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7. Baby Peter has a fever of 38.5oC. It surges at around 40o and goes back to 38.5o 6 times
today in a typical pattern. This type of fever is called:
a. Relapsing
Remittent
b. Intermittent
Constant
8. Baby is naked and sitting in a room of normal room temperature. The mechanism of heat loss
applied is:
a. Conduction
Radiation
b. Convection
Evaporation
9. Midwife Cristine is assessing the blood pressure of a client diagnosed with primary
hypertension. She ensures accurate measurement by avoiding which of the following?
a. Seating the client with arm bore, supported, and at heart level.
b. Measuring the blood pressure after the client has been seated quietly for 5 minutes.
c. Using a cuff with rubber bladder that encircles at least 80% of the limb.
d. Taking the blood pressure within 30 minutes after nicotine or caffeine ingestion.
10.Of the following statements, which is most true about pulse?
2 | diagnostic exams
a.
b.
c.
d.
a.
b.
14.When assessing elderly clients Midwife Bebeth should be aware that normal aging will usually
not affect their:
Sense of taste or smell
Muscle or motor strength
Gastrointestinal motility
Ability to handle lifes stresses
a.
b.
15.During a hearing assessment, Midwife Ysa notes that the sound lateralizes to the clients left
ear with the Weber test. Midwife Ysa analyses these results as:
A normal finding
A sensorineural or conductive loss
A conductive hearing loss in the right ear
The presence of nystagmus
a.
b.
c.
d.
16.Which of the following sounds would midwife Ghie expect to find on auscultation of normal
lung?
Tympany over the right upper lobe
Resonance over the left upper lobe
Hyperresonnance over the left lower lobe
Dullness above the left 10th intercostal space
17.When ausculating the chest of a client, which finding indicates normal lung assessment?
There are continuous, low-pitched, coarse, gurgling, louder sounds with a moaning or snoring
quality.
b.
There is soft-intensity; low-pitched sounds created by air moving through smaller airways.
c.
Continuous, high-pitched musical sounds best heard on expiration.
d.
Fine, short, interrupted crackling sounds
a.
a.
b.
18.During an auscultation for normal heart sounds, a dull, low-pitched sound was heard. This
sound or phase is:
S1
Systole
S2
Diastole
a.
b.
19.Midwife Lucy is performing primary assessment on a child found lying on the floor. To assess
for the presence of pulse, Midwife Lucy is most likely to palpate for:
brachial pulse
femoral pulse
carotid pulse
radial pulse
a.
20.In palpating the clients breast, which of the following position is necessary for the patient to
assume before the start of the procedure?
Supine
Dorsal recumbent
3 | diagnostic exams
c.
Sitting
Lithotomy
a.
b.
c.
d.
21.Midwife Lorie is performing one-handed palpation after bimanual palpation of the left breast.
The following techniques are correct, except:
Place the client in supine position.
Palpate the breast tissue along the hands of the clock, moving from the areola to the periphery.
Use the fingertips of one hand.
Instruct the client to abduct the arm, and place her hand behind her head.
a.
b.
22.Midwife Bers is assessing patient Lesters abdomen. After inspection, what should be done
next?
Inspection
Percussion
Auscultation
Palpation
a.
b.
23.Midwife Gigi knows that the sequence in examining the quadrants of the abdomen is:
RUQ,RLQ,LUQ,LLQ
RUQ,RLQ,LLQ,LUQ
RLQ,RUQ,LLQ,LUQ
RLQ,RUQ,LUQ,LLQ
a.
b.
c.
d.
24.When teaching Patient Alfred how to perform testicular self-examination, all are correct
instructions, except:
Examine the testicles every other month, one at a time.
Use the fingertips to probe the surface gently, like examining an egg for imperfections.
Roll the testicles between the thumb and fingers.
Use the thumb, index, and middle fingers for examination.
a.
b.
c.
d.
25.When assessing an elderly client, the health care provider knows that changes in the female
genitourinary system usually take place. Included are normal findings, except:
Loss of pubic hair and a flattening of the labia occur.
The vaginal wall becomes thinner and less vascular.
The vulva hypertrophies.
The vaginal environment becomes drier and more alkaline.
c.
d.
a.
b.
c.
d.
27.When testing the coordinated functioning of cranial nerve III, IV, and VI, Bert would correctly
identify it when the following is being assessed:
Corneal reflex
Six cardinal fields of gaze
Pupil response to light
Pupil response to light and accommodation
a.
b.
a.
b.
4 | diagnostic exams
c.
A state of complete physical, mental, and social well-being, and not merely the disease or
infirmity.
d.
A dynamic state of being in which the developmental and behavioral potential for an individual is
realized to the fullest extent possible.
a.
b.
29.In this Health and Wellness model, people are viewed as physiologic systems with related
functions, and health is identified by absence of signs and symptoms of disease or injury.
Role Performance Model
Adaptive Model
Clinical Model
Eudemonistic Model
a.
b.
