
(A) 508.9 KJ mol
(B) 208.1 KJ mol
(C) 269.9 KJ mol
(D) 358.5 KJ mol1
The absolute enthalpy of neutralisation of the reaction :
[AIPMT-2005]
MgO(s) + 2HCl(aq)
MgCl2(aq) + H2O() will be (A) 57.33 kJ mol1
(B) 57.33 kJ mol1
(C) Greater than 57.33 kJ mol1

(D) Less than 57.33 kJ mol1
88. A hypothetical reaction , A 2B, proceed through following sequence of steps A C; H = q1
C D; H = q2
D B; H = q3
The heat of reaction is :
(A) q1 q2 + 2q3 (B) q1+ q2 2q3
(C) q1 + q2 + 2q3
(D) q1 + 2q2 2q3
89. The dipole moment of NH3 is:

(A) Less than dipole moment of NCl3
(B) Higher than dipole moment of NCl3
(C) Equal to the dipole moment of NCl3
(D) None of these
90. The figure indicates the energy levl diagram for the origin of six spectral lines in emission
spectrum (e.g. line no. 5 arises from the transition from level B to X) which of the following
spectral lines will not occur in the absorption spectrum :
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1 2 3 4 5 6
(A) 1, 2, 3
C
B
X
A
(B) 3, 2
(C) 4, 5, 6
(D) 3, 2, 1
Biology
1. Secretin hormone is produced in
(a) Stomach and stimulates gastric glands
(b) Intestine and stimulates Pancreatic glands
(c) Liver and stimulates gall bladder
(d) Intestine and stimulates crypts of lieberkuhn
2. The cells of the epithelial lining in the vertebrate stomach are not damaged by HCl
because of
(a) Mucus secretion covering the epithelium
(b) Neutrilizatioin of HCl by alkaline gastric juice
(c) HCl being to dilute
(d)Crypts of Lieberkuhn
3. Which one is differ from the category of other three
(a) Gastrin
(b) Glucagon
(c)Secretin
(d) Ptyalin
4. The hormone involved in the discharge of pancreatic juice in mammal is called
(a) Gastrin
(b) Secretin
(c)Secretin&CCK
(d) Enterogastrin
5. Pernicious anaemia is caused by deficiency of vitamin
(a) C
(b) B1
(c)B12
(d) B6
6. The structure which prevents entry of food into wind pipe during swallowing in
mammals is
(a) Larynx
(b) Glottis
(c)Epiglottis
(d) Pharynx
7. Which pairing is not correct
(a) Vit D-rickets
(b) Vit K-Sterlity
(c) Thiamine-Beri-Beri
(d)Niacin-Pellagra
8. Which of the following pair is characterised by swollen lips, thick pigmented skin of
hands and legs and irritability (a) Thiamine-Beri-Beri
(b) Protein-Kwashiorkor
(c) Nicotinamide-Pellagra
(d) lodine-goitre
9. Cholecystokinin is secretion of
(a) Duodenum that causes contraction of gall bladder
(b) Goblet cells of ileum stimulates secretion of succus entericus
(c) Liver and controls secondary sex characters
(d) Stomach that stimulates pancreas to release juice
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10. Vit K is a required for

(a) Change of Prothrombin to thrombin
(b) Synthesis of Prothrombin
(c) Change of Fibrinogen to Fibrin
(d)Formation of thromboplastin
11. Inhibition of gastric and stimulation of gastric, Pancreatic and bile secretion are
controlled by
(a) Gastrin, secretin, Enterokinin and CCK
(b) Enterogasterone, gastrin, pancreozymin and CCK
(c) Gastrin, Enterogasterone, CCK and pancreozymin
(d) Secretin, Enterogasterone, Secretin and enterokinin
12. Lacteals take part (a) Digestion of Milk
(b)Absorption of fat
(c) Digestion of lactic acid
(d)None of the above
13. Dermatitis, diarrhoea and dementia are seen in deficiency of : (a) Thiamine
(b) Riboflavin
(c)Niacin
(d) Folate
14. In mammals milk is digested by action of :

