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Which one of the samples contains the most atoms?

(a) 1 mol of CO2(g)
(b) 1 mol of UF6(g)
(c) 1 mol of CH3COCH3(l) (d) 1 mol of He(g)


Which one of the samples contains the most molecules?

(a) 1 mol of CO2(g)
(b) 1 mol of UF6(g)
(c) 1 mol of CH3COCH3(l)
(d) all contain the same number of molecules


Which one of the samples has the largest mass?

(a) 1 mol of CO2(g)
(b) 1 mol of UF6(g)
(c) 1 mol of CH3COCH3(l)
(d) 1 mol of He(g)


Which of the following statements is(are) FALSE?

1. The percent by mass of each element in a compound depends on the amount of the compound.
2. The mass of each element in a compound depends on the amount of the compound.
3. The percent by mass of each element in a compound depends on the amount of element present in the
(a) 2 and 3
(b) 1 only
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3


On balancing the equation PtCl4 + XeF2 PtF6 + ClF + Xe with the smallest whole number coefficients, the
number of moles of XeF2 is
(a) 5
(b) 4
(c) 3
(d) 2


Balance the following equation Cr2(SO4)3 + RbOH Cr(OH)3 + Rb2SO4 with the smallest whole number
coefficients. The sum of the coefficients in the balanced equation is
(a) 10
(b) 12
(c) 13
(d) 14


Balance the following equation using minimum integral coefficients: NH3 + O2 NO2 + H2O
The stoichiometric coefficient for oxygen gas O2 is:
(a) 1
(b) 4
(c) 3
(d) 7


When FeS2 is heated in air, sulfur dioxide and iron(III) oxide are formed: FeS2 + O2 SO2 + Fe2O3. The
stoichiometric coefficient for oxygen gas O2 in the balanced equation is
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 7
(d) 11


Number of moles of KBrO3 required to prepare 1 moles of Br2 according to the reaction:
KBrO3 + 5KBr + 6HNO3 KNO3 + 3Br2 + 3H2O is
(a) 0.210
(b) 0.0732
(c) 0.0704
(d) 0.333


Which of the following statements is FALSE for the chemical equation: N2 + 3H2 2NH3 assuming the
reaction goes to completion?
(a) The reaction of one mole of H2 will produce 2/3 moles of NH3.
(b) One mole of N2 will produce two moles of NH3.
(c) One molecule of nitrogen requires three molecules of hydrogen for complete reaction.
(d) The reaction of three moles of hydrogen gas will produce 17 g of ammonia.


The amount of CaC2 produced from the reaction of excess calcium oxide and 10.2 g of carbon in the reaction
CaO + 3C CaC2 + CO is:
(a) 18.1 g
(b) 28.4 g
(c) 20.8 g
(d) 19.8 g


The mass of hydrogen formed when 25 grams of aluminum reacts with excess hydrochloric acid in the
reaction: 2Al + 6HCl Al2Cl6 + 3H2 is
(a) 0.41 g
(b) 1.2 g
(c) 1.8 g
(d) 2.8 g



Consider the chemical reaction: 3CH3OH + 4MnO4 3HCOOH + 4MnO2 (ignore charge imbalance). When
12 g of methanol (CH3OH) was treated with excess oxidizing agent, 14 g of formic acid (HCOOH) was
formed.The percent yield of formic
(a) 100%
(b) 92%
(c) 81%
(d) 70%


Consider the chemical reaction for dimethyl sulfoxide synthesis: O2 + 2(CH3)2S 2(CH3)2SO. If this process
is 83% efficient, how many grams of DMSO could be produced from 65 g of dimethyl sulfide and excess O2?
(a) 68 g
(b) 75 g
(c) 83 g
(d) 51 g


The formation of ethyl alcohol (C2H5OH) by the fermentation of glucose (C6H12O6) may be represented by:
C6H12O6 2C2H5OH + 2CO2. If this fermentation process is 87.0% efficient, how many grams of glucose
would be required for the production of 51.0 g of ethyl alcohol (C2H5OH)?
(a) 68.3 g
(b) 75.1 g
(c) 115 g
(d) 229 g


The limiting reagent in a chemical reaction is one that:

(a) has the largest molar mass (formula weight)
(b) has the smallest molar mass (formula weight).
(c) has the smallest coefficient.
(d) is consumed completely.


If 5.0 g of each reactant were used for the following process, the limiting reactant would be:
2KMnO4 +5Hg2Cl2 + 16HCl 10HgCl2 + 2MnCl2 + 2KCl + 8H2O
(a) KMnO4
(b) HCl
(c) H2O
(d) Hg2Cl2


What mass of ZnCl2 can be prepared from the reaction of 3.27 grams of zinc with 3.30 grams of HCl?
+2HCl ZnCl2 + H2
(a) 6.89 g
(b) 6.82 g
(c) 6.46 g
(d) 6.17 g


How many grams of NH3 can be prepared from 77.3 grams of N2 and 14.2 grams of H2?
(N2 + 3H2 2NH3)
(a) 93.9 g
(b) 79.7 g
(c) 47.0 g
(d) 120.0 g


Silicon carbide is made by the reaction of silicon dioxide with graphite: SiO2 +3C SiC + 2CO
If 100 g of SiO2 and 100 g of C are reacted, which one of the following statements will be correct?
(a) 111 g of SiO2 will be left over.
(b) 44 g of SiO2 will be left over.
(c) 82 g of C will be left over.
(d) 40 g of C will be left over.


Calculate the mass of 6.00% NiSO4 solution that contains 40.0 g of NiSO4?
(a) 667 g
(b) 540 g
(c) 743 g
(d) 329 g


How many grams of water are contained in 75.0 grams of a 6.10% aqueous solution of K3PO4?
(a) 75.0 g
(b) 73.2 g
(c) 70.4 g
(d) 68.1 g


The mass (in grams) of FeSO47H2O required for preparation of 125 mL of 0.90 M solution is:
(a) 16 g
(b) 25 g
(c) 13 g
(d) 31 g


What is the molarity of phosphoric acid in a solution labeled 20.0% phosphoric acid (H3PO4) by weight with a
density = 1.12 g/mL?
(a) 0.98 M
(b) 2.3 M
(c) 2.7 M
(d) 3.0 M


How many mL of 17 M NH3 must be diluted to 500.0 mL to make a 0.75 M solution?

(a) 13 mL
(b) 22 mL
(c) 39 mL
(d) 73 mL



How many grams of Ag2CO3 are required to react with 28.5 mL of 1.00 M NaOH solution?
(Ag2CO3 +2NaOH Ag2O + Na2CO3 + H2O)
(a) 7.87 g
(b) 3.93 g
(c) 15.7 g
(d) 10.8 g


How many milliliters of 0.200 M NH4OH are needed to react with 12.0 mL of 0.550 M FeCl3?
FeCl3 + 3NH4OH Fe(OH)3 + 3NH4Cl
(a) 99.0 mL
(b) 33.0 mL
(c) 8.25 mL
(d) 68.8 mL


When 250. mL of a 0.15 M solution of ammonium sulfide (NH4)2S is poured into 120. mL of a 0.053 M
solution of cadmium sulfate CdSO4, how many grams of a yellow precipitate of cadmium sulfide CdS are
formed? The other product is (NH4)2SO4.
(a) 5.4 g
(b) 0.92 g
(c) 2.6 g
(d) 1.9 g


What alkaline earth metal is located in period 3?

(a) Li
(b) Na
(c) Ca
(d) Mg


Which of the following is classified as a metal?

(a) Ge
(b) As
(c) F
(d) V


Which of the following is a weak acid?

(a) H2SO4
(b) HClO3
(c) HF

(d) HCl


Which one of the following is likely to be the most soluble base?

(a) Ca(OH)2
(b) Cu(OH)2
(c) Ga(OH)3
(d) Zn(OH)2


Which one of the following statements is TRUE?

(a) One mole of any acid will ionize completely in aqueous solution to produce one mole of H ions.
(b) Solutions of weak acids always have lower concentrations of H than solutions of strong acids.
(c) There are several common acids that are insoluble.
(d) All of the IA and IIA metal hydroxides are soluble.


Consider the following reaction: NH3(g) + H2O(l) NH4 (aq) + OH (aq)

Which one of the following statements is false?

(a) The double arrows indicate that ammonia (NH3), is only very slightly soluble in water.
(b) The reaction is reversible.
(c) When ammonia is added to water, NH4 and OH ions are produced in a 1:1 ratio.
(d) When solutions of NH4Cl and NaOH are mixed, some ammonia is produced.

Insoluble salt among the ones given below is:

(b) Ca(NO3)2
(c) BaCO3
(a) NH4Cl

(d) Na2S


What salt is formed in the following acid/base reaction? HClO3 + Ba(OH)2

(a) BaCl2
(b) ClOBa
(c) BaClO3
(d) Ba(ClO3)2


The precipitate formed when barium chloride is treated with sulfuric acid is _______ .
(a) BaS2O4
(b) BaSO3
(c) BaSO2
(d) BaSO4


The spectator ion(s) in the reaction Na2CO3(aq) + Ba(NO3)2(aq) BaCO3(s) + 2NaNO3(aq) is/are:
(a) Na and Ba
(b) Ba and CO3
(c) CO3 and NO3
(d) Na and NO3


Which one of the following statements is FALSE?

(a) For the reaction of a strong acid with a strong soluble base, the net ionic equation is always
H + OH H2O
(b) "Spectator ions" appear in the total ionic equation for a reaction, but not in the net ionic equation.
(c) HF, HCl, and HNO3 are all examples of strong acids.
(d) Titration is a process which can be used to determine the concentration of a solution.


What is the net ionic equation for the acid-base reaction that occurs when acetic acid and potassium
hydroxide solutions are mixed?

(a) H (aq) + OH (aq) H2O(l)

(b) H (aq) + KOH(s) K (aq) + H2O(l)
(c) CH3COOH(aq) + KOH(s) KCH3COO(aq) + H2O(l)
(d) CH3COOH(aq) + OH (aq) CH3COO (aq) + H2O(l)

What is the net ionic equation for the acid-base reaction that occurs when nitric acid is added to copper(II)

(a) H (aq) + OH (aq) H2O(l)

(b) 2H (aq) + Cu(OH)2(s) Cu (aq) + 2H2O(l)
(c) 2HNO3(aq) +Cu(OH)2(s) Cu(NO3)2(s) + 2H2O(l)
(d) 2H (aq) + 2NO3 (aq) + Cu (aq) + 2OH (aq) Cu(NO3)2(s) + 2H2O(l)

Which of the following statements is FALSE given the following net ionic equation?


H3PO4(aq) + 3OH (aq) PO4 (aq) + 3H2O(l)

(a) If all the water evaporated away, the salt remaining could possibly be Na3PO4.
(b) The acid, H3PO4, is a weak electrolyte.
(c) The base involved must be a strong soluble base.
(d) This could be the net ionic equation for H3PO4 reacting with Al(OH)3.



For the net ionic equation: 2H (aq) + Cu(OH)2(s) Cu (aq) + 2H2O(l), a wrong statement is:
(a) If all the water evaporated away, the salt remaining could possibly be CuS.
(b) The acid involved must be a strong electrolyte.
(c) The base, Cu(OH)2, is an insoluble base.
(d) This could be the net ionic equation for HNO3 reacting with Cu(OH)2.


Determine the oxidation number of carbon in K2CO3.

(a) 0
(b) +2
(c) +4
(d) -2


What pressure (in atm) would be exerted by 76 g of fluorine gas (F2) in a 1.50 liter vessel at -37 C?
(a) 26 atm
(b) 4.1 atm
(c) 19,600 atm
(d) 84 atm


Consider the reaction: 4NH3 + 5O2 4NO + 6H2O. The element being oxidized and the oxidizing agent are:
(a) N and NH3
(b) N and O2
(c) O and NH3 (d) O and O2


Given that the Activity Series is: Na>Mg>Cu>Ag>Au, which one of the following answers represents the ions
that would not be displaced from aqueous solution (reduced) by metallic magnesium?
(a) Na
(b) Cu
(c) Cu and Au
(d) Cu , Ag and Au


Which name/formula combination is WRONG?

(a) phosphorous acid / H3PO4
(b) nitrogen oxide / NO
(c) acetate ion / CH3COO
(d) sodium chromate / Na2CrO4


Which name/formula combination is WRONG?

(a) chlorous acid / HClO2
(b) dinitrogen tetroxide / N2O4
(c) ammonium nitrate / NH4NO3 (d) copper(II) periodate / CuIO4


Which of the following has a positive charge?

(a) proton
(b) neutron
(c) anion

(d) electron


Rutherford carried out experiments in which a beam of alpha particles was directed at a thin piece of metal
foil. From these experiments he concluded that:
(a) electrons are massive particles.
(b) the positively charged parts of atoms are moving about with velocity of light.
(c) the positively charged parts of atoms are extremely small and extremely heavy particles.
(d) the diameter of an electron is approximately equal to that of the nucleus.