30.In the Health Belief model, individual perceptions include the following, except:
Perceived susceptibility
Perceived seriousness
Perceived curability
Perceived threat
a.
b.
c.
d.
31.Of the following statements, which is most true about acute illness?
Often have periods of remission and exacerbation
Many must learn to live with increasing physical limitations and discomfort
Usually have a slow onset
Characterized by severe symptoms of relatively short duration
a.
b.
c.
d.
33.A substance usually intended for use on inanimate objects, that destroys pathogens but not
the spores:
Sterilization
Disinfectant
Antiseptic
Autoclave
a.
b.
c.
d.
a.
b.
c.
d.
a.
b.
a.
b.
a.
b.
c.
d.
a.
b.
a.
b.
a.
b.
c.
d.
a.
b.
c.
d.
a.
b.
34.Midwife Jenny is preparing to care for a burn client in protective isolation. She plans care
knowing that all are components of protective isolation techniques, except:
Using sterile sheets and linens
Strict handwashing
Wearing gloves and gowns only when giving direct care to the client
Wearing protective garb, including a mask, gloves, cap, shoe covers, scrub clothes, and plastic
aprons
35.First aid is the immediate action taken to:
Care for the injured until medical help is available
Supplement proper medical or surgical treatment
Preserve vitality and resistance to disease
Rescue and transport the injured
36.After a poisoning victim vomits, give the victim:
activated charcoal
raw egg to coat the stomach
lemon juice in a glass of water
syrup of ipecac and water
e.
37.An open wound characterized by jagged skin edges and free bleeding is:
A laceration
A contusion
An incision
An abrasion
e.
38.When a puncture wound is caused by an impailed object, as a healthcare provider you should:
Remove the object and cover the wound with sterile dressing
Stabilize the object with a bulky dressing
Apply slight pressure on the object to control bleeding
Always shorten the object so it will be easier to move the victim
e.
39.This type of respiration is characterized as rhythmic waxing and waning of respirations, from
very deep to very shallow breathing and temporary apnea:
Kussmauls respiration
Cheyne-stokes respiration
Hyperventilation
Tachypnea
e.
40.Midwife Cathy instructs a client to use the pursed-lip method of breathing. Patient Betty asks
her about the purpose of this type of breathing. She responds, knowing that the primary
purpose of pursed-lip breathing is to:
Promote oxygen intake
Strengthen the intercostal muscles
Strengthen the diaphragm
Promote carbon dioxide elimination
e.
41.Dr. M orders oxygen therapy via nasal cannula (nasal prongs) at 2LPM for an elderly client
with heart failure. The healthcare providers priority action would be to:
Maintain the client on bed rest
Investigate if the client has COPD
Determine if the client is a mouth breather
Obtain the appropriate cannula size for the client
e.
42.Recommended dietary allowances (RDA) are:
The lowest amount of essential nutrients necessary to maintain health.
Levels of essential nutrients adequate to meet needs of healthy individuals.
Levels of nutrients found in inexpensive foods.
Applicable to children only.
e.
43.Amiel has right-sided weakness and needs to learn how to use a cane. Midwife Naomi plans
to teach Amiel to position the cane by holding it with the:
Left hand and placing the cane in front of the left foot
Right hand and placing the cane in front of the right foot
c.
d.
a.
b.
c.
d.
a.
b.
c.
d.
a.
b.
c.
d.
a.
b.
a.
b.
c.
d.
a.
b.
c.
d.
a.
b.
c.
d.
a.
b.
c.
d.
c. APSOM
d. CHED
e.
85.The following are qualifications of a principal in a school of midwifery, which is not included?
a. Filipino citizen
b. 3 years teaching experience
c. 3 years experience in maternity ward
d. Registered nurse midwife
e.
86.Which of the following statements is true?
a. Part time instructors should be given minor subjects only
b. The principal cannot follow up students in the ward and community
c. At least 75% of midwifery course should be handled by full time instructors
d. At least 60% of midwifery course should be handled by full time instructors
e.
87.A registered midwife maybe allowed to follow up students in the community/ward provided she
has?
a. 3 years experience in the area of assignment
b. 2 years experience in the area of assignment
c. She is also a BS degree holder
d. She is a degree holder in health related field
e.
88.A part time instructor have a teaching load of?
a. 10 units
b. 15 units
c. 20 units
d. 25 units
e.
89.A registered professional shall be permanently exempt from CPE requirements upon reaching the
age of?
a. 55
b. 60
c. 65
d. 70
e.
90.The total CPE credit units for registered professionals without baccalaureate degree shall be:
a. 30 credit units for 2 years
b. 30 credit units for 3 years
c. 60 credit units for 2 years
d. 30 credit units for 3 years
e.
91.This includes allowing the patient to refuse treatment if he so decides, disclosure of his ailment,
prognosis, and maintaining confidentiality?
a. Autonomy
b. Veracity
c. Beneficence
d. Nonmaleficence
b.