(a) Rennin
(b)Amylase
(c)Intestinal bacteria
(d)Invertase
15. Which food should be eaten in deficiency of Rhodopsin in eyes (a) Carrot & ripe papaya
(b) Guava, banana
(c) Mango & Potato
(d) None
16. Which one correctly matched : (a) Vit. E Tocopherole
(b) Vit. D Riboflavin
(c) Vit. B Calciferole
(d)Vit. A Thiamine
17. Fluoride pollution mainly affects : (a) Brain
(b) Heart
(c)Teeth
(d) Kidney
18. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched :

(a) Vitamin C Scurvy
(b) Vitamin B2 Pellagra
(c) Vitamin B12 Pernicious anaemia
(d) Vitamin B6 Beriberi
19. Which one of the following mineral elements plays an important role in biological
nitrogen fixation : (a) Copper
(b) Manganese
(c)Zinc
(d) Molybdenum
20. Stool of a person contain whitish grey colour due to malfunction of which type of
organ : (a) Pancreas
(b) Spleen
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(c)Duodenum
(d) Ileum
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21. Injury to vagus nerve in humans is not likely to affect (a) Gastrointestinal movement
(b) Pancreatic secretion
(c) Cardiac movements
(d) Tongue movements
22. Brunner's gland are found in which of the following layers :

(a) Submucosa of stomach
(b) Mucosa of ileum
(c) Submucosa of duodenum
(d) Mucosa of oesophagus
23. The toxic substance are detoxicated in the human body by :

(a) Lungs
(b) Kidney
(c)Liver
(d) Stomach
24. Concentration of urine depends upon which organ

(a) Bowman's capsule
(b) Length of Henle's loop
(c) P.C.T.
(d) Network of capillaries arising from glomerulus
25. If henle's loop were absent from mammalian nephron, which of the following is to
be expected
(a) There will be no urine formation
(b) There wil be hardly any change in the quality and quntity of urine formed
(c) The urine will be more concentrated
(d) The urine will be more dilute
26. Correct order of excretory organs in Cockroach, Earthworm and Rabbit respectively(a) Skin, malpighi tubules, kidney
(b) Malpighi tubules, nephridia, kidney
(c) Nephridia, malpighi tubules, kidney
(d)Nephridia, kidney, green gland
27. Which one does not filter out from blood to Bowmans capsule in glomerular
ultrafiltration
(a) Amino acids
(b) Polypeptide
(c) Glucose
(d)Fatty acids
28. Which one of the following body functions is not performed by kidneys
(a) Excretion
(b) Osmoregulation
(c) Regulation of blood volume
(d) Detruction of dead blood copuscles
29. Which of the following is excreted in mammals in the form of nitrogen
(a) Ammonium ion (b) Ammonia
(c) Uric acid
(d) Urea
30. The net pressure gradient that causes the fluid to filter out of the glomeruli into the
glomeruli into the capsule is
(a) 20 mm Hg
(b) 50 mm Hg
(c) 75 mm Hg
(d) 30 mm Hg
31. Whic one of the following blood vessel in mammals contains least amound of urea
(a) Hepatic portal vein
(b) Hepatic vein
(c) Dorsal aorta
(d) Renal vein
32. A person who is on a long hunger strike and is surviving only on water, will have : (a) Less urea in his urine
(b) More sodium in his urine
(c) Less amino acids in his urine
(d) More glucose in his blood
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33. Water reabsorption in the distal parts of kidney tubules is regulated by :

