A76 QUALITY ASSURANCE DEPARTMENT

Rev. Date: 16-005-2008

CAU HOI ON TAP A320/A321

ATA 06 DIMENSIONS AND AREAS
1.

The A320/A321 aircraft is divided into zones

as follows:
1A. The major zones, the major sub-zones, the
zones.
2B. The zones and sub-zones.
3C. The zones and the station.
4D. The major zones, the major sub-zones

2.

The station is for all structural measurement

in the X axis is located in: (B1,B2)
A. The rib 1 of the aircraft.
B. 254cm forward of aircraft nose.
C. Aircraft nose.

3.

Each major zone is identified by:

A. Three digit number and two letters
B. Three digit number
C. The first digit of three digit number

4.

Access doors and panels are identified by:

A. The number of the zone in which the panel is
located followed by a two-letter suffix.
B. The number of the zone in which the panel is
located followed by one letter suffix.
C. A two-letter followed by the number of the
zone in which the panel is located suffix.

5.

There are how many major zones in the

aircraft?
A. 4
B. 6
C. 8
D. 10

ATA 07 LIFTING & SHORING

6.

7.

8.

The Tail Safety stay is used to:

A. Share load with the main jacks during
jacking process
B. Keep the aircraft more stable during landing
gear retraction/ extension tests
C. Keep the aircraft stable on jacks
How many points on the structure are
designated for the purpose of lifting the
aircraft?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 2
What is permissible during jacking for main
LDG wheel change?
A. Cargo, PAX loading.
B. Gate docking.
C. Installation of the wheel chocks on the
wheels of the other main LDG.

ATA 08 LEVELING & WEIGHING

9.

The main purpose of weighing aircraft is:

A. Calculate the position of the center of gravity
B. Calculate of aircraft weight
C. Know the aircraft weight for passenger
loading

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CATEGORY: A

10. When lifting the aircraft for leveling

A. You must not lift the aircraft with the safety
stay.
B. The weight of fuel is applied equally on the
two side of the aircraft centerline
C. Make sure that the aircraft is stable before
you lift it with jacks
D. All above
11. When lifting the aircraft
A. All the doors must be closed and locked.
B. Passenger/crew door may be fully opened
and locked but the cargo doors must be
closed and locked.
C. The passenger/crew doors, the emergency
exits and the cargo doors are closed and
locked or fully open and locked.
D. No requirement.

ATA 09 TOWING & TAXIING.

12. When the NLG dimension H is more than 300
mm
A. Do not tow the aircraft to prevent damage to
the centering cams.
B. Do not tow the aircraft to prevent tail to
ground contact.
C. Smooth and speed limited towing is
possible.
13. If an engine is running
A. You can tow the aircraft from the front only.
B. You can push the aircraft only.
C. Either tow or push is possible.
14. Towing the aircraft is
A. Allowed with one engine running above idle.
B. Allowed with both engines running up to idle.
C. Allowed only with one engine running up to
idle.
15. Towing can be carried out with
A. Passenger/crew doors fully open and locked
without restriction.
B. Cargo doors open in vertical position with
speed limited.
C. Engine cowls open and hold open rods fully
locked.
16. Towing can be carried out using
A. Tow bar or towbarless tractor at NLG.
B. Tow bar or towbarless tractor at MLG(s)
C. Tow bar at NLG only.
17. What is the correct sequence?
A. Install the tow bar on the tow fitting then
install the tow lever safety pin
B. Install the tow lever safety pin then install the
tow bar on the tow fitting.
C. There is no specific sequence
18. Communication system(s) to be used during
towing is (are)?
A. VHF and FLT INT.
B. VHF or HF with FLT INT.
C. VHF only.

A76 QUALITY ASSURANCE DEPARTMENT

Rev. Date: 16-005-2008

CAU HOI ON TAP A320/A321

19. What indication on ECAM do you have to
check prior to start towing?
A. N WHEEL STEERG DISC
B. N WHEEL STEERG INOP
C. N WHEEL STEERG OFF
20. From cockpit how can you know that the
brake are release prior to towing the aircraft?
A. Check Parking brake selector in OFF, brake
pressure indication on ECAM is at 0 and
confirm with GND personnel.
B. Check Parking brake selector in OFF; check
all the 03 points are at green range and
confirm with GND personnel.
C. Check Parking brake selector in OFF; brake
pressure points at 0 and confirm with GND
personnel.
21. Minimum separation from the nose wheels
and the tractor while towing the aircraft is:
A. 2 m
B. 3 m.
C. 4 m.
22. In towing configurations, the safety pin locks
the control lever on the interphone box in:
A. Disengaged position.
B. Engaged position.
C. Normal position.
23. When towing the aircraft:
A. All the doors must be closed and locked.
B. Passenger/crew door may be fully opened
and locked the cargo doors open in vertical
position
C. Passenger/crew door may be fully opened
and locked but the cargo doors must be
closed and locked

ATA 12 SERVICING
24. When you do the Aircraft Grounding for the
Refuel/Defuel Operations
A. Connect the ground cable to parking ground
point before you connect it to the aircraft
B. Attach the cable to aircraft first then connect
to parking ground point
C. Grounding is not necessary
25. To electrostatically balance the aircraft for
the refuel/defuel operations
A. Connect a ground cable to the aircraft
grounding point on the landing gears
B. Connect a bonding cable between the fuel
tanker and a grounding point on one of the
MLG Legs
C. A is essential, B is recommended
D. B is essential, A is recommended
26. Safety requirements for aircraft refuelling
and defuelling are:
A. Do not operate the cell phones or mobile
phones inside distances for 6m from aircraft.
B. Do not connect electrical equipment to a
power source less than 15 m away from
aircraft, unless the power source has spark-

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CATEGORY: A

proof connectors
C. Do not operate the fuel tanker/pump unit
until you stop operation of the weather radar
D. All above
27. During aircraft refuelling or defuelling
A. APU starts or shutdowns are permitted.
B. An APU start is not permitted if the APU has
failed to start or an automatic shutdown has
occurred.
C. A & B
28. During the refuelling
A. The NLG tires roll aft
B. The NLG tires roll forward
C. The NLG tires roll does not move
29. During the refuelling you must
A. Move the aft NLG chocks away from the
tires
B. Make sure that the chocks do not touch the
MLG tires
C. A & B
30. When you do the refuelling and/or defuelling
in the Hangar
A. The hangar doors must be closed until you
have completed the refuel/defuel procedure
B. The hangar doors must not be closed until
you have completed the refuel/defuel
procedure
C. There is no requirement for hangar door
31. When you do the aircraft pressure Automatic
refueling with battery power
A. It is not always possible to refuel to full
capacity. This is because the intercell
transfer valve are not always in the correct
position
B. It is always possible to refuel to full capacity.
C. You can not refuel in the outer cell.
32. The maximum safety pressure for refueling
is:
A. 45psi
B. 50psi
C. 55psi
D. 60psi
33. When you do the aircraft refueling with
battery power
A. The HOT BUS is energized for ten minutes
only after you put the BATT POWER switch
to the ON position.
B. HOT BUS is always energized after you put
the BATT POWER switch to the ON
position.
C. You must put the BATT POWER switch to
the ON position and hold it during refuelling
process
34. When you do the aircraft pressure refueling
with manual control
A. Put the MODE SELECT switch to the
REFUEL position
B. Put the REFUEL VALVES switch(es) for the
applicable fuel tank(s) to the OPEN position