92.The physician tells the patient and his family his diagnosis, and plan of care, what principle of
biomedical ethics does the physician exercising?
a. Autonomy
b. Veracity
c. Beneficence
d. Nonmaleficence
b.
93.The recovery room midwife received a patient post CS. When the midwife arranged the bed and
raised the side rails of the patient, this action reflects?
a. Autonomy
b. Veracity
c. Beneficence
d. Nonmaleficence
b.
94.An experimental drug to be tested in patients inside the OB ward was introduced by a particular
drug company. The midwife refused to give the drug since the potential harm may be greater
than the expected benefit, what principle of biomedical ethics did the nurse exercise?
a. Autonomy
b. Veracity
c. Beneficence
d. Nonmaleficence
b.
95.RA 7432 called the senior Citizens Act, gives honor and justice to the elderly by giving 20%
discount in public establishments such as restaurants, pharmacies and hospitals. This is an
example of?
a. Justice
b. Autonomy
c. Veracity
d. Fidelity
b.
96.One of the patients in the community has Diabetes Mellitus and the mans foot is gangrenous.
The midwife helps the patient understand that the amputation will save the patients life; he can
still walk through the aid of crutches or artificial limbs. What moral principle did the nurse
exercise?
a. Totality
b. Epikia
c. Two fold effect d. Golden rule
b.
97.If a patient who has cancer of the uterus submits to hysterectomy she will not be able to bear a
child. If she does not have the operation, she will die. This is an example of?
a. Totality
b. Epikia
c. Two fold effect d. Golden rule
b.
98.An anxious patient repeatedly uses the call bell to get the nurse to come to the room. Finally, the
midwife says to the patient, If you keep ringing, I will tie you to your bed. This is an example
of?
a. Slander
b. Assault
c. Battery
d. Libel
b.
99.A patient G5P5 refused to be injected with her third dose of Depo Provera. The midwife insisted
despite the patients refusal and forcibly injected Depo. The midiwfe can be sued for which of the
following?
a. Slander
b. Assault
c. Battery
d. Libel
b.
100.
A midiwfe is driving her car when she hit a 5 year old boy, the boy was injured. This is an
example of?
a. Negligence
b. Malpractice
c. Force majeure
d. Respondeat Superior
b.
101.
You are preparing to go to work when suddenly, theres a major earthquake. You failed to
go to work and you are not liable for it. This is an example of?
a. Negligence
b. Malpractice
c. Force majeure
d. Respondeat superior
b.
c. Obstetrics
d.
102. These are lobular glands located just superior to the prostate. It produces seminal fluid
that is secreted during ejaculation to support sperm metabolism and motility.
a. a. Vas deferens
c. c. Urethra
b. b. Prostate glands
d. d. Seminal vesicles
e.
103. A small soft fold of tissue that directly covers the vaginal introitus.
a labia minora
b. clitoris
a. labia majora
c. vagina
a.
104. Which of the following occurs first in the development of female sex characteristics?
a. Thelarche
c. Ovulation
b. Menarche
d. Adrenarche
a.
105. What are the four body structures involved in the physiology of the menstrual cycle?
a. Hypothalamus, ovaries, uterus, vagina
b. Pituitary gland, ovaries, uterus, vagina
c. Hypothalamus, pituitary gland, ovaries, uterus
d. Pituitary gland, ovaries, endometrium, uterus
e.
106. Mrs. Luisa Vitton typically has a menstrual cycle of 34 days. She tells you she had coitus
with Mr. Georgio Armandi on days 8, 10, 15 & 20 of her last cycle. When she is most likely
i.
i.
i.
v.
conceived?
a. Day 14
c. Day 30
b. Day 20
d. Day 34
e.
107. What is the stage of the sexual response cycle wherein the body suddenly discharges
accumulated sexual tension?
a. Excitement
c. Orgasm
b. Plateau
d. Resolution
e.
108. This is the type of sexual orientation when this person is an individual who, although or
one biologic gender, feels as if he or she should be of the opposite gender.
a. Heterosexuality
c. Bisexuality
b. Homosexuality
d. Transexuality
e.
109. This is the component of sexuality that refers to gender based on sex chromosomes?
a. Gender role
c. Gender identity
b. Biologic gender
d. Sexual identity
e.
110. The inability of a man to produce or maintain an erection long enough for vaginal
penetration or partner satisfaction is known as:
a. Inhibited sexual desire
c. Failure to achieve orgasm
b. Erectile dysfunction
d. Premature ejaculation
e.
111.
This is the involuntary contraction of the muscles at the outlet of the vagina when coitus
is attempted.
a. Vestibulitis
c. Dyspareunia
b. Vaginismus
d. Masturbation
e.
112. Which of the following factors would cause infertility in males?
inadequate sperm count
obstruction or impaired sperm motility
ejaculation problems
presence of just one functional testis
b.
c. a. 1,2,3
b. 2,3,4
c. 1,3,4
d. 1,2,4
d.