(a) STH
(b) TSH
(c) ADH
(d) MSH
34. Due to insufficient filtration in the Bowmans capsule, all are likely to happen except
(a) Accumulation of fluid in the body
(b) Increase in blood pressure
(c) Incrase in blood urea level
(d) Loss of glucose through urine
35. The appearance of albumin in the urine is most likely due to :
(a) Increase in the blood pressure
(b) Decrease in the blood osmotic pressure
(c) Damage to the Malpighian corpuscles
(d) Damage to the proximal convoluted tubules
36. Urinary excretion of Na is regulated by :
(a) Anterior pituitary
(b) Posterior pitultary
(c) Anrenal cortex
(d) Adrenal medulla
37. Kidney crystals are solid clusters of :
(a) Calcium nitrate and uric acid
(b) Phosphate and uric acid
(c) Clacium carbonate and uric acid
(d) Calcium metabisulphite and uric acid
38. The yellow colour of urine of vertebrates is due to :
(a) Cholesterol
(b) Urochrome
(c) Uric acid
(d) Melanin
39. Which one of the four parts mentioned below does not constitute a part of a single
uriniferous tubule:
(a) Bowmans capsule
(b) Distal convoluted tubule
(c) Loop of Henle
(d) Collecting duct
40. Diuresis s a specific pathological condition which lead to :
(a) Increased volume of urine excretion
(b) Decreased volume of urine excretion
(c) Increased glucose excretion
(d) Decreased electrolyte concentration
41. Which one of the following pair of waste substances is removed from blood in
ornithine cycle :
(a) CO2 and urea
(b) Ammonia and urea
(c) CO2 and ammonia
(d) Urea and sodium salt
42. Maximum basorption of water in mammals is in :

(a) Lunge
(b) Skin
(c) Kidneys
43. The term haematuria is used to describe :
(a) Internal bleeding
(b) Blood in urine
(c) Blood cancer
(d) Blood poisoning
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(d) Small intestine
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44. Which of the following is not a function of kidneys :

(a) Regulation of blood pressure
(b) Removal of urea
(c) Regulation of acidity of fluids
(d)Secretion of antibiotics
45. In the kidney, the formation of urine involve the following processes arranged as
(a) Glomerular filtration, reabsorption and tubular secretion
(b) Reabsoption, filtration and secretion
(c) Secretion, absorption and filtration
(d) Filtration, secretion and reabsorption
46. The urine of man suffering from Diabetes insipidus is :
(a) Sweaty and watery
(b) Sweaty and thick
(c) Tasteless and watery
(d) Tasteless and thick
47. Anadvntage of excreting nitrogenous wastes in the form of uric acid is that :
(a) Uric acid can be excreted in almost solid form
(b) The formation of uric acid requires a great deal of energy
(c) Uric and is the first metabolic breakdown products of acids
(d) Uric acid may be excreted through the lungs
48. Which of the following is correct :
(a) Afferent arteriole is narrower than efferent arteriole
(b) Afferent venule is narrower than efferent venule
(c) Efferent arteriole is narrower than afferent arteriole
(d) Efferent venule is narrower than afferent venule
49. What for the ascending limb of Loop of Henle is permeable
(a) Glucose
(b) NH3
(c) Na+
(d) Water
50. Why do we pass more urine in wet and cold season?
(a) Impairment of water absorption by nephrons
(b)Kidney becomes mor active
(c) Sweating is much reduced
(d) ADH seretion is increased
51. Aquatic reptiles are
(a) Ammonotelic
(b) Ureotelic over land
(c) Ureotelic
(d) Ureotelic in water
52. If Henle's loop were absent from mammalian nephron. Which of the following is to
be expected
(a) The urine will be more in volume
(b) There will be no urine formation
(c) There will be hardly any change in the quality and quantity of urine formed
(d) The urine will be more concentrated
53. All Bowman's capsules of the kidney are found in
(a) Cortex
(b) Medulla
(c) Pelvis
(d) None of these
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54. A conditon of failure of kidney to form urine to form urine is caled

