ATC Cau Hoi F1

STUDY QUESTION BANK ACCOUNTANT IN BUSINESS (F1)
MCQ 1 THE BUSINESS ORGANISATION

1.1
Which items best describe an organisation?

A
B
C
D
1.2
(2 marks)
Which of the following best describes public sector entities?

A
B
C
D
1.3
Working together, collective goals, controlled performance

Team work, clear rules, collective goals
Synergy, clear roles, accepted leader
Defined hierarchy, clear objectives, formal rules
Traded on the stock market

Include charities and NGOs
Owned by the government
Have the objective of influencing government policy
(2 marks)
A cooperative (collective) would be characterised as ________, while Microsoft would be a

________ company.
Which words correctly complete this sentence?
A
B
C
D
1.4
(2 marks)
A computer company has identified that there is demand for a lower-cost laptop to be
included within its product range. Which two departments would most likely be tasked
with achieving this?
A
B
C
D
1.5
a not-for-profit organisation; public sector

a charity, profit driven
meeting the needs of its members; publicly traded
an NGO; listed
Purchasing, Research and Development

Research and Development, Marketing
Marketing, Manufacturing
Purchasing, Direct service provision
(2 marks)
Which elements characterise the concept of service?

A
B
C
D
varied, tangibility, imperishable

consistency, tangibility, simultaneity
tangibility, inconsistency, simultaneity
variability, simultaneity, perishability
(2 marks)
ACCOUNTANT IN BUSINESS (F1) STUDY QUESTION BANK

MCQ 2 ORGANISATIONAL STRUCTURE
2.1
Melissa is the owner of a property management business. She is actively involved in the work
of her 8 employees.
Which structure best describes Melissas business?
A
B
C
D
2.2
Matrix
Entrepreneurial
Tall-structured
Hybrid
(2 marks)
Paul works as a desktop-publishing specialist in an advertising agency. Paul creates layouts

for print-related advertising campaigns for the 8 Account Managers and the Art Director he
supports. He also works closely with the agencys 5 Art Managers and their Creative
Director.
Which structure best describes this section of the advertising agency?
A
B
C
D
2.3
Duplication of resources
One-size-fits-all decision making
Restricted career development
Overloaded senior management
(2 marks)
Decentralisation of its local offices

Longer scalar chains in the company
Less specialisation in the company
A narrower span of control for production managers
(2 marks)
Which of the following statements is correct?

A
B
C
D
(1 mark)
Which of the following would most likely occur after a company completes outsourcing
of its IT department?
A
B
C
D
2.6
True
False
Which is a potential disadvantage of decentralisation?

A
B
C
D
2.5
(2 marks)
A French logistics company has acquired similar businesses in Bulgaria, Romania and
Ukraine in support of its expansion strategy. This has resulted in wider spans of control and a
shorter scalar chain.
A
B
2.4
Entrepreneurial
Product based
service oriented
Matrix
Scalar chain tells you the levels of management in a company

Span of control tells you the levels of management in a company
The grapevine is part of an organisations formal structure
Outsourcing will lead to a more bureaucratic company structure
(1 mark)

2.7
Which of the following is a characteristic of the formal organisation?

A
B
C
D
2.8
Inhibit originality
Decrease motivation
Increase bureaucracy
Spread rumors
(2 marks)
Supervisors are part of the tactical workforce.

A
B
2.10
(2 marks)
The informal organisation will most likely:

A
B
C
D
2.9
Driven by lateral communication

Bottom up
Based on professional networks
Top down
True
False
(1 mark)
Due to heavy snowfall, a number of employees have phoned their manager to say they cannot
make it to the office and are unlikely to do so for at least a week. The manager reallocates
work priorities between the available staff.
What level of organisational planning is being used by the manager?
A
B
C
Strategic
Tactical
Operational
(1 mark)
MCQ 3 ORGANISATIONAL CULTURE

3.1
Influences on a companys culture include which of the following?

A
B
C
D
3.2
Communication style, rules, reward systems

Rituals, dress code, control systems
Control systems, organisational structure, power structures
Age of the company, power structures, management style
(2 marks)
Which of the following are the three levels of Scheins culture model?
A
B
C
D
Espoused values, basic assumptions, artifacts

Artifacts, core values, hidden assumptions
Basic assumptions, values, rules and regulations
Company policy, organisational structure, employee values
(2 marks)

3.3
Natalia works in the purchasing department of a large furniture production company. She and
her three colleagues report to the department manager, have clear job descriptions, and use a
customised computer system to do their work.
Which of Handys cultures best describes Natalias department?
A
B
C
D
3.4
Task
Role
Person
Power
(2 marks)
In the Santiago branch of an international law firm, senior managers enjoy luxurious perks,
including expensive company cars, extravagant offices, and other benefits. Their colleagues
in other branches do not receive such generous benefits-in-kind.
Which of Hofstedes cultural models most closely describes this situation?
A
B
C
D
3.5
High person culture

High individuality
High power-avoidance
High power-distance
(2 marks)
Explicit culture describes the belief that a companys culture naturally emerges over time as
individuals transform themselves into groups.
Is this statement True of False?
A
B
3.6
True
False
(1 mark)
A portrait of the senior partner hangs in the office reception. Inscribed on the portrait are the
firms corporate values and beliefs.
Which of Scheins cultural levels does this best represent?
A
B
C
3.7
(1 mark)
When is culture most likely to be a liability?

A
B
C
D
Level 1 artefacts and creations

Level 2 espoused values
Level 3 basic assumptions and values
When culture increases consistency of good behaviour

When management is competent
When the environment is dynamic
When culture reduces ambiguity
(2 marks)

MCQ 4 STAKEHOLDERS OF ORGANISATIONS
4.1
The bi-directional nature of stakeholders means that stakeholders can affect both the
achievement of an organisations objectives and how an organisation uses its resources.
A
B
4.2
True
False
(1 mark)
In a publicly traded company, the shareholders rely on the independent auditors to verify
financial statements prepared by management. This reduces ____________.
Which phrase best completes the sentence:
A
B
C
D
4.3
External
Internal
Unrecognised
Connected
(2 marks)
Which of the following best describes the activities of a company lobbyist?

A
B
C
D
4.5
(2 marks)
The bank and shareholders are part of which group of stakeholders?

A
B
C
D
4.4
monitoring costs
stakeholder dissatisfaction
the agency problem
shareholder conflict
Attempts to influence legislation on behalf of a company

Attempts to influence a companys objectives
Searches for specialist employees on behalf of a company
Takes direct action against the activities of a company
(2 marks)
The tax authority of a city has little interest in the affairs of a chain of car dealerships except
that they pay their taxes. However, if the companys taxes are incorrectly paid or paid late the
authority can charge high penalties.
According to Mendelow, what should the car dealership do?
A
B
C
D
Keep the tax authorities satisfied

Treat the tax authorities as key players
Keep the tax authorities informed
Put minimal effort into dealing with the tax authorities.
(2 marks)

4.6
A community action group has been formed in response to a planned shopping mall in the
center of the citys historic district. The development company has hired a public relations
firm to attempt to influence public opinion in their favor.
Which of the following best describes the situation?
A
B
C
D
Grassroots lobbying
Agency conflict
Lobbyist actions
Stakeholder conflict
(2 marks)
MCQ 5 INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY AND SYSTEMS

5.1
Which of the following relates to structured information requirements?

A
B
C
D
5.2
(2 marks)
Which of the following best describes the qualities of information?