A76 QUALITY ASSURANCE DEPARTMENT

Rev. Date: 16-005-2008

CAU HOI ON TAP A320/A321

and for the tank(s) which will not be
refuelled to the SHUT position.
C. Put the REFUEL VALVES switch(es) of all
the fuel tank(s) to the OPEN position
D. A & B
35. The aircraft configuration requirements for
filling the hydraulic fluid reservoir are:
A. The FWD, AFT cargo-compartment doors
and the landing gear doors are closed
B. The FWD, AFT cargo-compartment doors
and the landing gear doors are opened
C. The FWD, AFT cargo-compartment doors
are closed and the landing gear doors are
opened
D. The FWD, AFT cargo-compartment doors
are opened and the landing gear doors are
closed
36. When doing the Hydraulic Fluid Reservoir
Filling
A. The hydraulic system operating normally
B. The reservoirs air pressurize system must
be depressurized
C. Do not depressurize the system reservoirs
D. Green hydraulic system must be
depressurized
37. What happen if you fill to much hydraulic
fluid in the reservoir?
A. Hydraulic system can not operate
B. A message "reservoir overfull" appear on
ECAM
C. You cannot pressurize it the reservoir
sufficiently and may cause the message
"RSVR LO AIR PR" on ECAM.
D. Hydraulic fluid transfers to other reservoir.
38. When filling the hydraulic fluid Reservoir
with a hydraulic service cart, the maximum
supply pressure is:
A. 3.5 +0.3 -0 bar (50.7631 +4.3511 -0.0000
psi)
B. 30 bar (435,1132 psi).
C. 45 bar (652,669 psi)
D. 50 bar (725,188 psi)
39. If you think there are fuel fumes when you
remove the oil filter cap of the engine oil
tank.
A. You must let the oil tank pressure bleed off
for a minimum of 5 minutes before you
remove the tank filler cap for oil servicing.
B. Add oil in the oil tank to full mark
C. Replace the fuel/oil heat exchanger then
flush the engine oil system
D. Flush the oil tank and fill in with new oil.
40. When filling the hydraulic power
accumulators with Nitrogen:
A. All hydraulic systems must be depressurized
B. The reservoirs air pressurize system must
be depressurized
C. Do not depressurize the hydraulic systems
D. Green hydraulic system must be
depressurized

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CATEGORY: A

ATA 20 STANDARD PRACTICES &

DOCUMENTATION
41. In the AMM tasks, WARNING is meant:
A. Calls attention to use of materials,
processes, methods, procedures or limits
which must be followed precisely to avoid
injury of death to persons
B. Calls attention to methods and procedures
which be followed to avoid damage to
equipment
C. Calls attention to methods which make the
job easier or provide supplementary or
explanatory information
42. In the AMM tasks, CAUTION is meant:
A. Calls attention to use of materials,
processes, methods, procedures or limits
which must be followed precisely to avoid
injury of death to persons
B. Calls attention to methods and procedures
which be followed to avoid damage to
equipment
C. Calls attention to methods which make the
job easier or provide supplementary or
explanatory information
43. In the AMM tasks, NOTE is meant:
A. Calls attention to use of materials,
processes, methods, procedures or limits
which must be followed precisely to avoid
injury of death to persons
B. Calls attention to methods and procedures
which be followed to avoid damage to
equipment
C. Calls attention to methods which make the
job easier or provide supplementary or
explanatory information
44. AMM gives:
A. The status of the item of equipment, semiequipment and related wiring
B. Information required for trouble shooting is
contained in the manual
C. The information required to service, repair,
replace, adjust, inspect and check
equipments and systems of the A/C
normally performed on the ramp or in the
maintenance hangar
D. Schematic diagrams of the electrical
installation with sufficient data for A/C fault
isolation

ATA 21 AIR CONDITIONING

45. What is the main purpose of the pack Anti Ice
Valve?
A. To stop the ice formation across the primary
heat exchanger.
B. To stop the ice formation across the main
heat exchanger.
C. To stop the ice formation across pack
condenser.

A76 QUALITY ASSURANCE DEPARTMENT

Rev. Date: 16-005-2008

CAU HOI ON TAP A320/A321

46. What is the purpose of the pack RAM AIR
flaps?
A. To ensure cabin ventilation in case both
packs fail.
B. To provide air to the pack compressor.
C. To modulate the main air flow through the
heat exchangers.
47. The purpose of the safety valves is to avoid :
A. Excessive positive pressure differential
B. Excessive negative pressure differential
C. Excessive cabin altitude.
D. A and B
48. When does the avionics ventilation air come
from when any OVRD selected?
A. From the avionics bay
B. From outside the aircraft
C. From the air conditioning duct
D. No ventilation. System is inoperative.
49. What is the purpose of the avionic ventilation
skin heat exchanger?
A. To cool the air coming from the avionics
equipment when Isolation valve is open.
B. To reheat air coming from avionics
ventilation system
C. To cool air before it is ducted under the
cargo compartment.
50. What flow is delivered by pack with Pack
Flow selector on LO and bleed air supplied
by the APU? (A320)
A. Low
B. Normal
C. High
51. What is purpose of the ECON FLOW
pushbutton? (A321)
A. To allows the cockpit to select 80%, 100% or
120% of the nominal airflow.
B. To permits economic or normal pack flow
according to the number of the passenger
and ambient condition.
C. When ON is selected the normal flow
provides 20% more than economic flow.

ATA 22 AUTO FLIGHT SYSTEM

52. The FCU is used to:
A. select radio-nav frequencies
B. modify the flight plan of FM parts
C. control the aircraft for long term
D. control the aircraft for short term
53. The AFS computers are:
A. FMGC and FAC
B. FAC and ELAC
C. FMGC and SEC
D. ELAC and SEC
54. The FMGC functions are:
A. flight guidance and flight envelope protection
B. flight envelope protection and yaw axis
control
C. flight management and flight envelope

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CATEGORY: A

protection
D. flight management and flight guidance
55. The Flight Guidance are:
A. autopilot, flight director, autothrust
B. flight management, autopilot, autothrust
C. autopilot, flight plan, autothrust
D. autopilot, flight director, flight plan
56. The MCDUs are used to:
A. control of the aircraft for short term
B. modify FG parts
C. control of the aircraft for long term
D. make the flight plan and engage the
autopilots
57. The function of the Auto Flight System (AFS)
is to:
A. calculate orders to automatically control the
flight controls.
B. calculate orders to automatically control the
engines.
C. calculate orders to automatically control the
flight controls and the engines.
D. computes the heading, attitude and position
of the aircraft.
58. The function of Flight Director is to
A. Calculate all necessary data for a safe and
economic flight.
B. Show the pilots how to fly the aircraft
manually.
C. Control the aircraft automatically by
deflecting the flight control surfaces.
D. Control the aircraft automatically by
deflecting the flight control surfaces and
changing the engines thrust.
59. What are the basic functions of the FACs?
A. Management functions and flight envelope
protection.
B. Rudder control and flight envelope
protection.
C. Guidance functions and rudder control.
60. Where are the FMGC functions controlled
from?
A. The MCDUs and rudder trim control panel.
B. The FCU and rudder trim control panel.
C. The FCU and MCDUs.
61. What are the functions of the FACs?
A. Yaw damper, rudder trim, rudder travel
limitation, flight envelope protection.
B. Yaw damper, pitch trim, rudder trim, flight
envelope protection.
C. Yaw damper, rudder trim, pitch trim.

