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ABDULKAREEM SABBAGH
TRAINEE NAME: ________________________________________________
COURSE LAYOUT
SUBJECT
PAGE
DAY 1
Introduction
DAY 2
1
5
7
DAY 3
13
17
21
27
DAY 4
31
33
39
43
DAY 5
Approach Procedures
VOR and NDB Approaches
ILS Approaches
Airport Charts
49
53
61
65
DAY 6
Weather Factors
Weather Hazards
Weather Charts Exercises
Reading Material
75
81
85
89
DAY 7
Emergency Procedures
IFR Emergencies
C.R.M
97
99
103
DAY 8
Aerodynamics
Performance
Weight and Balance
107
109
121
DAY 9
Exam
Exam Review
DAY 10
_____ Absolute altitude is the actual height of the airplane above ground level.
_____ A green arc on the face of an altimeter indicates normal cruise altitude.
_____ True altitude is the actual height of the airplane above sea level.
_____ An altimeter cannot be used to find pressure altitude.
_____ Magnetic Dip is virtually nonexistent near the North and South poles.
_____ FAR 91.205 includes instrument and equipment requirement for VFR and IFR flight.
_____ The reliability of the heading indicator and the attitude indicator can be affected by low vacuum
pressure.
13. A pilot changes the altimeter setting from 28.50 to 28.90 while flying at an altitude of 6,500 feet, what will the
altimeter indicate after the change in setting? ___________ ft.
14. To legally operate under IFR in controlled airspace, your aircrafts static system must have been inspected
within the preceding ______ calendar months.
15. The force that keeps a spinning gyro in a fixed position and resistant to external forces is known as
_________________________________________________.
16. It takes ______ seconds to make a standard rate turn to the right from a heading of 030 to a heading of 120
degrees.
17. The rate of turn varies with changes in true airspeed and _____________.
18. What happens to the radius of turn, if airspeed is increased in a constant banked turn?
(increased/decreased).
19. A good quality magnet will always point to true North when suspended freely _____ (True/False).
20. In the northern hemisphere an aircraft is decelerating while on a Southerly heading, which way will the
compass needle turn? _______________________.
21. Which flight instrument is not required for flight under IFR? ________________.
22. The ball in the inclinometer of a turn coordinator shows the _________ of a turn.
23. The reliability of the heading indicator and the attitude indicator can be affected by low vacuum pressure.
______ (True/False).
24. The only direction seeking instrument in most small aircraft is the____________.
25. The angular distance between the true and magnetic poles is called __________.
26. To correct for magnetic deviation, you should use the _____________________.
27. Acceleration and deceleration errors are most apparent on headings of _______and ________.
28. Turning errors are most apparent when are turning to or from heading of _______ and ________.
29. The three instruments that operate on the principle of differential pressure are the airspeed indicator, vertical
speed indicator and the ____________________.
30. The only pitot-static instrument that uses pitot pressure is the ______________.
31. Match the type of airspeed with the appropriate definition
Mach ___ TAS ___ IAS ___ CAS ___ EAS ___
1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
----
Absolute altitude
A.
2)
3)
4)
----------
Density altitude
Indicated altitude
Pressure Altitude
B.
C.
D.
5)
----
True altitude
E.
1. The fundamental instrument flying skill that requires a logical and systematic observation of the instrument
panel is
1) Cross-check.
2) Visualization.
3) Interpretation.
2. A common instrument scanning error that occurs when you stare at a single instrument is
_______________________________.
3. Failing to include pertinent instruments in your scan, you are forming the habit of
1) Omission.
2) Deviation.
3) Elimination.
4. The fundamental instrument flying skill that results from proper cross-check and adequate instrument
interpretations is _____________________________.
5. The conditions that determine the pitch attitude required to maintain level flight are
1) Total lift, total drag, and thrust.
2) Airspeed, air density, and aircraft weight.
3) Angle of attack, wind direction, and flight path.
6. In addition to the attitude indicator, the pitch instruments include the
1) Altimeter and airspeed indicator only.
2) Altimeter and vertical speed indicator only.
3) Altimeter, airspeed indicator, and vertical speed indicator.
7. Which is normally considered to be the primary pitch instrument during straight and level flight
1) Altimeter.
2) Attitude indicator.
3) Airspeed indicator.
8. Which instrument is primary for bank control during straight and level flight?
1) Turn coordinator.
2) Magnetic Compass.
3) Heading Indicator.
9. The primary power instrument during straight and level flight is the
1) Tachometer.
2) Airspeed indicator.
3) Manifold pressure gauge.
10. ____ (True, False) Since pitch and power are closely related, adjustment of one usually requires an
appropriate adjustment of the other.
11. The rate of a turn varies with changes in true airspeed and ________________.
12. At any given airspeed, your rate of turn depends on the
1) Centrifugal force.
2) Vertical component of lift.
3) Horizontal component of lift.
13. After reducing power to decrease airspeed in level turn, you must _________ (increase, decrease) the angle
of attack, and/or __________ (increase, decrease) the angle of bank to maintain altitude.
14. As you approach the desired altitude during a climb or descent, the number of feet you should normally use
to lead the level of is approximately _______ % of the vertical speed.
15. When you recover from an unusual attitude without the aid of an attitude indicator, you know you have
passed through a level pitch attitude when the
1) Heading indicator stops moving.
2) Vertical speed indicator shows a zero rate of climb.
3) Altimeter and airspeed needles stop and reverse direction.
16. If the vacuum system fails, leaving you without the attitude indicator and heading indicator, the
_____________ becomes the primary bank instruments.
INSTRUMENT NAVIGATION
Answer the following questions and provide a reference to each answer unless the answer is provided from the
chart/approach plate or a graph:
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1. When ATC issues a clearance, regulations specify that you should not
1) Deviate from it under any circumstances.
2) Deviate from it except in an emergency or unless an amended clearance is received.
3) Comply with it if it does not agree with the information in your flight plan.
2. A TCAS resolution advisory permits you to
1) Deviate from a clearance in response to the TCAS advisory.
2) Deviate from any clearance.
3) Obtain priority over other traffic.
3. ATC gives your aircraft priority because of an emergency, you may be required to
1) Notify the FAA immediately, and following it up with a written report.
2) Submit a report only if the emergency involved your aircraft.
3) Submit a written report within 48 hours to the manager of that ATC facility.
4. Which type of airborne equipment provides traffic advisories and resolution advisories?
1) TCAS I.
2) TCAS II.
3) TCAD.
5. How does TCAS airborne equipment work?
1) It interrogates transponders of other aircraft nearby.
2) It receives and displays signals from ATC radar facilities on the ground.
3) It receives and displays traffic data relayed from satellites in space.
6. You are flying in VMC condition on an IFR flight plan, and you are in controlled airspace in radar contact.
You are
1) Required to see and avoid all traffic.
2) Required to see and avoid only VFR traffic.
3) Not required to see and avoid Traffic, since ATC is responsible for Separation.
7. When you are climbing to your assigned cruising altitude, ATC expects you
1) Climb at an average rate of 1000 feet per minute.
2) Climb at a rate of at least 500 feet per nautical miles.
3) Maintain a continuous rate of climb of at least 500 feet per minute.
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8. When you are climbing to your assigned cruising altitude, you should climb at
1) Best rate to within 500 ft of your assigned altitude.
2) An optimum rate to within 1000 ft of your assigned altitude.
3) Best angle to within 10% of your climb rate below your assigned altitude.
9. When climbing or descending on an airway, you should maintain the
1) Right-hand side of the airway.
2) Centerline of the airway, except when maneuvering to avoid traffic.
3) Centerline of the airway, except when changing course more than 30.
10. You may cancel an IFR flight plan any time you are operating in
1) VFR conditions, if you have the destination airport or preceding traffic in sight.
2) Controlled airspace in radar environment, regardless of weather conditions.
3) VFR conditions outside class A airspace.
11. You must have filed an IFR flight plan and received an ATC clearance prior to
1) Entering controlled airspace in IMC conditions.
2) Entering Class A, B, or C airspace in any weather conditions.
3) Flight in any class of airspace in IMC conditions.
12. The clearance limit in your ATC clearance is not your destination airport, then you
1) Should receive and expect further clearance (EFC) time in the ATC clearance.
2) Must hold at the clearance limit until a further clearance is received.
3) Should refuse the clearance and request an amended clearance to the destination.
13. ATC will issue SID or STAR instructions as part of an ATC clearance
1) Only if the pilot requests them in the IFR flight plan.
2) At all times when the Sid (or STAR) serves the route specified in the clearance.
3) Unless the pilot states No SID/STAR in the flight plan.
14. A CRUISE clearance authorizes you to fly at any altitude from the
1) Minimum IFR altitude up to and including the assigned altitude.
2) Assigned altitude up to and including the maximum IFR altitude.
3) Minimum IFR altitude up to and including the maximum IFR altitude.
15. An example of an ABBREVIATED departure clearance is
1) Cleared to Dallas, V76 Nashville, V258, maintain one six thousand.
2) Cleared to Dallas as filed, maintain one six thousand.
3) Cleared to Dallas, V76 Nashville, V2578.
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16. A VFR-ON-TOP clearance issued to a pilot on an IFR flight authorizes that pilot to fly in
1) VMC conditions at an appropriate VFR cruising altitude.
2) VMC at an IFR altitude, and in IMC at a VFR altitude.
3) VMC conditions at an appropriate IFR cruising altitude.
17. A VFR-ON-Top clearance can only be assigned by ATC if
1) ATC considers it appropriate, whether or not the pilot requests it.
2) Broken or overcast sky cover is reported below, but not above, the cruising altitude requested in the
IFR flight plan.