113. What is the most common cause of infertility in women?
a. Anovulation
c. Uterine problems
b. Tubal transport problems
d. Cervical problems
e.
114. In fertility assessment, how long will be evaluated for infertility if she is more than 35
years old.
a. 1 year
c. 8 months
b. 12 months
d. 6 months
115. A woman who is unable to bear a child after being married for 3 years came to the clinic
for check up. She said her husband underwent certain diagnostic procedures and found
nothing wrong with him so she decided to subject herself for check up. Which of the following
procedures are related diagnostics to be done to her:
a. Rubins test
c. Friedman test
b. Ladins Test
d. Pregnancy test
e.
116. When assisting in an advance surgical procedure for fertility testing, the nurse is correct if
she describes laparoscopy as?
a Usually done 2 or 3 days before the expected menstrual flow.
a. Visual inspection of the uterus through the insertion of a hysteroscope.
b. Introduction of a thin, hollow, lighted tube through a small incision in the abdomen.
a. Fertilization
c. Capacitation
b. Implantation
d. Ovulation
e.
126. This is the structure during embryonic development that consists of 2 layers of cells that
encloses a fluid filled space.
a. Morula
c. Trophoblast
b. Blastocyst
d. Zygote
e.
127. This is the hormone secreted by the placenta; its function is to maintain the corpus
luteum.
a. Progesterone
c. HCG
b. Estrogen
d. HPL
e.
128. A pregnant client in the prenatal clinic is scheduled for a biophysical profile. The client
asks the nurse what the test involves. What is the most appropriate nursing response?
a This test only measures the amount of the amniotic fluid present in the uterus
a. This test measures amniotic fluid volume and fetal activity
b. This test measures your ability to tolerate pregnancy
c. This test measures your cardiac status and ability to tolerate labor
a.
129. In the fetal circulation, what is the blood vessel that connects the umbilical vein to the
inferior vena cava?
a. Ductus venosus
c. Foramen ovale
b. Ductus arteriosus
d. Umbilical cord
e.
130. At what lunar month is sex determined by UTZ?
a. 2nd lunar month
c. 6th lunar month
th
b. 4 lunar month
d. 8th lunar month
e.
131. All of the following are seen during the 2 nd lunar month except?
a. Organogenesis is complete
c. Arms & legs have developed
b. Facial features are definitely discernible
d. Babinski reflex is present
e.
132. A client attending the prenatal clinic for the first time tells the nurse that her last
menstrual cycle began on January 11, 2008. The client also states that she had one day of
light spotting on February 7, 2008. The expected date of birth (EDB) is calculated to be:
a. October 14
b. October 18
c. November 14
d. November 18
b.
133. A non stress test is prescribed for a pregnant client, and the client asks Nurse Mike about
the procedure. The nurse is knowledgeable about the procedure, when she tells the client
that:
a The test is an invasive procedure and requires that an informed consent be signed.
a. The test will take about 2 hours and will require close monitoring for 2 hours after
the procedure is completed.
b. An ultrasound transducer that records the fetal heart activity is secured over the
abdomen where the fetal heart is heard most clearly
c. The fetus is challenged or stresses by uterine contraction to obtain the necessary
information
a.
134. Which of the following best characterizes the contraction stress test (CST)?
a The fetus typically is monitored for at least 40 minutes; then the entire
monitoring strip (or tracing) is analyzed
a. Any abnormal or non reactive stress test results require further evaluation that
same day.
b. It is the least invasive test of fetal well being that involves using an electronic
fetal monitor
c. Three contractions within 10 minutes must be evaluated. Ideally, each
contraction should last from 40 to 60 seconds.
a.
135. Rihanna, at 20 weeks AOG is scheduled for an ultrasound to determine the sex of her
baby. What instruction would you give her prior to the examination?
a. Void immediately before the procedure to reduce your bladder size.
b. The intravenous fluid infused to dilate your uterus does not hurt the fetus
c. You will need to drink at least 3 glasses of fluid before that procedure
d. You can have medicine for pain for any contractions caused by the test
e.
136. The use of ultrasound can assess placental grading based particularly on the amount of
calcium deposits in the based of the placenta. A grade 0 can be interpreted as:
a. A Placenta 12-24 weeks
b. A Placenta 30-32 weeks
c. A Placenta 36 weeks
d. A placenta 38 weeks
e.
137. Remedios is scheduled for an amniocentesis to test for fetal maturity. What instruction
would you give her before this procedure?
a. Void immediately before the procedure to reduce your bladder size.
b. The X- ray used to reveal your fetus position has no long- term effects.
c. No more amniotic fluid forms afterward, which is why only a small amount is removed.
d. The intravenous fluid infused to dilate your uterus does not hurt the fetus
e.