Consider the species Zn, As and Ge. These species have:

(a) the same number of electrons.
(b) the same number of protons.
(c) the same number of neutrons. (d) the same number of protons and neutrons.


The neutral atoms of all of the isotopes of the same element have
(a) different numbers of protons.
(b) equal numbers of neutrons.
(c) the same number of electrons. (d) the same mass numbers.


What is the atomic weight of a hypothetical element consisting of two isotopes, one with mass = 64.23 amu
(26.0%), and one with mass = 65.32 amu?
(a) 65.3 amu
(b) 64.4 amu
(c) 64.9 amu
(d) 65.0 amu


Naturally occurring rubidium consists of just two isotopes. Its atomic weight is 85.47. One of the isotopes
consists of atoms having a mass of 84.912 amu; the other of 86.901 amu. What is the percent natural
abundance of the heavier isotope?
(a) 15%
(b) 28%
(c) 37%
(d) 72%
(e) 85%


What is the frequency of light having a wavelength of 4.50 x 10 cm?

-12 -1
4 -1
14 -1
15 -1
(a) 2.84x10 s (b) 2.10x10 s
(c) 4.29x10 s
(d) 6.67x10 s


The emission spectrum of gold shows a line of wavelength 2.676 x 10 m. How much energy is emitted as
the excited electron falls to the lower energy level?
(a) 7.43x10 J
(b) 5.30x10 J
(c) 6.05x10 J
(d) 3.60x10 J


The statement(s) that is/are consistent with the Bohr theory of the atom is/are:
(1) An electron can remain in a particular orbit as long as it continually absorbs radiation of a definite
(2) The lowest energy orbits are those closest to the nucleus.
(3) An electron can jump from the K shell (n = 1 major energy level) to the M shell (n = 3 major energy level)
by emitting radiation of a definite frequency.






(a) 1,2,3

(b) 2 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1,2


The Heisenberg Principle states that _____________.

(a) no two electrons in the same atom can have the same set of four quantum numbers.
(b) two atoms of the same element must have the same number of protons.
(c) it is impossible to determine accurately both the position and momentum of an electron simultaneously.
(d) electrons of atoms in their ground states enter energetically equivalent sets of orbitals singly before they
pair up in any orbital of the set.


Which statement about the four quantum numbers which describe electrons in atoms is incorrect?
(a) n = principal quantum number, n = 1, 2, 3, ......
(b) l = subsidiary (or azimuthal) quantum number, l = 1, 2, 3, ... , (n+1)
(c) ml = magnetic quantum number, ml = (-l), .... , 0, .... , (+l)
(d) ms = spin quantum number, ms = +1/2 or -1/2.


Which atomic orbital is spherical in shape?

(a) 2s
(b) 3p
(c) 3d

(d) 4f


The maximum number of electrons that can be accommodated in a sublevel for which l = 3 is:
(a) 2
(b) 10
(c) 6
(d) 14


The ground state electron configuration for arsenic is:

(a) [Ar] 4s 4p
(b) [Kr] 4s 4p
(c) 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p 3d 4s 4p
(d) 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p 4s 3d 4p


Which of the following electron configurations is correct for nickel?

(a) [Ar] 4s 3d
(b) [Kr] 4s 4d
(c) [Kr] 4s 3d

(d) [Ar] 4s 3d


The outer electronic configuration ns np corresponds to ground state configuration of:

(a) As
(b) Ca
(c) S
(d) Br


In the ground state of a cobalt atom there are _____ unpaired electrons and the atom is _____.
(a) 3, paramagnetic
(b) 5, paramagnetic
(c) 2, diamagnetic
(d) 0, diamagnetic


The set of quantum numbers corresponding to the distinguishing (last) electron of Mo is:
(a) n = 4, l = 0, ml = 0, ms = +1/2
(b) n = 5, l = 1, ml = 9, ms = -1/2
(c) n = 4, l = 2, ml = -1, ms = +1/2
(d) n = 5, l = 2, ml = +2, ms = -1/2


How many p electrons are there in an atom of rubidium?

(a) 12
(b) 18
(c) 24
(d) 9


A neutral atom of an element has 2 electrons in the first energy level, 8 in the second energy level and 8 in
the third energy level. This information does not necessarily tell us:
(a) the atomic number of the element.
(b) anything about the element's chemical properties.
(c) the total number of electrons in s orbitals.
(D) the number of neutrons in the nucleus of an atom of the element.


The valence electrons of representative elements are

(a) in s orbitals only.
(b) located in the outermost occupied major energy level.
(c) located closest to the nucleus.
(d) located in d orbitals.


Which of the following pairs of elements and valence electrons is incorrect?

(a) Al - 3
(b) Br - 7
(c) S - 4
(d) Sr - 2


With regard to the species O , F and Ne, which of the following statements is correct?
(a) All three species contain 10 electrons.
(b) The sum of the neutrons in all three species is 27.
(c) The sum of the protons in all three species is 28.
19 20
(d) Both F and Ne contain 20 neutrons.


Which of the following does not have a noble gas electron configuration? (or Which of the following is not
isoelectronic with a noble gas?)
(b) Ba
(c) Al
(d) Sb
(e) Sc
(a) S


Which one of the formulas for ionic compounds below is incorrect?

(a) SrCl2
(b) Cs2S
(c) AlCl3
(d) Al3P2


2- 19 -



Which is classified as nonpolar covalent?

(a) the H-I bond in HI
(b) the H-S bond in H2S
(c) the P-Cl bond in PCl3
(d) the N-Cl bond in NCl3


Which one of the compounds below is most likely to be ionic?

(a) GaAs
(b) ScCl3
(c) NO2
(d) CCl4


The correct electron-dot formulation for hydrogen cyanide shows:

(a) 2 double bonds and two lone pairs of electrons on the N atom.
(b) 1 C-H bond, 1 C=N bond, 1 lone pair of electrons on the C atom and 1 lone pair of electrons on the N
(c) 1 C-H bond, 1 C-N bond, 2 lone pairs of electrons on the C atom and 3 lone pairs of electrons on the N
(d) 1 triple bond between C and N, 1 C-H bond and 1 lone pair of electrons on the N atom.


The correct dot formulation for nitrogen trichloride has:

(a) 3 N-Cl bonds and 10 lone pairs of electrons.
(b) 3 N=Cl bonds and 6 lone pairs of electrons.
(c) 1 N-Cl bond, 2 N=Cl bonds and 7 lone pairs of electrons.
(d) 2 N-Cl bonds, 1 N=Cl bond and 8 lone pairs of electrons.


What is the total number of electrons in the correct Lewis dot formula of the sulfite ion?
(a) 8
(b) 24
(c) 26
(d) 30


In the Lewis structure for the OF2 molecule, the number of lone pairs of electrons around the central oxygen
atom is
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 3


The electronic structure of the SO2 molecule is best represented as a resonance hybrid of ____ equivalent
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5


Consider the bicarbonate ion (also called the hydrogen carbonate ion). After drawing the correct Lewis dot
structure(s), you would see:
(a) two double bonds around the central carbon atom.
(b) three single bonds around the central carbon atom.
(c) four single bonds around the central carbon atom.
(d) two equivalent resonance forms.


If you correctly draw one of the resonance structures of SO3. The formal charge of S is
(a) +2
(b) +1
(c) 0
(d) -1


Which one of the following violates the octet rule?

(a) PCl3
(b) CBr4
(c) NF3
(d) AsF5


Choose the molecule that is incorrectly matched with the electronic geometry about the central atom.
(a) CF4 - tetrahedral
(b) BeBr2 - linear
(c) H2O - tetrahedral
(d) PF3 - pyramidal


Choose the species that is incorrectly matched with the electronic geometry about the central atom.
(a) NO2 - trigonal planar
(b) ClO4 - tetrahedral
2(c) SO3 - pyramidal
(d) ClO3 - tetrahedral


Which of the following pairs of molecules and their molecular geometries is WRONG?
(a) NF3 - trigonal planar
(b) H2O - bent
(c) BF3 - trigonal planar
(d) AsF5 - trigonal bipyramidal


Which molecule has a linear arrangement of all component atoms?

(a) CH4
(b) H2O
(c) CO2 (d) NH3


Which polyatomic ion is incorrectly matched with its ionic geometry?

(a) SiCl6 - trigonal bipyramidal
(b) PH4 - tetrahedral
(c) ClO2 - angular
(d) NH4 - tetrahedral


Which of the following species is planar?

2(a) NH3
(b) H3O
(c) SO3

(d) NO3


What kind of hybrid orbitals are utilized by the carbon atom in CF4 molecules?
(a) sp
(b) sp
(c) sp
(d) sp d


A neutral molecule having the general formula AB3 has two unshared pair of electrons on A. What is the
hybridization of A?
(c) sp
(d) sp d
(a) sp
(b) sp


What hybridization is predicted for sulfur in the HSO3 ion?

(a) sp
(b) sp
(c) sp
(d) sp d


Which of the following four molecules are polar: PH3, OF2, HF, SO3?
(a) all except SO3 (b) only HF
(c) only HF and OF2
(d) none of these


Which molecule is nonpolar?

(a) H2Se
(b) BeH2



(d) 90 and 180

Which response contains all of the characteristics listed that should apply to phosphorus trichloride, PCl3, and
no other characteristics?
(1) trigonal planar, (2) one unshared pair of electrons on P , (3) sp hybridized at P,
(4) polar molecule, and (5) polar bonds
(b) 2, 3, 4

(c) 1, 2, 4

(d) 2, 4, 5

A (pi) bond is the result of the

(a) overlap of two s orbitals.
(c) sidewise overlap of two parallel p orbitals.


(d) CHCl3

The F-S-F bond angles in SF6 are ______.

(a) 109 28'
(b) 120 only
(c) 90 and 120

(a) 1, 4, 5

(c) PF3

(b) overlap of two p orbitals along their axes.

(d) sidewise overlap of two s orbitals.

A triple bond contains ___ sigma bond(s) and ___ pi bond(s).

(a) 0, 3
(b) 3, 0
(c) 2, 1
(d) 1, 2

100. The perchloric acid molecule contains:

(a) 13 lone pairs, 1 bond, and 4 bonds.
(c) 8 lone pairs, 2 bonds, and 7 bonds.

(b) 9 lone pairs, no bonds, and 6 bonds.

(d) 11 lone pairs, no bonds, and 5 bonds.

101. From the line-bond or electron-dot formula for acetic acid infer the correct statement:
(a) One carbon is described by sp hybridization.
(b) The molecule contains only one bond.
(c) The molecule contains four lone pairs of valence electrons.
(d) Both oxygens are described by sp hybridization.
102. Which statement is false? A sigma molecular orbital
(a) may result from overlap of p atomic orbitals perpendicular to the molecular axis (side-on).
(b) may result from overlap of p atomic orbitals along the molecular axis (head-on).
(c) may result from overlap of two s atomic orbitals.
(d) may result from overlap of one s and one p atomic orbitals.
103. Carbon monoxide has ten bonding electrons and four antibonding electrons. Therefore it has a bond order of
(a) 3
(b) 7
(c) 1
(d) 5/2
104. Which of the following is the correct electron configuration for C2?

(a) 1s 2s 2py *1s *2s *2py

(b) 1s *1s 2s *2s 2py
(c) 1s *1s 2s *2s 2py 2pz (d) 1s *1s 2s *2s 2py 2pz

*2pz1 2p1

105. What is the correct electron configuration for the molecular ion, B2 ?

(a) 1s *1s 2s *2s 2p

(c) 1s *1s 2s *2s 2py 2pz

(b) 1s *1s 2s *2s

(d) none of the above.


106. From the molecular orbital diagram for the molecular ion, N2 , the number of electrons in the
orbital is:
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 3

2p molecular

107. What is the bond order in O2 ?

(a) 3.5
(b) 2.0

(c) 1.5

(d) 2.5

108. From the molecular orbital diagram for B2, the number of unpaired electrons in the B2 molecule is _____.
(a) zero

(b) 1

(c) 2

(d) 3

109. Which one of the following statements is false?

(a) Valence bond theory and molecular orbital theory can be described as two different views of the same
(b) When one considers the molecular orbitals resulting from the overlap of any two specific atomic orbitals,
the bonding orbitals are always lower in energy than the antibonding orbitals.
(c) Molecular orbitals are generally described as being more delocalized than hybridized atomic orbitals.
(d) One of the shortcomings of molecular orbital theory is its inability to account for a triple bond in the
nitrogen molecule, N2.
110. Which statement regarding stable heteronuclear diatomic molecules is false?
(a) All have bond orders greater than zero.
(b) The antibonding molecular orbitals have more of the character of the more electropositive element than of
the more electronegative element.
(c) Their molecular orbital diagrams are more symmetrical than those of homonuclear diatomic molecules.
(d) The bonding molecular orbitals have more of the character of the more electronegative element than of
the less electronegative element.
111. Arrhenius defined an acid as:
(a) a species that can donate a proton.
(c) a source of OH ions in water.