3) It has been requested by the pilot, and suitable conditions exist.
18. You have filed an IFR flight plan. ATC issues you a clearance to climb to VFR ON-TOP in your clearance,
you should expect
1) an ATC request to report reaching your assigned altitude.
2) an ATC request to report reaching VFR-ON-TOP, but no specific altitude assignment.
3) No clearance limit, since ATC expects you to descend and land under VFR.
19. If ATC states CLEARED FOR APPROACH, you are authorized to conduct
1) The approach procedure of your choice at your destination airport.
2) A non precision approach at your destination, but not a precision approach.
3) A visual approach to the active landing runway at your destination.
20. CONTACT approach must be
1) Used in lieu of a visual approach, with the same minimums, when the pilot has the airport, or
preceding traffic in sight.
2) Assigned by ATC, if ground visibility is at least 1 sm.
3) Requested by the pilot and approved by ATC, if ground visibility is at least 1 sm.
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1. Assume that the reported weather conditions at the time of departure are 2,000 feet broken, 15 miles
visibility, and the wind is calm. If the climb performance of your airplane is determined to be 200 feet per
nautical mile, you should plan runway _________ for departure.
2. When filing your flight plan, what code should you enter on the flight plan for the Border SIX Departure with
Julian Transition?
1)
2)
3)
4)
BRDR6.0
BRDR6.BROWS.JLI.
BRDR6.JLI.
BRDR6.IPL
3. When departing runway 27, you initially fly a _______ heading until PGY 19 DME.
4. If you have filed for the Border SIX Departure, Imperial Transition, the basic portion of the departure
procedure ends at the
1)
2)
3)
4)
POGGI VORTAC.
Brows Intersection.
25 mile DME fix on the 069 radial of the POGGI VORTAC.
Imperial VORTAC.
25 n.m.
36 n.m.
64 n.m.
75 n.m.
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9. If you choose to fly the departure procedure to the Brows Intersection, what is the appropriate code to enter
in your IFR flight plan?
1)
2)
3)
4)
BRDR6.
BRDR6. PGG11.
BRDR6.BROWS.
BRDR6.JLI.
10. The Border SIX Departure is a pilot NAV procedure, you can expect the initial altitude to be
1)
2)
3)
4)
11. The greatest distance a weather observer or tower personanel can see throughout one-half the horizon is
called ___________________.
12. The visibility determined for a particular runway by a device, called a transmissometer, located near the
runway is called ______________________.
13. What is Runway Visual Range?
__________________________________________________________________________.
14. List two of departure options
1) _____________________________.
2) _____________________________.
15. (True/False) During the IFR departure, you should not contact departure control until advised to do so by the
tower.
16. (True/False) Radar Contact is used by ATC to advise you that your aircraft has been identified and radar
flight following will be provided until radar identification has been terminated.
17. (true/false) Resume own navigation is a phrase used by ATC to advise you to assume responsibility for
your own navigation.
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13. If an MCA is designated at a fix for your direction of flight, then you
1) Can climb on reaching the fix.
2) Are guaranteed 2000 ft of obstacle clearance at the fix.
3) Must climb before the fix so as to arrive at the fix at or above the MCA.
14. The symbol is used to designated a changeover point (COP)
1) Which is not exactly midway between Navaids.
2) Which is exactly midway between Navaids.
3) When DME is not available for navigation.
15. How would you know that a particular Navaid facility provides HIWAS or TWEB?
1) The acronym is placed above the Navaid facility box on the chart.
2) There is a small square in the upper left-hand corner of the chart facility box.
3) The Navaid facility box on the chart has a shadow.
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16. Your route of flight crosses a line which looks like this
your flight you can expect to
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Answer each question by using the Jeppesen ME (H/L) 15/16 enroute chart provided.
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FOR ALL REMAINING QUESTINS, OPEN THE CHART AT THE AREA AROUND JEDDAH.
11. The distance between GAS (Gassim) and PMA (Madinah) VOR along airway G674 is
1) 244 n.m.
2) 245 n.m.
3) 170 n.m.
12. Airway G782 from Riyadh to Jeddah is normally used by traffic
1) One way, westbound only.
2) One-way, eastbound only.
3) In both directions.
13. Airway B417, northeast of Jeddah, the distance between TAGNA and BDB is
1) 90 n.m.
2) 216 n.m.
3) 222 n.m.
14. You are northwest of Jeddah, inbound on airway M999 at DEDLI, ATC tells you to hold at IMLER as
published. Your holding pattern entry should be
1) Direct.
2) Teardrop.
3) Parallel.
15. Which statement is true about airway G799 between Madinah (PMA) and Dafinah (DFN)?
1) G799 is a direct (RNAV) route.
2) ITIMU and EKLIL intersection are not part of G799.
3) G799 underlies UL573.
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1.
(True, False) When acknowledging a frequency change, you should read it back to the controller.
2. If you are unable to establish communications on a newly assigned frequency, you should
1) Adjust the transponder to code 7600.
2) Return to the previously assigned frequency.
3) Remain on the newly assigned frequency and await further instruction.
3. If you are operating in a non-radar environment on a direct course that is not an established airway, you
must report
1) Every 25 miles along the route.
2) Over the fixes used to define the route.
3) When you are established on a published Victor Airway.
4. What reports are you required making when you are operating on an IFR clearance specifying VFR on top in
a non-radar environment?
1) All normal IFR reports except changes in altitude.
2) All normal IFR reports except changing altitudes and enroute position reports.
3) The same compulsory reports that is required in a non-radar environment for any IFR flight.
5. You must advise ATC whenever you true airspeed changes by _____ knots or _____ %, which is greater.
6. If 30 seconds are required for the inbound leg of a holding pattern at 10,000 feet, you should adjust the next
outbound leg to approximately
1) 60 seconds.
2) 75 seconds.
3) 90 seconds.
7. What is the maximum indicated airspeed allowed a propeller-driven aircraft holding at 14,000 ft MSL?
1) 200 knots.
2) 210 knots.
3) 230 knots.
8. The recommended entry procedure to a holding pattern is determined by the aircrafts
1) True heading.
2) Magnetic course.
3) Magnetic heading.
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To answer question 9 through 11, refer to the accompanying HSI illustration and assume you are tracking inbound to
the Wichita VOR. Select the type of holding pattern entry most appropriate for each station.
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To answer question 12 through 15, refer to the accompanying illustration and match the VOR indicators to each
airplane position.
12. ___________ .
13. ___________ .
14. ___________ .
15. ___________ .
16. When you are assigned an IFR altitude at or above 18,000 feet MSL on a direct flight not using the airway
structure, you should set the altimeter to
1) 29.92 Before takeoff.
2) The current reported setting for takeoff and climb-out and then to 29.92 when reaching 18,000 feet
MSL.
3) The current reported setting until you reach the cruising altitude then set it to 29.92.
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17. Refer to the accompanying illustration to answer this question. If you arrive over the DME fix on a heading of
350 , which recommended holding pattern entry and procedure complies with the ATC clearance. .
Holding west of the 15 DME fix on the 270 radial of the XYZ VORTAC, five mile legs, left turns ?
1) 1- Direct entry.
2) 2- Direct or teardrop entry.
3) 2- Parallel entry.
18. A clearance for a pilots discretion descent authorizes you to initiate the descent at anytime you choose and
also permits you to
1) Level off at the newly assigned altitude without reporting.
2) Level off temporarily at any intermediate altitude during the descent.
3) Level off temporarily at any altitude and climb back to any previously assigned altitude.
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7. In order to achieve proper sequencing and separation for arriving traffic, ATC may
1) Assign higher-than-normal airspeeds for piston-engine aircraft.
2) Issue vectors only to IFR traffic, whether or not VMC conditions exist.
3) Assign lower-than-normal descent rate for turbine powered aircraft.
8. The maximum speed limitations specified in FAR 91.117 (aircraft speed) apply
1) At all times.
2) At all times except when speed adjustments are issued by ATC.
3) At all times except for certain operations inside class C or D airspace.
9. On descent into Jeddah from a higher cruise altitude, you should set the QNH when
1) Passing through 13,000 ft.
2) Passing through FL150.
3) First listening to ATIS, then re-set if a different QNH is provided by ATC.
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1. JEDDAH ILS DME RWY 34C. The first day this chart can be used for navigation is
1) 4 OCT 1991.
2) 22 Aug 2013.
3) Immediately on receipt.
2. JEDDAH ILS DME RWY 34C. The first communication freq likely to be used is
1) ATIS 116.4
2) Approach 124.0
3) Approach 119.1
3. JEDDAH ILS DME RWY 34C. This DME transmitter is co-located with
1) The VOR.
2) No other Navaid.
3) The ILS.
4. RIYADH ILS DME RWY 33R. The number 2 in the chart index indicates that
1) King Khalid intl. is the second airport serving Riyadh.
2) This is the second ILS procedure for this runway.
3) This procedure requires two Navaids, ILS and DME.
5. RIYADH ILS DME RWY 33R. the order of normal use for communication frequencies is
1) ATIS, Approach Control, Approach Final, Ground Control.
2) LOC, Approach Control, Tower, Ground Control.
3) ATIS, Approach Control, Tower, Ground Control.
6. RIYADH ILS DME RWY 33R. To establish the QFE altimeter setting, you may
1) Add 72 hPa to the reported QNH altimeter setting.
2) Subtract 72 hPa from the reported QNH altimeter setting.
3) Use the QNH altimeter setting, converted to hPa.
7. TAIF ILS DME RWY 35. To use this procedure, the aircraft must be equipped with
1) Both ILS and DME.
2) Either ILS or DME.
3) ILS, but the use of DME is optional.