(a) Deamination
(b) Entropy
(c) Anuria
(d) None of these
55. Two examples in which the nitrogenous wastes are excreted from body in the form
of uric acid are
(a) Birds and lizards
(b) Mammals and mollusc
(c) Insects and bony fishes
(d) frogs and cartilaginous fishes
56. In micturition
(a) Uretha relaxes
(b) Ureter contracts
(c) Ureter relaxex
(d) Urethra contracts
57. What is the characteristic of metanephric kidney
(a) Hypotonic urine production
(b) Excess secretion of uric acid
(c) Loop of Henle
(d) Hormone production
58. Which one do not filter out from blood to bowman's capsule in glomerular
utrafiltration
(a) Amino acids
(b) Polypeptide
(c) Glucose
(d)Fatty acids
59. Which type of kidney are found in adult amphibian
(a) Holonephric
(b) Mesonephric
(c) Pronephric (d) Metanephric
60. Which one of the following body functions is not performed by kidneys
(a) Excretion
(b) Osmoregulation
(c) Regulation of blood volume
(d) Destruction of dead blood corpuscles
61. Which of the following are uricotelic animals
(a) Rohu and frog
(b) Lizard and crow
(c) Camel and frog
(d) Earthworm and eagle
62. Marine teleosts, undergoing putrefaction, emit sharp characteristic foul odour,
which is due to the production of
(a) Trimethylamine
(b) Hydrogen sulphide
(c) Ammonia
(d) Lactic Acid
63. Fresh water bony fishes maintain water balance by
(a) Excreting a hypotonic urine
(b) Excreting salt across their gills
(c) Drinking small amount of water
(d) Excreting wastes in the form of uric acid
64. Which is mismatched
(a) Bowman's capsule-Glomerular filteration(b) PCT-Absorption of Na+ and K+
(c) DCT-Absorption of glucose
65. Duct of Bellini opens on
(a) Collecting duct
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(d) None of these

(b) Ureter
(c) Renal papilla
(d) DCT
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66. Bulk of carbon dioxide (CO2) released from

body tissues into the blood is present as :
(a) carbamino-haemoglobin in RBCs
(b) bicarbonate in blood plasma and RBCs
(c) Free CO2 in blood plasma
(d) 70% carbamino-haemoglobin and 30% as bicarbonate
67. Which one of the following is a possibility for most of us in regard to breathing , by
making a conscious effort ?
(a) The lungs can be made fully empty by forcefully breathings out all air from them
(b) One can breathe out air totally without oxygen
(c) One can breathe out air through Eustachian tubes by closing both the nose and
the mouth.
(d) one can consciously breathe in and breathe out by moving the diaphragm alone,
without moving the ribs at all.
68. During hibernation period, frogs respiration is
(a) cutaneous
(b) pulmonary
(c) pharyngeal
(d) buccopharyngeal
69. In alveolar air, the partial pressure of CO2 is
(a) 40 mm of Hg
(b) 42 mm of Hg
(c) 44 mm of Hg
(d) 46 mm of Hg
70. Respiratory centre in brain occurs in
(a) Medulla oblongata
(b) Cerebellm
(c) Hypothalamus
(d) Pericardium
71. Why is CO poisonous for man
(a) CO affects the nerves of the lungs
(b) CO affects the diaphragm and intercostal muscles
(c)CO reacts with oxygen reducing percentage of O2 in air
(d) haemoglobin combines with CO instead O2 and the product cannot dissociate
72. After deep inspiration, capacity of maximum expiration of lung is called
(a) Total lung capacity
(b) Functional residual capicity
(c) Vital capacity
(d) Inspiratory capacity
73. Adams Apple represents
(a) Arytenoid cartilage of larynx
(b) Cricoid cartilage of larynx
(c) Thyroid cartilage of larynx
(d) All the above
74. Hiccough (Hiccup) is due to activity of
(a) Intercostal muscle
(b) Food in air tract
(c) Diaphragm
(d) Inadequate oxygne in environment
75. During inspiration, air passes into lungs due to
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(a) increase in volume of thoracic cavity and fall in lung pressure