138. A pregnant woman, Rh negative, underwent cordocentesis. She is given RhIG after the
procedure. She asked Nurse Leo what is the reason for this, the correct response would be:
a. For prophylactic purposes.
b. To promote clotting from the aspiration site
c. To prevent infection to the baby
d. To prevent sensitization of your blood by the fetal blood.
e.
139. Lindsay Gohan sometimes feels ambivalent about being pregnant. As the nurse, the
psychological task youd like to see her complete during the first trimester of pregnancy?
a. Morning sickness is tolerable
b. Accept the fact that shes pregnant
c. Accept the fact that the baby is growing inside her
d. Choose a name for the baby
e.
140. Which of the following common emotional reactions to pregnancy would the nurse expect
to occur during the second trimester?
a. Ambivalence, fear
b. Narcissism, fantasies, extroversion
c. Ambivalence, introversion, fantasies
d. Narcissism, introversion
e.
141.
Mrs. Christine Dior did a urine pregnancy test but was surprised to learn that a positive
result is not a sure sign of pregnancy. She asks you what would be a positive sign of
pregnancy?
She is having consistent uterine growth
She can feel her fetus move inside her
HCG can be found in her bloodstream
The fetal heart can be seen on ultrasound
e.
142. Cervical softening and uterine souffl are classified as which of the following?
a Diagnostic signs
a. Presumptive signs
b. Probable signs
c. Positive signs
a.
143. Which of the following would the nurse identify as a presumptive sign of pregnancy?
a Hegars sign
a. Nausea and vomiting
b. Periodic uterine tightening
c. Positive serum pregnancy test
a.
144. Quickening in primigravidas usually can be detected during which of the following weeks
of gestation?
a 10 -14 weeks
a. 15-17 weeks
b. 18-20 weeks
c. 20-22 weeks
a.
145. Which of the following findings in a woman would be consistent with a pregnancy of two
months duration?
a Weight gain of 6-10 lbs. and presence of striae gravidarum
a. Fullness of the breast and urinary frequency
b. Braxton Hicks contractions and quickening
c. Increased respiratory rate and ballottement
a.
146. The main reason for an expected increased need for iron in pregnancy is:
a The mother may have physiologic anemia due to the increased need for red blood
cell mass as well as the fetal requires about 350-400 mg of iron to grow
a. The mother may suffer anemia because of poor appetite
b. The fetus has an increased need for RBC which the mother must supply
c. The mother may have a problem of digestion because of pica
a.
147. Mrs. Guccing fells well. She asks you why she needs to come for prenatal care. The best
reason for her to receive regular care is?
a. Discovering allergies can help eliminate early birth
b. It helps document how many pregnancies occur each year
c. It provides time for education about pregnancy at birth
d. It determines whether pregnancies today are planned or not
e.
148. Why is it important to ask a client about past surgery in taking the health history of a first
time mother?
a. To test her recent and long term memory
b. Adhesions from surgery could limit uterine growth
c. To assess whether she could be allergic to any medication
d. To determine if she has effective health insurance
e.
149. Donna Karen reports that the palm of her hands is always itchy. You noticed scratches on
them during a physical exam. As the nurse, what is the most likely cause of this finding during
pregnancy.
a. She must have become allergic to dish washing soap
b. She has an allergy to her fetus & will probably abort
c. Her weight gain has stretched the skin over her hands
d. This is a common reaction to increasing estrogen levels
e.
150. Diadora 2 months pregnant has not had a pelvic exam since she was in high school. What
advice would you give her to help her relax during her first prenatal pelvis exam?
a. Have her take a deep breath and hold it during the exam
b. Tell her to bear down slightly as the speculum is inserted
c. Singing out loud helps, because it pushes down the diaphragm
d. She should breath slowly and evenly during the exam
e.
151. Mrs. Blueberry describes her typical day to you. What would alert you that she may need
further pregnancy advice?
a. I jog rather than walk every time I can for exercise
a.
b.
c.
d.
154.
e.
During the mothers class, most complain of leg varicosities. Which is recommended:
a. Do dorsiflex of the foot
b. Take calcium rich foods
c. Elevate the legs the whole night
d. Do not wear constricting garters on the legs
f.
One minor discomfort in pregnancy is backache. This can be prevented by regular:
a. Walking
b. Pelvic rocking exercise
155.
e.
To prepare the nipples for breastfeeding, primis are taught to do:
a. Breast massage
b. Nipple rolling
156.
c. Breast care
d. Hoffman technique
e.
The farmers who died of PTB were cases of relapse. Their classification is:
a. Cavity and infiltrative
b. Category III
157.
c. Category II
d. Extrapulmonary
e.
Where should the municipal form 102 be filed?
a. Mayors office
b. Local registrars office
e.
158. You are discussing the birth plan of a pregnant mother on 32 weeks AOG. Which is not
considered?
a. Encourage to deliver at home
b. Prepare things needed for delivery
c. Set aside babys layette she needs to bring
d. Choose her preferred health facility
159.
f.