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16. AL BAHA VOR DME RWY 25. This procedure is not authorize
1) For non-Saudia Airlines aircraft.
2) Unless the aircraft is equipped with dual VOR receivers.
3) If the Al Baha altimeter setting is not available.
17. RAFHA VOR RWY 11. The MSA is
1) 3,500 ft MSL in all directions up to 25 n.m radius from RAF VOR.
2) 3,500 ft AGL in all directions up to 25 s.m radius from RAF VOR.
3) 1,000 ft above the highest obstacle within a 3,500 ft radius of RAF VOR.
18. RAFHA VOR RWY 11. The MDA is
1) 541 ft MSL.
2) 541 ft above the Airport Elevation.
3) 541 ft above the Touchdown Zone Elevation.
19. SHARURAH ILS DME Rwy 08. The communication frequency 133.5 MHz is used for FRS. FRS stands for
1) Flight Radio Station.
2) Fire Rescue Service.
3) Facilities Reporting for Saudia.
20. SHARURAH ILS DME Rwy 08. In the chart index, the figure 1 signifies
1) The sixth IAP chart for Sharurah.
2) The sixth airport at Sharurah.
3) An ILS approach.
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1. List the four approach segments that an instrument approach may utilize
_______________________________ .
_______________________________ .
_______________________________ .
_______________________________ .
2. The route that provides a transition from the enroute structure to the approach structure is called a
_______________ route.
3. When a Final Approach Fix is NOT designated for a non-precision approach. The FAF is typically the point
where the procedure turn intercepts the _________________ inbound.
4. The missed approach point (MAP) for a precision approach occurs when you reach the ______.
5. The published MSA for each sector provides
1)
2)
3)
4)
The minimum altitude for transition from the enroute to the intial approach segment.
500 ft of obstacle clearance and guarantees acceptable navigation and communication reception.
1000 ft of obstacle clearance and guarantees acceptable navigation and communication reception.
1,000 ft of obstacle clearance but does not guarantee acceptable navigation and communication
reception.
Answer the following question, refer to King Abdulaziz Intl ILS DME Rwy 34C
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9. The ILS localizer is aligned on a magnetic course of ______ and the frequency is _____ MHz.
10. (True/False) The recommended altitude at 2 DME from IJDW is 677 feet.
11. When flying the procedure turn for the ILS Rwy 34C approach. You must remain within ______ n.m from
________________.
12. The minimum procedure turn altitude is
1) 5000 ft.
2) 3000 ft.
3) 2500 ft.
13. When you are inbound on the intermediate approach segment, the minum glide slope intercept altitude is
1) 1700 ft.
2) 1600 ft.
3) 1550 ft.
14. The point at which you intercept the glide slope when operating at the minimum glide slope intercept altitude
represents the _________.
15. When you are established inbound with glide slop out, you will cross the altitude of 980 ft at ______ n.m from
JDW.
16. In case of glide slop out, resutling in LOC approach, the FAF is now located at __________, which is
________ n.m from the end of the runway.
17. If you remain on th glide slope centerline and continue the approach to landing, you will cross the runway
threshold at
1) 27 ft.
2) 52 ft.
3) 48 ft.
18. the difference between the touchdown zone elevation and airport elevation is _______ ft.
19. According to straight-in minimums, the decision height for a CAT C aircraft is ______ ft MSL, or _______ ft
above TDZE.
20. (True/False) The circle to land minimum for a CAT D aircraft executing an ILS procedure is 1,020 ft MSL.
21. If the glide slope is inoprative, the minimum descent altitude is ______ ft MSL.
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15. GASSIM you are circling to land at 180 knots. Your landing minimums are
1) MDA (H) 2,900 ft, Visibility 3600 m.
2) MDA (H) 2,800 ft, RVR 4000 m.
3) MDA (H) 2,900 ft, RVR or visibility 4,000 m.
16. GASSIM when this chart was published, what had changed from the old chart?
1) Landing minimums changed for the sixth time.
2) Visual navigation information was added, in the landing minimums table.
3) Holding Altitude added and Segment Minimum Altitude added.
17. MADINAH using the VOR procedure, you are circling to land on runway 35 in a Beech A-36 Bonanza, your
MDA is
1) 3,300 ft, and you must circle west of the landing runway.
2) 3,300 ft, and you should circle east of the landing runway.
3) 3,260 ft, and you should circle east of the landing runway.
18. MADINAH regarding this approach procedure, which statement is true
1) Both VOR and ADF are mandatory (required) equipment in the airplane.
2) For a category D airplane, the only difference in straight-in landing minimums between the VOR and
NDB procedures is that the NDB MDA (H) is higher.
3) The touchdown zone elevation of runway 35 is 2,107 ft MSL.
19. HAIL the airport elevation at Hail is
1) 3,331 ft MSL.
2) 3,299 ft MSL.
3) 3,840 ft MSL.
20. HAIL using this procedure for circling-to-land on runway 18, you should circle
1) East of the airport in any airplane.
2) East of the airport if your circling IAS is more than 135 knots.
3) East of the airport if your airspeed on the approach to RWY 18 is more than 135 knots.
21. QAISUMAH you intend land straight-in on runway 16. Your DME is inoperative Vso for your airplane at
maximum landing weight is 94 knots. Your landing minimums are
1) MDA 1760 ft, Visibility 1,600 m.
2) MDA 2000 ft, Visibility 2,000 m.
3) MDA 2000 ft, Visibility 4,000 m.
22. QAISUMAH when using this procedure and circling to land on RWY 34, you should
1) Circle east of the airport and look out for an antenna approximately in front of you.
2) Circle west of the airport and look out for an antenna off your right wing.
3) Circle east of the airport and look out for an antenna which you should pass before you turn on final
for the landing runway.
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APPROOACH PROCEDURES
Answer the following questions and provide a reference to each answer unless the answer is provided from the
chart/approach plate:
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8. Most course reversals require this procedure to be completed within 10 n.m. of the
1) Primary Navaid or fix designated on the approach chart.
2) Center of the airport.
3) Point where the course reversal begins.
9. The maximum speed permitted in a procedure turn is
1) 200 kt IAS.
2) 230 kt IAS.
3) 250 kt IAS.
10. If you are above the altitude designated for a course reversal, you may begin descent
1) Immediately.
2) When you begin the course reversal.
3) As soon as you cross the initial approach fix.
11. Which of these is not a required condition for making timed approaches from a holding fix?
1) If more than one missed approach procedure is available, none require course reversal.
2) The airport control tower must have radar service.
3) A procedure turn is not authorized after you have been cleared for the approach.
12. If you are using the approach lights for visual reference, you may not descend lower than 100 ft above the
touchdown zone elevation unless you can see and identify
1) The red terminating bars or the red side row bars.
2) The threshold lights and / or touchdown zone lights.
3) Any component of the approach light system.
13. Which is not a visual reference as a requirement for descending below the MDA or DA (H)?
1) Touchdown zone lights or markings.
2) VASI or other similar glide path indicator light system.
3) Taxiway or hold line markings or lights.
14. You are executing an ILS approach to a runway which has VASI. You have passed the OM inbound and a
glide slope malfunction occurs. You have the VASI in sight. You should
1) Immediately execute an missed approach.
2) Continue the approach at or above the VASI glide path.
3) Continue the approach on instruments to the localizer MDA, and to the MAP.
15. When landing on a down-sloping runway, you might experience a visual illusion of
1) Pitching up, causing you to fly an approach which is too steep.
2) Less height, causing you to fly an approach which is too high.
3) Greater height, causing you to fly an approach which is too low.
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16. For circling to land in a category B aircraft at a category C speed. You should use
1) Category B landing minimums.
2) Category C landing minimums.
3) Category B visibility minimum but Category C MDA.
17. The protected area of obstacle clearance for circling approaches is based on
1) Arcs drawn from each runway end, with arc length dependent on approach category.
2) Arcs drawn from each runway center, with all arc lengths equal.
3) A circle centered at the airport center, with radius dependent on approach category.
18. You have been cleared to make a sidestep on an approach to a parallel runway. You should
1) Commence the sidestep maneuver immediately.
2) Start the sidestep maneuver when the landing runway or its environment is in sight.
3) Use minimums published for the runway you are using for approach, but not landing.
19. If you execute a missed approach before reaching the MAP, you should
1) Follow the missed approach procedure, even if an immediate turn is required.
2) Proceed to the MAP at or above the MDA or DA(H) before making any required turn.
3) Not make any turn at all, whether before or during the missed approach procedure.
20. If you lose visual references while circling to land from an instrument approach, and ATC radar service is not
available, you should
1) Initiate a missed approach, first climbing straight ahead.
2) Continue the approach, but not descend below the circle-to-land MDA.
3) Initiate a missed approach, first making a climbing turn towards the landing runway.
21. One difference between a visual approach and a contact approach is that
1) Your IFR clearance is not canceled if you make a contact approach.
2) A contact approach must be initiated by ATC.
3) The reported ground visibility for a visual approach must be at least 1 s.m.
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Answer the following questions and provide a reference to each answer unless the answer is provided from the
chart/approach plate:
1. The two basic types of VOR and NDB approaches are those which
1) Are precision and nonprecision approach procedures.
2) Use an off-airport facility or an on-airport facility.
3) Are straight-in and those which are circle-to-land.
2. When leaving a DME arc on the turn inbound, you can descend to the lower altitude
1) As you begin the turn inbound.
2) When the CDI needle begins to move from full-scale deflection.
3) When established on the inbound course.
3. What is true of an APPR that contains the name, VOR/DME, in the procedure title
1) Use of DME is required to complete the procedure.