A76 QUALITY ASSURANCE DEPARTMENT

CAU HOI ON TAP A320/A321

Rev. Date: 16-005-2008

Page 5 / 17

CATEGORY: A

ATA 23 COMMUNICATIONS

ATA 24 ELECTRICAL POWER

62. If the FWD attendant calls the cockpit:

(A/B1/B2)
A. ATT light comes on on all the ACPs and a
buzzer is generated by the FWC
B. CALL light comes on on the attendant
indication panel and a buzzer is generated
by the CIDS
C. ATT light comes on on the Capts ACP and
buzzer is generated by FWC
D. ATT light comes on on the forward attendant
panel and a high low chime is generated by
the CIDS

69. The supply priorities for AC BUS 1 (2) are:

A. The related IDG, then the other IDG, then
External Power, then the APU Generator
B. External Power, then the APU Generator,
then the related IDG, then the other IDG
C. External Power, then the related IDG, then
the other IDG, then the APU Generator
D. The related IDG, then External Power, then
the APU Generator, then the other IDG

63. Aircraft on ground, in order to communicate

from the cockpit to the APU position, you
must:
A. Select the INT on the audio control panel,
and press the SERV INT pushbutton
B. press CAB transmission key
C. press the SERV INT pushbutton
D. press CAB receiving knob
64. The ACPs reset key is used to:
A. Extinguish all the lights
B. Extinguish all the lighted calls
C. Cancel all previous selections
D. Extinguish all ACPs lights
65.

MECH legend flashing amber on an ACP

means:
A. An internal ACP failure has been detected
B. The ground mechanic request a
communication with the crew
C. The cabin attendant requests a
communication with the crew
D. The ground mechanic request a
communication with the cabin attendant

66. VHF used for:

A. Short range communication
B. Long range communication
C. Communication between A/C and ground
station
D. Communication between A/C and other A/C
67. HF used for:
A. Short range communication
B. Long range communication
C. Communication between A/C and ground
station
D. Communication between A/C and other A/C
68. The loudspeaker volume knobs allow to:
A. Control the loudness of aural alerts and
voice messages
B. Control the loudness of voice messages only
C. Adjust the volume of the loudspeaker for
radio communication
D. Adjust the volume of the loudspeaker for
radio communication, aural alerts and voice
messages

70. On ground, aircraft is not electrically

supplied, the activation of <MAN ON> switch
p/b causes:
A. Reset of CSM/G control unit
B. RAT extension
C. Nothing to happen
D. Test of RAT and EMERGEN fault light
71. In COLD aircraft configuration, where the
batteries voltage can be checked?
A. There is NO INDICATION
B. On the ECAM ELEC page
C. On the ELEC-OVERHEAD panel
D. On the EMR.ELEC.POWER panel
72. Maintenance buses only are supplied when:
A. External power is connected and the blue
ON light on EXT PWR p/b illuminates;
MAINT BUS switch is in ON position
B. External power is connected and the green
AVAIL light on EXT PWR p/b illuminates;
MAINT BUS switch is in ON position
C. Any generator is coupled to the network;
MAINT BUS switch is in ON position,
D. The APU generator or external power is
connected; EXT PWR p/b illuminates;
MAINT BUS switch is in ON position
73. Both AVAIL and NOT IN USE lights in the
external power receptacle are illuminated
when:
A. An External power source is supplying the
Aircraft network
B. An External power source is supplying the
Maintenance Bus Bars
C. At least one External power parameter is not
correct, the External Power Contactor (EPC)
stays open
D. All External power parameters are correct
but the EPC is open
74. If a high APU generator oil temperature
detection occurs:
A. An immediate APU shut down is
commanded and the APU Generator is deenergized
B. The APU Generator is disconnected only
C. The APU Generator Fault Light illuminates
only
D. A Warning Message is displayed on ECAM
only

A76 QUALITY ASSURANCE DEPARTMENT

Rev. Date: 16-005-2008

CAU HOI ON TAP A320/A321

75. What does the EXT PWR PB AVAIL light
illuminated on EXT PWR panel means?
A. External power is plugged in, and all
parameters are normal
B. All external power parameters are normal
but not plugged in
C. External power is plugged in
D. External power is plugged in and supplied to
A/C network
76. What is the output of the emergency
generator?
A. 90 KVA
B. 10 KVA
C. 5 KVA
D. 1 KVA
77. What is the output of APU generator?
A. 90 KVA
B. 50 KVA
C. 5 KVA
D. 1 KVA

ATA 25 EQUIPMENT/FURNISHINGS
78. Smoke hoods are supplied for the cabin
attendants to:
A. Supply oxygen for passengers.
B. Fight a fire or against emission of smoke or
noxious gases.
C. Breathe oxygen.
79. Which device has to be unlocked before
closing the slide window?
A. A locking pin on the sliding window frame.
B. The sliding window operating handle.
C. None.
80. Which cabin panels are removable?
A. Lower sidewall panels only.
B. All the panels.
C. Upper sidewall panels only.
81. Where are passenger oxygen masks stored?
A. In the passenger service unit
B. In the seat arm rest
C. In the overhead stowage compartment
82. The cargo loading control box being
supplied, which latch insures the
energization of the PDUs? (B1,B2)
A. The door sill latch
B. The ZX-single latch 32
C. The fixed YZ latch
83. Captain and First Officer seats are:
A. Symmetrical and have the same function
B. Asymmetrical and have the same function
C. Have the same function and interchangeable
D. Folding type and has no adjustment
84. Captain and First Officer seats electrical
control system permits
A. Control the seats in vertical and horizontal
direction
B. Control the seats in vertical and horizontal
direction and adjust the backrest

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CATEGORY: A

C. Control the seats in vertical and horizontal

direction and adjust the lumbar rest
D. All above
85. Third Occupant seat in the cockpit
A. Can slide along the Y-axis to take up a
position on the aircraft centerline
B. Have longitudinal adjustment
C. Can moves longitudinally and vertically
D. Attached to the left rear panel in the cockpit
86. The passenger seats
A. Seat pans are upholstered and not foldable
or adjustable
B. Can fold the inner armrests between the
backrests
C. Upholstered backrest assembly of each seat
may be adjusted
D. All above
87. Which statement is correct about Passenger
Service/Information Units (PSIUs)
A. The PSIUs comprise Passenger Service
Units (PSUs) and Passenger Information
Units (PIUs)
B. The PSUs are installed above each seat row
C. The PIUs are installed above each second
seat row
D. All above
88. Emergency escape slides are located at:
(A320)
A. 4 entry doors.
B. Overwing exits
C. 4 entry doors and overwing exits
89. Emergency escape slides are located at:
(A321)
A. 4 entry doors.
B. 4 emergency exits
C. 4 entry doors and overwing exits
D. 4 entry doors and 4 emergency exits

ATA 26 FIRE PROTECTION

90. Where are the Engine fire detectors located?
A. On the Fan, Turbine and Pylon
B. On the Pylon, Fan and Core
C. On the Core, Gearbox and Nozzle
91. Is the extinguishing system controlled by the
Fire Detection Unit (FDU):
A. Yes, continuously
B. Yes, whenever engine fire is detected
C. No
92. How is an APU fire normally extinguished on
ground:
A. From APU fire panel.
B. From APU compartment
C. Automatically.
D. From external power panel.

A76 QUALITY ASSURANCE DEPARTMENT

Rev. Date: 16-005-2008

CAU HOI ON TAP A320/A321

93. You press the APU SHUT OFF push button at
108VU panel to?
A. Initiate the shut down the APU with cooling
down sequence.
B. Initiate the emergency shut down of APU
without cooling down sequence.
C. Initiate the emergency shut down of APU
and discharge the APU fire bottle.
94. To test the APU auto extinguishing function,
you must :
A. Select APU master switch ON first.
B. Press the TEST p/b on the APU FIRE panel.
C. Select APU master switch ON and press the
TEST p/b on the APU FIRE panel.
95. Which additional external warning(s) is (are)
activated in case of APU fire on ground?
A. APU fire light & external horn warning.
B. A fire bell warning.
C. An external horn warning only.
D. An external horn warning & Red disk
indicator disappears.
96. Lavatory fire extinguishing is performed by?
A. Portable extinguishers.
B. Fire bottles.
C. Waste bin fire extinguishers.
97. How many fire extinguishing bottles are
provided for the cargo compartments?
(A320)
A. Theres one for FWD and one for AFT cargo
compartment.
B. Theres one for both FWD and AFT cargo
compartments.
C. None.
98. How many smoke detectors are installed in
the Aft cargo compartment? (A320)
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
99. How many cargo fire extinguisher bottles are
installed on the aircraft? (A321)
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
100. Where is the cargo fire extinguisher bottle
located? (A321)
A. In the FWD cargo compartment.
B. In the AFT cargo compartment.
C. In the AFT section of the aircraft.