(b) a species that can accept a proton.

(d) a sourse of H ions in water.

112. In the Bronsted-Lowry system, a base is defined as:
(a) a proton donor.
(b) a hydroxide donor.
(c) an electron-pair acceptor.
(d) a proton acceptor.

113. In the equation: HF + H2O H3O + F

(a) H2O is a base and HF is its conjugate acid.

(c) HF is an acid and F is its conjugate base.
114. For the system shown here: HOBr + OH

(a) OH and HOBr

(b) H2O is an acid and HF is the conjugate base.

(d) HF is a base and H3O is its conjugate acid.

H2O + OBr-, Bronsted would classify the base species as:

(b) H2O and OH

115. Which is the strongest acid?

(b) HClO3
(a) HClO4

(c) OBr and OH

(c) HClO2

(d) HClO

(d) OBr and HOBr

116. Which of these species is probably the weakest acid?

2(a) HCl
(b) H3PO4
(c) H2PO4
(d) HPO4
117. Consider the neutralization reactions between the following acid-base pairs in dilute aqueous solutions:
(1) CH3COOH + NaOH
(2) HNO3 + Mg(OH)2
(3) H3PO4 + Ba(OH)2
(4) HCl + KOH
(5) H2CO3 + LiOH
For which of the reactions is the net ionic equation: H + OH H2O ?
(a) 1, 3

(b) 1, 4, 5

(c) 2, 3

(d) 4

118. Which one of the following represents the net ionic equation for the reaction of nitric acid with aluminum


(a) 3H + Al(OH)3 Al + 3H2O (b) 3HNO3 + Al(OH)3 Al(NO3)3 + 3H2O

(c) HNO3 + OH NO3 + H2O
(d) H + OH H2O
119. Which one of the following is an amphoteric metal hydroxide?
(c) Pb(OH)2
(a) KOH
(b) Ba(OH)2

(d) LiOH

120. According to the Lewis theory, a base _____ .

(a) is a proton acceptor.
(b) is a proton donor.
(c) makes available a share in a pair of electrons. (d) produces OH ions in aqueous solution.
121. How many grams of Ca(OH)2 are contained in 1500 mL of 0.0250 M Ca(OH)2 solution?
(a) 3.17 g
(b) 2.78 g
(c) 1.85 g
(d) 2.34 g
122. What volume of 12.6 M HCl must be added to enough water to prepare 5.00 liters of 3.00 M HCl?
(a) 1.19 L
(b) 21.0 L
(c) 0.840 L
(d) 7.56 L
123. What is the molarity of the salt produced in the reaction of 200 mL of 0.100 M HCl with 100 mL of 0.500 M
(a) 0.0325 M
(b) 0.0472 M
(c) 0.0667 M
(d) 0.0864 M
124. What volume of 0.50 M KOH would be required to neutralize completely 500 mL of 0.25 M H3PO4 solution?
(a) 2.5 x 10 mL (b) 1.4 x 10 mL
(c) 83 mL
(d) 7.5 x 10 mL

125. A 0.6745 gram sample of KHP reacts with 41.75 mL of KOH solution for complete neutralization. What is the
molarity of the KOH solution?
(a) 0.158 M
(b) 0.099 M
(c) 0.139 M
(d) 0.079 M
126. How many equivalents of phosphoric acid are contained in 300 mL of 4.00 M phosphoric acid assuming the
acid is to be completely neutralized by a base.
(a) 0.600 eq
(b) 1.20 eq
(c) 2.40 eq
(d) 3.60 eq
127. Calculate the normality of a solution that contains 4.5 g of (COOH)2 in 3000 mL of solution assuming
(COOH)2 is completely neutralized in an acid-base reaction.
(a) 0.033 N
(b) 0.045 N
(c) 0.066 N
(d) 0.090 N
128. What volume of 0.100 N HNO3 is required to neutralize 50.0 mL of a 0.150 N solution of Ba(OH)2?
(a) 50.0 mL
(b) 75.0 mL
(c) 100. mL
(d) 125 mL
129. How many grams of NaOH would be required to neutralize all the acid in 75.0 mL of 0.0900 N H2SO4?
(a) 0.540 g
(b) 0.270 g
(c) 1.32 g
(d) 0.660 g
130. What is the oxidation number for carbon in CaC2O4?
(a) 0
(b) +2
(c) +3
(d) +4
131. Balance the molecular equation for the following redox reaction. What is the sum of all the coefficients? Use
the smallest whole number coefficients possible: H2SO4(aq) + HI(aq) I2(s) + SO2(g)
(a) 7

(b) 9

(c) 11

(d) 13

132. For the reaction between permanganate ion and sulfite ion in basic solution, the unbalanced equation is:
22MnO4 + SO3 MnO2 + SO4 . When this equation is balanced using the smallest whole number coefficients
possible, the number of OH ions is
(a) two on the right.
(b) two on the left.
(c) three on the right.
(d) four on the right.


133. Balance the redox equation Cu + SO4 Cu + SO2 in acidic solution with the smallest whole number
coefficients possible. What is the sum of all the coefficients?
(a) 9
(b) 10
(c) 11
(d) 12


134. When the equation Cr2O7 + H2S Cr + S (in acidic solution) is balanced with the smallest possible set of
integers, what is the sum of all the coefficients?
(a) 13
(b) 24
(c) 19
(d) 7
135. When the following equation is balanced with the smallest possible set of integers, what is the sum of all the
2coefficients? MnO4 + Se MnO2 + Se (in basic solution)
(a) 20
(b) 22
(c) 24
(d) 26
136. Consider the following unbalanced equation in acidic solution: NaClO3 + H2O + I2 HIO3 + NaCl
A 25.0 mL sample of 0.0833 M NaClO3 reacted with 30.0 mL of an aqueous solution of I2. How many grams
of I2 were contained in the I2 solution?
(a) 0.264 g
(b) 0.397 g
(c) 0.236 g
(d) 0.317 g


137. Consider the following unbalanced net ionic equation: O2 + MnO4 NO3 + Mn (in acidic solution). What
is the molarity of a sodium nitrite, NaNO2, solution if 30.0 mL of it just reacts with 0.238 grams of KMnO4?
(a) 0.410 M
(b) 0.126 M
(c) 0.0502 M
(d) 0.251 M

138. What is the equivalent weight (in grams) of copper(II) nitrate for use in a reaction involving the conversion of
copper(II) to copper metal?
(a) 46.9 g/eq
(b) 93.8 g/eq
(c) 187.6 g/eq
(d) 375.2 g/eq
139. What is the normality of a K2Cr2O7 solution prepared by dissolving 5.00 g of K2Cr2O7 in 200 mL of solution,
2which will be used in the unbalanced reaction: Cr2O7 + SO3 Cr + SO4 (in acidic solution)
(a) 0.733 N

(b) 0.226 N

(c) 0.510 N

(d) 0.441 N

140. What mass of KMnO4 must be dissolved to prepare 1.25 L of 0.110 N KMnO4 solution? It is used in the
reaction in which MnO4 ions oxidize Fe into Fe ions and are reduced to Mn ions under acidic
(a) 4.34 g
(b) 23.8 g
(c) 115 g
(d) 19.1 g

141. A 0.250 M solution of Na2C2O4 is to be used in a reaction in which the C2O4 will be oxidized to CO2. What is
the normality of this Na2C2O4 solution?
(a) 0.250 N
(b) 1.00 N
(c) 0.125 N
(d) 0.500 N
142. What volume of a 0.150 N KI solution is required to react in basic solution with 34.1 mL of a 0.216 N solution
of KMnO4? The products in the reaction include MnO2 and IO3 .
(a) 25.4 mL
(b) 37.9 mL
(c) 12.6 mL
(d) 49.1 mL
143. Calculate the normality of a NaClO solution if 35.00 mL of the solution is required to react with 0.615 g of Zn
according to the following unbalanced equation: Zn + ClO Zn(OH)2 + Cl (in basic solution)
(a) 0.537 N
(b) 0.275 N
(c) 0.108 N
(d) 0.366 N

144. A solution of nitrous acid was standardized in a reaction where HNO2 NO3 and its concentration was
determined to be 0.100 N nitrous acid. What volume of this 0.100 N nitrous acid solution would be required to
oxidation of 0.200 g of CoCl2 to CoCl3 according to the following net ionic equation? Co + HNO2 Co +
NO (in acidic solution)
(a) 33.9 mL
(b) 30.8 mL
(c) 7.70 mL
(d) 67.8 mL
145. What is the sum of all coefficients when the following net ionic equation is balanced using the smallest whole
number coefficients possible: MnO4 + Mn MnO2 (in basic solution)
(a) 19

(b) 16

(c) 13

(d) 11

Which statement is false?

(a) The density of a gas is constant as long as its temperature remains constant.
(b) Gases can be expanded without limit.
(c) Gases diffuse into each other and mix almost immediately when put into the same container.
(d) The molecular weight of a gaseous compound is a non-variable quantity.

147. A sample of oxygen occupies 47.2 liters under a pressure of 1240 torr at 25 C. What volume would it occupy
at 25 C if the decreased to 730 torr?
(a) 27.8 L
(b) 29.3 L
(c) 80.2 L
(d) 47.8 L

148. A sample of nitrogen occupies 5.50 liters under a pressure of 900 torr at 25 C. At what temperature will it
occupy 10.0 liters at the same pressure?
(a) 32 C
(b) -109 C
(c) 154 C
(d) 269 C
149. Under conditions of fixed temperature and amount of gas, Boyle's law requires that
I. P1V1 = P2V2
II. PV = constant
III. P1/P2 = V2/V1
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) III only
(d) I, II, and III


150. The volume of a sample of nitrogen is 6.00 liters at 35 C and 740 torr. What volume will it occupy at STP?
(a) 6.59 L
(b) 5.46 L
(c) 5.18 L
(d) 5.67 L
151. The density of chlorine gas at STP, in grams per liter, is approximately:
(a) 6.2
(b) 3.2
(c) 3.9
(d) 4.5

152. What is the density of ammonia gas at 2.00 atm pressure and a temperature of 25.0 C?
(a) 0.720 g/L
(b) 0.980 g/L
(c) 1.39 g/L
(d) 16.6 g/L

153. A container with volume 71.9 mL contains water vapor at a pressure of 10.4 atm and a temperature of 465 C.
How many grams of the gas are in the container?
(a) 0.421 g
(b) 0.222 g
(c) 0.129 g
(d) 0.363 g

154. Molecular weight of a pure gaseous compound having a density of 4.95 g/L at -35 C and 1020 torr will be:
(a) 24
(b) 11
(c) 72
(d) 120
155. A 0.580 g sample of a compound contains only 0.480 g of carbon and 0.100 g of hydrogen. At STP, 33.6 mL
of the gas has a mass of 0.087 g. What is the molecular (true) formula for the compound?
(b) C2H6
(c) C2H5
(d) C4H10
(a) CH3
156. A mixture of 90.0 grams of CH4 and 10.0 grams of argon has a pressure of 250 torr under conditions of
constant temperature and volume. The partial pressure of CH4 in torr is:
(a) 143
(b) 100
(c) 10.7
(d) 239
157. What pressure (in atm) would be exerted by a mixture of 1.4 g of nitrogen gas and 4.8 g of oxygen gas in a
200 mL container at 57 C?
(a) 4.7
(b) 34
(c) 47
(d) 27

158. A sample of hydrogen gas collected by displacement of water occupied 30.0 mL at 24 C on a day when the
barometric pressure was 736 torr. What volume would the hydrogen occupy if it were dry and at STP? The
vapor pressure of water at 24.0 C is 22.4 torr.
(a) 32.4 mL
(b) 21.6 mL
(c) 36.8 mL
(d) 25.9 mL
159. Which one of the following statements is not consistent with the kinetic-molecular theory of gases?
(a) Individual gas molecules are relatively far apart.
(b) The actual volume of the gas molecules themselves is very small compared to the volume occupied by
the gas at ordinary temperatures and pressures.
(c) The average kinetic energies of different gases are different at the same temperature.
(d) There is no net gain or loss of the total kinetic (translational) energy in collisions between gas molecules.
160. A mixture of 0.50 mol H2(g) and 0.50 mol N2(g) is introduced into a 15.0 liter container having a pinhole leak
at 30 C. After a period of time, which of the following is true?
(a) The partial pressure of H2 exceeds that of N2 in the container.
(b) The partial pressure of N2 exceeds that of H2 in the container.
(c) The partial pressures of the two gases remain equal.
(d) The partial pressures of both gases increase above their initial values.
161. If helium effuses through a porous barrier at a rate of 4.0 moles per minute, at what rate (in moles per minute)
would oxygen gas diffuse?
(a) 0.20
(b) 1.41
(c) 2.0
(d) 8.0
162. A real gas most closely approaches the behavior of an ideal gas under conditions of:
(a) high P and low T
(b) low P and high T
(c) low P and T
(d) high P and T

163. Which one of the following statements about the reaction CH4(g) + 2O2(g) CO2(g) + 2H2O(g) is false?
(a) Every methane molecule that reacts produces two water molecules.
(b) If 32.0 g of oxygen reacts with excess methane, the maximum amount of carbon dioxide produced will be
22.0 g.
(c) If 11.2 liters of methane react with an excess of oxygen, the volume of carbon dioxide produced at STP is
(44/16)(11.2) liters.
(d) If 16.0 g of methane react with 64.0 g of oxygen, the combined masses of the products will be 80.0 g.