2) Step-down fixes in this procedure are identified with both VOR cross radials and DME values.
3) Use of DME allow you to identify optional step-down fixes and to descend to lower minimums.
4. You are flying a circling maneuver to the favored runway, and the visibility is at or above the required
minimums. You can begin your descent below the MDA
1) When you are in a position from which you can make a normal descent to the runway with adequate
visual reference.
2) After being cleared to land.
3) When you have the airport in sight.
5. JEDDAH VOR DME RWY 34C. For this procedure, DME is
1) Required.
2) Not required.
3) Recommended in order to make use of a lower MDA.
6. JEDDAH VOR DME RWY 34C. Initial contact with JED Approach control should be
1) Made on 114.9 MHz
2) Made on 124.0 MHz
3) Made on 119.1 MHz
7. JEDDAH VOR DME RWY 34C. Which statement is true?
1) The runway touchdown zone elevation is higher than the airport elevation.
2) The runway touchdown zone elevation is lower than the airport elevation.
3) The airport elevation is higher than the touchdown zone by 48 ft.
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16. ABHA VOR DME RWY 13. If you decide to execute a missed approach at the MAP
1) Your initial turn must be to the right.
2) You may turn right immediately. Your holding pattern entry at ABH will be parallel.
3) Your holding pattern entry at ABH will be parallel.
17. RIYADH (King Khalid) VOR RWY 33R. You are holding southeast of KIA VOR, as published, when ATC
clears you for the approach. You must cross the VOR inbound at
1) 3,600 ft.
2) Exactly 3,400 ft.
3) Least (minimum) 3,400 ft.
18. RIYADH VOR RWY 33R. The MDA (H) for a category C aircraft (ALS out) is
1) 2,500 ft, which is 477 ft above TDZE.
2) 2,500 ft, and the RVR minimum is 1,500 m.
3) 1,800 m, and the visibility minimum is 2,000 m.
19. RIYADH (King Khalid) VOR RWY 33R. What is the approximate time from the FAF inbound to the MAP with
a TAS of 120 knots and a 10 knot headwind?
1) 2 min 00 sec.
2) 1 min 52 sec.
3) 2 min 12 sec.
20. RABIGH NDB RWY 33. In the vicinity of Rabigh VOR the MSA is
1) 2,000 ft.
2) 2,700 ft.
3) 2,000 ft, 2,700 ft or 3,600 ft, depending on the sector.
21. RABIGH NDB RWY 33. The correct way to identify the MAP is
1) By timing from the NDB.
2) Visually, when overhead the runway threshold.
3) 2.4 n.m from the NDB.
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ILS APPROACHES
Answer the following questions and provide a reference to each answer unless the answer is provided from the
chart/approach plate:
1. What are the normal minimums for an ILS approach with all components operative?
1) s.m and a DH of 100 ft.
2) s.m and a DH of 200 ft.
3) n.m and a DH of 200 ft.
2. The four basic components of an ILS generally consist of a localizer, glide slope, outer marker and
1) Inner marker.
2) Middle marker.
3) Compass locator.
3. The component that provides course guidance to the runway centerline is called the ___________________.
4. The CDI, when used in conjunction with an ILS. Is ___________ (more, less) sensitive than it is for VOR
navigation.
5. On an ILS approach without DME, you are provided distance information by the
_______________________________.
6. When a compass locator is used with an ILS, it usually is located at the __________________.
7. When you fly an ILS with an inoperative glide slope, you must observe the ________ minimums.
8. If you are on the centerlines of the localizer and the glide slope during an ILS approach, but you airspeed is
too high, you should initially adjust __________ (pitch, power).
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9. If you are on the glide slope at the IVEYI, the altimeter should indicate
1) 3,000 ft MSL.
2) 2,607 ft MSL.
3) 2,700 ft MSL.
10. During a localizer (GS out) approach to runway 17R, what is the MDA, and how do you determine the
position of the MAP without DME?
1) MDA is 1,482 ft MSL, and the MAP is at the middle marker.
2) MDA is 1,620 ft MSL, and the MAP is just beyond the middle marker.
3) MDA is 1,640 ft MSL, and you determine the MAP by elapsed time after passing the FAF.
11. If you are making the ILS runway 17R approach in a category A aircraft, where is the MAP located?
1) At the runway threshold.
2) 3.4 n.m from the final approach fix.
3) AT the point where your aircraft reaches a decision height of 1,482 ft MSL.
12. At an approach groundspeed of 90 knots, what is the elapsed time from the FAF to the MAP?
1) 3 minutes 28 seconds.
2) 3 minutes 36 seconds.
3) 3 minutes 56 seconds.
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AIRPORT CHARTS
Answer the following questions and provide a reference to each answer unless the answer is provided from the
chart/approach plate:
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8. At APRON 4, you are cleared to taxi via Uniform, Bravo, Sierra and Foxtrot. Probably, you
1) Are taxiing to the departure end of runway 16R.
2) Are taxiing to the Royal Hanger.
3) Are taxiing to the Hajj Terminal.
9. Which of these runways have the same type of Approach Light System
1) 34L & 16R type ALSFII
2) 34L & 34C type ALSF I
3) 16C & 16L type HIRL
10. How many RVR measuring sites does Jeddah Airport have?
1) 3
2) 8
3) 9
11. The inbound front course to each of the three parallel runways designated 34 is
1) 340
2) 337
3) 158
12. On APRON 6 MAX wing span is
1) 65 m.
2) 63 m.
3) 60 m.
13. Which of these runways has the highest TDZE?
1) 34R.
2) 16L.
3) 34C.
14. After landing on 34C, Ground Control tells you taxi to apron 2, stand 9. You should
1) Taxi via Golf 4 or 5 or 6, and Tango.
2) Taxi via Golf 4 or Golf 5, Foxtrot and Uniform.
3) Taxi via Uniform, past Apron 1, then into Apron 2.
15. Which of these runways at Jeddah is not approved for CAT II operations?
1) 34R
2) 16C
3) 34L
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16. Which type of visual approach slope indicator lights does runway 34C have?
1) 2 bar VASI
2) 3 bar VASI
3) PAPI
17. From an ILS approach, runway 34R at Jeddah has a usable length for landing of
1) 12,106 ft.
2) 11,004 ft.
3) 11,969 ft.
18. The take-off minimums published on the Jeddah Airport Chart are
1) Standard only, and apply to all aircraft operations.
2) Standard and nonstandard, as shown in the table.
3) Nonstandard, and apply only to air carrier operations
19. Standard take-off minimums at Jeddah for a Boeing 737 is/are
1) RVR at least 5,000 ft or reported visibility at least 1 s.m
2) RVR or reported visibility at least 800 m.
3) RVR or reported visibility at least 1,600 m.
20. Reported visibility at Jeddah is 1,200 m. You have adequate visual reference for take-off. Are you permitted
to depart Jeddah in a Beechcraft A-36 Bonanza?
1) Yes
2) No
3) Yes, but only if the reported RVR for the departure runway is at least 500 m.
21. You are planning an IFR flight from Riyadh to Taif in a privately-operated light twin in which the only glide
slope receiver is inoperative. In order for you to specify Jeddah as an alternate, the minimum conditions
which must apply are a forecast ceiling of at least
1) 800 ft and forecast visibility at least 3,200 m at your Jeddah ETA.
2) 800 ft and forecast visibility at least 2 s.m at your Jeddah ETA.
3) 600 ft and forecast visibility at least 3,200 m at your Taif ETA.
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WEATHER FACTORS
Answer the following questions and provide a reference to each answer unless the answer is provided from the
chart/approach plate:
1. What percentage of the mass of the atmosphere exists below 53,000 ft?
1) 50%
2) 70%
3) 90%
2. The average height of the tropopause in middle latitudes is
1) 24,000 ft.
2) 36,000 ft.
3) 55,000 ft.
3. The height of the tropopause
1) Varies with the season and location over the globe.
2) Is closer to the earths surface directly over the equator.
3) Is constant (the same) everywhere, and all the time.
4. Which layer of the atmosphere can affect radio signal range and reception?
1) Troposphere.
2) Stratosphere.
3) Ionosphere.
5. Every physical process of weather is accompanied by, or is the result of a
1) Movement of air.
2) Transfer of heat energy.
3) Change in the weather vapor content of the air.
6. When isobars (on a weather chart) are far apart, wind is likely to be
1) Weak or light.
2) Strong and / or turbulent.
3) Determined only by the extent of the Coriolis force.
7. The main cause of wind is
1) Pressure Difference.
2) Coriolis force.
3) Centrifugal force.
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8. A trough is
1) A Center of low pressure surrounded on all sides by higher pressure
2) An area of descending air.
3) An elongated area of low pressure.
9. Coriolis force caused moving air to
1) Be deflected to the left in the north hemisphere.
2) Slow down near the surface.
3) Be cyclonic around a low pressure area in the northern hemisphere.
10. Why is wind direction near the surface often different from wind direction at higher levels?
1) Surface friction weakens the effects of Coriolis force.
2) Land and sea breezes are most powerful close to the surface.
3) Frontal boundaries do not extend vertically to great heights.
11. When water vapor in the air becomes liquid, we call that process
1) Evaporation.
2) Condensation.
3) Deposition.
12. The amount of water vapor which air can hold depends on its
1) Dew-point.
2) Temperature.
3) Stability.
13. The temperature at which air becomes saturated is called the
1) Dew-point.
2) Temperature / Dew-point spread.
3) Saturated lapse rate.
14. In terms of what it is and usually how it forms, the difference between cloud and fog is
1) That could require solid particles to act as condensation nuclei for its formation.
2) Nothing except that fog forms at or very close to the surface.