ATA 27 FLIGHT CONTROLS

101. Which surfaces are used for the Pitch
control?
A. Elevators and Trimmable Horizontal
Stabilizer (THS)
B. Elevators only
C. THS only

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CATEGORY: A

D. Elevators, spoilers and THS

102. Which surfaces are used for the Roll control?
A. Elevators and THS
B. Ailerons only
C. Elevators and some dedicated spoilers
D. Ailerons and some dedicated spoilers
103. Which surfaces are used for the Yaw control?
A. Elevators
B. The rudder
C. The rudder and THS
D. Spoilers and THS
104. Which surfaces are used for the Speed brake
function?
A. Elevators
B. Spoilers and elevators
C. Spoilers
D. Spoilers and THS
105. Which surfaces can be mechanically
controlled?
A. Elevators and THS.
B. Ailerons and THS.
C. Rudder and THS.
D. Rudder and elevators.
106. For manual pitch and roll control, the pilots
use?
A. Side stick.
B. Control column.
C. Both side stick and control column.
D. Side stick and rudder pedals.

ATA 28 FUEL SYSTEM

107. Which tanks are the main supply tanks?
A. Wing tanks.
B. Center tank.
C. Outer cells.
D. Inner cells
108. A pressure switch for each pump monitors a:
A. Pressure differential
B. Feed pipe pressurization
C. Pressure increase
D. Loss of pressure
109. What happen if a high level is detected?
A. A warning is triggered: too much fuel
B. Booster pumps are not operating correctly
C. The corresponding REFUEL valve closes
D. All the refueling operating is stopped
110. Refuel valves may be controlled:
A. By refuel pressure
B. Electrically only
C. Manually only
D. Electrically or manually
111. The APU can normally be supplied with the
fuel by:
A. Only the APU pump
B. Only the LH main pumps
C. LH main pumps or APU fuel pump
D. All pumps together

A76 QUALITY ASSURANCE DEPARTMENT

Rev. Date: 16-005-2008

CAU HOI ON TAP A320/A321

112. The maximum refuel pressure is?
A. 11 psi
B. 45 psi
C. 50 psi
D. 100 psi
113. The illumination of the END light in the
refuel/defuel panel means?
A. Pre-selected fuel is equal to actual fuel.
B. All fuel tanks are full, refuel process stopped
automatically.
C. Any high level sensor detected fuel.
114. When performing a Refuel, Defuel or Ground
transfer, the R/D electrical circuits are
enabled by?
A. Power from the aircraft electrical net work
only.
B. Carrying out HI LVL test.
C. Contact R/D panel door switch.
115. What is the purpose of the fuel drain valve?
A. To decrease the fuel flow in the R/D gallery.
B. To avoid a reverse flow to the R/D gallery.
C. To drain remaining fuel from the R/D gallery.
116. How is the Refuel valve normally opened?
A. By energization of a solenoid and application
of fuel pressure.
B. Only by pressing-in the manual command
button.
C. Only by opening the panel door and
application of pressure or suction.
117. In normal operation, each engine is supplied
by: (A320)
A. One wing tank pump and/ or one center tank
pump
B. Two wing tanks pumps and/ or one center
tank pump
C. Two wing tanks pumps and/ or two center
tank pumps
D. One wing tank pump and/ or two center tank
pumps
118. During refueling, the wing tank is filled in the
following order: (A320)
A. The Outer cell and Inner cell at the same
time
B. The Inner cell first, then the Outer cell
C. The Outer cell first, then the Inner cell
119. The inner cell is refueled only when? (A320)
A. Center tank is full.
B. Outer cell is full.
C. Outer cell is empty.
120. What is the maximum total fuel capacity?
(A320)
A. 12 470 KG
B. 15 588 KG
C. 18 932 KG
D. 20 829 KG
121. Are wing pumps running while center tank is
supplying? (A320)
A. Yes, wing tank pumps run continuously
B. No, only when center tank is empty

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CATEGORY: A

C. No, because of center tank pump priority

D. One of the two pumps is running in stand-by
122. When the center tank is empty, in AUTO
mode, center tank pumps: (A320)
A. Must be manually switched OFF
B. Stop and wing tank pumps start running
C. Stop automatically
D. Run for 2 minutes
123. Are main pumps running while the center
tank is transferring? (A321)
A. Yes, main pumps are always running.
B. No, only when the center tank is empty.
C. No, because of center tank pump priority
124. How many fuel Manual Magnetic Indicators
are there (MMI)? (A321)
A. Five in each wing tank and one in the center
tank.
B. Six in each wing tank and two in the center
tank.
C. Seven in each wing tank and one in the
center tank.
125. With the X-FEED valve open, both engines
running and the pumps in the left wing tank
stopped, the fuel transfer from the center
tank: (A321)
A. stops if the cross-feed valve is open
B. continues, but only to the right wing tank.
C. remains unchanged

ATA 29 HYDRAULIC POWER

126. In flight, if the blue electric pump fails the
blue system:
A. Is lost.
B. Can be recovered by the RAT.
C. Can be recovered by the PTU.
D. Both B and C.
127. During first engine start the PTU is:
A. Automatically running.
B. Tested.
C. Inhibited.
128. During second engine start the PTU is:
(B1,B2)
A. Automatically running.
B. Tested.
C. Inhibited.
129. To which system(s) will the Ram Air Turbine
provide hydraulic power?
A. The blue system
B. The yellow system
C. The green and yellow systems
D. The blue and yellow systems
130. What happens if hydraulic pressure drops?
A. The priority valves give priority to the heavy
loads users.
B. The priority valves give priority to the
essential systems
C. The priority valves modulate the pressure to
the users

A76 QUALITY ASSURANCE DEPARTMENT

Rev. Date: 16-005-2008

CAU HOI ON TAP A320/A321

131. A Blue system pipeline is identified by:
A. A blue band and number 1.
B. A blue band and number 2.
C. A blue band and number 3.
132. When is the engine fire shut off valve
closed?
A. When the engine is shut down
B. Automatically as soon as an engine fire is
detected.
C. If the engine fire pushbutton is release out.
133. What can the hand pump be used for?
A. To pressurized the reservoir.
B. To check the flight controls
C. To operate the cargo doors
134. During which operation is the leak
measurement valve closed automatically
A. PTU operation.
B. Cargo door operation.
C. Hand pump operation.
135. What are the manual depressurization valves
provided for?
A. Individual reservoir depressurization
B. Depressurization of related hydraulic circuit
C. Hydraulic system depressurization

ATA 30 ICE & RAIN PROTECTION

136. Hot air used for wing anti-iced is taken from?
A. Aircraft pneumatic system.
B. Bleed from either engine 1 or 2.
C. Directly from the main engine compressors.
137. In the event of an engine anti-ice valve
failure?
A. Each valve can be deactivated in open
position.
B. Each valve can be deactivated in close
position.
C. Each valve can be deactivated either in
close or open position.