164. What total gas volume (in liters) at 520 C and 880 torr would result from the decomposition of 33 g of
potassium bicarbonate according to the equation: 2KHCO3(s) K2CO3(s) + CO2(g) + H2O(g)
(a) 56 L

(b) 37 L

(c) 10 L

(d) 19 L

165. Calculate the weight of KClO3 that would be required to produce 29.5 L of oxygen measured at 127 C and
760 torr. 2KClO3(s) 2KCl(s) + 3O2(g)
(a) 7.82 g

(b) 73.5 g

(c) 14.6 g

(d) 24.4 g

166. Which of the following statements is false?

(a) The properties of N2(g) will deviate more from ideality at -100 C than at 100 C.
(b) Van der Waal's equation corrects for the non-ideality of real gases.
(c) Molecules of CH4(g) at high pressures and low temperatures have no attractive forces between each
(d) Molecules of an ideal gas are assumed to have no significant volume.
167. The ideal gas law predicts that the molar volume (volume of one mole) of gas equals:
(a) gRT/PV
(b) (MW)P/RT
(c) 1/2ms
(d) RT/P
168. Three 1.0 liter flasks are filled with H2, O2 and Ne, respectively, at STP. True statement is:
(a) Each flask has the same number of gas molecules.
(b) The velocity of the gas molecules is the same in each flask.
(c) The density of each gas is the same.
(d) There are twice as many O2 and H2 molecules as Ne atoms.
169. For a gas, which pair of variables are inversely proportional to each other at constant other conditions?
(a) P, T
(b) P, V
(c) V, T
(d) n, V
170. What type of intermolecular forces are due to the attraction between temporary dipoles and their induced
temporary dipoles?
(a) metallic bond
(b) London dispersion (c) hydrogen bond
(d) ionic bond
171. What type of inter-particle forces holds liquid N2 together?
(a) ionic bonding (b) London forces
(c) hydrogen bonding

(d) dipole-dipole interaction

172. Compounds that can exhibit hydrogen bonding among CH4, AsH3, CH3NH2, H2Te, HF are:
(a) AsH3, H2Te
(b) AsH3, CH3NH2
(c) CH4, AsH3, H2Te
(d) CH3NH2, HF
173. Which of the following boils at the highest temperature?
(a) CH4
(b) C2H6
(c) C3H8
(d) C5H12
174. Which probably has the lowest boiling point at 1.00 atm?
(a) HF
(b) HCl
(c) HBr
(d) HI

175. The normal boiling point of a liquid is
(a) the temperature at which the vapor pressure equals 760 torr.
(b) the temperature above which the substance cannot exist as a liquid regardless of the pressure.
(c) the temperature at which the gas molecules have more kinetic energy than the molecules in the liquid.
(d) the only temperature at which there can be equilibrium between liquid and gas.
176. Which of the following changes would increase the vapor pressure of a liquid?
1. an increase in temperature
2. an increase in the intermolecular forces in the liquid
3. an increase in the size of the open vessel containing the liquid
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1 only
(d) 2 only

177. For water (m.p. 0 C, b.p. 100 C) Heat of fusion = 333 J/g @ 0 C
Heat of vaporization = 2260 J/g @ 100 C Specific Heat (solid) = 2.09 J/g C
Specific Heat (liquid) = 4.18 J/g C
Specific Heat (gas) = 2.03 J/g C
Calculate the amount of heat (in kJ) that must be absorbed to convert 108 g of ice at 0 C to water at 70 C.
(a) 77
(b) 68
(c) 64
(d) 57

178. For mercury (m.p. -39 C, b.p. 357 C)

Heat of fusion = 11.6 J/g @ -39 C
Heat of vaporization = 292 J/g @ 357 C Specific Heat (solid) = 0.141 J/g C
Specific Heat (liquid) = 0.138 J/g C
Specific Heat (gas) = 0.104 J/g C
Calculate the amount of heat that must be released to convert 20.0 g of mercury vapor at 387 C to liquid
mercury at 307 C (in kJ).
(a) 61.9
(b) 6.56
(c) 6.04
(d) 5.69
179. Which of the following phase changes is(are) endothermic?
1. melting
2. vaporization
(a) 1, 2, and 3

3. sublimation
4. condensation

(b) 4, 5, and 6 (c) 1 and 2 only

5. deposition
6. freezing
(d) 4 and 6 only

180. According to the phase diagram given for Compound Y, what description is correct?

(a) At the temperature and pressure at point 4, Y(g) will spontaneously convert to Y(l).
(b) At 0 C and 1200 torr, Y exists as a solid.
(c) At the pressure and temperature of point 1, Y(s) will spontaneously convert to Y(g) and no Y(l) is possible.
(d) At the pressure and temperature at point 3, Y(s) Y(g).
181. Where on a phase diagram can you locate conditions under which only one phase exists?
(a) at an intersection of two lines
(b) at the normal boiling point
(c) at an intersection of three lines
(d) in an area bounded by lines
182. In any cubic lattic, an atom lying at the corner of a unit cell is shared equally by how many unit cells?
(a) one (b) two
(c) eight
(d) four

183. Which statement is false?
(a) Molecular solids generally have lower melting points than covalent solids.
(b) Metallic solids exhibit a wide range of melting points because metallic bonds cover a wide range of bond
(c) The metallic solid can be viewed as positive ions closely packed in a sea of valence electrons.
(d) The interactions among the molecules in molecular solids are generally stronger than those among the
particles that define either covalent or ionic crystal lattices.
184. Which one of the following classifications is incorrect?
(a) H2O(s), molecular solid
(b) C4H10(s), molecular solid
(c) KF(s), ionic solid
(d) S(s), metallic solid
185. Which of the following compounds would be expected to have the highest melting point?
(a) BaF2
(b) BaCl2
(c) BaBr2
(d) BaI2
(e) H2O
186. Which one of the following substances can be melted without breaking chemical bonds?
(a) sodium sulfate
(b) zinc chloride
(c) sulfur dioxide
(d) silicon dioxide
187. Consider the three statements below. Which statement(s) is(are) true?
1. Hydration is a special case of solvation in which the solvent is water.
2. The oxygen end of water molecules is attracted toward Ca ions.
3. The hydrogen end of water molecules is attracted toward Cl ions.
(a) 1,2 and 3
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1 and 2 only
188. Consider the following pairs of liquids. Which pairs are miscible?
2. water and methanol, CH3OH 3. water and hexane
1. benzene, C6H6, and hexane, C6H12
(a) 1, 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 only
(d) 1, 2, 3
189. Calculate the molality of a solution that contains 51.2 g of naphthalene, C10H8, in 500 mL of carbon
tetrachloride. The density of CCl4 is 1.60 g/mL.
(a) 0.250 m
(b) 0.500 m
(c) 0.750 m
(d) 0.840 m
190. What is the molality of a solution labeled "8.6% glucose (C6H12O6) by weight?" (Note: If the question does not
give the solvent, assume it is water.)
(a) 0.26 m
(b) 0.34 m
(c) 0.44 m
(d) 0.52 m
191. Calculate the mole fraction of C2H5OH in a solution that contains 46 grams of ethanol, C2H5OH, and 64
grams of methanol, CH3OH.
(a) 1/3
(b) 0.42
(c) 1/2
(d) 2/3
192. Which observation(s) reflect(s) colligative properties?
(I) A 0.5 m NaBr solution has a higher vapor pressure than a 0.5 m BaCl2 solution.
(II) A 0.5 m NaOH solution freezes at a lower temperature than pure water.
(III) Pure water freezes at a higher temperature than pure methanol.
(a) only I
(b) only II
(c) only III
(d) I and II

193. The vapor pressure of pure water at 85 C is 434 torr. What is the vapor pressure at 85 C of a solution
prepared from 100 mL of water (density 1.00 g/mL) and 150 g of diglyme, C6H14O3, a nonvolatile substance?
(a) 361 torr
(b) 390 torr
(c) 425 torr
(d) 388 torr
194. The vapor pressure of a solution containing a nonvolatile solute is directly proportional to the
(a) molality of the solvent.
(b) osmotic pressure of the solute.
(c) molarity of the solvent.
(d) mole fraction of solvent.

195. If 4.27 grams of sucrose, C12H22O11, are dissolved in 15.2 grams of water, what will be the boiling point of the
resulting solution? (Kb for water = 0.512 C/m and Kf for water = -1.86 C/m)
(a) 101.64 C
(b) 100.42 C (c) 99.626 C (d) 100.73 C
196. What are the ideal van't Hoff factors for the following compounds: Ba(OH)2, C6H12O6, K3PO4, HNO3 ?
(a) 1, 1, 1, 1
(b) 2, 1, 2, 2
(c) 3, 1, 4, 2
(d) 6, 3, 5, 5

197. Calculate the approximate initial boiling point (in C) of a solution of 285 g of magnesium chloride in 2.0 kg of
water. (Assume complete dissociation of the salt.)
(a) 103.1 C
(b) 101.6 C
(c) 102.3 C
(d) 100.8 C
(e) 104.8 C

198. A solution made by dissolving 9.81 g of a nonvolatile nonelectrolyte in 90.0 g of water boiled at 100.37 C at
760 mm Hg. What is the approximate molecular weight of the substance? (For water, Kb = 0.51 C/m)
(a) 240 g/mol
(b) 150 g/mol (c) 79 g/mol
(d) 61 g/mol

199. What is the freezing point of an aqueous 1.00 m NaCl solution? (Kf = 1.86 C/m) (Assume complete
dissociation of the salt.)
(a) -1.86 C
(b) +1.86 C
(c) -3.72 C
(d) -0.93 C
200. A 17.3 mg sample of an organic compound (a non-electrolyte) was ground up with 420 mg of camphor to
form a homogeneous mixture melting at 170.0 C. What is the apparent formula weight of the organic
compound? (Kf of camphor = 37.7 C/m, m.p. of camphor = 178.4 C) (Note: This is a freezing point
depression problem - note the Kf of camphor - camphor is the solvent.)
(a) 353 g/mol
(b) 285 g/mol (c) 231 g/mol (d) 185 g/mol
201. Calculate the osmotic pressure associated with 50.0 g of an enzyme of molecular weight 98,000 g/mol
dissolved in water to give 2600 mL of solution at 30.0 C.
(a) 0.484 torr
(b) 1.68 torr
(c) 3.71 torr
(d) 2.48 torr

202. A 250 mL solution containing 21.4 g of a polymer in toluene had an osmotic pressure of 0.055 atm at 27 C.
What is the apparent formula weight of the polymer?
(a) 15,000 g/mol (b) 38,000 g/mol
(c) 26,000 g/mol
(d) 32,000 g/mol
203. Which one of the following thermodynamic quantities is not a state function?
(a) Gibbs free energy
(b) enthalpy
(c) work
(d) internal energy
204. At a constant temperature, an ideal gas is compressed from 6.0 liters to 4.0 liters by a constant external
pressure of 5.0 atm. How much work is done on the gas?
(a) w = +10 liter atm
(b) w = -10 liter atm
(c) w = +30 liter atm
(d) w = -30 liter atm
205. A system suffers an increase in internal energy of 80 J and at the same time has 50 J of work done on it.
What is the heat change of the system?
(a) +130 J
(b) +30 J
(c) -130 J
(d) -30 J
206. A 5.000 g sample of methanol, CH3OH, was combusted in the presence of excess oxygen in a bomb
calorimeter conaining 4000 g of water. The temperature of the water increased from 24.000 C to 29.765 C.
The heat capacity of the calorimeter was 2657 J/ C. The specific heat of water is 4.184 J/g C. Calculate E
for the reaction in kJ/mol.
(a) -314 kJ/mol (b) -789 kJ/mol
(c) -716 kJ/mol (d) -121 kJ/mol

207. The H for the following reaction at 298 K is -36.4 kJ. 1/2 H2(g) + 1/2 Br2(l) HBr(g).
Calculate E at 298 K. The universal gas constant, R, is 8.314 J/mol K.
(a) -35.2 kJ