3) That for fog to form the temperature must be below the dew-point but, for cloud to form, the temperature
may be above the dew-point provided that condensation occurs.
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WEATHER HAZARDS
Answer the following questions and provide a reference to each answer unless the answer is provided from the
chart/approach plate:
1. In addition to a lifting Action, what are two other conditions necessary for thunderstorm formation?
1) Stable conditions and high moisture content.
2) Unstable conditions and high moisture content.
3) Unstable conditions and low atmospheric pressure.
2. Continuous updrafts occur in a thunderstorm during the
1) Mature stage.
2) Cumulus stage.
3) Dissipating stage.
3. Thunderstorms reach their greatest intensity during the
1) Mature stage.
2) Cumulus stage.
3) Dissipating stage.
4. What is the term used to describe a narrow band of thunderstorms which normally contains the most severe
types of weather-related hazards?
1) Airmass.
2) Frontal.
3) Squall Line.
5. What hazard is always associated with a thunderstorm?
1) Hail.
2) Tornadoes.
3) Lighting.
6. (true, False) you may encounter hail in clear air several miles from a thunderstorm.
7. The cloud type associated with the most severe turbulence is
1) Cumulus.
2) Cumulonimbus.
3) Standing Lenticular Altocumulus.
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8. When using on-board weather radar to avoid thunderstorms, you should avoid intense echoes by at least
1) 10 miles.
2) 20 miles.
3) 30 miles.
9. During an encounter with unexpected turbulence, reduce power and attempt to maintain a
1) Constant altitude.
2) Constant airspeed.
3) Level flight attitude.
10. During a stabilized landing approach, what happens if the wind unexpectedly shifts from a headwind to a
tailwind?
1) Pitch attitude decreases, IAS decreases and the airplane tend to sink below the glide path.
2) Pitch attitude decreases, IAS increases and the airplane tend to sink below the glide path.
3) Pitch attitude increases, IAS decreases and the airplane tend to sink below the glide path.
11. Turbulence which causes changes in altitude or attitude resulting in definite strains against seatbelts in
classified as
1) Light.
2) Moderate.
3) Severe.
12. Wake turbulence is greatest from a large and heavy aircraft which is operating at
1) Low speeds and low angles of attack.
2) Low speeds and high angles of attack.
3) High speeds and low angles of attack.
13. You are cleared to land behind a large heavy aircraft which has just touched down. You should plan to land
________ (before, after) the large aircrafts touchdown point.
14. Fog that typically forms over fairly level land on clear, calm humid nights is called
1) Vapor fog.
2) Radiation fog.
3) Advocating fog.
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15. Carburetor icing is most likely when the relative humidity is above 80% and the outside air temperature is
between
1) -15 C (5 F) and 5 C (41 F
).
2) -7 C (20 F) and 21 C (70 F).
3) 0 C (32 F) and 15 C (59 F).
16. If you encounter freezing rain it indicates that
1) You are passing through a cold front.
2) You are passing through a warm front.
3) Temperatures are above freezing at a higher altitude.
17. (True, False) airframe icing increases drag and weight and decreases lift and thrust.
18. (True, False) Airframe icing cannot occur when the outside air temperature is above 0 C.
19. When the surface temperature is 53 F, you can estimate the freezing level to be approximately
1) 4,700 ft AGL.
2) 6,000 ft AGL.
3) 10,500 ft AGL.
20. To avoid hydroplaning after landing on a wet runway, you should
1) Apply brakes immediately.
2) Delay the application of brakes.
3) Touch down at a higher than normal speed.
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Answer the questions by referring to the two KSA weather chart figures which you have been given. There are two
sections in the exercise, one for each chart.
1. The valid local time is _______ and it is _______ hours after the time of issue.
2. This chart is intended for FL300. What is the pressure level approximately equivalent to that flight level?
___________________________ .
3. Comment on the winds at FL300 over OEGN ________________________________.
4. The wind at FL300 over OERK is forecast to be from the _____ at _____ Knots.
5. Flying north from Jeddah at this altitude, you could expect a crosswind from the ______ (left, right), and the wind
speed would be _____ (Increasing/Same/Decreasing).
6. The isotherms show that the temperature ___________ toward the north.
7. A flight from Jeddah to Khartoum, Sudan, can expect a _______ (headwind/tailwind).
8. Interpolate the estimate the temperature over Jeddah at this level _______________.
9. What is the wind speed and direction over Kuwait (OKBK)?
Wind speed: ____________ Wind direction ___________.
10. Larnaca, Cyprus (LCLK) is approximately _____ degrees N, and _____ degrees East.
11. Estimate the wind speed over Cairo (HECA) at this pressure level: ______________.
12. Over Muscat (OOMS) at this pressure level. The wind is from the ____ at ___ knots, and the temperature is
approximately _______ C.
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_____________________________________________________________.
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READING MATERIAL
The Jet Steam:
Jet Streams or JETS are very high speed winds (at least 50 knots) which usually flow west to east in narrow bands in middle
latitudes (between 30 and 60 N or S) near the tropopause. The exact causes of jet stream winds are not fully understood, but
they are closely associated with the tropopause, the polar front and low pressure systems.
The tropopasue is the boundary between the troposphere and the stratosphere. It's height varies from about 65,000 ft over the
equator to 20,000 ft or lower over the poles. An abrupt change in temperature lapse rate characterizes the tropopause, and
maximum winds (and often wind shear) occur near it. At mid-latitudes there can be "breaks' in the tropopasue. Jet streams exist
at or near these breaks. Like all weather patterns, jet streams are constantly changing. They develop, strengthen, move, weaken
and die away.
Jet streams are more likely to occur where there are large airmass temperature differences, such as near a cold front or occlusion
aloft. The jet stream is located on the warmer air side.
In the central "CORE" of a jet winds can reach 300 knots, but are typically 100 - 150 knots. Wind speeds decrease very rapidly to
the polar side and more slowly to the tropical side. Although a single jet stream can circle the earth, segments of 1000 - 3000
miles in length are more common. The typical jet stream is only about 5,000 ft thick vertically and 200 miles wide horizontally.
Jets occur all year round but are stronger, closer to the tropics and more likely to be encountered in winter. In winter they may
exist over the northern part of the Arabian peninsula.
Flight in a Jet stream can provide one major benefit (massive tailwind if flying west to east) and two disadvantages (headwind if
flying east to west, and turbulence).
Most jet stream turbulence is CLEAR AIR TURBULENCE (CAT). C.A.T is not usually in the core of the jet, but is common above
and below the core and on its polar side. C.A.T is also more likely where the jet stream is close to a deep (ie: strong) low
pressure center or trough.
if caught in jet stream turbulence, or in a strong jet stream headwind, a pilot should either change course, or altitude, or both.
Thunderstorms:
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The central part of the thunderstorm is often called a "cell". Thunderstorm development passes through three
stages:
1. The CUMLUUS stage. In this stage most of the iar currents are updrafts.
2. The MATURE stage. The storm is a at its strongest. Precipitation reaches the ground.
3. The DISSIPATING stage. In this stage, most of the air currents are downdrafts.
There are different thunderstorm types depending on their conditions of development:
AIR MASS storms develop because of convective action. These are usually isolated, less severe and easy to see
from the air. They usually last less than one hour.
STEADY STATE storms are usually larger, more severe and last longer because the conditions which cause them to
form continue for a longer time; eg: frontal thunderstorms. The most severe steady state thunderstorms can be
found in SQUALL LINE, which is a line or band of thunderstorms. These storms can be very extensive and reach
great heights (eg: 50,000 feet or more). A squall line often develops ahead of a strong, fast-moving cold front.
Thunderstorms are so dangerous because they cause so many hazards for flying. These include:
TURBULENCE and WIND SHEAR, including MICROBURSTS.
HAIL and precipitation of severe and extreme intensity. Hail can occur even in hot countries.
LOW CELING and LOW VISIBILITY; often "zero-zero" condition.
ICING CONDITIONS.
LIGHTING. Lighting can damage an airframe and cause electrical equipment problems.
FUNNEL CLOUDS (Tornadoes and Waterspouts). A funnel cloud is a violet, spinning column of air which descends
from the base of a thunderstorm.
An EMBEDDED THUNDERSTROM is a thunderstorm which is difficult to see because it is a surrounded by other
clouds. Flight in or near thunderstorms is not recommended. However, WEATHER RADAR in the aircraft can help
the pilot to locate and avoid the worst cells.
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METAR is an acronym for METeorological Aviation Report. A METAR is a coded weather report. METAR's are
usually issued at hourly intervals. The information which can be included in a METAR is explained on the Jeppesen
decoding sheet to which the trainee should refer when studying and decoding METAR's. Here is an example:
EGLL SA 241500 35008KT 3000 HZ SCT030 BKN120 02/M05 Q1024 NOSIG
EGLL
Four-letter ICAO station identifiers are used. EGLL is for London Heathrow. Stations in
KSA are always OE**; eg: OEJN = Jeddah, OERK = Riyadh.
SA
This identifies the report as a METAR (ie: a Surface Aviation report). The code METAR
(or SPECI) might be substituted for SA.
241500
The weather observation ws made on the 24th day of the month, at 1500Z.
35008KT
Surface wind is given as a five-digit group. In this case, surface wind is from 350 (true) at
08 knots. Other examples of surface wind groups are
16018KT
Wind from 160 at 18 knots.
00000
Wind calm.
VRB05KT
Wind variable at 5 knots.
17019G30KT
Wind 170 at 19 knots with peak gusts to 30 knots.
3000
This is the horizontal surface visibility in meters. Visibility is always give as a four-digits
group. If the visibility is 10km or more, it will be shown as 9999.