ATA 31 INDICATING/RECORDING SYSTEMS

138. EFIS and ECAM display units:
A. Are not interchangeable at all
B. Are mechanically but not electrically
interchangeable
C. Are electrically but not mechanically
interchangeable
D. Are fully interchangeable
139. On which displays are the engine
parameters?
A. PFD
B. ND
C. E/W
140. What is the basic role of the DMCs?
A. They compute and generate displays.
B. They generate audio warnings.
C. They generate amber warnings.

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CATEGORY: A

141. What is displayed on the STATUS page?

A. Memo messages
B. Warning messages
C. Operational status messages
D. Both Memo messages and Warning
messages
142. Where does a warning message appear?
A. Upper area
B. Left memo area
C. Right memo area
D. Center memo area
143. On which display does the warning message
appear?
A. SYSTEM display
B. ENGINE/WARNING display
C. STATUS display.
D. MCDU display.
144. The EIS display switching is done:
A. Manually only
B. Automatically only
C. Automatically only in case of failure or
manually in all circumstances
D. Automatically or manually only in case of
failure
145. What is the purpose of the DFDR?
A. Condition monitoring of the engines
B. To record mandatory parameters.
C. To record parameters in a solid state
memory for ground maintenance.
D. To send systems information for ground
station in case of failures.

ATA 32 LANDING GEAR

146. Which hydraulic system powers normal
landing gear operation?
A. Green system.
B. Blue system.
C. Yellow system.
D. Green system and Yellow system
simultaneously
147. Which hydraulic system powers the nose
wheel steering?
A. Blue system.
B. Green system.
C. Yellow system.
D. None of the above systems
148. Which hydraulic system powers normal
braking?
A. Green system.
B. Yellow system.
C. Blue system.
D. None of the above systems.
149. How is inflight braking initiated?
A. By setting the landing lever to the UP
position.
B. By shock absorber extension.
C. By auto brake deactivation.

A76 QUALITY ASSURANCE DEPARTMENT

Rev. Date: 16-005-2008

CAU HOI ON TAP A320/A321

150. What is the maximum nose wheel steering
angle obtained by the handwheels?
A. 6.
B. 74.
C. 95.
151. Where is the Tire Pressure Indication
displayed?
A. On a tire and brake indicator.
B. On the triple indicator
C. On ECAM.
D. No indication.
152. What is the normal retraction sequence?
A. Door open, gear up, door close, cancel gear
up signal.
B. Door open, gear up, door close, maintain
gear up signal.
C. Door open, gear up, door close, cancel door
close signal.
153. When does the UNLK light come on?
A. When the gear and the related doors are not
locked up.
B. When the gear is not locked down.
C. When the gear is not locked in the selected
position.
154. How can the parking brake be hydraulically
powered?
A. Only by yellow high pressure
B. Only by the brake accumulator
C. Either by yellow high pressure or by the
brake accumulator
155. What is the purpose of the hydraulic fuses?
A. To stop the flow in case of leakage
B. To shut off the return lines
C. To separate the Normal from the Alternate
Servovalve.

ATA 33 LIGHTS
156. Which lighting includes fluorescent lamps
and integral ballast units:
A. Passenger reading lights and work attendant
light
B. Cabin light, entrance light and lavatory lights
C. Lavatory lights sign
D. Emergency lights sign
157. The navigation lights include:
A. RED light on the left hand, GREEN light on
the right hand and WHITE light on the APU
tail.
B. GREEN light on the left hand, RED light on
the right hand and WHITE light on the APU
tail.
C. WHITE light on the left hand, GREEN light
on the right hand and RED light on the APU
tail.
D. RED light on the left hand, WHITE light on
the right hand and GREEN light on the APU
tail.

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CATEGORY: A

ATA 34 NAVIGATION
158. The Instrument Landing System (ILS) is used
to obtain
A. The optimum aircraft heading during an
approach and landing phase.
B. The optimum aircraft track during an
approach and landing phase.
C. The optimum aircraft position during an
approach and landing phase.
D. All A, B and C are correct.
159. The MARKER (MKR) system is used to
indicate
A. The time to the runway threshold during an
ILS descent.
B. The distance to the runway threshold during
an ILS descent.
C. The height above the runway during an ILS
descent.
D. All A, B and C are correct.
160. The function of the Radio Altimeter (RA) is to
A. Give the aircraft height above the runway
elevation.
B. Show the aircraft altitude on the Standby
Altimeter when the PDF has failed.
C. Calculate altitude by using radio wave.
D. All A, B and C are correct.
161. Predictive Windshear (PWS) function is used
to detect
A. Rain and storm with lightning.
B. Strong wind and turbulence.
C. Sudden change of wind speed and/or
direction
D. All A, B and C are correct.
162. VOR system gives:
A. The aircraft angular deviation related to a
pre-selected runway.
B. The bearing of a ground VOR station with
respect to the magnetic North.
C. The bearing of a ground VOR station with
respect to the true North.
163. The Distance Measuring Equipment (DME)
system gives:
A. The aircraft slant distance to a ground
station.
B. The aircraft slant distance to the runway.
C. The aircraft horizontal distance to a ground
station.
D. The aircraft horizontal distance to the
runway.
164. The function of the Air Traffic Control (ATC)
system is to enable the ground operator to
A. Control the aircraft without communicating
with the flight crew.
B. Identify and track the aircraft by
communicating with the flight crew.
C. Identify and track the aircraft without
communicating with the flight crew.

A76 QUALITY ASSURANCE DEPARTMENT

Rev. Date: 16-005-2008

CAU HOI ON TAP A320/A321

ATA 35 OXYGEN SYSTEM
165. An oxygen generator starts to make oxygen
when:
A. The panel is opened.
B. The lanyard is pulled.
C. The MAN OVRD pushbutton on the
passenger oxygen control panel is operated.
D. When the cabin pressure altitude is above
14.000ft.
166. How is the passenger chemical generator
activated?
A. By pushing the MASK MAN ON pushbutton.
B. As soon as the ALTITUDE PRESSURE
SWITCH is closed.
C. When the TIME DELAY RELAY is fully
energized.
D. By a release pin which is connected via a
lanyard to the oxygen mask
167. The aircraft oxygen system has:
A. A separate crew and pax system
B. For the crew a H.P. and a L.P. system
C. 2 (each) crew cylinders
D. Both A and B
168. The crew oxygen system consists of:
A. A fixed high pressure cylinder.
B. A high pressure portable cylinder
C. A fixed cylinder with masks and a breathing
hood system
169. What indicates an overboard discharge?
A. A warning on the oxygen control panel
21VU.
B. The direct reading pressure gauge on the
oxygen cylinder.
C. A yellow indicator.
170. What happen when the 100% position is
selected on crew oxygen masks?
A. The user breathes filtered cabin air
B. The user breathes pure oxygen at a
permanent positive pressure.
C. The user breathes pure oxygen
171. What is the "reset TEST SLIDER" of crew
oxygen system used for?
A. To control mask oxygen inlet.
B. To prevent oxygen inlet to mask.
C. To control oxygen supply during tests and
mask operation.

ATA 36 PNEUMATIC SYSTEM

172. At high engine speed the high pressure valve
(HPV) is:
A. Regulating a pressure
B. Fully closed
C. Fully open
D. Regulating a temperature
173. Where the air is taken from during engine
high power setting?
A. IP stage.
B. HP stage.

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CATEGORY: A

C. IP and HP at the same time.

174. What is the purpose of IP/HP switching?
A. To regulate the output pressure depending
on the Fan Air Valve position.
B. To keep sufficient bleed pressure at low
engine speed.
C. To regulate the output temperature
depending on the configuration of users.
175. The APU bleed leak detection system is?
A. A single loop that connects to BMC 1.
B. A single loop that connects to both BMC 1
and BMC 2.
C. The double loops that connect to BMC 1 and
BMC 2 respectively.
176. The GARRETT APU bleed valve is? (A320)
A. A modulating valve.
B. An ON/OFF valve.
C. A and B.