(b) +35.2 kJ

(c) -36.4 kJ

(d) -37.6 kJ


208. A coffee cup calorimeter having a heat capacity of 451 J/ C was used to measure the heat evolved when
0.0300 mol of NaOH(s) was added to 1000 mL of 0.0300 M HNO3 initially at 23.000 C. The temperature of
the water rose to 23.639 C. Calculate H (in kJ/mol NaNO3) for this reaction. Assume the specific heat of
the final solution is 4.18 J/g C; the density of each solution is 1.00 g/mL; and the addition of solid does not
appreciably affect the volume of the solution. HNO3(aq) + NaOH(s) NaNO3(aq) + H2O(l)
(a) -63.7 kJ/mol

(b) -151 kJ/mol

(c) -2.55 kJ/mol

(d) -98.6 kJ/mol

209. Calculate the amount of work done for the conversion of 1.00 mole of Ni to Ni(CO)4 in the reaction

Ni(s) + 4 CO (g) Ni(CO)4(g) at 75 C. Assume that the gases are ideal. The value of R is 8.31 J/mol.K.:

(a) 1.80 x 10 J

(b) 8.68 x 10 J

(c) -1.80 x 10 J

(d) -8.68 x 10 J

210. All of the following have a standard heat of formation value of zero at 25 C and 1.0 atm except:
(a) N2(g)
(b) Fe(s)
(c) Ne(g)
(d) H(g)

211. For which of the following reactions would the H for the reaction be labeled Hf ?
(a) Al(s) + 3/2 H2(g) + 3/2 O2(g) Al(OH)3(s)
(c) 1/2 N2O(g) + 1/4 O2(g) NO(g)

(b) PCl3(g) + 1/2 O2(g) POCl3(g)

(d) CaO(s) + SO2(g) CaSO3(s)

212. Calculate H for the reaction: Na2O(s) + SO3(g) Na2SO4(g) given the following information:

(1) Na(s) + H2O(l) NaOH(s) + 1/2 H2(g)

-146 kJ

(2) Na2SO4(s) + H2O(l) 2NaOH(s) + SO3(g)

+418 kJ

(3) 2Na2O(s) + 2H2(g) 4Na(s) + 2H2O(l)

+259 kJ

(a) +255 kJ
213. Calculate H

(b) -435 kJ

(d) +531 kJ


for the following reaction at 25.0 C:

Fe3O4(s) + CO(g)

Hf (kJ/mol) -1118
(a) -263 kJ

(c) -581 kJ


(b) 54 kJ

3FeO(s) + CO2(g)


(c) 19 kJ

(d) -50 kJ

214. Calculate the standard heat of formation, Hf , for FeS2(s), given the following information:
2FeS2(s) + 5O2(g) 2FeO(s) + 4SO2(g)

Horxn = -1370 kJ Hfo for SO2(g) = -297 kJ/mol

Hfo for FeO(s) = -268 kJ/mol

(a) -177 kJ

(d) -686 kJ

(b) -1550 kJ

(c) -774 kJ

215. Estimate the heat of reaction at 298 K for the reaction shown, given the average bond energies below.
Br2(g) + 3F2(g) 2BrF3(g)
Bond Energy
192 kJ
158 kJ
197 kJ
(a) -516 kJ

(b) -410 kJ

(c) -611 kJ

(d) -665 kJ

216. What is the standard entropy change of the reaction below at 298 K with each compound at the standard
S 298 (J/mol K)
(a) -198.7 J/K
(b) 76.32 J/K

(c) 303.2 J/K


(d) -129.7 J/K


217. The entropy will usually increase when

I. a molecule is broken into two or more smaller molecules.
II. a reaction occurs that results in an increase in the number of moles of gas.
III. a solid changes to a liquid.
IV. a liquid changes to a gas.
(a) all
(b) II only
(c) III only
(d) IV only

218. Calculate G for the reaction 2SO2(g) + O2(g) 2SO3(g) given the following information:
Gfo for SO2(g) = -300.4 kJ/mol Gfo for SO3(g) = -370.4 kJ/mol
(a) -70.0 kJ

(b) +70.0 kJ

(c) -670.8 kJ

(d) -140.0 kJ

219. For the reaction SBr4(g) S(g) + 2Br2(l) at 25 C, H = +115 kJ and

reaction at 25 .
(a) +152 kJ
(b) -56.7 kJ
(c) +77.8 kJ
(d) +37.1 kJ

So = +125 J/K. Calculate Go for the

220. The heat of vaporization of freon, CCl2F2, is 17.2 kJ/mol at 25 C. What is the change of entropy for one mole
of liquid freon when it vaporizes at 25 C?
(a) 57.7 J/K
(b) 0.688 J/K (c) 5.13 x 10 kJ/K
(d) 3.16 J/K
221. Estimate the boiling point of Br2(l) (H = 30.9 kJ; S = 93.0 J/K).

(a) 85 C

(b) 373 C

(c) 177 C

Br2(l) Br2(g)

(d) 59 C

222. For the reaction, A + B C, H = +30 kJ; S = +50 J/K. Therefore the reaction is:
(a) spontaneous at all temperatures.
(b) nonspontaneous at all temperatures.
(c) spontaneous at temperatures less than 600 K.
(d) spontaneous at temperatures greater than 600 K.
223. How much heat is absorbed in the complete reaction of 3.00 grams of SiO2 with excess carbon in the
reaction below? H for the reaction is +624.7 kJ. SiO2(s) + 3C(s) SiC(s) + 2CO(g)
(a) 31.2 kJ

(b) 1.13 x 10 kJ

(c) 5.06 kJ

(d) 312 kJ

224. The standard heat of combustion of ethanol, C2H5OH, is 1372 kJ/mol ethanol. How much heat (in kJ) would
be liberated by completely burning a 20.0 g sample?
(a) 686 kJ
(b) 519 kJ
(c) 715 kJ
(d) 597 kJ
225. Which statement is incorrect?
(a) At constant pressure, H = E + PV (b) The thermodynamic symbol for entropy is S.
(c) Gibbs free energy is a state function. (d) For an endothermic process, H is negative.
226. Which statement is false?
(a) The thermodynamic quantity most easily measured in a "coffee cup" calorimeter is H.
(b) No work is done in a reaction occurring in a bomb calorimeter.
(c) H is sometimes exactly equal to E.
(d) H is equal to E for the reaction: 2H2(g) + O2(g) 2H2O(g)

227. The combustion of ethane (C2H6) is represented by the equation:
2C2H6(g) + 7O2(g) 4CO2(g) + 6H2O(l) In this reaction:
(a) the rate of consumption of ethane is seven times faster than the rate of consumption of oxygen.
(b) the rate of formation of CO2 equals the rate of formation of water.
(c) water is formed at a rate equal to two-thirds the rate of formation of CO2.
(d) CO2 is formed twice as fast as ethane is consumed.
228. The speed of a chemical reaction
(a) is constant no matter what the temperature is.
(b) is independent of the amount of contact surface of a solid involved.
(c) between gases should in all cases be extremely rapid because the average kinetic energy of the
molecules is great.
(d) between ions in aqueous solution is extremely rapid because there are no bonds that need to be broken.

229. For a reaction 2A + B 2C, with the rate equation: Rate = k[A] [B]
(a) the order with respect to A is 1 and the order overall is 1.
(b) the order with respect to A is 2 and the order overall is 2.
(c) the order with respect to A is 2 and the order overall is 3.
(d) the order with respect to B is 2 and the order overall is 2.

230. Given the following data for the reaction: NH4 (aq) + NO2 (aq) N2(g) + 2H2O(l)

[NH4 ]
[NO2 ]
0.010 M
0.020 M
0.015 M
0.020 M
0.010 M
0.010 M
The rate law for the reaction is:
+ 2
- 2
(a) Rate = k[NH4 ][NO2 ]
(b) Rate = k[NH4 ] [NO2 ]
+ 2
- 2
(c) Rate = k[NH4 ] [NO2 ]
(d) Rate = k[NH4 ][NO2 ]

0.020 M/s
0.030 M/s
0.005 M/s

231. What are the units of k for the rate law: Rate = k[A][B] , when the concentration unit is mol/L?
-1 -1
-2 -1
(a) s
(b) s
(c) L mol s
(d) L mol s
232. Given: A + 3B 2C + D. This reaction is first order with respect to reactant A and second order with respect
to reactant B. If the concentration of A is doubled and the concentration of B is halved, the rate of the reaction
would _____ by a factor of _____.
(a) increase, 2
(b) decrease, 2 (c) increase, 4
(d) decrease, 4
233. The decomposition of carbon disulfide, CS2, to carbon monosulfide, CS, and sulfur is first order with k = 2.8 x
-7 -1
10 s at 1000 C. CS2 CS + S What is the half-life of this reaction at 1000 C?

(a) 5.0 x 10 s


(b) 4.7 x 10 s

(c) 3.8 x 10 s

(d) 2.5 x 10 s

234. The decomposition of dimethylether at 504 C is first order with a half-life of 1570 seconds. What fraction of
an initial amount of dimethylether remains after 4710 seconds?
(a) 1/3
(b) 1/6
(c) 1/8
(d) 1/16
235. The half-life for a first-order reaction is 32 s. What was the original concentration if, after 2.0 minutes, the
reactant concentration is 0.062 M?
(a) 0.84 M
(b) 0.069 M
(c) 0.091 M
(d) 0.075 M
236. If the activation energy in the forward direction of an elementary step is 52 kJ and the activation energy in the
reverse direction is 74 kJ, what is the energy of reaction E for this step?
(a) 22 kJ

(b) -22 kJ

(c) 52 kJ

(d) -52 kJ

237. Given that a reaction absorbs energy and has an activation energy of 50 kJ/mol, which of the following
statements are correct?
(1) The reverse reaction has an activation energy equal to 50 kJ/mol.
(2) The reverse reaction has an activation energy less than 50 kJ/mol.
(3) The reverse reaction has an activation energy greater than 50 kJ/mol.
(4) The change in internal energy is less than zero.
(5) The change in internal energy is greater than zero.
(a) (1) and (4)
(b) (2) and (4)
(c) (3) and (4)
(d) (2) and (5)
238. If reaction A has an activation energy of 250 kJ and reaction B has an activation energy of 100 kJ, which of
the following statements must be correct?
(a) If reaction A is exothermic and reaction B is endothermic then reaction A is favored kinetically.
(b) At the same temperature the rate of reaction B is greater than the rate of reaction A.
(c) The energy of reaction A must be greater than the energy of reaction B.
(d) The energy of reaction B must be greater than the energy of reaction A.
239. Suppose the reaction: A + 2B AB2 occurs by the following mechanism:
Step 1

A + B AB


Step 2

AB + B AB2


A + 2B AB2
The rate law expression must be Rate = _________.
(a) k[A]
(b) k[B]
(c) k[A][B]
(d) k[B]
240. A possible mechanism for the reaction, 2A + B C + D, is:

A + A A2

fast, equilibrium


A2 + A A3


A3 + B A + C + D
According to the mechanism, the rate law will be:
(a) Rate = k[A]
(b) Rate = k[A][B]
(c) Rate = k[A] [B]


(d) Rate = k[A]


241. At 300 K, the following reaction is found to obey the rate law: Rate = k[NOCl] : 2NOCl 2NO + Cl2
Consider the three postulated mechanisms given below. Then choose the response that lists all those that
are possibly correct and no others.
Mechanism 1

NOCl NO + Cl
Cl + NOCl NOCl2
NOCl2 + NO 2NO + Cl2
Overall: 2NOCl 2NO + Cl2


Mechanism 2

2NOCl NOCl2 + NO
NOCl2 NO + Cl2
Overall: 2NOCl 2NO + Cl2


Mechanism 3

NOCl NO + Cl
NOCl + Cl NO + Cl2
Overall: 2NOCl 2NO + Cl2
(c) 1
(d) 2

fast, equilibrium

(a) 2, 3

(b) 3

242. A correct reaction mechanism for a given reaction usually is:

(a) the same as its balanced chemical equation.
(b) obvious if its heat of reaction is known.
(c) obvious if its reaction order is known.
(d) sometimes difficult to prove.