To know the OB history of the mother, you can check on the:
a. ITR
160.
b. TCL
d. ECCD
e.
One of the mothers urine exam result is yellow green in color. The test done is:
a. Acetic acid test
b. Albumin test
161.
c. HBMR
c. Multistix
d. Benedicts test
e.
Ms. Ys albumin test result is (+). The best action of the midwife is:
a. Observe the edema on her next
visit
e.
162. Ms. Z is 4 weeks PP. the FH is non-palpable. To check if involution has occurred, the
midwife should:
a. Measure the height of the fundus
b. Do vaginal exam
e.
163. Common water facility in the barangay is standpost. Which of the following describes this
type of water facility:
a. Delivers 40-80 liters water/100
houses
e.
164. Most toilets are poor flush toilets requiring the use of a small amount of water. This is
classified as:
a. Level 4
165.
b. Level 3
c. Level 2
d. Level 1
e.
Aside from one, these are the responsibilities of the midwife in environmental sanitation:
a. Coordinate environmental
programs
e.
166. Prevention and control of communicable diseases is one of the functions of the midwife.
She should be reminded that these are factors affecting distribution of disease occurrence.
a. Host, agent, time
b. Person, place, time
167.
e.
Patterns of disease occurrence wherein cases occur occasionally in the place is:
a. Epidemic
b. Endemic
c. Sporadic
d. Pandemic
e.
168. When planning for home visits, the midwife should consider to follow the steps
sequentially such as:
a. Socialization, planning, professional, closing
b. Professional, planning, socialization, closing
c. Planning, socialization, professional, closing
d. Use flexible in following the steps of the visit
f.
169. There is a BEMOC facility in your barangay. Which function can the midwife perform in the
facility?
a. Perform episiotomy
b. Manually extract the placenta
170.
e.
In the same facility, in order to prevent eclampsia, the midwife may also inject:
a. Sedative
b. Hypotensive
c. Tranquilizer
d. Magnesium sulfate
e.
171. There is an outbreak of typhoid in the baranggay, you will conduct epidemiological
investigation. The first thing you will do is:
a. Investigate time and space relationship to the disease
b. All suspects should undergo widal test
c. Check if there is relationship to a particular group
d. Conduct community assembly
f.
172. To achieve health for all in the year 2020, the approach is Primary Health Care. As
frontliner, the midwife should implement these concepts aside from:
a. Make services available and accessible to people
b. Encourage people to be responsible for their health
c. Mobilize people to actively participate in programs/projects
d. Plan all activities with experts from other communities
g.
173. Several children in the UFC are IMCI cases. As a general rule, when a child has one danger
sign, the classification belongs to:
a. Pink row
b. Yellow row
174.
c. Green row
d. Depends on the main symptoms
e.
Which of the following IMCI classification requires home medication and follow up?
a. Pink row
b. Yellow row
c. Green row
d. Depends on the main symptoms
e.
175. In febrile conditions like malaria, when fever persists up to 7 days in spite of oral
antimalarial drug and paracetamol, the next action of the midwife is:
a. Give antibiotic
b. Refer for assessment
176.
e.
Common supplement given to children with measles regardless of complications is:
a. Iron
177.
178.
b. Iodine
f.
Jenny is 8 weeks old, she should have completed which immunization:
c. DPT 2, OPV 2
d. DPT 1, OPV 1, Hepa B3
e.
Tina has ear discharge of 14 days duration. The appropriate management is:
a. Cotrimoxazole, dry by wicking
b. Amoxicillin, dry by wicking
c. Tetracycline, dry by wicking
180.
d. Vit. C
e.
For measles with clouding of the cornea, the management is:
a. First dose antibiotic, eye ointment, refer
b. Eye ointment, refer
c. Vitamin A, 1st dose antibiotic, eye ointment, refer
d. Any of them
a. BCG, Hepa B1
b. DPT1, OPV 1, Hepa B2
179.
c. Vit. A
e.
Nino, 3 year old, has very low weight for his age. Appropriate management is:
a. Albendazole, Vit. A, follow up after 15 days
b. Vitamin A follow up after 30 days
c. Counsel mother about feeding
d. Iron, Vitamin A, follow up after 30 days
f.
181. Kim has 4x watery stools and pinched skin goes back slowly. His mother cannot stay in the
health center for 4 hours to give ORS. Your alternative is:
a. Show how to give ORS at home
b. Give 2 packs ORS, explain rules in home treatment
c. Discuss how much ORS to give in 4 hours
d. All of the above
182.
g.
Baby A is 6 weeks old. Nasal flaring, skin pustules and grunting are noted. Classification is:
a. Possible serious bacterial infection
183.
e.
For skin pustules, advice the mother to:
a. Clean with salt water
b. Clean with sugar water
184.
e.