ATA 38 WATER & WASTE

177. Why is water tank pressurized?
A. To ease draining operation.
B. To warm up water.
C. To allow water distribution.
178. How many potable water quantity indicators
are there?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
179. How many quantity TRANSMITTER is in the
potable water tank?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
180. The waste water drain valve
A. Electrically operated.
B. Is held closed in flight by cabin air pressure
and open when waste water enters the
valve has build up enough.
C. Open on ground and close in flight
D. Manually operated only by lifting the seal
assembly.
181. Can any toilet be used during servicing?
A. Yes, because toilet use and servicing are
independent
B. Yes, but only the front toilet
C. Yes, but electric power is required to supply
the toilet control system
D. No, the door limit switch on the toilet
servicing panel deactivates the toilet control
system.
182. Where does the toilet bowl rinsing water
come from?
A. Waste holding tank.
B. Waste water tank.
C. Potable water tank.

A76 QUALITY ASSURANCE DEPARTMENT

Rev. Date: 16-005-2008

CAU HOI ON TAP A320/A321

183. How is the waste transported to the waste
holding tank?
A. By the vacuum created in the waste holding
tank.
B. By the water flushing and gravity.
C. By the water pressure
184. How many toilet service panels are fitted on
the aircraft?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
185. Where is the waste quantity displayed?
A. On the toilet service panel
B. On the Forward Attendant Panel
C. On both panels.
186. Which signal close the Fill/ Drain valve
during servicing with electrical power
available? (A320)
A. By a quantity transmitter which sends a tank
full signal to close the fill/drain valve
automatically
B. When the quantity gauge indicates full the
valve has to be closed manually
C. When the water comes out of the overflow
port the valve has to be closed manually
D. There is no signal available, the tank has to
be filled with a measured amount of water.
187. What is used for A320 aircraft water tank
filling operation? (A320)
A. One handle, one valve.
B. Two handles, one valve.
C. One handle, two valves.
188. Is it possible to drain the whole water system
without electrical power? (A320)
A. No, electrical power is always required
B. Yes, all the drain valves can be operated
manually
C. No, only the water tanks can be drained by
using the aft drain valve
D. No, only the forward drain valve can be
operated manually.

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CATEGORY: A

A. One
B. Two
C. Three
193. The potable water is located at: (A321)
A. L/H behind the rear cargo compartment.
B. R/H behind the forward cargo compartment.
C. R/H behind the rear cargo compartment.
194. How many valves are used during the
draining operation of water system? (A321)
A. One.
B. Two.
C. Three.
195. Is it possible to fill the aircraft water tank
without electrical supplied? (A321)
A. Yes, fill/overflow drain valve can operate
manually
B. Yes, but when finished you must manually
return the control handle to the NORMAL
position to close the fill/overflow drain valve
C. No, because level transmitter can not send
signal to close the fill/overflow drain valve
D. No, because the fill/overflow drain valve
operate electrically

ATA 49 APU (GARRETT & APIC)

196. The E.C.B has?
A. Restricted authority over APU operation.
B. Monitoring function over APU operation.
C. Full authority over APU operation.
197. The APU can normally be supplied with fuel
by:
A. Only the APU pump.
B. Only the LH main pumps.
C. LH main pumps or APU fuel pump.
198. From where the APU emergency shut down
can be initiated?
A. Refuel/Defuel panel; External power panel
and Cockpit.
B. External power panel and Cockpit only.
C. External power panel only, if the aircraft is
on ground.

189. How many valves are used during draining

operation of A320 aircraft water tank (A320)
A. Two
B. Three
C. Four

199. What indication can be displayed on the APU

page?
A. FLAP OPEN.
B. FUEL LO PR; LOW OIL LVL
C. FLAP OPEN; FUEL LO PR; LOW OIL LVL.

190. How many potable water service and drain

panels are fitted to the A320 aircraft? (A320)
A. One
B. Two
C. Three

200. What are the three APU modules?

A. Compressor, Combustion chambers,
Turbine.
B. Power section, Load Compressor, Turbine.
C. Power section, Load Compressor, Gearbox.

191. Where is the main drain port of the A320

aircraft potable water system? (A320)
A. On the portable water service panel.
B. On the fwd service panel.
C. Both

201. The APU fuel low pressure circuit can be

activated from?
A. Cockpit and External Power Panel.
B. Cockpit and Fuel Vent system at APU
compartment.
C. Cockpit; External Power Panel and Fuel
Vent system at APU compartment.

192. How many potable water service and drain

panels are fitted to the aircraft? (A321)

A76 QUALITY ASSURANCE DEPARTMENT

CAU HOI ON TAP A320/A321

202. How can you activate the APU fuel vent
system?
A. Push and hold the VENT p/b at the APU
compartment.
B. Select master switch ON.
C. Push and hold the VENT p/b with the master
switch selected ON.
203. How do you check the APU OIL quantity?
A. On the ECAM APU page, or on a sight glass
located on the gear box, or by CFDS
interrogation.
B. On ECAM APU page, or on a sight glass
located on the gear box.
C. On ECAM APU page, or on a sight glass
located on the oil cooler, or by CFDS
interrogation.
204. If high oil temperature or low oil pressure is
detected during APU operation, the ECB will
cause the APU to shut down:
A. Only if the MASTER switch is released
B. Only if the START pushbutton is released
C. Only after a cool down cycle
D. Immediately
205. What kind of design is the turbine for APU?
(GARRETT
A. Two stage centrifugal turbine design.
B. Single stage centrifugal turbine design.
C. Two stage axial turbine design
206. What kind of design is the turbine for APU?
(APIC)
A. Two stage centrifugal turbine design.
B. Single stage centrifugal turbine design.
C. Two stage axial turbine design

ATA 52 DOORS
207. What does the red flashing light on the cabin
door indicate?
A. The escape slide will not deploy after
automatic opening
B. The first bar has failed to engage into the
floor fittings
C. The slide system is armed avoid the interior
locking handle is partly lifted
D. Both engine shut down, door disarmed, the
cabin pressure is greater than 2,5 mbars
208. When does the residual cabin pressure red
light come on?
A. When all the engines are not running, the
parking brake is applied and the residual
cabin pressure exceeds 2.5 mbars
B. When the engines are not running, the slide
is disarmed and the residual cabin pressure
exceeds 2.5 mbars
C. When the engines are not running, the
parking brake is applied, the slide is
disarmed and the residual cabin pressure
exceeds 2.5 mbars

Rev. Date: 16-005-2008

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CATEGORY: A

209. How is the passenger door closed and

locked information monitored?
A. By a single microswitch (lock position) on the
"ECAM DOOR" page
B. By two proximity detection on the "ECAM
DOOR" page
C. No indication at all
D. Landing gear control interface unit n 1
(LGCIU 1) on the "ECAM DOOR" page
210. What is the purpose of the damper nitrogen
bottle and emergency operation cylinder?
(B1,B2)
A. To damp the door opening and closing
B. To assist in opening and closing the door to
do it
C. To damp the door opening/closing and to
pressurize the cylinder in case of
emergency opening
211. What happen when the passenger door is
opened from the outside and the slide
system is armed?
A. The locking mechanism is blocked
B. The escape slide will deploy
C. The slide system is disarmed
D. There is no possibility to open the door from
the outside
212. The PAX door is maintained parallel to the
fuselage by:
A. The guide arms.
B. The support arms
C. The upper and lower connection links.
213. How is the operator warned when there is a
residual pressure in the cabin?
A. By a white flushing light.
B. By a red flushing light.
C. By an ember flushing light.
214. What does the green light fitted near the
manual selector valve of the cargo door
indicate?
A. The yellow hydraulic pressure is available to
operate the door.
B. The door is fully opened and locked.
C. The door is correctly unlatched and
unlocked
215. What does the green light in the cargo door
access indicate?
A. The cargo door is closed and locked
B. The cargo door is not closed
C. The cargo door is unlocked
D. The cargo door is open and locked
216. The escape slide will be automatically
deployed if
A. Girt bar attached with escape slide pack and
the door is opened.
B. Girt bar is still engaged into floor bracket and
the door is opened.
C. Girt bar is still engaged into floor bracket and
the door is opened by outside handle