243. Suppose the activation energy of a certain reaction is 250 kJ/mol. If the rate constant at T1 = 300 K is k1 and
the rate constant at T2 = 320 K is k2, then the reaction is __ times faster at 320 K than at 300 K.
(a) 3 x 10
(b) 0.067
(c) 15.0
(d) 525
244. What is the activation energy (in kJ) of a reaction whose rate constant increases by a factor of 100 upon
increasing the temperature from 300 K to 360 K?
(a) 27
(b) 35
(c) 42
(d) 69
245. Most reactions are more rapid at high temperatures than at low temperatures. This is consistent with:
(I) an increase in the activation energy with increasing temperature.
(II) an increase in the rate constant with increasing temperatures.
(III) an increase in the percentate of "high energy" collisions with increasing temperature.
(a) only I
(b) only II amd III
(c) only III
(d) only I and II
246. Which items correctly complete the statement: A catalyst can act in a chemical reaction to:
(I) increase the equilibrium constant.
(II) lower the activation energy.
(III) decrease E for the reaction.
(IV) provide a new path for the reaction.
(a) only I & II
(b) only II & IV
(c) only III & IV
(d) only I & III
247. A catalyst:
(a) actually participates in the reaction.
(b) changes the equilibrium concentration of the products.
(c) does not affect a reaction energy path.
(d) always decreases the rate for a reaction.
248. Which statement is false?
(a) If a reaction is thermodynamically spontaneous it may occur rapidly.
(b) If a reaction is thermodynamically spontaneous it may occur slowly.
(c) Activation energy is a kinetic quantity rather than a thermodynamic quantity.
(d) If a reaction is thermodynamically spontaneous, it must have a low activation energy.
249. Which of the following statements are true?
(1) Reactions with more negative values of G are spontaneous and proceed at a higher rate than those
with less negative values of G .
(2) The activation energy, Ea, is usually about the same as E for a reaction.
(3) The activation energy for a reaction does not change significantly as temperature changes.
(4) Reactions usually occur at faster rates at higher temperatures.
(a) 1, 2, 4
(b) 3, 4
(c) 1, 2, 3
(d) 2, 3, 4
250. When the concentration of reactant molecules is increased, the rate of reaction increases. The best
explanation is: As the reactant concentration increases,
(a) the average kinetic energy of molecules increases.
(b) the frequency of molecular collisions increases.
(c) the rate constant increases.
(d) the activation energy increases.
251. For the reaction, 2H2S(g) + O2(g)2S(s) + 2H2O(l), which one of the following statements is absolutely true?
(a) The reaction is first order with respect to H2S and second order with respect to O2.
(b) The reaction is fourth order overall.
(c) The rate law is: rate = k[H2S] [O2].
(d) The rate law cannot be determined from the information given.

252. When the system A + B C + D is at equilibrium,
(a) the sum of the concentrations of A and B must equal the sum of the concentrations of C and D.
(b) the forward reaction has stopped.
(c) both the forward and the reverse reactions have stopped.
(d) neither the forward nor the reverse reaction has stopped.
253. For the reaction: 2SO3(g) 2SO2(g) + O2(g), the conventional equilibrium constant expression (Kc) is:
(a) [SO2] /[SO3] (b) [SO2] [O2]/[SO3]
(c) [SO3] /[SO3] [O2]
(d) [SO2][O2]
254. Consider the reversible reaction: N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g). In a 3.00 liter container, the following amounts
are found in equilibrium at 400 C: 0.0420 mole N2, 0.516 mole H2 and 0.0357 mole NH3. Evaluate Kc.
(a) 0.202
(b) 1.99
(c) 16.0
(d) 4.94
255. If the equilibrium constant for the reaction A + 2B C + 5/2 D has a value of 4.0, what is the value of the
equilibrium constant for the reaction 2C + 5D 2A + 4B at the same temperature?
(a) 0.25
(b) 0.063
(c) 2.0
(d) 8.0

256. At 445 C, Kc for the reaction 2HI(g) H2(g) + I2(g) is 0.020. A mixture of H2, I2, and HI in a vessel at 445 C
has the following concentrations: [HI] = 2.0 M, [H2] = 0.50 M and [I2] = 0.10 M. Which one of the following
statements concerning the reaction quotient, Qc, is TRUE for the above system?
(a) Qc = Kc; the system is at equilibrium.
(b) Qc is < Kc; more H2 and I2 will be produced.
(c) Qc is less than Kc; more HI will be produced.
(d) Qc is greater than Kc; more H2 and I2 will be produced.
257. Nitrosyl chloride, NOCl, dissociates on heating as shown below. When a 1.50 gram sample of pure NOCl is
heated at 350 C in a volume of 1.00 liter, the percent dissociation is found to be 57.2%. Calculate Kc for the
reaction as written. NOCl(g) NO(g) + 1/2 Cl2(g)
(a) 0.876
(b) 9.26
(c) 0.107
(d) 1.75 x 10

258. A quantity of HI was sealed in a tube, heated to 425 C and held at this temperature until equilibrium was
reached. The concentration of HI in the tube at equilibrium was found to be 0.0706 mol/L. Calculate the
equilibirum concentration of H2 (and I2). For the gas-phase reaction, H2 + I2 2HI, Kc = 54.6 at 425 C
(a) 9.55 x 10 M
(b) 1.17 x 10 M
(c) 1.85 x 10 M
(d) 4.78 x 10 M

259. Consider the reaction: N2(g) + O2(g) 2NO(g) Kc = 0.10 at 2000 C. Starting with initial concentrations of
0.040 mol/L of N2 and 0.040 mol/L of O2, calculate the equilibrium concentration of NO in mol/L
(a) 0.0055 mol/L (b) 0.0096 mol/L
(c) 0.011 mol/L (d) 0.080 mol/L

260. For the system PCl5(g) PCl3(g) + Cl2(g) at 450 C, Kc = 0.040. If a reaction is initiated with 0.40 mole of Cl2
and 0.40 mole of PCl3 in a 2.0 liter container, what is the equilibrium concentration of Cl2 in the same
(a) 0.07 M
(b) 0.16 M
(c) 0.11 M
(d) 0.04 M
261. The reversible reaction: 2SO2(g) + O2(g) 2SO3(g) has come to equilibrium in a vessel of specific volume at
a given temperature. Before the reaction began, the concentrations of the reactants were 0.060 mol/L of SO2
and 0.050 mol/L of O2. After equilibrium is reached, the concentration of SO3 is 0.040 mol/L. What is the
equilibrium concentration of O2?
(a) 0.010 M
(b) 0.020 M
(c) 0.030 M
(d) 0.040 M
262. Consider the equilibrium system: 2ICl(s) I2(s) + Cl2(g). Which of the following changes will increase the total
amount of of Cl2 that can be produced?
(a) removing some of the I2(s)
(b) adding more ICl(s)
(c) removing the Cl2 as it is formed
(d) decreasing the volume of the container

263. Consider the gas-phase equilibrium system represented by the equation: 2H2O(g) 2H2(g) + O2(g)
Given that the forward reaction (the conversion of "left-hand" species to "right-hand" species) is endothermic,
which of the following changes will decrease the equilibrium amount of H2O?
(a) adding more oxygen
(b) adding a solid phase calalyst
(c) decreasing the volume of the container (the total pressure increases)
(d) increasing the temperature at constant pressure
264. The conventional equilibrium constant expression (Kc) for the system: 2ICl(s) I2(s) + Cl2(g) is:
(a) [I2][Cl2]/[ICl]
(b) [I2][Cl2]/2[ICl]
(c) [Cl2] (d) ([I2] + [Cl2])/2[ICl]
265. At equilibrium, a 1.0 liter container was found to contain 0.20 moles of A, 0.20 moles of B, 0.40 moles of C
and 0.40 mole of D. If 0.10 moles of A and 0.10 moles of B are added to this system, what will be the new
equilibrium concentration of A for the reaction: A(g) + B(g) C(g) + D(g)?
(a) 0.37 mol/L
(b) 0.47 mol/L (c) 0.87 mol/L (d) 0.23 mol/L

266. Consider the system A(g) + B(g) 2C(g) in a 1.00 L container. The equilibrium concentrations at 200 C were
determined to be: [A] = 0.200 M [B] = 3.00 M
[C] = 0.500 M.
How many moles of A must be added to increase the concentration of C to 0.700 M at 200 C?
(a) 0.225 mol
(b) 0.305 mol (c) 0.417 mol (d) 0.610 mol

267. Consider the reversible reaction 2A(g) + B(g) C(g) at equilibrium at 392 C. The partial pressures are found
to be: A: 6.70 atm, B: 10.1 atm, C: 3.60 atm. Evaluate Kp for this reaction.
(a) 7.94 x 10
(b) 0.146
(c) 0.0532
(d) 54.5

268. Kc = 0.040 for the system below at 450 C: PCl5(g) PCl3(g) + Cl2(g). Evaluate Kp for the reaction at 450 C.
(a) 0.40
(b) 0.64
(c) 2.4
(d) 0.052

269. What is the equilibrium constant for a reaction that has a value of G = -41.8 kJ at 100 C?
(a) 1.01
(b) 7.1 x 10
(c) -5.87
(d) 1.4 x 10


270. The equilibrium constant at 427 C for the reaction: N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g) is Kp = 9.4 x 10 . Calculate the
value of G for the reaction at 427 .
(a) -33 kJ
(b) -54 kJ
(c) 54 kJ
(d) 33 kJ
271. For a specific reaction, which of the following statements can be made about K, the equilibrium constant?
(a) It always remains the same at different reaction conditions.
(b) It increases if the concentration of one of the products is increased.
(c) It changes with changes in the temperature.
(d) It increases if the concentration of one of the reactants is increased.
272. Which assignment of oxidation number is INCORRECT for the underlined element?
2(a) K2Cr2O7; +6 (b) NH3; +3
(c) H2PO2 ; +1 (d) SeO3 ; +4
273. Which salt is not derived from a strong acid and a strong soluble base?
(a) MgCl2
(b) Ba(NO3)2
(c) LiClO4
(d) CsBr
274. Which one of the following is a strong electrolyte?
(a) H2O
(b) KF
(c) HF
(d) HNO2
275. In a sample of pure water, only one of the following statements is always true at all conditions of temperature
and pressure. Which one is always true?
(a) [H3O ] = 1.0 x 10 M (b) [OH ] = 1.0 x 10 M
(c) pH = 7.0
(d) [H3O ] = [OH ]


276. If Kw is 2.9 x 10
(a) 6.72

at 10 C, what is the pH of pure water at 10 C?

(b) 7.00
(c) 7.27
(d) 7.53

277. The pOH of a solution of NaOH is 11.30. What is the [H ] for this solution?
(a) 2.0 x 10
(b) 2.5 x 10
(c) 5.0 x 10
(d) 4.0 x 10

278. The [H3O ] in a 0.050 M solution of Ba(OH)2 is:

(a) 1.0 x 10 M (b) 5.0 x 10 M
(c) 1.0 x 10 M


(d) 2.0 x 10 M


279. What is the approximate pH of a solution labeled 6 x 10 M HBr?

(a) 4.2
(b) 4.5
(c) 5.8
(d) 9.8
280. What is the pH of 500 mL of solution containing 0.0124 grams of Ca(OH)2?
(a) 11.04
(b) 9.68
(c) 2.96
(d) 10.83
281. The pH of a solution is 4.80. What is the concentration of hydroxide ions in this solution?
(c) 3.6 x 10 M
(d) 6.3 x 10 M
(a) 4.2 x 10 M (b) 1.6 x 10 M


282. A solution in which [H ] = 10 M has a pH of ___ and is ___.

(a) 8, acidic
(b) 8, basic
(c) -6, basic
(d) -8, neutral
283. The pH of a 0.02 M solution of an unknown weak acid is 3.7. What is the pKa of this acid?
(a) 5.7
(b) 4.9
(c) 3.2
(d) 2.8
284. What is the approximate pH of a solution labeled 0.050 M HClO?
(a) 5.1
(b) 3.9
(c) 4.4
(d) 2.1
285. What is the pH of a solution labeled 0.30 M (CH3)3N?
(a) 9.5
(b) 10.8
(c) 9.2
(d) 11.7

286. Which of the following solutions has the lowest pH at 25 C?

(a) 0.2 M sodium hydroxide
(b) 0.2 M hypochlorous acid
(c) 0.2 M ammonia
(d) 0.2 M benzoic acid
287. A 0.10 M solution of a weak acid, HX, is 0.059% ionized. Evaluate Ka for the acid.
(a) 3.8 x 10
(b) 3.5 x 10
(c) 7.0 x 10
(d) 4.2 x 10
288. What is the percent ionization of an 1.2 M HF solution?
(a) 2.4 %
(b) 4.2 %
(c) 0.84 %

(d) 0.082 %

289. Which of the following weak acids ionizes to give the strongest conjugate base?
(a) HClO (b) CH3COOH
(c) HCN
(d) HNO2
290. Which of the following is true about a 0.10 M solution of a weak acid, HX?
(a) [X ] = 0.10 M (b) pH = 1
(c) [HX] > [H ]
(d) [H ] = 0.10 M

291. Calculate the hydrolysis constant for the cyanide ion, CN .

(a) 2.5 x 10
(b) 1.0 x 10
(c) 4.0 x 10
(d) 5.6 x 10
292. Calculate the pH of a 0.50 M solution of NaNO2.
(a) 12.18
(b) 5.48
(c) 1.82

(d) 8.52

293. What is the concentration of a sodium acetate solution if the pH of the solution is 9.19?
(a) 0.30 M
(b) 0.43 M
(c) 2.1 M
(d) 0.068 M