Examples of visibility entries:
0300
6000
Visibility 300m
Visibility 6km
4700
9999
Visibility 4700m
Visibility 10km or more
If Visibility is determined by Runway Visual Range (RVR) equipment, the RVR figure will
follow the prevailing visibility figure. For example, R25/1300D means that the RVR for
runway 25 is 1300m and decreasing. If the highest visibility capable of being read on the
RVR equipment was, say, 2000m, and the RVR reading was indicating 2000, it would
appear on the report as R25/P2000; ie: RVR for runway 25 is more than 2000m. If the
lowest visibility capable of being read on the RVR equipment was, say, 150m, and the
RVR reading was indicating 150, it would appear as R25/M0150, meaning that the RVR
for runway 25 is less than 150m.
HZ
This is the significant weather code. To decode it, refer to the present weather table on
the METAR decoding sheet. In this case, the present weather is HAZE (HZ).
SCT030
This is SKY or cloud cover. the main contractions used are SKC (clear), FEW (few), SCT
(scattered), BKN (broken), OVC (overcast). This will come in front of a figure which
represents the height of the base of the clouds in hundreds of feet AGL. In this example,
there are scattered clouds with a base of 3000ft AGL. For greater details and other codes
see the decoding sheet.
BKN120
If there is more than one cloud layer, further cloud cover codes are given. These are
coded in the same way. In this example there is broken cloud with a base of 12,000ft.
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The code CAVOK (pronounced KAV-OH-KAY) is used if all of the following condition are
met:
1. No clouds below 5000ft.
2. Visibility 10km or more.
3. No precipitation, thunderstorms, sandstorms or fog.
When CAVOK is included, the visibility, RVR present weather and cloud cover codes are
omitted.
02/M05
Q1024
Altimeter setting (QNH) = 1024 millibars. The prefix A would indicate inches of mercury.
This is usually in the USA; eg: A2992=29.92 in.Hg
NOSIG
This is the trend forecast, or change indicator. NOSIG means NO SIGnificant change is
expected in the next two hours. For details of other changes indicators, see the TAF
decoding sheet. These change indicators include TEMPO and BECMG.
ADDITIONAL NOTES:
1.
2.
3.
Most METAR's are routine reports. If the code SPECI precedes the report, it is a special report. Essentially, this means
that the weather has changed significantly very recently.
A METAR can include additional reported weather information which is not discussed here; for example recent (not
current) weather, forecast weather and reported windshear conditions. For details, see the decoding sheet and your
textbooks.
There are certain international differences in way information is given (eg: units of measurement). The following table
should be helpful to you:
INFO ABOUT
KSA UNITS
USA
ALTERNATIVES
Wind speed
Visibility
RVR
Altimeter setting
Kt
M
M
hPa (mb)
Kt
SM
FT
In.Hg
Kmh;mps
Km
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A TAF is a forecast of weather conditions at an airport (aerodrome) for a specified validity period (usually 24 hours).
Codes used in TAF's are similar to those used for METAR's, and can be found on the Jeppesen decoding sheet.
TAF's are scheduled to be issued four times each day.
A TAF begins with codes for type of forecast, location, date and time of issue and validity period. Weather
information will follow in this order (if included): wind, visibility, significant weather, sky cover, remarks on icing and
turbulence, and change indicators. You must remember that this is all FORECAST information. Therefore it is
obvious that information such as reported temperature. Dewpoint and altimeter setting cannot be included in a TAF.
Here is an example of a TAF:
TAF OMDB 172200Z
180024 VRB05KT 6000 HZ NSC PROB40 TEMPO 0104 0500 BCFG
TAF
This is a TAF (the code TAF AMD, or FT or FC might be substituted for TAF
OMDB
172200Z
This forecast was issued on the 17th day of the month at 2200Z
180024
The validity of the forecast period is from midnight on the 17th (00), until midnight on the 18th
(24).
VRB05KT
6000
HZ
NSC
No significant cloud
PROB40 TEMPO 0104 0500 BCFG: these are the change indicators and the predicated changes. In this case there is a 40%
probability of temporary conditions between 0100Z and 0400Z, when visibility will be 500 meters in fog patches.
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Change indicators are used to indicate a predicated change in the weather over period(s) of time during the forecast
period. A change group begins with one of these codes: FM, PROB, TEMPO, BECMG.
FM
FROM
this is uses when a definite and rapid change is expected, and the weather
is not expected to return to what it had been before the change.
PROB
PROBABILITY
TEMPO
TEMPORARY
This means temporary weather changes lasting less than one hour.
BECMG
BECOMING
This is code is used when weather condition are forecast to change (more
gradually than a "FM" change).
Actually, only
When change indicator is used, information will be given in the following order:
Change indicator, time or time period (for change), forecast weather.
For example: TEMPO 1822 8000 BKN030 BECMG CAVOK
This is means that between 1800Z and 2200Z, temporary conditions will exist with visibility 8 km and a 3000 ft
ceiling. It is expected to improve after 2200Z, becoming CAVOK.
1.
2.
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EMERGENCY PROCEDURES
Use the currently assigned frequency before any attempt to use 121.5
7700 Emergency
7600 Communication failure
7500 Air piracy, ie: Hijack
MINIMUM FUEL ADVISORY: Not an emergency, but further delays might cause an emergency.
COMMUNICATIONS FAILURE: Refer again to FAR 91.185 and AIM Chapter 6
Note that a specific lost communications procedure may be included with a SID. In that case the specified procedure must be
followed rather than the provisions of FAR 91.185 if there is a conflict.
NO-GYRO APPROACH: a no-gyro vector or approach must be requested by the pilot. Before final: turns at standard rate. On
final: turns at half-standard rate.
97
98
IFR EMERGENCIES:
Answer the following questions and provide a reference to each answer unless the answer is provided from a chart :
1. (FAR 91.3) Who is directly responsible for the operation of an aircraft?
1) the aviation authority of the country in which the aircraft is operating.
2) the owner or operator.
3) the pilot in command.
2. (FAR 91.3) In an emergency, a PIC deviates from a rule. This pilot must
1) Send a written report to the Administrator.
2) Not deviate from another rule unless the emergency makes it necessary.
3) Inform ATC immediately that a rule deviation has occurred.
3. (FAR 91.123) A PIC must not deviate from an ATC clearance unless an amended clearance is obtained, or an
emergency exists, or
1) A TCAS resolution advisory makes the deviation necessary.
2) The PIC refuses the clearance.
3) The FAA issues a certificate of deviation (waiver).
4. (FAR 91.123) A pilot may cancel an IFR flight plan if he is operating in
1) Class A airspace.
2) VMC outside Class A airspace.
3) A radar environment in controlled airspace.
5. (FAR 91.123) The PIC may be required to submit a written report to ATC if the
1) PIC breaks a rule under the FAR's.
2) Aircraft is given priority in an emergency.
3) PIC deviates from an ATC clearance in response to a TCAS resolution advisory.
6. (FAR 91.185) On an IFR flight, communication failure occurs in cloud but shortly afterwards the aircraft breaks out
of cloud in to VFR conditions. The flight should continue
1) As planned, re-entering cloud/IFR conditions if necessary.
2) Under VFR, and land as soon as practicable.
3) Under VFR to the destination.
99
Questions 7 to 11 refer to the diagram, flight plan details and ATC clearance given below for an IFR flight. Answer
these questions in accordance with FAR 91.185
FLIGHT PLAN:
ALTITUDE: 5000 FT
ATC CLEARANCE: Baron 123AB is cleared to BRONZE, V1 GOLD, V2. Maintain five thousand feet. Expect
further clearance before SUNNY.
7. After takeoff, and while being radar vectored to SUNNY, radio communications failure occurs at point A in
IFR conditions. The pilot should continue direct to
1) GOLD.
2) SUNNY.
3) SILVER.
8. If no radar vectors had been provided, and radio communications failure occurred shortly after takeoff in IFR
conditions, the pilot should climb and maintain
1) 3,000 ft to GOLD, then climbing to 5000 ft after GOLD.
2) 3,000 ft initially, then level off and climb again later to cross GOLD at 5,000 ft.
3) 5,000 ft to SUNNY.
9. If communications failure occurred before GOLD in IFR conditions, the pilot should
1) Continue his flight via V2 and V4 destination airport.
2) Continue his flight via V3 and V4.
3) Hold at GOLD.
10. If radio communications failure occurred between GOLD and SUNNY in IFR conditions, the pilot should
cross SUNNY at
1) 5,000 ft, and then immediately climb to 7,000 ft.
2) 5,000 ft, and maintain 5,000 ft.
3) 7,000 ft.
100
11. Assume that BRONZE is not an IAF for the destination airport and that the aircraft arrives at BRONZE early
(ie: before the ETA at BRONZE). Communications failure occurred before BRONZE in IFR conditions. The
pilot should
1) Hold at BRONZE until the (BRONZE) ETA, and then continue to the destination.
2) Continue to the destination, holding at an IAF if necessary.
3) Continue to the destination without holding, even if arrival is before the ETA.
12. (FAR 91.187) Which one of these malfunctions need not be reported to ATC, if it should occur in flight in IFR
conditions in controlled airspace?
1) Loss of ILS glideslope capability.
2) Autopilot malfunction.
3) DME malfunction.
13. Which is worst (ie: most dangerous)?
1) A distress situation.
2) An urgency situation.
3) A minimum fuel advisory.
14. In the event of an in-flight emergency, your first radio transmission should be made on
1) The frequency you are currently using for communications with ATC.
2) Any ATC frequency.
3) 121.5 MHz
15. If you experience radio communications failure in IFR conditions, you should set your transponder to code
1) 7700 for one minute, then 7600.