A
B
C
D
5.3
Intuitive requirements, judgemental, easily programmable

Precise, require professional judgement, subjective
Easily programmable, routine, objective
Subjective requirements, objective programming requirements, intuitive
Time period, programmable, channel

Cost benefit, materiality, strategic
Manageable, confidence, historic
Relevance, conciseness, volume
(2 marks)
Karl works in a logistics company. He uses a handheld scanner to individually scan the
barcodes on pallets as they arrive in the warehouse.
What type of system does Karl use?
A
B
C
D
5.4
Transaction Processing System

Expert Database System
Management Information System
Knowledge Work System
(2 marks)
34th Street Camera is a major camera dealer in New York City. On their website, customers
have the option of using a wizard feature to help them choose a camera. The wizard asks a
series of linked questions, then presents the best 3 options for the customer.
Which term best describes this section of the website?
A
B
C
D
Transaction Processing System

Decision Support System
Management Information System
Knowledge Work System
(2 marks)

5.5
An oil company produces an internal report using an executive information system. This
report provides information regarding oil production by region, current and forward spot
prices for different petroleum products, updated key performance indicators (KPI) for the past
12 months and estimated KPI for the next 12 months together with summaries of press reports
related to their company and competitors. The Board of Directors receives this report before
their quarterly meetings.
According to Anthonys Hierarchy, this report provides ______________ information
A
B
C
5.6
True
False
(1 mark)
Who among the following managers use Management Information Systems most
extensively?
A
B
C
D
5.8
(1 mark)
Unstructured information is required for regular, routine decision making. However, it needs
to be further summarised or sorted in a report to be useful.
A
B
5.7
Strategic
Tactical
Operational
Senior Managers
Middle Managers
Operational Managers
Technology Managers
(2 marks)
Which level of managers requires information that uses a mix of quantitative and
qualitative data and may be used to set the rules for operational decision making?
A
B
C
D
Senior Managers
Executive Managers
Operational Managers
Middle Managers
(2 marks)
MCQ 6 COMMITTEES IN THE BUSINESS ORGANISATION

6.1
Standing committees are often formed to deal with temporary issues, e.g. a project steering
committee.
Is this statement True or False
A
B
6.2
True
False
(1 mark)
Which of the following is an advantage of a committee?

A
B
C
No one individual is held responsible for the decision

Procedural matters take time
More experienced members might have more influence
(1 mark)

6.3
Which of the following is the best skill set required by a good chairman?
A
B
C
D
6.4
Tactful, ability to organise, good language and grammar skills

Organised, good note taking ability, full understanding of procedures
Understanding of procedures, firmness, being impartial
Firmness, being impartial, ability to organise
(2 marks)
With a committee, the number of members should be ___________, and ___________

Which words, in correct order, best complete this sentence?
A
B
C
D
large; possessing good communication skills

at least 3; not more than 8
balanced; highly skilled
carefully considered; balanced
(2 marks)
MCQ 7 BUSINESS ETHICS AND ETHICAL BEHAVIOUR

7.1
Ethical absolutism means that right and wrong are subjective and context dependent.
Is this statement True or False?
A
B
7.2
True
False
(1 mark)
The directors of a firm are discussing the introduction of a code of ethics. The creative
director will support the introduction of a code so long as it can be demonstrated that it will
lead to increased profits. One of the non-executive directors pointed out that having the code
would identify the company as having ethical principles and that it was the right thing to do,
regardless of the outcome.
Which ethical theories are being applied by the creative director and non-executive
director (in that order)?
A
B
C
D
7.3
normative; instrumental
deontological; teleological
teleological; deontological
instrumental; normative
(2 marks)
Thou shalt not kill.

What ethical principle is this statement an example of?
A
B
C
D
Instrumentalist ethics
Normative ethics
Applied ethics
Meta ethics
(2 marks)

7.4
It was O.K. for Robin Hood to steal from the rich and give to the poor.
What is this is statement is an example of?
A
B
C
D
7.5
(2 marks)
Profitable, sustainable, & honest

Sustainable, honest, & legal
Fair, legal, & right
Ethical, legal, & fair
(2 marks)
A professional is characterised by which of the following?

A
B
C
D
7.8
Due care, integrity, professional behavior

Honesty, accountability, professional integrity
Due Process, professional accountability, honesty
Integrity, independence, professional competence
Which of the following matters are considered by Tuckers 5 question model?

A
B
C
D
7.7
(2 marks)
Which of the following items are included in the ACCA Code of Ethics?
A
B
C
D
7.6
Ethical conflict resolution

Normative Ethics
Teleological ethics
Absolutist Ethics
Mastering skills, professional association, code of ethics

Certification, annual examination, continuous development
Code of conduct, minimum salary, certification
Annual testing, minimum salary, code of conduct
(2 marks)
Why does the professional accountant have a special role in promoting ethical behaviour
throughout business?
A
B
C
D
They are seen as the guardians of company finances

They are often the only person on a board that belongs to a profession
They undertake a long period of training
Ethics is intertwined with financial probity
(2 marks)
MCQ 8 GOVERNANCE AND SOCIAL RESPONSIBILITIES IN BUSINESS

8.1
Corporate Governance can be defined as the way in which an organisation is regulated and
monitored.
A
B
True
False
(1 mark)

8.2
Which of the following is considered best practice under Corporate Governance?

A
B
C
D
8.3
Which of the following relates to a rules-based system of corporate governance?

A
B
C
D
8.4
Separate CEO and Chairman

Segregation of duties between key personnel
Lack of oversight
Overly strict internal controls
(2 marks)
Impacts on society, maximising shareholder wealth, behaving responsibly

Philanthropic values, legal values, true and fair financial statements
Ethical behaviour, economic development, quality of life
Establishing charities, quality of life, sustainable accountability
(2 marks)
Which of the following is a benefit of a remuneration committee?

A
B
C
D
8.7
(2 marks)
Which of the following best describes corporate social responsibility?

A
B
C
D
8.6
A company should follow the spirit of the law

Comply or explain approach if rules are not followed
Market decides the penalty for breaking the code
Code is embedded in the laws of the country
Which of the following factors often appears within corporate scandals?

A
B
C
D
8.5
Split roles of CEO and Chairman, audit committee, remuneration committee

External audit, split roles of CEO and Chairman, audit committee
Professionally qualified risk manager, ethics committee, audit committee
Finance director to chair audit committee, combined role of CEO and chairperson,
external audit
(2 marks)
Reduces the conflict of interest between NEDs and executive directors

Ensures fair salary for all employees
Ensures employment law for operational staff (e.g minimum wage) is followed
Reduces the agency problem
(2 marks)
Which of the following is a correct list of Carrolls four CSR strategies?