294. What is the pH of 0.060 M NH4Cl?
(a) 5.06 (b) 5.12
(c) 5.18

(d) 5.24

295. What is the concentration of ammonium chloride in a solution if its pH is 4.80?

(a) 0.25 M
(b) 0.30 M
(c) 0.45 M
(d) 0.60 M
296. The pH of 0.15 M trimethylammonium chloride, (CH3)3NHCl, a salt, is 5.34. What is the percent hydrolysis?
(a) 0.0031 %
(b) 0.0068 % (c) 0.0094 %
(d) 0.011 %
297. Which of the following combinations cannot produce a buffer solution?
(b) HCN and NaCN
(a) HNO2 and NaNO2
(c) HClO4 and NaClO4
(d) NH3 and (NH4)2SO4
298. What is the pH of a solution composed of 0.20 M NH3 and 0.15 M NH4Cl?
(a) 2.15
(b) 4.62
(c) 8.26
(d) 9.38
299. Calculate the ratio [CH3COOH]/[NaCH3COO] that gives a solution with pH = 5.00?
(a) 0.28
(b) 0.36
(c) 0.44
(d) 0.56
300. Consider a solution, which is 0.10 M in CH3COOH and 0.20 M in NaCH3COO. Which of the following
statements is true?
(a) If a small amount of NaOH is added, the pH decreases very slightly.
(b) If NaOH is added, the OH ions react with the CH3COO ions.
(c) If a small amount of HCl is added, the pH decreases very slightly.
(d) If HCl is added, the H ions react with CH3COOH ions.
301. A buffer was prepared by mixing 1.00 mole of ammonia and 1.00 mole of ammonium chloride to form an
aqueous solution with a total volume of 1.00 liter. To 500 mL of this solution was added 30.0 mL of 1.00 M
NaOH. What is the pH of this solution?
(a) 8.96
(b) 9.83
(c) 9.31
(d) 9.11
302. How many grams of NaF would have to be added to 2.00 L of 0.100 M HF to yield a solution with a pH =
(a) 300 g
(b) 36 g
(c) 60 g
(d) 6.9 g
303. Calculate the pH that results when the following solutions are mixed.
(1) 35 mL of 0.20 M formic acid (2) 55 mL of 0.10 M sodium formate
(a) 3.64
(b) 3.11
(c) 4.58
(d) 3.39

(3) 110 mL of water

304. Which indicator (identified by a letter) could be used to titrate aqueous NH3 with HCl solution?
Range ColorBasic
Change pH Color
1.2 - 2.8
3.4 - 4.6
6.5 - 7.8
colorless 8.3 - 9.9
305. What is the pH at the equivalence point in the titration of 100.0 mL of 0.20 M ammonia with 0.10 M
hydrochloric acid?
(a) 4.6
(b) 5.2
(c) 7.0
(d) 5.5
306. Calculate the pH of a solution prepared by mixing 300 mL of 0.10 M HF and 200 mL of 0.10 M KOH.
(a) 2.82
(b) 2.96
(c) 3.32
(d) 3.44


307. Consider an indicator that ionized as shown below for which its Ka = 1.0 x 10
H 2O

H 3O
Which of the responses contains all the true statements and no others?
(1) The predominant color in its acid range is yellow.
(2) In the middle of the pH range of its color change a solution containing the indicator will probably be
(3) At pH = 7.00, a solution containing this indicator (and no other colored species) will be red.
(4) At pH = 7.00, most of the indicator is in the un-ionized form.
(5) The pH at which the indicator changes color is pH = 4.
(a) 1, 3, 5
(b) 2, 4
(c) 3, 4, 5
(d) 1, 2, 3, 5
308. Calculate the pH of the solution resulting from the addition of 20.0 mL of 0.100 M NaOH to 30.0 mL of 0.100
(a) 1.35
(b) 1.70
(c) 1.95
(d) 2.52
309. Consider the titrations of the pairs of aqueous acids and bases listed on the left. For which pair is the pH at
the equivalence point stated incorrectly?
Acid-Base Pair
(a) HCl + NH3
(b) HNO3 + Ca(OH)2
(c) HClO4 + NaOH
(d) HClO + NaOH

pH at Equivalence Point
less than 7
equal to 7
equal to 7
less than 7

310. What is the approximate pH of a solution prepared by mixing equal volumes of 0.05 M methylamine and 0.20
M hydrochloric acid?
(a) 2.57
(b) 1.12
(c) 1.63
(d) 10.5
311. Which of the following salts give acidic aqueous solutions?
(3) NH4NO3
(4) RbI
(1) KNO3
(5) (NH4)2SO4
(6) BaCl2
(7) NaCN
(8) KNO2
(a) 2, 7, 8
(b) 3, 5
(c) 2, 4, 6
(d) 1, 4, 7, 8
312. The following titration curve is the kind of curve expected for the titration of a ____ acid with a ____ base.

(a) strong, strong

(b) weak, strong

(c) strong, weak

(d) weak, weak

313. Consider the titration of 30.0 mL of 0.20 M nitrous acid by adding 0.0500 M aqueous ammonia to it. The pH
at the equivalence point is _____.
(a) greater than 7
(b) equal to 7 (c) less than 7
(d) need more information
314. The solubility product expression for tin(II) hydroxide, Sn(OH)2, is
2+ 2
- 2
2+ 3
(a) [Sn ][OH ]
(b) [Sn ] [OH ]
(c) [Sn ][OH ]
(d) [Sn ] [OH ]

315. The solubility product expression for silver(I) sulfide, using x to represent the molar concentration of silver(I)
and y to represent the molar concentration of sulfide, is formulated as:
2 2
(a) xy
(b) x y
(c) xy
(d) x y

316. Consider the following solubility data for various chromates at 25 C.

9.0 x 10
2.0 x 10
1.8 x 10

The chromate that is the most soluble in water at 25 C on a molar basis is:
(a) Ag2CrO4
(b) BaCrO4
(c) PbCrO4
(d) impossible to determine

317. The molar solubility of PbBr2 is 2.17 x 10 M at a certain temperature. Calculate Ksp for PbBr2.
(a) 6.2 x 10
(b) 6.4 x 10
(c) 4.1 x 10
(d) 3.4 x 10

318. The solubility of silver sulfate in water at 100 C is approximately 1.4 g per 100 mL. What is the solubility
product of this salt at 100 C?
(a) 5.7 x 10
(b) 3.5 x 10
(c) 8.3 x 10
(d) 3.6 x 10
319. What is the molar solubility, s, of Ba3(PO4)2 in terms of Ksp?
(a) s = Ksp
(b) s = Ksp
(c) s = [Ksp/27]
(d) s = [Ksp/108]

320. For Cu(OH)2, Ksp = 1.6 x 10 . What is the molar solubility of Cu(OH)2?
(a) 3.4 x 10 M (b) 6.4 x 10 M
(c) 2.7 x 10 M
(d) 5.1 x 10 M
321. Many lead salts are often used as pigments. If PbSO4 were used in an unglazed ceramic bowl, how many
milligrams of lead(II) could dissolve per liter of water?
(a) 43
(b) 35
(c) 11
(d) 28

322. Ag3PO4 would be least soluble at 25 C in

(a) 0.1 M AgNO3
(b) 0.1 M HNO3

(c) pure water

323. The molar solubility of PbCl2 in 0.20 M Pb(NO3)2 solution is:

(a) 1.7 x 10 M (b) 9.2 x 10 M
(c) 1.7 x 10 M

(d) 0.1 M Na3PO4


(d) 4.6 x 10 M

324. When we mix together, from separate sources, the ions of a slightly soluble ionic salt, the salt will precipitate
if Qsp _____ Ksp, and will continue to precipitate until Qsp _____ Ksp.
(a) is greater than; equals
(b) is less than; is greater than
(c) is less than; equals
(d) equals; is less than
325. Which of the following pairs of compounds gives a precipitate when aqueous solutions of them are mixed?
Assume that the concentrations of all compounds are 1.0 M immediately after mixing.
(a) CuBr2 and K2CO3
(b) HNO3 and NH4I
(c) BaCl2 and KClO4
(d) Na2CO3 and H2SO4
326. A swimming pool was sufficiently alkaline so that CO2 absorbed from the air produced in the pool a solution
2which was 2 x 10 M in CO3 M. If the pool water was originally 4 x 10 M in Mg , 6 x 10 M in Ca and 8 x
10 M in Fe , then a precipitate should form of:
(a) only MgCO3 (b) only CaCO3
(c) only FeCO3
(d) only CaCO3 and FeCO3
327. When equal volumes of the solutions indicated are mixed, precipitation should occur only for:
(a) 2 x 10 M Mg + 2 x 10 M OH
(b) 2 x 10 M Ba + 2 x 10 M F
(c) 2 x 10 M Ca + 2 x 10 M OH
(d) 2 x 10 M Ca + 2 x 10 M OH


328. At what pH will Cu(OH)2 start to precipitate from a solution with [Cu ] = 0.0015 M?
(a) 9.0
(b) 8.0
(c) 6.0
(d) 9.4
329. What is the pH of a saturated solution of Mg(OH)2?
(a) 3.5
(b) 10.1
(c) 10.9
(d) 10.5

330. Which solid will precipitate first if an aqueous solution of Na2CrO4 at 25 C is slowly added to an aqueous
solution containing 0.001 M Pb(NO3)2 and 0.100 M Ba(NO3)2 at 25 C?
(a) BaCrO4(s)
(b) NaNO3(s) (c) PbCrO4(s) (d) Pb(NO3)2(s)

331. A solution is 0.0010 M in both Ag and Au . Some solid NaCl is added slowly until the solid AgCl just begins
to precipitate. What is the concentration of Au ions at this point? Ksp for AgCl = 1.8 x 10 and for AuCl = 2.0
x 10 .
(a) 2.0 x 10 M (b) 4.5 x 10 M
(c) 1.8 x 10 M
(d) 1.1 x 10 M
332. In an electrolytic cell the electrode at which the electrons enter the solution is called the ______ ; the
chemical change that occurs at this electrode is called _______.
(a) anode, oxidation
(b) anode, reduction
(c) cathode, oxidation (d) cathode, reduction
333. Which of the following statements is FALSE?
(a) All voltaic (galvanic) cells involve the use of electricity to initiate nonspontaneous chemical reactions.
(b) Oxidation and reduction half-reactions occur at electrodes in electrochemical cells.
(c) Reduction occurs at the cathode.
(d) Oxidation occurs at the anode.
334. The half-reaction that occurs at the anode during the electrolysis of molten sodium bromide is:

(a) 2 Br Br2 + 2 e

(b) Br2 + 2 e 2 Br

(c) Na + e Na

(d) Na Na + e

335. During the electrolysis of aqueous KCl solution using inert electrodes, gaseous hydrogen is evolved at one
electrode and gaseous chlorine at the other electrode. The solution around the electrode at which hydrogen
gas is evolved becomes basic as the electrolysis proceeds. Which of the following responses describe or are
applicable to the cathode and the reaction that occurs at the cathode?
(1) the positive electrode

(2) the negative electrode

(3) 2 Cl Cl2 + 2 e

(4) Cl2 + 2 e 2 Cl

(6) 2 H2O + 2 e H2 + 2 OH
(5) 2 H2O O2 + 4 H + 4 e
(7) electrons flow from the electrode to (8) electrons flow into the electrode from
the external circuit
the external circuit
(9) oxidation
(10) reduction
(a) 2, 6, 8, 9

(b) 1, 5, 7, 9

(c) 2, 5, 7, 9

(d) 2, 6, 8, 10

336. What mass (in grams) of nickel could be electroplated from a solution of nickel(II) chloride by a current of
0.25 amperes flowing for 10 hours?
(a) 12 g
(b) 5.5 g
(c) 0.046 g
(d) 2.7 g
337. Molten AlCl3 is electrolyzed for 5.0 hours with a current of 0.40 amperes. Metallic aluminum is produced at
one electrode and chlorine gas, Cl2, is produced at the other. How many liters of Cl2 measured at STP are
produced when the electrode efficiency is only 65%?
(a) 0.55 L
(b) 0.63 L
(c) 0.84 L
(d) 0.98 L
338. How long (in hours) must a current of 5.0 amperes be maintained to electroplate 60 g of calcium from molten
(a) 27 hours
(b) 8.3 hours
(c) 11 hours
(d) 16 hours


339. How long, in hours, would be required for the electroplating of 78 g of platinum from a solution of [PtCl6] ,
using an average current of 10 amperes at an 80% electrode efficiency?
(a) 8.4
(b) 5.4
(c) 16.8
(d) 11.2
340. How many faradays are required to reduce 1.00 g of aluminum(III) to the aluminum metal?
(a) 1.00
(b) 1.50
(c) 3.00
(d) 0.111
341. Which of the following is the strongest oxidizing agent?
(a) Pb
(b) I2
(c) Ag
(d) Pb
342. As the cell Pb / Pb(NO3)2 (1.0 M) || AgNO3 (1.0 M) / Ag operates, the strip of silver gains mass (only silver)
and the concentration of silver ions in the solution around the silver strip decreases, while the strip of lead
loses mass and the concentration of lead increases in the solution around the lead strip. Which of the
following represents the reaction that occurs at the negative electrode in the above cell?