The appropriate antibiotic for Baby A is:
a. Cotrimoxzole
b. Amoxicillin
185.
c. Gentamycin
d. Benzylpenicillin
Baby James had 5x watery stools with skin pinched back very slowly. Your management is:
a. IV fluids and urgent referral
b. Urgent referral with ORS, instruct mother to keep warm
c. Discuss how much ORS to give in 4 hours
d. Plan B and refer
186.
187. Some children passed out adult round worms about 10-12 inches long. They are affected
by:
a. Tapeworm
b. Hookworm
188.
e.
The preventive measure of this parasite is:
a. Thorough handwashing
b. Cook food well
189.
c. Pinworm
d. Ascaris
e.
To prevent food and waterborne diseases teach the mother:
a. Handle food well
b. Food preservation
c. Boil water
d. Food and water sanitation
e.
190. There are some cases of EPI among pregnant mothers. In counseling them which is not
considered:
a. Follow safe sex practice
b. Chlamydia infection may cause ectopic pregnancy
c. Practice infection control measures
d. Return to the center for follow up
191.
192.
193.
194.
195.
196.
f.
A person with AIDS will manifest these infections except:
a. Toxoplasmosis
b. Cytomegalovirus
c. Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia
d. Liver cancer
g.
Persons with CD should be isolated during this period to prevent spread of the disease:
a. Incubation period
b. Period of communicability
c. Prodromal period
d. Contact period
One of these is not a source of infection:
a. Protozoa, parasite
b. Contaminated articles
c. Animal host
d. Mosquito vector
The midwife prepares for this program on April 14-18 in the health center:
a. Araw ng Sangkap Pinoy
b. Garantisadong Pambata
c. No Tobacco Week
d. Hospital Week
Sangkap Pinoy Seal guarantees the public that food they buy is fortified with:
a. Micronutrients
b. Vit A and D
c. Calcium
d. Vit B complex
h.
Additional health services for women are available in health centers during the month of:
a. January
b. February
c. March
d. April
i.
197. VAD is one of the most common nutritional deficiency in children. To prevent night
blindness, which is recommended:
a. Tiki-tiki
b. SPS
c. VAC
d. IOC
j.
The groups most commonly affected by IDA are:
a. Pregnant and lactating mothers
b. Pre-schoolers
c. Infants
d. School children
199. Immunization education should be done before each session. These are discussed except:
a. Apply cold compress to BCG site
b. Apply warm compress to swollen TT site
c. Expect no reaction to OPV
d. Give paracetamol after DPT immnunization
200. You have conducted 3 outreach immunization sessions in the barangay, which is your
priority?
a. Check vaccine carriers from leaks
b. Request the right number of vaccines, ADS, MS, and SCB
198.
a.
b.
or uncomfortable.
g.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
222.
His mother tells the nurse, My Red is becoming stubborn and is behaving so badly.
He does not obey rules anymore. Which of the following responses of the midwife will be
most appropriate?
Probably youre right. This happens when he has so many rules to follow.
All toddlers exhibit negativism in varying degrees from 18 months to 2 years of age.
He just want to test your limit-setting behavior.
Maybe you should bring him to a child psychologist.
223.
In counseling a teenage mother on the first solid food to introduce to her 5-monthold child, which of the following foods should be recommended?
a. Eggs
c. Bananas
b. Pureed chicken
d. Rice cereal
e.
224. When inspecting her newborn, a mother asks the midwife whether her newborn has flat
feet. The midwife recalls that:
a. flat feet are common in children and infants
b. this is difficult to assess because the feet are so small
c. flat feet are associated with major deformities of the bones of the feet such as
clubfoot
d. the arch of the newborns foot is covered with a fat pad, giving the appearance of
being flat
a.
225. A primigravid client delivers a full-term girl. When teaching the client and her husband
how to change their neonate's diaper, the nurse should instruct them to:
a. A. fold a cloth diaper so that a double thickness covers the front.
b. B. clean and dry the neonate's perineal area from front to back.
c. C. place a disposable diaper over a cloth diaper to provide extra protection.
d. D. position the neonate so that urine will fall to the back of the diaper.
e.
226. The midwife assesses a 1-day-old neonate. Which finding indicates that the neonate's
oxygen needs are not being met by current treatment?
a. A. Respiratory rate of 54 breaths/minute
b. B. Abdominal breathing
c. C. Nasal flaring
d. D. Acrocyanosis
e.
227. A client plans to bottle-feed her full-term neonate. What is the normal feeding pattern for a
full-term neonate during the first 24 hours after delivery?
a. A. 120 ml of formula every 2 to 3 hours
b. B. 80 to 100 ml of formula every 2 hours
c. C. 40 to 60 ml of formula every 2 to 4 hours
d. D. 20 to 40 ml of formula every 3 hours
e.
228. When caring for a neonate, what is the most important step the midwife can take to
prevent and control infection?
a. A. Assessing frequently for signs of infection
b. B. Using sterile technique for all caregiving
c. C. Practicing meticulous hand washing
d. D. Wearing gloves at all times
e.