A
B
C
D
Reactive, proactive, defense, accommodate

Proactive, reactive, defense, negotiate
Defense, negotiate, deny, accommodate
Mandate, defense, offense, encapsulate
(2 marks)
MCQ 9 THE BUSINESS ENVIRONMENT

9.1
Which of the following is a source of supra-national legal authority?

A
B
C
D
10
City of Stockholm
Government of Indonesia
European Union
Sate of California
(2 marks)

9.2
Which of the following best relates to data protection?

A
B
C
D
9.3
The idea that individuals have rights if an organisation holds information about
them
A company policy that requires data security, e.g. passwords on computers
Laws that are enacted to punish hackers, identity thieves, and other cyber criminals
Software to thwart hackers, e.g. anti-virus and firewall software
(2 marks)
When completing an application form to purchase financial services from a bank, you are
requested to check a box if you wish to receive details of other products sold by the bank and
their associates.
Which principle of data protection does this example refer to?
A
B
C
D
9.4
Data should be processed in accordance with the rights of the individual

Data shall be adequate, relevant and not excessive
Personal data shall not be kept longer than necessary
Personal data shall be processed fairly and lawfully
(2 marks)
A company sold an old computer at an auction with a customer database still on the hard
drive. This computer did not have a password or any database security features enabled.
This company has violated principles of:
A
B
C
D
9.5
Data protection only

Data security only
Data protection and data security
Data safety, data security and data protection
(2 marks)
Job descriptions, discipline policies and instructions on the use of equipment are all tools that
management can use to promote health and safety in the workplace.
A
B
9.6
True
False
(1 mark)
David was standing on his chair to shout good news about gaining a new client to the rest of
his colleagues. He fell off the chair and broke his arm.
Who is responsible for the accident?
A
B
C
D
9.7
Davids company
The chair manufacturer
David
Both David and Davids company
(2 marks)
According to Demographic Transition Theory, at what stage do death rates fall whilst
birthrates remain unchanged?
A
B
C
D
Stage 2: developing counties

Stage 5: post-industrial countries
Stage 4: Fully developed countries
Stage 1: Pre-industrial societies
(2 marks)
11

9.8
When the workforce is aging:

A
B
C
D
9.9
Which of the following best describes the term carbon footprint?

A
B
C
D
9.10
the cost of that workforce will be lower

the cost of that workforce will remain constant
the cost of that workforce will be higher
the additional costs of that workforce will be covered by the government. (2 marks)
The impact an organisations use of sustainable power has on the environment

A measure of the emission of greenhouse gases by organisations or individuals.
The effect on the reserves of oil and gas from manufacturing, transportation and
power generation
Prehistoric footprints from extinct, large land animals captured in carbon-based
fossils
(2 marks)
The information systems (IS) strategy should drive the business strategy as IS is often the
most expensive function within a business.
A
B
9.11
True
False
(1 mark)
A logistics company has developed a unique extranet website for its customers - they can
choose the method of delivery to match their carbon footprint, see exactly where their
shipments are at any time on a map of the world and the route it is taking.
What is the potential competitive advantage?
A
B
C
D
9.12
(2 marks)
Which of the following is a disadvantage of outsourcing IS?

A
B
C
D
9.13
Growth
Cost leadership
Strategic Alliance
Differentiation
A key resource will be dealt with by an external provider

Enables management to concentrate resources on key activities
Risk management and planning is more assured
Cost effective for smaller entities
(2 marks)
Michael Porters 5 Forces model is used to determine the profit potential of an individual
business.
A
B
12
True
False
(1 mark)

9.14
The number and quantity of new entrants in an industry depends on which one of the
following?
A
B
C
D
9.15
Switching costs of suppliers

The profit potential of the industry
Barriers to entry
The threat of substitute products
(2 marks)
For supermarkets, ______________ is/are _________ because of their relative size compared
to suppliers.
Which words, in order, best complete this sentence?
A
B
C
D
9.16
barriers to entry; high

the threat of substitute products; low
the bargaining power of customers, high
the power of buyers, high
(2 marks)
Which list includes Porters Generic Strategies?

A
B
C
D
Differentiation focus, price focus, cost focus

Cost leadership, cost focus, price leadership
Market leadership, marketing focus, differentiation
Cost leadership; differentiation, niche focus
(2 marks)
MCQ 10 THE MACRO-ECONOMIC ENVIRONMENT

10.1
What does the study of macro-economics concern?

A
B
C
D
10.2
(2 marks)
Which of the following is a list of macro-economic policy objectives:

A
B
C
C
10.3
Individual firms
Large firms
The economy
Private sector firms
Full employment, economic growth, price stability

Balance of payments, interest rates, full employment
price stability, exchange rates, balance of payments
interest rates, limited inflation, full employment
(2 marks)
Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is calculated as ______ + ______+_______+_______

A
B
C
D
Consumption; investment; government spending; net exports

Consumption; savings; investment; government spending
Consumption, investment, taxation, net exports
Consumption, savings, taxation, net exports
(2 marks)
13

10.4
The Paradox of Thrift correctly refers to which of the following?

A
B
C
D
10.5
Adams
Keynes
Friedman
Marx
(2 marks)
What was the initial impact of the subprime crunch of 2007/08?

A
B
C
D
10.7
(2 marks)
Supply side economics is usually associated with the work of whom?

A
B
C
D
10.6
If tax rates increase then consumption with decrease

If consumption increases then savings will decrease
If tax rates increase then savings will decrease
If savings increases then consumption will decrease
Inflation
Lack of liquidity
Unemployment
Stagflation
(2 marks)
Orders are declining, inventory levels and prices are falling with redundancies increasing.
What stage of the business trade cycle is described above?
A
B
C
10.8
Depression
Recession
Recovery
(1 mark)
Carlos works in commercial fishing in Spain. He, and many like him, are unemployed due to
greatly reduced catch numbers and strict government regulations.
Which type of unemployment best describes this situation?
A
B
C
D
10.9
Taxation; interest rate adjustments

Government spending; taxation
Demand-side policies, adjusting the money supply
Government expenditure, central bank policy
(2 marks)
Which of the following best describes a supply-side approach to economic recovery?

A
B
C
D
14
(2 marks)
Which of the following is a list of key elements of fiscal policy?

A
B
C
D
10.10
Real wage
Seasonal
Frictional
Structural
Low tax rates, Limited government spending, de-regulation

Increased government spending, low tax rates, support of depressed industries
Increase in public works projects, temporary budget deficits, low tax rates
Increased regulation, support of depressed industries, increase in public works
projects
(2 marks)

MCQ 11 THE HISTORY AND ROLE OF ACCOUNTING IN BUSINESS
11.1
Luca Paciolli invented accounting in Italy in the 1400s.

A
B
11.2
(1 mark)
Which activity is concerned with recording and classifying transactions?

A
B
C
D
11.3
False
True
Management accounting
Cost accounting
Financial accounting
Bookkeeping
(2 marks)
The marketing department in a major building materials supply company needs information
on product profit margins before executing a new pricing strategy.
Who in the company would investigate and provide this information?
A
B
C
D
11.4
Financial accounting
Treasury
Management accounting
Planning and budgeting
(2 marks)
Which is the correct transaction flow?