(a) Pb


+ 2 e Pb

(b) Pb Pb


(c) Ag + e Ag

(d) Ag Ag + e


343. For a voltaic (or galvanic) cell using Ag,Ag (1.0 M) and Zn,Zn (1.0 M) half-cells, which of the following
statements is incorrect?
(a) The zinc electrode is the anode.
(b) Electrons will flow through the external circuit from the zinc electrode to the silver electrode.
(c) Reduction occurs at the zinc electrode as the cell operates.
(d) The mass of the zinc electrode will decrease as the cell operates.


344. Consider the standard voltaic (or galvanic) cell: Fe,Fe versus Au,Au . Which answer identifies the cathode
and gives the E for the cell?
(a) Fe, -0.44 V
(b) Au, 1.94 V (c) Fe, 1.06 V (d) Au, 1.06 V

345. What is the reduction potential for the half-reaction at 25 C:



Al + 3e Al, if [Al ] = 0.10 M and E = -1.66 V ?

(a) -1.84 V
(b) -1.60 V
(c) -1.68 V
(d) -1.66 V


346. What is the value of E for the half-cell: MnO4 (0.010 M) + 8H (0.20 M) + 5e Mn
(a) 1.50 V
(b) 1.86 V
(c) 1.44 V
(d) 1.58 V

(0.020 M) + 4H2O ?

347. Calculate the potential (in volts) for the voltaic (or galvanic) cell indicated at 25 C.
Ga / Ga (10 M) || Ag (10 M) / Ag
(a) 1.29 V
(b) 0.97 V
(c) 1.45 V
(d) 1.21 V

348. A concentration cell is constructed by placing identical Cu electrodes in two Cu solutions. If the
concentrations of the two Cu solutions are 1.0 M and 0.0020 M, calculate the potential of the cell.
(a) 0.020 V
(b) 1.2 V
(c) 0.080 V
(d) 1.0 V


349. What is G per mole of dichromate ions for the reduction of dichromate ions, Cr2O7 , to Cr
ions, Br , in acidic solution? (Hint: Use the standard cell potential.)
(a) +26.3 kJ
(b) -145 kJ
(c) +145 kJ
(d) -26.3 kJ

350. Estimate the equilibrium constant for the system indicated at 25 C. 3 Mg

(a) ~10
(b) ~10
(c) ~10
(d) ~10
351. In voltaic cells, the salt bridge _______ .
(a) is not necessary in order for the cell to work
(b) acts as a mechanism to allow mechanical mixing of the solutions
(c) allows charge balance to be maintained in the cell
(d) is tightly plugged with firm agar gel through which ions cannot pass




+ 2Al 3Mg + 2Al

by bromide

352. Which of the following statements is(are) true for all voltaic (or galvanic) cells?
(I) Reduction occurs at the cathode.
(II) The anode gains mass during discharge (note: this means operation of the cell.)
(III) The voltage is less than or equal to zero.
(a) only III
(b) only II
(c) only I
(d) II and III
353. In the standard notation for a voltaic cell, the double vertical line "||" represents:
(a) a phase boundary
(b) gas electrode
(c) a metal connection (d) a salt bridge
354. Some metals are found in the uncombined free state while other metals are found in the combined state.
What is a deciding factor?
(a) Metals with negative reduction potentials can occur in the free state while metals with positive reduction
potentials occur in the combined state.
(b) The active metals can occur in the free state while the less active metals occur in the combined state.
(c) Metals with positive reduction potentials can occur in the free state while metals with negative reduction
potentials can occur in the combined state.
(d) There is no way we can predict which metals will be free or combined.
355. Soluble metal compounds tend to be found in the _____, whereas insoluble metal compounds tend to be
found in the _____ .
(a) oceans; earth's crust
(b) earth's crust; oceans
(c) salt beds; oceans
(d) oceans; salt beds
356. In the process known as 'roasting,' a(n) _____ is chemically converted to a(n) _____.
(a) sulfide; oxide (b) carbonate; oxide
(c) hydroxide; oxide
(d) oxide; sulfate
357. Which metal can be found as the free element?
(a) Na
(b) Mn
(c) Fe

(d) Pt

358. The Hall-Heroult process is used in the production of:

(a) Mg
(b) Fe
(c) Al
(d) Au
359. How much magnesium can be obtained from one pound of seawater
of Mg is 0.13 weight percent? Assume 100% recovery.
(a) 1.7 grams
(b) 1.3 grams (c) 0.35 grams
(d) 0.59 grams




360. For every 100 pounds of iron ore there are 27.8 pounds of magnetite, Fe3O4. What is the weight percent iron
in this ore?
(a) 72.3%
(b) 20.1%
(c) 27.8%
(d) 16.7%
361. A reaction sequence for the reduction of one of the iron ores is as follows:
2 C(coke) + O2 2 CO
Fe2O3 + 3 CO 2 Fe + 3 CO2
Calculate the amount of coke necessary to produce 800 g of Fe.
(a) 114 g
(b) 1030 g
(c) 258 g
(d) 172 g
362. What is the charge on the copper ion in the mineral azurite, Cu3(CO3)2(OH)2?
(a) 2+
(b) 1+
(c) 0
(d) 1363. How many coulombs of electricity are required to produce one metric ton (1000 kg) of magnesium? There are
96,500 coulombs in one faraday. MgCl2 Mg(l) + Cl2
(a) 4.0 x 10 coulombs
(b) 2.0 x 10 coulombs
(c) 7.9 x 10 coulombs
(d) 1.2 x 10 coulombs

364. Which of the following is NOT true for the Group 1A elements?
(a) Most of them are soft, silvery corrosive metals.
(b) Their atomic radii increases with increasing molecular weight.
(c) They are named the alkaline earth metals.
(d) They are excellent conductors of heat and electricity.
365. Which element group is the most reactive of all the metallic elements?
(a) alkali metals (b) alkaline earth metals
(c) coinage metals

(d) transition metals

366. In a surprisingly large number of their properties beryllium resembles aluminum, and boron resembles silicon.
Such a relationship is called:
(a) amphoterism
(b) an allotropic relationship
(c) a diagonal relationship
(d) the periodic law
367. Which of the following properties of the alkaline earth metals decreases with increasing atomic weight?
(a) ionic radii
(b) ionization energy
(c) atomic radii
(d) activity
368. Of the following oxides, the most basic is:
(c) P2O3.
(a) MgO.
(b) Na2O.

(d) BeO.

369. A 300 g sample of CaCO3 was heated until 10.0 L of CO2 was collected at 50.0 C and 742 torr. What
percentage of the CaCO3 had decomposed?
(a) 6.84%
(b) 9.10%
(c) 12.3%
(d) 15.8%
370. What mass of lithium nitride could be formed from 104 g of lithium and excess nitrogen gas?
(a) 35 g
(b) 60 g
(c) 105 g
(d) 174 g
371. The most abundant metal in the earth's crust is:
(a) Cu
(b) Fe
(c) Na

(d) Al

372. Which element has the electron configuration [Ar] 3d 4s ?

(a) Fe
(b) Co
(c) Cr
(d) Ti
373. What is the electron configuration of Mn
(a) [Ar] 4s 3d
(b) [Ar] 4s 3d


(c) [Ar] 3d

(d) [Ar] 3d

374. The nitrate of which of the following cations would exhibit paramagnetism to the GREATEST extent?
(b) Cr
(c) Fe
(d) Mn
(a) Co
375. Some element groups of the periodic table are more likely to contain elements that are gases than other
groups. Which of the following groups contains the greatest number of gaseous elements?
(a) IA
(b) IIA
(c) IVA
(d) VIII (or 0)
376. Chlorine gas is prepared commercially by:
(a) electrolysis of carbon tetrachloride.
(c) electrolysis of NaCl(aq).

(b) oxidation of chloride ion with F2(g).

(d) oxidation of chloride ion with Br2(aq).

377. Which of the following is NOT true for the halogens?

(a) They are nonmetals. (b) They show the -1 oxidation number in most of their compounds.
(c) The electronic configuration of their outermost electrons is ns np .
(d) Their compounds with metals are generally ionic in nature.
378. Which of the following substances is the strongest reducing agent?
(a) Cl2
(b) Cl
(c) Br2
(d) Br

379. Which one of the following does not correctly describe one or all of the hydrogen halides, HX?
(a) Their aqueous solutions are acidic.
(b) HF has the lowest of the H-X bond energies.
(c) HI is the largest.
(d) HCl has the lowest boiling point.
380. Of the oxyacids listed below, which one possesses the greatest acid strength in water?
(b) H2CO3
(c) H3BO3
(d) HClO
(a) HClO4
381. Draw the correct Lewis formula for chlorous acid. The structure contains ___ single bonds, ___ double bonds
and ___ lone pairs of electrons.
(a) 2, 1, 5
(b) 3, 0, 7
(c) 1, 2, 4
(d) 2, 1, 5
382. Which of the following has a pyramidal structure (molecular geometry)?
(a) CBr4
(b) PF3
(c) BF3
(d) OF2
383. Which statement about the Group VIA elements is false?
(a) All have an outer electronic configuration of ns np .
(b) The electronegativity of Group VIA elements decreases as one goes down the group.
(c) Most are found in sulfide deposits.
(d) Oxygen has the highest boiling point and melting point.
384. Which statement about the Group VIA hydrides is false?
(a) H2S, H2Se and H2Te are all gases at room temperature and atmospheric pressure.
(b) All are colorless.
(c) All except H2O are toxic.
(d) H2Po has the lowest boiling point.
385. Which acid listed on the right cannot be obtained by adding water to the substance on the left?
(b) SeO2 - selenous acid
(a) H2S2O7 - sulfuric acid
(c) SO3 - sulfuric acid
(d) TeO2 - tellurous acid
386. Which of the following statements about sulfuric acid is false?
(a) It is a strong acid.
(b) One mole of sulfuric acid reacts completely with two moles of potassium hydroxide.
(c) The sulfur atom is sp hybridized.
(d) It is often present in acid rain.
387. What maximum mass of sulfuric acid can be produced from the sulfur contained in 100 kilograms of iron
pyrite that is 75.0% FeS2?
(a) 84.4 kg
(b) 123 kg
(c) 136 kg
(d) 144 kg
388. In which one of the following is the oxidation state of nitrogen given incorrectly?
(a) N2O3, +3
(b) N2H4, +2
(c) HNO3, +5 (d) NaNO2, +3
389. Which of the following does not correctly describe ammonia?
(a) pyramidal molecule
(b) polar molecule
(c) extremely soluble in water
390. Which compound gives photochemical smog a brownish color?
(a) NO
(b) HNO2
(c) NO2
(d) N2O4
391. What is the major mineral present in phosphate rock?
(a) Ca3(PO4)2
(b) Na2HPO4
(c) Ca10(PO4)6F2
392. The hybridization of carbon atoms in alkanes is
(a) sp
(b) sp
(c) sp

(d) NaH2PO4

(d) sp d

(d) none of these

393. What makes carbon such a unique element?
(a) Elemental carbon comes in two forms, diamond and graphite.
(b) Carbon forms four bonds, although the ground state configuration would predict the formation of fewer
(c) Carbon forms covalent bonds rather than ionic bonds.
(d) To a greater extent than any other element, carbon can bond to itself to form straight chains, branched
chains and rings.
394. A molecule with the formula C3H8 is a(n):
(a) hexane
(b) propane
(c) decane

(d) butane

395. Select the correct IUPAC name for:

(a) 5-methyl-5-ethyloctane
(c) 4-ethyl-4-methyloctane

(b) 5-methyl-5-propylheptane
(d) 3-methyl-3-propylheptane

396. Select the correct IUPAC name for:

(a) 1,1,3-trimethylpentane
(c) 2,4-dimethylhexane

(b) 1-ethyl-1,3-dimethylbutane
(d) 3,5-dimethylhexane

397. Select the correct IUPAC name for:

(a) 1,4-dimethylcyclopentane
(c) 2,5-dimethylcyclopentane

(b) 1,3-dimethylcyclopentane
(d) 2,3-dimethylcyclopentane

398. The general formula for noncyclic alkenes is:

(a) CnH2n+2
(b) CnH2n
(c) CnH2n-2

(d) CnHn+2

399. The correct name for the compound given below is:

(a) 2-methyl-1-butene
(c) 2-ethyl-1-pentane

(b) 2-ethyl-1-propene
(d) 3-methyl-2-butene

400. Select the best name for:

(a) 4-ethyl-cis-3-octene
(c) 4-butyl-cis-3-hexene

(b) 4-ethyl-trans-3-octene
(d) 5-ethyl-trans-5-octene