2) 7600 and 7700 alternately, for one minute periods.
3) 7600.
16. You are running low on fuel. You have enough fuel to reach you destination safely, but you cannot accept
any delay or holding instructions. You should advise ATC that you
1) Have an emergency, with a MAYDAY or a PAN PAN call.
2) Have MINIMUM FUEL.
3) Require priority for landing.
17. A SID chart includes lost communications procedure instructions. If you experience radio communications
failure in IFR conditions while executing this SID, you should follow
1) The procedures specified in FAR 91.185
2) The procedures specified on the SID chart.
3) Instructions from ATC.
18. When on final during a no-gyro approach, turns should be made at
1) Pilots discretion.
2) Standard rate.
3) Half-standard rate.
101
102
103
9. Controlled Flight Into Terrain (CFIT) occurs when an aircraft is flown into terrain or water with no prior
awareness on the part of the crew that the crash is imminent.
AVIATION PHYSIOLOGY
10. The study of aviation physiology is an important part of human factors training. How you feel, physically, has
a direct impact on how well you fly.
DISORIENTATION
11. When there is a conflict between the information relayed by your central vision and your peripheral vision,
you may suffer from spatial disorientation. When subjected to the various forces of flight, the vestibular
system can send misleading signals to the brain resulting in vestibular disorientation.
12. A rapid acceleration during a missed approach can create the illusion of being in a nose-up attitude, and an
abrupt change from climb to straight-and-level flight can create the illusion of tumbling backwards. To
prevent or overcome spatial disorientation, you must rely on and properly interpret the indications of the flight
instruments.
MOTION SICKNESS
13. Nausea, sweating, dizziness, and vomiting are some of the symptoms of motion sickness. To overcome
motion sickness without outside visual references, you should focus on the instrument panel, since it I your
only source of accurate position information.
HYPOXIA
14. Hypoxia occurs when the tissues in the body do not receive enough oxygen. It can be caused by an
insufficient supply of oxygen, inadequate transportation of oxygen, or the inability of body tissues to use
oxygen. Hypoxic hypoxia occurs when there are not enough molecules of oxygen available at sufficient
pressure to pass between the membranes in your respiratory system.
15. If you are planning a flight with a cruise altitude over 12,500 ft MSL, you should review FAR part 91 for the
requirements regarding supplemental oxygen. Prior to operating a pressurized aircraft with a service ceiling
or maximum operating altitude higher than 25,000ft MSL, you must complete high-altitude training.
16. Hypemic hypoxia occurs when your blood is not able to carry a sufficient amount of oxygen to your bodys
cells. Since it attached itself to the hemoglobin about 200 times more easily than oxygen, carbon monoxide
(CO) prevents the hemoglobin from carrying sufficient oxygen. Even without considering the dangers of
incapacitating the flight crew, carbon monoxide poisoning can be fatal.. Frequent inspections should be
made of aircraft exhaust manifold-type heating systems to minimize the possibility of exhaust gases leading
into the cockpit.
17. Stagnant hypoxia is an oxygen deficiency in the body due to the poor circulation of the blood. It can result
from pulling excessive positive Gs. The inability of the cells to effectively use oxygen is defined as histotoxic
hypoxia. This can be caused by alcohol and other drugs such as narcotics and poisons.
104
HYPERVENTAILATION
18. Hyperventilation is a physiological disorder that develops when too much carbon dioxide (CO2) has been
eliminated from the body, usually caused by breathing too rapidly or too deeply. To overcome the symptoms
of hyperventilation, you should slow your breathing rate.
DECOMPRESSION KICKNESS
19. Decompression sickness (DCS) is a painful condition that can occur if flying too soon after diving. It is very
important that you allow enough time for the body to rid itself of excess nitrogen absorbed during diving.
FITNESS FOR FLIGHT
20. Stress is the bodys reaction to the physical and psychological demands places upon it, and it can adversely
affect your ability to fly safely. When you are fatigued, you are more prone to error in the cockpit. Getting
adequate rest and improving your overall fitness will help you perform at your best.
21. Preflight use of the Im Safe Checklist will help ensure you are fit for flight. Consider illness, and medication
that might affect your safety as a pilot. Factors such as rest, a good breakfast, and issues at work can
interfere with your concentration level in the airplane. If you have any reservations about your ability to make
the flight, save the trip for another time.
1. Accidents involving IFR conditions are roughly 65% fatal. Obtaining your instrument rating and maintaining
IFR currency greatly reduces your risk for these types of accidents.
2. Accidents are rarely attributed to a single cause, but are the result of a series of poor choices.
SAFE HABIT PATTERNS
3. You should consider filing an IFR flight plan for every flight, and close that flight plan only when a safe
landing is assured.
4. Though you work closely with ATC under IFR, you remain the final authority as to the safety of the flight.
You may also need to coordinate responsibility with other pilots that fly with you.
5. Flying with a safety pilot to practice instrument maneuvers will help you maintain currency and proficiency.
105
COMMUNICATION
8. To avoid confusion, be sure to read back all important parts of a clearance, and ask for clarification when
there is an instruction you do not understand.
9. Barriers to communication include preconceived notions of upcoming clearances, abbreviated clearances,
and words that have more than one meaning.
RESOURCES USE
10. Effective use of resources occurs when you understand and utilize all the people and equipment available to
you during a flight.
11. Plan for each IFR flight thoroughly before you leave the ground, including fuel requirements, alternates
available, and missed approach instructions. It is also helpful to program any navigation information before
engine start. The more you can rehearse ahead of time, the more prepared you will be in the event of a
problem.
12. During a high workload situation, identify the most important tasks and make those a priority. Do not allow
yourself to fixate on an extraneous issue.
SITUATIONAL AWARENESS
13. Visualization techniques can be used to create a mental picture of the flight overall.
14. You can avoid CFIT by maintaining positional awareness: staying abreast of your altitude, the proper
procedure in use, and the terrain surrounding the airport.
15. Loss of situational awareness can occur when pilots are confused by clearances, misunderstand onboard
equipment, or do not communicate properly with others in the cockpit.
106
AERODYNAMICS
Answer the following questions and provide a reference to each answer unless the answer is provided from the
chart/approach plate:
1. In straight and level, un-accelerated flight, lift is equal to and opposite to _________ and thrust is equal and
opposite to _________.
2. Lift acts perpendicular to the ______________________.
3. When you increase the angle of attack, there is a corresponding
1) increase in dynamic pressure only.
2) increase in dynamic pressure and induced drag.
3) increase in dynamic pressure and a decrease in drag.
4. Indicated stall speed is directly affected by
1) weight, CG location, load factor, and power.
2) density altitude, CG location, load factor, and power.
3) weight, load factor, angle of attack, and density altitude.
5. (true, false) for a given airfoil, a stall will always occur at the same angle of attack, regardless of weight, bank
angle, or pitch attitude.
6. You should never intentionally
________________________.
stall
an
airplane
at
speed
that
is
above
the
design
7. When you extend trailing edge flaps, the lift coefficient of the wing _______ (increases, decreases) and the
stall speed ________ (increases, decreases).
8. When extended, flaps allow you to increase rate of descent without increasing the _________.
9. Drag that is created by the production of lift is called ___________ drag.
10. Parasite drag is greater at __________ (higher, lower) airspeeds.
11. The speed that allows an airplane to remain aloft for the longest period of time is called __________ speed.
12. The speed that provides the greatest distance for a given amount of fuel is called the __________ speed.
13. The initial tendency of an airplane to return to a state of equilibrium following a displacement from the
condition is known as __________ stability.
14. (true, false) Dynamic stability describes the time required for an airplane to respond to its static stability.
15. the tendency of an airplane to remain stationary about its vertical (yaw) axis is known as
___________________.
107
16. When you transition from straight and level flight to a climb, you increase the angle of attack
1) and increase lift.
2) and decrease lift.
3) and increase lift momentarily.
17. For a given weight, the maximum rate of climb depends on
1) excess lift.
2) excess thrust.
3) excess thrust horsepower.
18. For a given weight, the maximum angle of climb occurs at the airspeed with the greatest difference between
thrust available and __________.
19. The altitude at which the best angle of climb and the best rate of climb converge is the
____________________.
20. In a level, coordinated turn, the vertical component of lift overcomes the weight of the airplane, and the force
that causes the airplane to turn is called the __________ component of lift.
21. During a level, 60 banked turn, the effective weight of a 2,500 pounds airplane is _________ pounds.
22. When you increase the airspeed during a level, coordinated, constant angle of bank turn, the rate of turn will
________ (increase, decrease) and radius of turn will _______ (increase, decrease).
23. During turn entry, rudder in the direction of the turn is necessary to overcome _______ yaw.
24. As you climb out of ground effect, induced drag _______ (increase, decrease) and your airplane will require
_______ (more, less) thrust.
25. _____ (true, false) Recovery from a spin in an airplane with an aft CG may be difficult or even impossible.
108
PERFORMANCE
Answer the following questions and provide a reference to each answer unless the answer is provided from a chart:
2. The vertical line from point D to point G is shown on your airplanes's indicator by the
1)
2)
3)
4)
3. The vertical line from point E to point F is represented on the airspeed indicator by the
1)
2)
3)
4)
Red line.
White arc.
Green arc.
Yellow arc.
109
Use the Wind Component Chart provided next page to answer questions 4 thru 6
4. If the maximum crosswind component of your airplane is 12 knot. which crosswind conditions exceeds this
limit?
1)
2)
3)
4)
10 knots at 90 angle.
15 knots at 30 angle.
15 knots at 45 angle.
20 knots at 40 angle.