A
B
C
11.6
(2 marks)
Which function ensures that a business has sufficient funds, in the appropriate
currencies, to meet operational, financial and strategic objectives?
A
B
C
D
11.5
Treasury department
Financial accountant
Management Accountant
Bookkeeper
Transactions daybooks ledgers financial statements

Transactions ledgers control accounts financial statements
Primary transactions summarisd transactions daybooks financial statements
(1 mark)
A manufacturing group has transferred its car manufacturing operations to an emerging

economy. The Board of Directors has chosen this location because of lower production costs,
availability of a skilled workforce and the tax incentives, over a five year period, the
government is offering manufacturing companies employing more than 500 employees.
What tax strategy is this company using?
A
B
C
D
Tax avoidance
Tax harmonisation
Tax mitigation
Tax evasion
(2 marks)
15

MCQ 12 LAW AND REGULATION GOVERNING ACCOUNTING
12.1
In most jurisdictions, accountant is a reserved term, but auditor is not.

A
B
12.2
True
False
(1 mark)
Regulatory financial reporting is usually controlled by legislation, supra-national bodies,

accounting standards, and/or GAAP.
A
B
12.3
IASB, ACA
ACCA, IFAC
IFAC, IASB
ACCA, ICAEW
(2 marks)
The development of IFRS is a closed process and, as such, public observers are not
admitted at meetings.
A
B
12.5
(1 mark)
Which are the two main international accounting organisations that have a direct
impact on the accounting professional?
A
B
C
D
12.4
True
False
True
False
(1 mark)
A professional accountant miscalculates a clients tax liabilities, resulting in a tax

investigation and fine on the client.
With which one of the following can the client register a complaint?
A
B
C
D
12.6
(2 marks)
Which one of the following is an objective of the International Accounting Standards

Board?
A
B
C
D
16
Taxation authorities
The police
The Financial Reporting Council
Professional body
To be the sole provider of financial reporting standards

To monitor the application of financial reporting standards
To bring about the convergence of national accounting standards
To issue all reporting, auditing and ethical standards
(2 marks)

12.7
For at least how many years (under best practice) should accounting records be kept for
listed companies and for other companies?
A
B
C
D
6 and 3 years respectively

9 and 6 years respectively
Indefinitely for listed and 3 years for other
Indefinitely for both
(2 marks)
MCQ 13 FINANCIAL SYSTEMS, PROCEDURES AND IT APPLICATIONS

13.1
A system is a group of interacting, interrelated or interdependent elements in place to support

a framework of policies and procedures.
A
B
13.2
True
False
(1 mark)
To ensure that ________ achieve their objectives, ___________ should be formally

developed by management to be applied within each system.
Which words, in correct order, correctly complete this sentence?
A
B
C
D
13.3
(2 marks)
Which of the following stages of a purchase cycle are in the correct order?
A
B
C
D
13.4
Procedures, policies
Policies; procedures
Polices, plans
Systems; policies and procedures
Purchase order; purchase requisition; goods received; payment made

Purchase requisition; purchase order; goods received; payment made
Purchase order; goods received; purchase requisition; payment made
Purchase order; payment made; goods received; purchase requisition
(2 marks)
The overall objective of ________ is to ensure all goods and services dispatched are correctly
__________ and processed.
A
B
C
D
13.5
Sales; invoiced
Logistics; handled
Marketing; researched
Payroll; managed by people
(2 marks)
In a classic inventory system, regular inventory counts take place and require computerised
systems. In contrast, in a perpetual inventory system, annual inventory counts take place the
same day of every year.
Is the above statement True or False?
A
B
True
False
(1 mark)
17

13.6
Which of the following contains a correct list of inventory categories?

A
B
C
D
13.7
Work-in-progress, incomplete goods, finished goods

Un-processed materials, finished goods, processed materials
Raw materials, work in progress, finished goods
Uncompleted goods, finished materials, goods held for resale
(2 marks)
John carries out a credit check on an order before giving authorisation to the warehouse
manager who carries out a final check on the order and the goods. All internal
documentation, except the order, is pre-numbered in sequential order.
Which cycle is being described?
A
B
C
D
13.8
Employees who are on annual leave

Employees who are clocked in by other employees
Employees who fade away when required to work overtime
Individuals on the payroll who are not employed by the company
(2 marks)
Which one of the following sets are control activities?

A
B
C
D
13.10
(2 marks)
What does the term ghost employee mean?

A
B
C
D
13.9
Purchases
Wages
Sales
Cash
Authorisation, segregation of duties, cut-off

Performance reviews, physical controls, accuracy
Authorisation, information processing, segregation of duties
Performance reviews, recorded assets, cut-off
(2 marks)
What if analysis is most commonly used with which one of the following software
packages?
A
B
C
D
Spreadsheets
Database management systems
Word processing
Graphics presentation
(2 marks)
MCQ 14 PURCHASING, PRODUCTION, SERVICES AND MARKETING

14.1
Marketing is a process which identifies, anticipates and satisfies customer needs profitably.
A
B
18
True
False
(1 mark)

14.2
The main decision under place a marketing manager has to take when reviewing the
marketing mix is whether to sell directly or indirectly to customers.
A
B
14.3
Price, quality, promotion, place

Promotion, price, distribution, place
Quantity, quality, price, delivery
Quantity, quality, place, delivery
(2 marks)
What is the key role of accounting in purchasing?

A
B
C
D
14.5
(1 mark)
What are the elements of the purchasing mix?

A
B
C
D
14.4
True
False
To compare prices
To choose suppliers
To maintain margins
To procure raw materials and services
(2 marks)
,
According to Prof. Kotler, the key elements of a marketing concept are: _______ ,
________ , ________ and ________
Which five words, in correct order, correctly complete this sentence?
A
B
C
D
14.6
needs, demands, wants, value and satisfaction

meeting customer needs, gaining competitive advantage, products, transactions and
relationships
quality, quantity, price, markets and products
needs, products, value, exchange and markets
(2 marks)
Your company is providing accountancy services for SMEs. You are heavily dependent on
your employees.
Which three Ps do you have to add to the ordinary four Ps of the marketing mix?
A
B
C
D
14.7
Productivity, processes and physical evidence

Production, processes and physical evidence
People, processes and physical evidence.
People, processes and procurement
(2 marks)
Segmentation of a market has to do with dividing the market into distinct subsets of
customers in order to be able to target the market with a distinct marketing mix and position
yourself accordingly.
Is this statement True or False for the production function?
A
B
True
False
(1 mark)
19

MCQ 15 EXTERNAL AND INTERNAL AUDIT
15.1
Internal auditors are not required to consider fraud.

A
B
15.2
(1 mark)
Which one of the following is a key difference between internal and external audit?
A
B
C
D
15.3
True
False
Internal report to shareholders, external report to directors

Internal are independent of the company, external are often employed by the
company
Internal report on systems, controls and risks, external on financial statements
Internal must have an ACCA qualification, external need a BA and MA
qualification
(2 marks)
problem.
Internal auditors have an unavoidable

Which word correctly completes this sentence?
A
B
C
15.4
Loyalty
Competence
Independence
External audit is required by

financial statements.
(1 mark)
to form an opinion on the
of
Which words, in order, correctly completes this sentence?