A76 QUALITY ASSURANCE DEPARTMENT

CAU HOI ON TAP A320/A321

217. The function of the safety pin on the pax
door is:
A. To hold the door when it is closed during
whole flight.
B. To hold the door in the closed position until it
is locked.
C. To hold the door in the closed position until it
is unlocked.
218. Landing gear doors can be opened
A. Hydraulically on ground only with landing
gear selector set to down.
B. Hydraulically or manually if aircraft is on
jack.
C. Manually on ground only with landing gear
selector set to down
219. Avionics compartment can be accessed
through:
A. Avionics lower side of the fuselage.
B. Avionics door on the fwd cargo
compartment.
C. Access door in the cockpit.
220. The seal of pax door:
A. Is installed around the door on the inner side
and when the door is closed, the it is
pushed against the frame of the fuselage
B. Is installed around the door on the outer side
and when the door is closed, the it is
pushed against the frame of the fuselage
C. Is deflated when the door is closed and the
passenger cabin is pressurized.
221. The air stoppers are installed between the
PAX door and the door frame
A. Prevent the cold air from penetrating into the
cabin
B. Prevent the water comes into the cabin
C. Protect the door structure during operation.
222. The cargo door can be opened
A. When the cam and the hooks are in the
locked position.
B. When the cam is in the unlocked position
and the hooks are in the locked position
C. When the cam and the hooks are in the
unlocked position
223. The cargo doors hydraulic system is
pressurized by the:
A. Green electric pump
B. Blue electric pump
C. Yellow electric pump
224. BULK Cargo-Compartment Door is opened:
A. Outward and upward.
B. Outward and downward.
C. Inward and upward.
D. Inward and downward.
225. The FWD and AFT cargo doors:
A. Possible to open/close at the same time
B. Possible to open at the same time when
using the electric pump only
C. Possible to open one by one only
D. Possible to close at the same time only

Rev. Date: 16-005-2008

Page 14 / 17

CATEGORY: A

226. The external power receptacle

A. Is installed in the lower and is a quickopening type door and opens outwards
towards the front of the aircraft
B. Is installed in the lower and is a quickopening type door and opens outwards
downwards the front of the aircraft
C. Is installed in the lower and is a quickopening type door and opens outwards
upwards the front of the aircraft
227. The pressurization of the cargo door
hydraulic system does not occur when:
A. The locking mechanism is in the locked
condition.
B. The door not in fully close or/and open
position.
C. The door not in fully open position.
D. The door is operated with hand pump
228. What happen when the emergency exit door
is opened from the outside and the slide
system is armed? (A320)
A. The locking mechanism is blocked
B. The escape slide will deploy
C. The slide system is disarmed
D. There is no possibility to open the door from
the outside
229. Emergency exit door: (A320)
A. Can be opened from outside or/and inside
and the door fall outside of aircraft.
B. Can be opened from outside or/and inside
and the door fall into the cabin.
C. Can be opened from outside and the door
fall outside of aircraft
D. Can be opened from inside and the door fall
into the cabin,
230. How is latch pin of the emergency exit door
released for maintenance operation? (A320)
(B1)
A. By operating the outer control handle
B. By retracting the latch pin
C. By setting the disarming control handle to
DISARMED
231. Emergency exit door is equipped with (A320)
A. Slide, which is automatically disarmed when
the door is opened from inside.
B. Slide, which is automatically disarmed when
the door is opened from outside.
C. Slide, which can only be disarmed by
release the latch pin from inside.
232. What happen when the emergency exit door
is opened from the outside and slide system
is armed? (A321)
A. The locking mechanism is blocked
B. The escape slide will deploy
C. The slide system is disarmed and the
escape slide will not deploy
D. There is no possibility to open the door from
the outside

A76 QUALITY ASSURANCE DEPARTMENT

Rev. Date: 16-005-2008

CAU HOI ON TAP A320/A321

233. Where the escape slide pack of cabin
emergency door located? (A321)
A. Holds on the door.
B. Holds in a container underneath the door.
C. Holds on the overhead stowage
compartment.
234. Where the inflation reservoir of the
emergency exits door located? (A321)
A. At the bottom of the door.
B. In the overhead stowage compartment.
C. In the AFT cargo compartment.
235. Which emergency exit doors can be used as
passenger door? (A321)
A. All emergency exits doors
B. Two FWD emergency exit doors
C. Two AFT emergency exit doors
D. FWD L/H emergency exit doors

ATA 71/80 - POWER PLANT GENERAL &

ENGINE STARTING
236. The engine anti-ice air overboard discharge
grill is located?
A. On the outboard side of the inlet cowl.
B. On the right side fan cowl door.
C. On the lower right side of the inlet cowl.
D. At the bottom (5 oclock position) of fan
cowling

Page 15 / 17

CATEGORY: A

ENGINE CFM56-5B
ATA 72 ENGINE CFM56-5B
241. Features of CFM-56-5B4 engine are:
A. Two spools, axial flow, high fan bypass ratio
and mixed exhaust.
B. Two spools, radial flow, high fan bypass ratio
and mixed exhaust.
C. Two spools, axial flow, high fan bypass ratio
and separated exhaust.
D. Two spools, axial flow, high fan bypass ratio
and mixed exhaust.
242. Select the correct type of combustion
chamber for CFM-56-5B4 engine?
A. Annular combustor.
B. Tubular combustor.
C. Reverse flow combustor.
243. How many stages does the H.P. Compressor
has?
A. Twelve.
B. Ten.
C. Nine
244. The HP Turbine has
A. Only one stage.
B. Four stages
C. Two stages.

237. The engine oil servicing panel is located?

A. On the outboard side of the inlet cowl.
B. On the left side fan cowl door.
C. On the left side of the inlet cowl.
D. On the left side of the reverser cowl.

245. Identify the number of blades in one engine

fan set?
A. Thirty six (36)
B. Twenty two (22)
C. Thirty two (32)

238. Each reverser cowl:

A. Is hold closed by 6 single latches.
B. Is held open by a single hold open rod.
C. Is held open by two hold open rods.

246. The engine gear boxes are driven by which

shaft?
A. N1 rotor.
B. N2 rotor via the transfer gear box.
C. N2 rotor.

239. When the engine is running :

A. No personnel is allowed to get access to the
engine.
B. Access to the engine is permitted within the
Entry/Exit corridor if power do not exceed
min idle.
C. Access to the engine is permitted within the
Entry/Exit corridor at all power rating.
240. The engine run up at Min idle can be carried
out with :
A. Fan cowls opened and secured.
B. Both Reverser and Fan cowls opened and
secured.
C. Thrust Reverser cowls opened and secured.
D. Non engine cowl opened.

247. The hand cranking drive is connected to?

A. LP rotor.
B. HP rotor.
C. Both LP and HP rotors.

ATA 74 IGNITION SYSTEM.