5. If you are using runway 30, which surface wind conditions would exceed your airplane's crosswind capability
of 0.2 Vso when Vso is 60 knots?
1)
2)
3)
4)
260 at 20 knots.
275 at 25 knots.
315 at 35 knots.
320 at 30 knots.
6. If you are departing on runway 13 and the surface wind is 190 at 15 knots. The head wind component is
1)
2)
3)
4)
5 knots.
7 knots.
13 knots.
15 knots.
5%
10%
12%
15%
10. A headwind that is 10% of your takeoff airspeed can reduce the takeoff distance by approximately
1)
2)
3)
4)
7%
12%
15%
19%
110
111
11. Conditions:
Flaps ................................................................ 20.
Runway........................................... Paved, level, dry.
Pressure altitude .......................................... 2,000 ft.
Temperature .................................................... 25C.
Headwind ........................................................ 10 kts.
Weight ...................................................... 4,100 lbs.
Find:
Ground Roll ___________ feet.
Distance to clear 50 ft obstacle __________ feet.
12. Conditions:
Flaps ................................................................ 20.
Runway .......................................... Paved, level, dry.
Pressure altitude .......................................... 5,000 ft.
Temperature .................................................... 5C.
Tail wind ......................................................... 5 kts.
Weight ...................................................... 4,100 lbs.
Find:
Distance to clear 50 ft obstacle __________ feet.
Use the time, fuel and distance to climb chart on the next page to answer question 13.
112
CLIMB
SPEED
KIAS
4100
S.L.
4000
8000
12,000
16,000
20,000
24,000
110
110
110
110
110
110
110
RATE
OF
CLIMB
FPM
1150
1120
1070
1000
910
810
580
3700
S.L.
4000
8000
12,000
108
108
108
108
1335
1305
1250
1180
WEIGHT
LBS
0
11
23
35
0
6
12
18
13. Conditions:
Pressure altitude .......................................... 4,000 ft.
Temperature .............................................. Standard.
Weight ...................................................... 4,100 lbs.
Find:
Time to climb to 16,000 feet ___________ minutes.
Fuel used, including engine start, taxi, and takeoff allowance __________ pounds.
Distance to climb __________ n.m
113
CONDITIONS:
Flaps UP
Gear UP
2700 RPM
37.0 in. Hg (or full power)
Fuel Flow Set for Climb
Cowl Flaps Open
Standard Temperature
WEIGHT
LBS
4100
3700
PRESS
ALT
FT
S.L.
4000
8000
12,000
16,000
20,000
24,000
CLIMB
SPEED
KIAS
110
110
110
110
110
110
110
S.L.
4000
8000
12,000
16,000
20,000
24,000
108
108
108
108
108
108
108
0C
20C
40C
1410
1325
1210
1075
930
780
495
1265
1175
1065
940
795
645
355
1110
1020
920
805
655
-----
960
875
780
---------
1615
1520
1400
1260
1105
945
640
1455
1360
1245
1115
965
805
500
1290
1200
1095
970
820
-----
1130
1040
940
---------
14. Conditions:
Pressure altitude .......................................................... 6,000 ft.
Temperature .............................................................. Standard.
Weight ...................................................................... 4,100 lbs.
Find:
The maximum rate of climb __________ FPM.
114
15. Conditions:
Pressure altitude .......................................... 6,000 ft.
Temperature ................................................... 13 C.
Power ........................................ 2,500 RPM 24 in Hg.
Fuel Available ............................................... 460 lbs.
Find:
The fuel flow __________ PPH.
The maximum available flight time __________ (hours and minutes).
115
Use the cruise and range performance chart to answer question 16.
16. Conditions:
Cruise altitude ...........................................7,500 feet.
Temperature .............................................. Standard.
Power ....................................... 2,500 RPM 65% BPH.
Fuel available ................................................. 48 gal.
Find:
No-wind range _________ s.m
Endurance at 7,500 ft _________ (hours in tenths)
Approximate TAS _________ MPH
Fuel flow _________ GPH
116
Use the Normal Landing chart provided next page to answer questions 17 and 18.
117
17. Conditions:
Flaps ............................................................. Down.
Runway .......................................... Paved, level, dry.
Braking .................................................... Maximum.
Temperature .................................................... 60F.
Pressure altitude .......................................... 6,000 ft.
Weight ...................................................... 2,600 lbs.
Headwind ...................................................... 15 kts.
Find:
Total landing distance over a 50 ft obstacle _________ feet.
Ground roll _________ feet.
Approach speed _________ knots IAS.
18. Conditions:
Flaps ..............................................................Down.
Runway .......................................... Paved, level, dry.
Braking .................................................... Maximum.
Temperature .................................................... 90F.
Pressure altitude .......................................... 8,000 ft.
Weight ...................................................... 3,400 lbs.
Headwind ........................................................ 6 kts.
Find:
Total landing distance over a 50 ft obstacle _________ feet.
Ground roll _________ feet.
Approach speed _________ knots IAS.
118
Match the operating conditions with effect on the performance of an aircraft and provide reference to your answer.
(some operating conditions may have more than one answer)
119
120
Basic Empty Weight: Weight of the standard airplane, optional equipment, unusable fuel and full oil.
Zero Fuel Weight: Basic empty weight plus pilot plus passengers plus baggage or cargo (fuel not included).
Ramp Weight: Zero fuel weight plus usable fuel.
Takeoff Weight: Ramp weight minus fuel needed for taxi and run-up.
Landing Weight: Takeoff weight minus fuel burned during flight. (Weight on touchdown)
Maximum Certificated or Gross weight: are similar terms to signify maximum allowable weights.
Usable Fuel: Weight or volume of fuel that is available for flight.
Unusable Fuel: Amount of fuel remaining at the bottom of tanks or in fuel lines that will not reach the engine.
Payload: Total weight of people and cargo or baggage.
Useful Load: Difference between Maximum takeoff weight and Basic empty weight. (Weight of Pilot, Passengers, Fuel and
Cargo).
Datum: An imaginary vertical plane from which all the horizontal measurements are taken. (Manufacturer may place it, at the
nose, firewall or leading edge).
Arm: Distance from the datum to the location where the weight is placed. (Arm and station are similar terms).
Moment: Turning force which results from an object's weight acting at a distance from a reference point.
Center of gravity of the airplane (C.G): A point where the entire weight of the airplane is considered to be concentrated.
Conversions Figures:
One U.S gallon of Avgas weight 6 pounds
One U.S gallon of engine oil weight 7.5 pounds
One gallon = Four quarts
121
EXERCISES:
Answer the following questions and provide a reference to each answer unless the answer is provided from a chart :
1. what items is not included in the basic empty weight of the airplane?
1) Usable fuel.
2) Full engine oil.
3) Standard equipment.
2. One gallon of avgas weight __________ Ibs, one gallon of engine oil weights __________ Ibs.
3. Useful load include payload plus ____________ fuel.
4. Where is the most current basic empty weight and moment for an airplane listed?
1) In the owner's manual.
2) On a placard in the cockpit.
3) In the weight and balance records.
5. The arm of a component or object on the airplane is equal to the distance between that component and the
reference ___________ of the airplane.
6. To determine moment, multiply the weight of a component by its __________.
7. Center of gravity is determined by dividing the airplane's total __________ by its total ___________.
8. The proper location of the center of gravity is critical to the airplane's _________.
9. The airplane you are flying has a CG of 45.2 inches. Adding baggage to a compartment with an arm of 38.9
inches will cause the CG to move ___________ (forward, aft).
10. The airplane you are flying has a maximum takeoff weight of 2,800 lbs. After making your weight and
balance computations, you determine the weight of the airplane to be 2,860 lbs. How much fuel must be
unloaded prior to takeoff?
1) 8 gal.
2) 10 gal.
3) 20 gal.
122
WEIGHT
(pounds)
ARM
(inches)
MOMENT
(pounds-inches)
1.437
38.75
55,684
FUEL
48.0
37.0
REAR PASSENGERS
73.0
BAGGAGE
95.0
2,300
TOTAL
CG= _____________inches
11. Conditions:
Empty weight and moment ...................................................... As shown
Maximum takeoff weight ......................................................... 2,300 lbs
Pilot and front seat passenger ..................................................... 330 lbs
Rear seat passengers ................................................................. 170 lbs
Baggage .................................................................................... 45 lbs
Fuel ....................................................................... Maximum allowable
Usable fuel capacity .................................................................... 65 gal
Find:
Fuel load
__________ gal.
Center of gravity __________ in.
12. Assume the center of gravity of the airplane in question 11 is forward of acceptable limits. What is the most
practical method of moving the CG further aft?
1)
2)
3)
4)
123
Use the provided LOADING GRAPH and CENTER OF GRAVITY MOMENT ENVELOPE next page to answer
questions 13 and 14.
13. Conditions:
WEIGHT
(lbs)
MOMENT
(lb.-in/1000)
1,467
57.3
Usable fuel
240
__________
340
__________
180
__________
Baggage area 1
70
__________
Baggage area 2
50
__________
__________
__________
-7
-3
Find:
Takeoff weight __________ lbs.
Takeoff moment __________ lb-in.
14. (true, false) The airplane in question 12 is loaded within acceptable limits for flight in the normal category.
124
LOADING GRAPH
125
Use the provided MOMENT TABLE next page to answer questions 15 and 16.
15. Conditions:
WEIGHT (lbs)
MOMENT
(lb.-in/100)
1,798
1,930
__________
__________
320
__________
330
__________
__________
__________
-8
-9
Find:
Takeoff weight __________ lbs.
Takeoff moment __________ lb-in.
16. The airplane in question 15 __________ (is, is not) loaded within acceptable limits for flight.
17. Conditions:
126
127