A
B
C
D
15.5
Responsible party, intended user, regulator

Government, practitioner, subject matter
Intended user, subject matter, practitioner
Practitioner, responsible party, tax authorities
(2 marks)
Which one of the following would internal audit be expected to report on?
A
B
C
D
20
(1 mark)
Which one of the following contains three of the four elements within an assurance
relationship?
A
B
C
D
15.6
management, true and fair

law, true and fair view
law, fair and firm view
management, fair and frequent view
success of a marketing campaign

design of a POS-campaign
competence of a director
design and implementation of the most efficient combination of manual and
automated controls
(2 marks)

15.7
Which one of the following are most important aspects of the assessment of the
professional proficiency of internal audit?
A
B
C
D
15.8
Due professional care, competence, co-ordination and communication

Due professional care, competence, continuing education and compliance with
standards
Due professional care, competence, co-ordination, human relations
Due professional care, competence, communication and friendliness
(2 marks)
Companies listed on one of the major stock exchanges in the EU (Frankfurt, London, Paris)
are legally obliged to appoint internal auditors.
A
B
15.9
True
False
(1 mark)
The two main features of internal audit are:

A
B
C
D
Appraisal and independence

Appraisal and service
Independence and internal control
Independence and service
(2 marks)
MCQ 16 INTERNAL CONTROL AND SECURITY

16.1
Which one of the following are all components of an internal control framework?
A
16.2
Control environment, governance and management functions, sharing of

information
B
Control environment, risk assessment, control activities
C
Governance and management functions, administrating and accounting controls,
control activities
D
Governance and management functions, control activities, functional activitites
(2 marks)
What does the mnemonic C A V E stand for?
A
B
C
D
16.3
Communication, attention, value for money, expertise

Concise, accurate, valid, economic
Correct, accurate, valid, existence
Complete, available, valid, existence
(2 marks)
The main factors that will be reflected in an organisations control environment are the
philosophy and operating style of the directors and management.
A
B
True
False
(1 mark)
21

16.4
Which one of the following contains business risks that may impact on the production of
financial statements?
A
B
C
D
16.5
Rapid growth and changes in the regulatory environment

New products and experienced personnel
Corporate restructuring and outsourcing
Increase in transactions and established information systems
(2 marks)
,
and
to enable
,
An accounting system consists of
of the records and information necessary to satisfy reporting objectives.
and

A
B
C
D
16.6
reporting,
(2 marks)
Which one of the following correctly categorises authorisation, segregation of duties and
passwords?
A
B
C
16.7
infrastructure, processes, data; initiation, material, reporting

software, data, information; reporting, accountability, audit
physical environment, computer systems, people; recording,
accountability
hardware, procedures, controls; translate, initiate, transfer
Corrective controls
Detective controls
Preventative controls
(1 mark)
When an employee is leaving her workplace, she is responsible for turning on the alarm
system for the whole office.
Which one of the following categories does this control belong to?
A
B
C
D
16.8
Reliance
Unauthorised access
Segregation of duties
Physical control
(2 marks)
Application controls typically operate at a business level. They can be

or
in
of the accounting records and information.
nature and are designed to ensure the
A
B
C
D
16.9
(2 marks)
Application controls on data input includes which one of the following?

A
B
C
D
22
integrative, detective, objectivity

preventive, detective, integrity
preventive, detective, initiative
detective, manipulated, integrity
Validation checks
Existence checks
Dumping data
Range checks
(2 marks)

16.10
The purpose of encryption is to make any intelligible unintelligible.

A
B
16.11
True
False
(1 mark)
Which of the following contains the most examples of risks to data?

A
B
C
D
Hardware and software error, human error, deliberate actions

Hardware and software error, human error , regular testing
Deliberate actions, unintended actions, pull the plug, authorised access
Human error, deliberate actions, unintended actions, regular maintenance (2 marks)
MCQ 17 BUSINESS FRAUD

17.1
A rigorous system of control will prevent and eliminate all fraud and errors.
A
B
17.2
True
False
(1 mark)
Misappropriation of assets is ________

Which word, in correct order, correctly completes this sentence?
A
B
C
17.3
fraud
error
misinterpretation
(1mark)
In a business context, what are the two basic forms of fraud?

A
B
C
D
17.4
Fraudulent reporting and misappropriation of assets

Theft of cash and theft of inventory
Misuse of assets and theft of cash
Misstatements of disclosures and deliberate misapplication of accounting principles
(2 marks)
Which of the following is a skimming fraud?
A
B
C
D
17.5
Diversion of major customers

Window dressing
Unusual discounts
Small amounts are diverted from a large number of transactions
Window dressing is a common

carried out at the
than what they really are.
make them appear
(2 marks)
of a year on financial statements to
Which words, in order, correctly complete this sentence?

A
B
C
error, end, healthier

fraud, end, healthier
fraud, beginning, healthier
(1mark)
23

17.6
Which of the following is NOT a problem in obtaining audit evidence that might
indicate fraud?
A
B
C
D
17.7
(2 marks)
Which of the following is a risk factor regarding financial stability?

A
B
C
D
17.8
Differences between accounting records and third party confirmations

Proper cost and management accounting systems
Unreasonable time pressure from management
Lack of response by management to enquiries
Significant financial interest in the entity

Overly optimistic press releases and annual reports
Personal guarantees of debts of entity
Significant decline in customer demand
(2 marks)
Olga is a loan application supervisor at a major bank. Her best friend drives a top of the
range sports Mercedes. Olga is very jealous as her friend, despite being not so attractive as
Olga, always seems to get the best men. Olga believes the car attracts them. Her manager is
currently ill and is not expected to return to work for at least six months. Olga has been asked
to continue her work and take on her managers loan authorisation responsibilities without
any oversight from other managers. She is not being paid any extra for doing so.
Which one of the following lists the factors that place Olga as a high fraud risk?
A
B
C
D
Greed, jealousy, opportunity

Pressure, ability, lack of controls
Incentive, opportunity, rationalisation
Position, desire, power
(2 marks)
MCQ 18 LEADERSHIP, MANAGEMENT, SUPERVISION

18.1
Leadership is a quality, management is a job.

A
B
18.2
True
False
Management, according to H. Fayol, is to
(1 mark)
,
and

A
B
C
24
communicate, plan and forecast, organise, command, control

co-ordinate, plan and forecast, organise, command, control
co-ordinate, plan and forecast, motivate, command, control
(1mark)

18.3
Mintzberg suggested that managers in their daily work fulfil three types of managerial role
interpersonal, informational and decisional.
Which one of the following correctly describes one of these categories?
A
B
C
D
18.4
(2 marks)
Which one of the following best describes the main role of a supervisor?
A
B
C
D
18.5
Interpersonal: Disturbance-handler, leader, spokesperson

Informational: Figurehead, disseminator, monitor
Decisional: Resource allocator, liaison, entrepreneur
Interpersonal: Figurehead, leader, liaison
Liaison officer between management and workforce

Getting involved in day-to-day work and help solve problems
Training and conducting appraisals
Allocating tasks to the right people to ensure that these tasks are performed
effectively and efficiently
(2 marks)
Authority is the ability to do something, power is the right to do something or have

something done.
A
B
18.6
Charismatic, traditional, legal

Line, staff and functional
Direct, indirect and delegated
Resource, expert and charisma
(2 marks)
What is the most effective management / leadership style suggested by Blake and
Mouton?
A
B
C
D
18.8
(1 mark)
Which of the following are the three types of authority a manager usually has?
A
B
C
D
18.7
True
False
9.1
9.9
1.1
1.9
(2 marks)
Four main styles of management were identified by the Ashridge Management College within
two extremes of directive versus supportive behaviour.
These are best described by which one of the following?
A
B
C
D
tell, autocratic, participative, democratic

democratic, autocratic, pragmatic, diplomatic
tell, sell, consult, join
objective, decisive, visionary, pragmatic
(2 marks)
25

