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The absolute community of property is the most basic and default property relation
among the future spouses in marriage, where the Family Code of the Philippines recognizes it
either when the couple primarily chose it as their own or if they had failed to stipulate in the
marriage settlement what property relation would govern them. The system of absolute
community would also apply if the future spouses stipulated a void property relation among
themselves, as this is the default scheme governing their property. The family, being the basic
social institution and the foundation of the nation, is strongly protected and upheld by the
Constitution and the laws of the land. Such protection involves what others may call the seed of
evil in marriage, which are the pieces of property they own or co-own, as the case may be.
Article 88 of the Family Code states:
Art. 88. The absolute community of property between
spouses shall commence at the precise moment that the
marriage is celebrated. Any stipulation, express or implied,
for the commencement of the community regime at any
other time shall be void. (145a)
This article specifically states the commencement of the property regime mentioned,
which is at the precise moment that the marriage is celebrated, and not merely on the day of the
marriage, which admittedly could lead to future problems regarding it. Also, it is forbidden to
allow a delay period in actually letting the marriage settlement of the absolute community of
property take effect, whether it be expressly stipulated or impliedly. It is not forbidden per se,
because they may still stipulate anything with regard to the property relation and its effectivity
date, but it would merely be considered void, as our laws dictate explicitly.
Article 91 states:
Art. 91. Unless otherwise provided in this Chapter or in
the marriage settlements, the community property shall
consist of all the property owned by the spouses at the time
of the celebration of the marriage or acquired thereafter.
(197a)
The system of absolute community clearly exhibits in the Family Code that the
presumption in so far as the ownership of the property of each of the spouses at the time of the
celebration of the marriage and the subsequent acquisitions during the marriage is concerned, is
that they are all part of the community property. However, it is merely a rebuttable presumption,
for if proven or if it was stated in the marriage settlements that certain property was deemed
excluded in the community property and therefore included in the exclusive property of one of
the spouses, it should be deemed so and respected. This effectively allows the couple to
customize their marriage settlement according to their specific tailoring of which property they
are willing to bring into the marriage and consequently to the community property, and which
pieces of property they prefer to be held exclusively by them. This could however impair what
the law envisions as the complete trust between the spouses regarding their marriage and
property. Selfishness and greed would be apparent in those settlements which specifically
excludes lucrative property of a spouse, but this would be merely judgmental opinions which do
not in any way define what the couple had talked about. This provision in the Family Code is one
of the few which is admirably well thought of and is open-minded to the changes and evolutions
in the family and marriage.
With regard to the subsequent acquisitions during the marriage, it is not exaclty as clear
as what the law intends. It says all acquisitions are deemed included in the community property,
except as provided in this Code or in the marriage settlements. Comparing this with the
provision in Article 109 of the Family Code about the conjugal partnership of gains:
Art. 109. The following shall be the exclusive property
of each spouse:
(1) That which is brought to the marriage as his or
her own;
(2) That which each acquires during the marriage
by gratuitous title;
(3) That which is acquired by right of redemption,
by barter or by exchange with property belonging to
only one of the spouses; and
(4) That which is purchased with exclusive money
of the wife or of the husband. (148a)
While the aforementioned provision on the exclusive property of each spouse in the
conjugal partnership of gains explicitly stated that the source of funds of the purchases is the
main factor in considering its place whether it is paraphernal or community property, it is
obviously omitted in the case of the system of absolute community. Some authors of annotated
books in Civil Law firmly believe that the drafters of the said provision intended the omission to
effectively create a different rule with regard to the absolute community of property. They say
that those purchases during the marriage, whether the source of funds is the exclusive or
community property, are now deemed part of the latter. They contend that since the Family Code
intentionally made the absolute community of property the default property relation among
spouses, it follows that they also intended the complete trust and closeness of the spouses, and
their property. Therefore, even if the spouse made purchases out of his exclusive property, the
purchased property is now converted to a community property. This presumption of the said
authors completely disregarded the prejudice it would entail upon both spouses, that they would
now be hesitant in making purchases and acquisitions of pieces of property merely because of
the default and automatic conversion of their exclusive property into community property. This
would make the marriage settlement regarding the separation of chosen property as exclusive
property inutile and useless. While it is true and honorable that the Family Codes purpose is to
strengthen the family bonds and marriage, it should have its limits, especially when it contradicts
or disables some of its own provisions. What then is the use of talking it out with ones spouse on
which property is to be maintained as still exclusive or now as community, when it would merely
equate to the community if it was eventually converted. It freezes and substantially stops the
particular spouse from ever getting involved in transactions involving his exclusive property for
fear of losing his full right on his property. The rules laid down for the conjugal partnership of
gains should and most definitely should be applied also to the absolute community of property,
for it is equitable and just, or as the converse of it would imply, the current interpreted rule is
inequitable and unjust and prejudicial to the purchasing or acquiring spouse.
priortizes the avoidance of prejudice, then it should also apply to the subsequent acquisitions of
the spouse using his or her exclusive property. The property then converted should not in any
way be put or commingled in the community property, as this would prejudice his or her right in
the property concerned.
If however, the spouse who contracted a former marriage had no legitimate descendants,
can the pieces of property involved be now considered community? This could be answered in
the affirmative because the spirit of the law reasoned avoidance of prejudice, and this would not
anymore create any in this certain case.
Art. 95. Whatever may be lost during the marriage in
any game of chance, betting, sweepstakes, or any other
kind of gambling, whether permitted or prohibited by law,
shall be borne by the loser and shall not be charged to the
community but any winnings therefrom shall form part of
the community property. (164a)
Article 95 contemplates a situation where a spouse is involved in any game of chance,
and is either a winner or a loser in such games. This simply states that if he loses, he bears all the
burden, but if he wins, he shares his prizes. This was drafted to prevent yet again to prejudice the
community property and to avoid the damaging effects of gambling on the said property.
However, this contradicts what the common phrase in richer or poorer implies. A better phrase
suitable to this particular case is what is yours is mine, and what is mine is mine. Why should
the gambling spouse share his winnings with the other spouse when his exclusive property was
the only one at risk of being lost? This only furthers the rationale that gambling is generally
discouraged by our laws.
Article 96 of the Family Code states:
Art. 96. The administration and enjoyment of the
community property shall belong to both spouses jointly. In
case of disagreement, the husband's decision shall prevail,
subject to recourse to the court by the wife for proper
remedy, which must be availed of within five years from the
date of the contract implementing such decision.
In the event that one spouse is incapacitated or
otherwise unable to participate in the administration of the
common properties, the other spouse may assume sole
powers of administration. These powers do not include
disposition or encumbrance without authority of the court
or the written consent of the other spouse. In the absence of
such authority or consent, the disposition or encumbrance
shall be void. However, the transaction shall be construed
as a continuing offer on the part of the consenting spouse
and the third person, and may be perfected as a binding
contract upon the acceptance by the other spouse or
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