229. The midwife is caring for a newborn with a myelomeningocele. The priority care of a
newborn with a myelomeningocele is primarily directed toward:
a. A. ensuring adequate nutrition.
c. C. promoting neural tube sac drainage.
b. B. preventing infection.
d. D. conserving body heat.
e.
230. Which of the following describes a preterm infant?
a. A. An infant weighing less than 2,500 g (5 lb, 8 oz)
b. B. A low-birth-weight infant
c. C. An infant born at less than 37 weeks' gestation regardless of weight
d. D. An infant diagnosed with intrauterine growth retardation
e.
231. Which of the following describes how the midwife interprets a newborn's Apgar score of 8
at 5 minutes?
a. A. An infant who's in good condition
b. B. An infant who's mildly depressed
241. The midwife prepares to administer an I.M. injection of prophylactic vitamin K to a normal,
full-term neonate. Which needle should the midwife use?
a.
b. A. 25G, 1" needle
d. C. 22G, 1" needle
c. B. 25G, 5/8" needle
e. D. 22G, 5/8" needle
f.
242. A newborn infant receives an Apgar score at 1 and 5 minutes of age. The 1-minute Apgar
score is a good indication of which of the following?
a. A. How well the newborn tolerated labor
b. B. How well the newborn has adapted to extrauterine life
c. C. How well the newborn tolerated the birth
d. D. Gestational age of the newborn
e.
243. A female newborn born by elective caesarean section to a 25-year-old mother weighs
3,265 g (7 lb, 3 oz). The midwife places the newborn under the warmer unit. In addition to
routine assessments, the midwife should closely monitor this newborn for which of the
following?
a. A. Temperature instability due to type of birth
b. B. Respiratory distress due to lack of contractions
c. C. Signs of acrocyanosis
d. D. Unstable blood sugars
e.
244. The midwife has been teaching a new mother how to feed her infant son who was born
with a cleft lip and palate. Which action by the mother would indicate that the teaching has
been successful?
a. A. Placing the baby flat during feedings
c. C. Placing the nipple in the cleft palate
b. B. Providing fluids with a small spoon
d. D. Burping the baby frequently
e.
245. A neonate begins to gag and turns a dusky color. What should the midwife do first?
a. A. Calm the neonate.
b. B. Notify the physician.
c. C. Provide oxygen via a face mask as ordered.
d. D. Aspirate the neonate's nose and mouth with a bulb syringe.
e.
246. During neonatal resuscitation immediately after delivery, chest compressions should be
initiated when the heart rate falls below which of the following?
a. A. 60 beats/minute
c. C. 100 beats/minute
b. B. 80 beats/minute
d. D. 110 beats/minute
e.
f.
247. The midwife places a neonate with hyperbilirubinemia under a phototherapy lamp,
covering the eyes and gonads for protection. The midwife knows that the goal of
phototherapy is to:
a. A. prevent hypothermia.
bilirubin level.
b. B. promote respiratory stability.
d. D. decrease the serum unconjugated
c. C. decrease the serum conjugated
bilirubin level.
e.
248. An infant arrives at the emergency department in full cardiopulmonary arrest. Efforts at
resuscitation fail, and he's pronounced dead. The cause of death is sudden infant death
syndrome (SIDS). Which of the following is true regarding the etiology of SIDS?
a. A. It occurs in suspected child abuse cases.
b. B. It occurs primarily in infants with congenital lung problems.
c. C. It occurs primarily in black infants.
d. D. It occurs more commonly in infants who sleep in the prone position.
e.
249. For an infant who's about to undergo a lumbar puncture, the midwife should place the
infant in:
a. A. an arched, side-lying position, with the neck flexed onto the chest.
b. B. an arched, side-lying position, avoiding flexion of the neck onto the chest.
c. C. a mummy restraint.
d. D. a prone position, with the head over the edge of the bed.
e.
f.
250. Which assessment finding would the midwife identify as abnormal for a 4-month-old?
a. A. The abdominal wall is rising with inspiration.
b. B. The respiratory rate is between 30 and 35 breaths/minute.
c. C. The infant's skin is mottled during examination.
d. D. The spaces between the ribs (intercostal) are delineated during inspiration.
e.
251. When performing a physical examination on an infant, the midwife notes abnormally lowset ears. This finding is associated with:
a. A. tetanus.
c. C. congenital heart defects.
b. B. tracheoesophageal fistula.
d. D. renal anomalies.
e.
252. A mother calls the clinic to report that her 9-month-old infant has diarrhea. Upon further
questioning, the midwife determines that the child has mild diarrhea and no signs of
dehydration. Which advice is most appropriate to give this mother?
a. A. Call back if your baby has 10 stools in 1 day.
b. B. Feed your baby clear liquids only.
c. C. Continue your baby's normal feedings.
d. D. Notify your baby's day care of his illness.