18.9
Maxim is the manager of a call centre. McKinsey has advised him that by reorganising his
teams to complete highly specific tasks the call centre will be able to increase the throughput
of work significantly, as well as increasing the number of sales calls made to the public. The
reorganisation is unpopular with many workers, who feel that their jobs will become boring
and repetitive.
The proposal to reorganise the work of the call centre utilises principles put forward by
which school of management thought?
A
B
C
D
18.10
(2 marks)
Fiedler focuses on two styles of leaders taking the relationship between leadership styles and
the effectiveness of the work group into consideration. Are these:
A
B
C
D
18.11
The human relations school

The modern school
The classical / scientific school
The administrative school
PDMs and PDLs

PDMs and PCMs
PLMs and PLLs
PDLs and PCLs
(2 marks)
ABC is an old, well-established company having to deal with the current economic crises.
Profits are falling due to less export orders and the use of old technology. Many employees
have been with the company for the past 20 years and do not understand why they should
now change and learn new things. They blame the past unsuccessful months on management.
According to Heifetz which sort of change is necessary in this situation?
A
B
C
D
18.12
Transformational
Fundamental
Technical
Adaptive
(2 marks)
Delegation implies that:

A
B
C
D
No one can do it better than me

I enjoy doing the work myself
The person delegating has the authority to do so
The manager delegating the work has no confidence in his subordinates
(2 marks)
MCQ 19 INDIVIDUALS, GROUPS AND TEAMS

19.1
You are the manager of the Alpha team. A sixth sense has developed within the team with
members knowing what others are doing within the team. Trust is implicit. The team is
mature.
At what stage of team development is the Alpha team?
A
B
C
D
26
Performing
Norming
Storming
Dorming
(2 marks)

19.2
In which order does a team normally progress through Tuckman`s stages?

A
B
C
D
19.3
Norming, forming, storming, performing

Performing, storming, forming, norming
Forming, norming, storming, performing
Forming, storming, norming, performing
(2 marks)
In a project team, Olga is the person everyone turns to with their problems and team conflicts,
knowing that she will respond to them, listen, understand, mediate and be diplomatic.
Which of Belbins team roles does Olga fulfil?
A
B
C
D
19.4
(2 marks)
Which of the following statements best describes the purpose of a multi-disciplinary

team?
A
B
C
D
19.5
Implementer
Team worker
Finisher
Resource Investigator
Team members have different skills, work in different departments and can perform
more than one task
Team members can perform more than one task and are flexible
Team members know their objectives, can perform more than one task and are
flexible
Team members have different skills, work in different departments and can be
pooled or exchanged.
(2 marks)
Cohesive teams generally take more risky decisions than the same individuals working
separately.
A
B
19.6
True
False
(1 mark)
There are many factors that drive a person`s behaviour at work.

Which of the following contains two of the more critical factors?
A
B
C
D
19.7
Perception and motivation

Understanding and work performance
Motivation and interests
Attitude and behaviour
(2 marks)
High labour turnover is a characteristic of effective teams.

A
B
True
False
(1 mark)
27

19.8
Role ambiguity is the same as role uncertainty.

A
B
19.9
(1 mark)
Which one of the following identifies a difference between a group and a team?
A
B
C
D
19.10
True
False
The members negotiate their personal roles and positions

The members work in cooperation
Members always agree with other members
Decisions are taken by members through consensus
(2 marks)
Leap frog occurs when there is a need to bypass colleagues of the same seniority.
A
B
19.11
(1 mark)
Who described team building tools of effective teamwork?

A
B
C
D
19.12
True
False
Belbin
Briggs-Meyers
Snoopy
Woodcock
(2 marks)
Within the annual Six Nations rugby tournament, England, France, Ireland, Italy, Scotland
and Wales, play a series of games to determine which team is the best.
At what stage of development are each of the teams?
A
B
C
D
19.13
Storming
Performing.
Norming
Dorming
(2 marks)
For team rewards to be effective, the team must have certain characteristics.
Which one of the following contains such appropriate characteristics?
A
B
C
D
28
Distinct roles, maturity, targets, performance measures

Task specification, measurement criteria, group think, lack of communication
Distinct roles, maturity, targets, unbalanced roles
Task specification, measurement criteria, insincere praise
(2 marks)

MCQ 20 MOTIVATING INDIVIDUALS AND GROUPS
20.1
Which of the following does not fit into Maslows hierarchy of needs?
A
B
C
D
20.2
(2 marks)
Which statement best shows the difference between content theory and process theory?
A
B
C
D
20.3
Love/social
Safety
Enrichment
Esteem
Process theories explain which variables affect motivation, and content theories
explain how the variables affect it
Content theories address the effects of cognitive dissonance; process theories
address workplace activities
Content theories address workplace comfort, and process theories address
workplace activities
Content theories explain which variables affect motivation, and process theories
explain how the variables affect it
(2 marks)
According to Hertzberg, an encouraging leadership style is a motivator factor

A
B
20.4
True
False
A reward is given for some
(1 mark)
, an incentive is an
of reward.

A
B
C
20.5
(1 mark)
Which one of the following describes a horizontal extension of a job to increase task
variety?
A
B
C
D
20.6
Contribution, success
Success, offer
Offer, success
Job description
Job evaluation
Job enlargement
Job enrichment
(2 marks)
Which of the following are wholly intrinsic rewards?

A
B
C
D
Performance related pay and companionship

Achievement and private health care
Job interest and share schemes
Responsibility and job interest
(2 marks)
29

20.7
What type of motivation theory is expectancy model?

A
B
C
D
20.8
(2 marks)
According to McGregor, Theory Y people are motivated by:

A
B
C
D
20.9
Process theory
Needs theory
Content theory
Equality theory
money and security

money and achievement at work
interpersonal relationships and recognition for good work
interpersonal relationships and tight control
(2 marks)
A fast food chain supplies its franchises with detailed manuals that describe the exact
processes employees should follow to accomplish daily tasks, like preparing burgers, coffee,
french fries and salads. Additionally, each franchise must install cameras to monitor both
sales and supply areas to ensure employees are not slacking.
The head office of this chain clearly adheres to which set of assumptions about human
motivation?
A
B
C
D
20.10
Collectivism
Individualism
Theory X
Theory Y
(2 marks)
Employees are impacted by both external and internal forces of motivation.