(b) fall in pressure inside the lungs
(c) increased volume of thoracic cavity
(d)muscular expansion of lungs
76. Expiratory muscles contract at the time of
(a) deep inspiration
(b)normal inspiration and expiration
(c) forceful expiration
(d)normal expiration
77. People living at sea level have around 5 million RBCs per cubic millimeter of their
blood whereas those living at an altitude of 5400 meters have around 8 million. This
is because at high altitude
(a) people get pollution-free air to breath and more oxygen is available
(b) atmospheric O2 level is less and hence, more RBCs are needed to absorb the
required amount of O2 to survive
(c) there is more UV radiation which enhances RBC production
(d) people eat more nutritive food, therefore, more RBCs are formed
78. Blood analysis of a patient reveals an unusually high quantity of carboxyhaemoglobin
content. Which of the following conclusions is most likely to be correct? The patient
has been inhailing polluted air containing usually high content of
(a) Carbon disulphide
(b)Chloroform
(c) Carbon dioxide
(d)Carbon monoxide
79. All arteries carry oxygenated blood except
(a) Hepatic artery
(b) Renal artery
(c) Pulmonary artery
(d) Cardiac artery
80. A person with unknown blood group under ABO system, has suffered much blood
loss in an accident and needs immediate blood transfusion. His one friend who has a
valid certificate of his own blood type, offers for blood donation without delay. What
would have been the type of blood group of the donor friend ?
(a) Type A
(b) Type B
(c) Type AB
(d) Type O
81. Arteries are best defined as the vessel which :
(a) carry blood from one visceral organ to another visceral organ]
(b) supply oxygenated blood to the different organs
(c) carry blood away from the heart to different organs
(d) break up into capillaries which reunite to form a vein
82. Which one of the following plasma proteins is involved in the coagulation of blood ?
(a) Fibrinogen
(b) an albumin
(c) serum amylase
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(d) a globulin
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83. Which one of the following statements is correct regarding blood pressure :
(a) 190/110 mm Hg may harm vital organs like brain and kidney
(b) 130/90 mm Hg is considered high and requires treatment
(c) 100/55 mm Hg is considered an ideal blood pressure
(d) 105/50 mm Hg makes one very active
84. Given below is the ECG of a normal human. Which one of its components is correctly
interpreted below ?
(a) Peak P-Initiation of left atrail contraction only

(b) Complex QRS-One complete pulse
(c) Peak T-Initiation of total cardiac contraction
(d) Peak P and Peak together-systolic and diastolic blood pressures
85. Heart has to pump blood more forcefully in older persons due to
(a)Increased elasticity of arteries
(b)Decreased elasticity of artieries
(c)Decreased efficiency of heart
(d)Increased efficiency of heart
86. Wall of blood capillary is
(a)Single layered
(c)Multilayrered but differentialted into 3 coats
(b)Multilayered
(d)Noncellular
87. Wall of blood capillary is made of

(a)Parietal cells
(b)Muscle cells
(c)Transitional cells
(d)Endothelial cells
88. The sound of lubb is produced during closure of
(a)Bicuspid valve
(b)Tricuspid valve
(c)Semilunar valve
(d)Both (a)and (b)
89. The largest and the thickest heart chamber is
(a)Left ventricle
(b)Left atrium
(c)Right atrium
(d)Right ventricle
90. Most fatal thrombosis leading to myocardial infarction is of
(a)Right circumflex coronary artery
(b)Right coronary artery
(c)Left anterior descending artery
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(d)Left circumflex coronary artery

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Please Read Instructions carefully before attempting questions.

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lies at midpoint A of segment QT. Then the ratio of is (PQ = PT = b; QR = RS

(D) none of these

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(A) moves along a circle of radius

(B) moves along a circle of radius

(D) does not move along a circle

(A) the middle of the plank

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the K.E. of the A B system at maximum compression of the spring is zero

(A) increases with increase in

(B) decreases with increase in

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42. The dimensions of Poisson ratio is:

(D) data insufficient

(D) none of the above

(B) 30.2 Kcal

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B, H = 4 Kcal mol1 S = 10 cal mol1 K1. Reaction is spontaneous at the

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The internal energy change U at 298 K is [AIIMS-2006]

(B) 57.33 kJ mol1

(C) Greater than 57.33 kJ mol1

(D) q1 + 2q2 2q3

89. The dipole moment of NH3 is:

(B) Higher than dipole moment of NCl3

(C) Equal to the dipole moment of NCl3

(D) None of these

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10. Vit K is a required for

(b) Synthesis of Prothrombin

(c) Change of Fibrinogen to Fibrin

(c) Digestion of lactic acid

(d)None of the above

14. In mammals milk is digested by action of :

(b) Guava, banana

(c) Mango & Potato

16. Which one correctly matched : (a) Vit. E Tocopherole

(b) Vit. D Riboflavin