248. Of which type is the ignition system?
A. Low voltage, high energy.
B. High voltage, low energy.
C. High voltage, high energy.
249. What provide the selection of ignition A/B?
A. The ECU.
B. The engine control panel.
C. The ECAM control panel.
250. The ignition is inhibited
A. During automatic start when N2 is above
16%.
B. During dry crank sequence.
C. During wet crank sequence.
D. During wet and dry crank sequences.

A76 QUALITY ASSURANCE DEPARTMENT

Rev. Date: 16-005-2008

CAU HOI ON TAP A320/A321

251. Each engine is equipped with?
A. One ignition system with two igniters.
B. Two ignition systems, each has two igniters.
C. Two ignition systems with two igniters.
252. Ignition system power supply is?
A. 115 V from the aircraft.
B. 115 V from engine generator.
C. 28 V from the FADEC PMA.
253. What does Continuous Relight mean?
A. An active ignition system will work
continuously.
B. Both ignition systems are selected during
engine start.
C. Both ignition systems are demanded to work
continuously.

ATA 75 AIR SYSTEM

Page 16 / 17

CATEGORY: A

260. The engine oil quantity parameters are

displayed on?
A. The Upper ECAM.
B. The Lower ECAM engine page.
C. The Lower ECAM engine page or Cruise
page.
261. The engine oil pressure parameters are
displayed on?
A. The Upper ECAM.
B. The Lower ECAM engine page.
C. The Lower ECAM engine page or Cruise
page.
262. The fuel used indication is reset to Zero :
A. Five minutes after engine shut down
B. After a new take-off
C. Through the MCDU
D. At each engine start

254. The purpose of the Active Clearance Control

(ACC) system is?
A. To improve compressor efficiency
B. To improve and maintain engine
performance
C. To reduce overall engine thermal growth

263. The engine thrust indicated on ECAM via

what parameter?
A. N1 speed.
B. N2 speed
C. EGT

255. What is used to cool the ECU?

A. Ram air taken from dedicated air intake
scoop.
B. Fan air taken from dedicated air intake
scoop.
C. Fan air taken from nacelle cooling system.

ATA 78 EXHAUST SYSTEM

256. What is used to cool the fan and core

compartments?
A. Ram air for both compartments
B. Fan air for both compartments.
C. Ram air for fan compartment and Fan air for
core compartment.

ATA 77 ENGINE INDICATING SYSTEM

257. The engine primary parameters are displayed
on
A. The lower ECAM engine page.
B. The upper ECAM.
C. Both The lower ECAM engine page and the
upper ECAM.
258. The engine page is selected?
A. Manually or automatically depending on
flight phases.
B. Manually only.
C. Automatically, only depending on flight
phases.
259. The engine vibration parameter is displayed
on?
A. The Upper ECAM.
B. The Lower ECAM engine page.
C. The Lower ECAM engine page or Cruise
page.

264. Which important safety procedure should be

performed before any maintenance work on
or near the C ducts or reverser system?
A. Unlock and pin the actuators.
B. Lock out the translating sleeves.
C. Deactivate and pin the lever on the HCU.
D. Deactivate and pin the lever on the HCU and
lock out translating sleeves.

ATA 79 ENGINE OIL SYSTEM

265. The oil tank content can be checked by?
A. Opening a dedicated servicing access panel
in the LH fan cowl.
B. Opening an access panel on the LH C duct.
C. Opening the RH fan cowl
266. How is the main cooling of the oil system
achieved?
A. By an air-cooled oil cooler.
B. By a fuel cooled oil cooler in the HP fuel
system.
C. By a fuel cooled oil cooler in the LP fuel
system.
267. Engine oil MCD is on?
A. The oil supply circuit.
B. The oil scavenge circuit.
C. The oil ventilation circuit.
268. Engine oil temperature indication is
measured on?
A. The oil supply circuit.
B. The oil scavenge circuit.
C. The oil ventilation circuit.

A76 QUALITY ASSURANCE DEPARTMENT

CAU HOI ON TAP A320/A321

ATA 80 ENGINE STARTING
269. How can you assure that the oil servicing of
starter is accomplished?
A. Checking the engine oil sign glass.
B. Check ECAM indication.
C. Check the oil flows though the overflow port.
270. What is the best wind direction for engine
STARTING?
A. Side wind.
B. Tail wind.
C. Front wind.

ATA 71 80 V2500 ENGINE

271. Features of V2530-A5 engine are:
A. Two spools, axial flow, annular combustor
and mixed exhaust.
B. Two spools, radial flow, annular combustor
and mixed exhaust.
C. Two spools, axial flow, annular combustor
and separated exhaust.
D. Two spools, axial flow, tubular combustor
and mixed exhaust.
272. V2530-A5 means:
A. Engine is rated at max thrust of 25300 lbs to
install in the Airbus A/C.
B. Engine is rated at max thrust of 30000 lbs to
install in the Airbus A/C.
C. Engine is rated at max thrust of 25000 lbs to
install in the Airbus A/C.
273. The engine exhaust directs rearwards?
A. Fan air discharge.
B. Engine core exhaust. in the Airbus A/C.
C. Both fan air discharge and the engine core
exhaust.
274. Reverser cowling:
A. Is attached to the engine core by 6 hinges
each half.
B. Is hold closed by 5 single latches.
C. Should be opened/closed using the Auxiliary
latch assembly.
275. Each half of reverser cowl c duct:
A. Is held closed by 4 latches.
B. Is held open by a single hold open rod.
C. Is held open by two hold open rods.
276. Fan cowls:
A. Must be held open by both struts each when
the wind is more than 26 knots (30 mph).
B. Should be opened by releasing 6 latches in
sequence from the front to the rear.
C. Must always be held open by both struts
each.
277. The H.P. Compressor has how many stages?
A. Twelve.
B. Ten.
C. Fourteen.

Rev. Date: 16-005-2008

Page 17 / 17

CATEGORY: A

278. Identify the number of blades in one engine

fan set?
A. Thirty three (33)
B. Twenty two (22)
C. Thirty two (32)
279. What statement is NOT correct?
A. Fan stage has 22 fan blades.
B. Fan stage has 24 fan blades.
C. Engine is constructed by 05 modules.
D. Gearboxes are driven by HP shaft.
280. The air starter valve access panel is on?
A. RH fan cowl.
B. LH fan cowl
C. RH reverser cowl.
D. Out board fan cowl.
281. Has the oil pressure filter a pop out indicator
fitted?
A. Yes.
B. No.
C. There is no pressure filter in the system.
282. Which filters in the oil system have
associated filter clog messages on the
ECAM?
A. Pressure Scavenge and Scavenge strainers.
B. Pressure only.
C. Scavenge only.
283. Which normal indications are displayed on
the ECAM for the oil system?
A. Oil differential pressure, oil temperature, oil
tank quantity.
B. Oil temperature, oil pressure.
C. Oil differential pressure, oil quantity,
284. What does the HMS heat and cool?
A. Fuel, engine oil and IDG oil.
B. Engine oil and IDG oil.
C. Fuel only.
D. Fuel and engine oil.
285. How the Nose Cone (Spinner) is anti-iced?
A. Electrically.
B. Pneumatically.
C. Neither electrically nor pneumatically.
D. Not required.
286. In normal T/R operation, actuator unlocked
condition is indicated by?
A. REV in green appears inside the EPR
gauge.
B. REV in amber appears inside the N1 gauge.
C. REV in amber appears inside the EPR
gauge.
287. Fuel samples can be taken from?
A. The LP fuel filter cover.
B. The LP fuel pump case.
C. The HP fuel pump outlet.
288. Which engine parameters are displayed on
the ECAM upper display?
A. EPR, N1 & N2.
B. N1, N2, EPR, oil pressure, oil temperature.
C. N1, N2, EPR & EGT.