Which one of the following statements is appropriate?
A
B
C
D
It is more important to understand internal forces than external forces of motivation

Less important to understand internal forces than external forces of motivation
It is important to understand both forces of motivation
The need for motivation is seldom recognised by any manager
(2 marks)
MCQ 21 RECRUITMENT AND SELECTION

21.1
You have recently been employed as your firms first human resources manager. One of your
initial tasks will be to devise a recruitment and selection plan for junior and middle
management.
Which one of the following best describes the stages of recruitment and selection?
A
B
C
D
30
Advertising a position, assessment of application, notifying the candidates

Identifying/defining requirements, attracting potential employees, selecting
candidates
Setting recruitment and selection objectives, advertising a position, selection
candidates
Setting recruitment and selection objectives, attracting potential employees, setting
interview and test dates
(2 marks)

21.2
What does a person specification describe?

A
B
C
D
21.3
The number of people needed for job vacancies

Attributes of a person ideal to fill a position
Main tasks and responsibilities involved in a job
Performance results of a job holder
(2 marks)
A company urgently needs a CFA-qualified analyst but has neither the internal resources nor
a large budget for advertising.
Which one of the following would be the most appropriate recruitment medium?
A
B
C
D
21.4
recruitment agency
advertisement in a large, nation-wide newspaper
advertisement on national TV
recruitment fairs
(2 marks)
A job description sets out the total requirements of a job its purpose, how it relates to the
organisation, the jobholders accountabilities/tasks and lines of reporting. It may also cover
the physical, social and economic factors which affect the job.
A
B
21.5
Effectiveness and speed

Fairness and speed
Effectiveness and efficiency
Efficiency and staff turnover
(2 marks)
Rodgers Seven Point Plan includes which grouping of the following aspects?
A
B
C
D
21.7
(1 mark)
In measuring the success, or otherwise, of the recruitment and selection process, which
two performances measures could be used?
A
B
C
D
21.6
True
False
Physical attributes and impact on others

Background and circumstances
Qualification and motivation
Disposition and interests
(2 marks)
According to research, what selection method is the most reliable predictor of job
performance?
A
B
C
D
Personality and intelligence tests

References
Work sampling
Interviews
(2 marks)
31

21.8
Personality and cognitive tests are more reliable predictors of job performance than
interviews.
A
B
21.9
True
False
(1 mark)
Assessment centres are specialised locations where a small group of participants who
undertake a series of test and exercises under observation with a view to the assessment of
their skills and competencies, suitability for particular roles and potential for development
A
B
21.10
True
False
(1 mark)
Which of the following is more likely to play an inappropriate role in selection?

A
B
C
D
Personality and attractiveness

Appearance and behaviour
Race and gender
Hygiene and performance
(2 marks)
MCQ 22 EQUAL OPPORTUNITIES AND DIVERSITY

22.1
Maria has offered to give evidence at the Inspectorate for workers on behalf of a colleague
who is claiming that she has been passed over for promotion because she is a woman. Over
the following weeks, her boss repeatedly denies her requests for work breaks because she is
having time off at the inspectorate, although he has usually granted them before.
Under EU legislation, Maria herself may have a claim for what form of discrimination?
A
B
C
D
22.2
Indirect discrimination
Direct discrimination
Harassment
Victimisation
(2 marks)
It is illegal in the EU to use age limits or phrases that imply restrictions (such as recent
graduate) in job advertisements.
A
B
22.3
(1 mark)
Diversity is about which one of the following?

A
B
C
D
32
True
False
Equal opportunity for all staff to contribute to the companys objectives

Treated with respect regardless of their age, ethnicity or background
Acknowledged and respected for their differences within the workplace
Encouraged to adopt to the companys culture
(2 marks)

22.4
In the UK, employers must ensure that stable same sex partnerships are treated the same as
married couples, dress codes are sufficiently flexible to allow for religious expression and
staff are not prevented from taking absence for religious holidays.
A
B
22.5
True
False
(1 mark)
Within the UK there are four general areas that make it illegal for an employer to discriminate
against disabled people.
Which one of the following sets relate to these areas?
A
B
C
22.6
Favour people in the age group 25 to 35, have access for wheelchairs, pay disabled
people more money
Allow for active participation of disabled people, provide disabled people with
special training, accept a lower level of skills and competences.
In deciding who to interview, who to employ, who to promote and who to dismiss
(1 mark)
Sexual harassment is any unwanted conduct of a sexual nature, or based on sex, affecting
dignity of women at work
A
B
True
False
(1 mark)
MCQ 23 TRAINING AND DEVELOPMENT

23.1
Research has shown that one reason for employee dissatisfaction with their employer is the
lack of training and development opportunities. The failure of many companies to establish a
training and development strategy is a specific determining factor in not attracting or keeping
good employees.
A
B
23.2
True
False
(1 mark)
Med likes to get his hands dirty doing something practical rather than listening to his
manager instructing him from a procedures manual. His motto is dont worry, be happy.
Which one of Honey and Mumfords learning styles is best suited to Med?
A
B
C
D
Theorist
Activist
Pragmatist
Relativist
(2 marks)
33

23.3
Which one of the following best describes Kolbs experiential learning cycle?
A
B
C
D
23.4
The development and use of a knowledge and skills database

Learning on-the-job and coaching
Life-long learning
Concept of self-learning and learning by experience
(2 marks)
Training and development needs arise from ________________

A
B
C
23.5
meeting the organisational and individual needs identified in a SWOT analysis

a structured and methodical approach to knowledge and skill acquisition
the organisations business plan, corporate plan or human resource plan. (1 mark)
Training is a learning process that involves the acquisition of knowledge, sharpening of

skills, concepts, rules, or changing of attitudes and behaviours to enhance the performance of
employees.
A
B
23.6
True
False
(1 mark)
Training is an event. Development is a process.

A
B
23.7
(1 mark)
How can companies make their training needs analysis more effective?
A
B
C
D
23.8
True
False
Focus on what people are failing to do

Understand current skills, look forward to desired outcomes to meet objectives and
skills required, identify and train for the skills gaps.
Focus on those who are not doing so well, catching up with how the best of the
team already performs
Focus on remedial training
(2 marks)
The formula required level of competence minus present level of competence describes
________
A
B
C
D
34
training objectives
training outcome
training stages
training needs
(1 mark)

23.9
Induction is the
organisation.
whereby a person is formally
and
into an

A
B
C
D
23.10
minimises risk
allows focus on learning
supports practical application
focuses on standardisation of trainings
(2 marks)
What learning style would a person prefer and learn best from on-the-job training using
project work or job instruction?
A
B
C
D
23.12
(1 mark)
Which one of the following is an advantage of on-the-job learning?

A
B
C
D
23.11
process, integrated and welcomed

process, introduced and integrated
method, integrated and welcomed
product, introduced and integrated
Theorist
Reflector
Pragmatist
Activist
(2 marks)
To address equal employment concerns, aspects of an equal opportunities training

program must be assessed with an eye toward the program's impact on which one of the
following?
A
B
C
D
Comparable worth
Those traditional discriminated against
Disparate success
Reverse discrimination
(2 marks)
MCQ 24 PERFORMANCE APPRAISAL

24.1
Appraisals allow managers to objectively review, discuss and compare the performances of
employees, help the organisation to obtain standard information and to provide a forum for
the airing of grievances, work related or personal problems.
A
B
24.2
True
False
(1 mark)
The term assessment centre does not refer to a physical place, instead it describes an
approach.
A
B
True
False
(1 mark)
35

24.3
Which one of the following contains two features of an effective appraisal?

A
B
C
D
24.4
Fair and flexible

Fair and frequent
Frequent and honest
Honest and objective
The first steps of an effective appraisal process are
(2 marks)
and

A
B
C
D
24.5
Communicating standards and discussing results

Establishing performance standards and measuring actual performance
Establishing assessment criteria and preparing appraisal report
Establishing performance standards and providing feedback
(2 marks)
Conducting an appraisal interview requires certain skills.

Which one of the following describes best appraisal interview skills?
A
B
C
D
24.6
Staying focused on key information and fully involving the appraisee in the
appraisal process
Enhancing trust and mutual support within the working relationship
Dealing with objections and disagreements
Confront poor performance in a constructive manner
(2 marks)
On your first assignment at your new firm, you reported to the senior partner. At the end of
the assignment you asked the partner for a formal appraisal review. You did OK. As a small
firm, we get to know the strengths and weaknesses of our staff. We do not consider an
appraisal system necessary.
Which one of the following is a benefit of an appraisal?
A
B
C
D
24.7
Which one of the following appraisal methods involves the appraiser and appraisee
completing similar assessment forms then comparing their notes.
A
B
C
D
36
Assists realising personal aspiration

Establishes reward and remuneration levels
Focuses on the needs of a business through ensuring that employers goals and
those of the organisation are congruent.
Develops skills and expertise
(2 marks)
Peer comparison
360-degree appraisal
Self-appraisal
Top-down appraisal
(2 marks)

MCQ 25 COMMUNICATION
25.1
Good communication is effective it achieves the communicators reason for communicating

and efficient it achieves the communicators reason without unnecessary waste of
resources.
A
B
25.2
Receiving a message
Encoding a message
Choosing an appropriate channel (medium)
Decoding a message
(2 marks)
In addition to timely and trusted, which one of the following are also two attributes of
effective communication?
A
B
C
D
25.4
(1 mark)
The choices below are various stages in a particular communication process is. Which
one is the second stage?
A
B
C
D
25.3
True
False
Volume and noise

Accuracy and material
Trust and confidence
Relevant and volume
(2 marks)
Communication is the oxygen of an organisation. Without communication the organisation

could not survive.
A
B
25.5
True
False
(1 mark)
When management communicates policies, plans, information and instructions we talk about
________ or ________ communication.
A
B
C
D
25.6
diagonal or inter-departmental
lateral or formal
vertical or downwards
horizontal or informal
(2 marks)
The choice of a medium used in communication depends on which factors?

A
B
C
D
Urgency and cost

Complexity and vocabulary
Good writing, typing and suitable style
Sensitivity and fluency
(2 marks)
37

25.7
Which of the following is a suitable method for communicating that a hostile bid has
been made to take over the company?
A
B
C
D
25.8
Notice board
E-mail to all staff
Open staff meeting
Memo
(2 marks)
Which communication pattern (communication network) is the quickest way to reach a

conclusion?
A
B
C
D
Y and wheel
Y and all-channel
Wheel and circle
Wheel and chain
(2 marks)
MCQ 26 PERSONAL EFFECTIVENESS

26.1
As a personal development plan involves the change from a current situation, the details of
the current position must first be identified and analysed.
A
B
26.2
True
False
(1 mark)
When a manager is carrying out an assessment of an employee, they need to identify

________ and ________ of that employee.
A
B
C
26.3
Learning from others

Poor planning
Creating a plan
Using waiting and travelling time creatively
(2 marks)
Which of the following contains the core objectives of the coaching process?
A
B
C
D
38
(1 mark)
The biggest time-waster in modern business life is which one of the following?
A
B
C
D
26.4
interests and hobbies

effectiveness and significance
strengths and weaknesses
Developing a persons skills to help him/her succeed in the job

High performance and improvement within a short period of time
Exchange of knowledge and sustained partnering relationship
High performance and improvement through developing a persons skills and
knowledge to achieve organisational objectives
(2 marks)

26.5
Which of the following shows the stages of a counseling process?

A
B
C
D
26.6
Recognition, understanding, empowering and resourcing

Dealing with issues such as lack of experience or technical knowledge necessary to
fulfill the job requirements
Looking at how much time could be made free by completing the project to set
deadlines
Interview, counseling session, knowledge transfer, establishing a relationship
(2 marks)
Counselling often deals with issues such as listening to grievances.

A
B
True
False
(1 mark)
39
40

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STUDY QUESTION BANK ACCOUNTANT IN BUSINESS (F1)

MCQ 1 THE BUSINESS ORGANISATION

Which items best describe an organisation?

Which of the following best describes public sector entities?

Working together, collective goals, controlled performance

Traded on the stock market

A cooperative (collective) would be characterised as ________, while Microsoft would be a

a not-for-profit organisation; public sector

Purchasing, Research and Development

Which elements characterise the concept of service?

varied, tangibility, imperishable

ACCOUNTANT IN BUSINESS (F1) STUDY QUESTION BANK

Paul works as a desktop-publishing specialist in an advertising agency. Paul creates layouts

Decentralisation of its local offices

Which of the following statements is correct?

Which is a potential disadvantage of decentralisation?

Scalar chain tells you the levels of management in a company

STUDY QUESTION BANK ACCOUNTANT IN BUSINESS (F1)

Which of the following is a characteristic of the formal organisation?

Supervisors are part of the tactical workforce.

The informal organisation will most likely:

Driven by lateral communication

MCQ 3 ORGANISATIONAL CULTURE

Influences on a companys culture include which of the following?

Communication style, rules, reward systems

Espoused values, basic assumptions, artifacts

ACCOUNTANT IN BUSINESS (F1) STUDY QUESTION BANK

High person culture

When is culture most likely to be a liability?

Level 1 artefacts and creations

When culture increases consistency of good behaviour

STUDY QUESTION BANK ACCOUNTANT IN BUSINESS (F1)

Which of the following best describes the activities of a company lobbyist?

The bank and shareholders are part of which group of stakeholders?

Attempts to influence legislation on behalf of a company

Keep the tax authorities satisfied

ACCOUNTANT IN BUSINESS (F1) STUDY QUESTION BANK

MCQ 5 INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY AND SYSTEMS

Which of the following relates to structured information requirements?

Which of the following best describes the qualities of information?

Intuitive requirements, judgemental, easily programmable

Time period, programmable, channel

Transaction Processing System

Transaction Processing System

STUDY QUESTION BANK ACCOUNTANT IN BUSINESS (F1)

MCQ 6 COMMITTEES IN THE BUSINESS ORGANISATION

Which of the following is an advantage of a committee?

No one individual is held responsible for the decision

ACCOUNTANT IN BUSINESS (F1) STUDY QUESTION BANK

Tactful, ability to organise, good language and grammar skills

With a committee, the number of members should be ___________, and ___________

large; possessing good communication skills

MCQ 7 BUSINESS ETHICS AND ETHICAL BEHAVIOUR

Thou shalt not kill.

STUDY QUESTION BANK ACCOUNTANT IN BUSINESS (F1)

Profitable, sustainable, & honest

A professional is characterised by which of the following?

Due care, integrity, professional behavior

Which of the following matters are considered by Tuckers 5 question model?

Ethical conflict resolution

Mastering skills, professional association, code of ethics

They are seen as the guardians of company finances

MCQ 8 GOVERNANCE AND SOCIAL RESPONSIBILITIES IN BUSINESS

With a committee, the number of members should be _, and _

Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is calculated as __ + +_+___

To ensure that achieve their objectives, ___ should be formally