CCNA 2 v5 2014 CCENT

(ICND1) Practice Certification

Exam Routing and Switching
Essentials (Version 5.0)
What are three characteristics of CSMA/CD? (Choose
three.)
1. A device listens and waits until the media is not busy
before transmitting.
2. All of the devices on a segment see data that passes
on the network medium.
3. After detecting a collision, hosts can attempt to
resume transmission after a random time delay has
expired.
Which feature on a Cisco router permits the forwarding
of traffic for which there is no specific route?
gateway of last resort
An organization is assigned an IPv6 address block of
2001:db8:0:ca00::/56. How many subnets can be
created without using bits in the interface ID space?
256
Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity
instructions and then answer the question.
Which code is displayed on the web browser?
It works!

Data is being sent from a source PC to a destination

server. Which three statements correctly describe the
function of TCP or UDP in this situation? (Choose
three.)
1. The UDP destination port number identifies the
application or service on the server which will handle the
data.
2. UDP segments are encapsulated within IP packets for
transport across the network.
3. The source port field identifies the running
application or service that will handle data returning to
the PC.
What are two actions performed by a Cisco switch?
(Choose two.)
1. using the source MAC addresses of frames to build
and maintain a MAC address table
2. utilizing the MAC address table to forward frames via
the destination MAC address
A network administrator is issuing the login block-for
180 attempts 2 within 30 command on a router. Which
threat is the network administrator trying to prevent?
a user who is trying to guess a password to access the
router
How will a router handle static routing differently if
Cisco Express Forwarding is disabled?
Ethernet multiaccess interfaces will require fully
specified static routes to avoid routing inconsistencies.
A network administrator is designing an IPv4
addressing scheme and requires these subnets.

1 subnet of 100 hosts

2 subnets of 80 hosts
2 subnets of 30 hosts
4 subnets of 20 hosts
Which combination of subnets and masks will provide
the best addressing plan for these requirements?
3 subnets of 126 hosts with a 255.255.255.128 mask
6 subnets of 30 hosts with a 255.255.255.224 mask
Match the description to the various trunking modes
for Cisco 2960 Catalyst switches. Not all options are
used.
A. The interface becomes a nontrunk interface
regardless of whether the neighboring interface is a
trunk interface.
B. The interface becomes a trunk interface if the
neighboring interface is set to trunk or desirable
mode.
C. The interface becomes a trunk interface even if the
neighboring interface is not a trunk interface.
1. switchport nonegotiate
2. switchport mode trunk - C
3. switchport mode dynamic desirable
4. switchport mode dynamic auto - B
5. switchport mode access - A

How many /30 subnets can be created from one /27

subnet?
8
Which layer of the OSI model handles the process of
identifying and discarding damaged frames?
data link
Refer to the exhibit. Which password will the
administrator need to use on this device to enter
privileged EXEC mode?
cisco
In which memory location are the VLAN configurations
of normal range VLANs stored on a Catalyst switch?
flash
A user calls the help desk to report that a Windows XP
workstation is unable to connect to the network after
startup and that a popup window says "This
connection has limited or no connectivity." The
technician asks the user to issue the ipconfig /all
command. The user reports the IP address is
169.254.69.196 with subnet mask of 255.255.0.0 and
nothing is displayed for the DNS server IP address.
What is the cause of the problem?
The workstation is unable to obtain an IP address from a
DHCP server.
What will be the result of adding the command ip dhcp
excluded-address 172.16.4.1 172.16.4.5 to the
configuration of a local router that has been
configured as a DHCP server?
The DHCP server function of the router will not issue the
addresses from 172.16.4.1 through 172.16.4.5
inclusive.

Refer to the exhibit. After the configuration that is

shown in the exhibit is applied to the SVI, the switch
fails to respond to Telnet attempts from a host in the
same subnet. What is the cause of the problem?
The interface is administratively down.
Refer to the exhibit. Match the packets with their
destination IP address to the exiting interfaces on the
router. (Not all targets are used.)
A. Packets with a destination of 172.17.10.5
B. Packets with a destination of 172.17.12.10
C. Packets with a destination of 172.17.14.8
D. Packets with a destination of 172.17.8.20
E. Packets with a destination of 172.17.6.15
1. FastEthernet0/0 - E
2. FastEthernet0/1 - C
3. FastEthernet1/0 - B
4. FastEthernet1/1 - A
5. Serial0/0/0 - D
6. The packet is dropped.
A network administrator is using the router-on-a-stick
model to configure a switch and a router for interVLAN routing. What configuration should be made on
the switch port that connects to the router?

Configure the port as an 802.1q trunk port.

Which three statements accurately describe duplex and
speed settings on Cisco 2960 switches? (Choose
three.)
1. When the speed is set to 1000 Mb/s, the switch ports
will operate in full-duplex mode.
2. The duplex and speed settings of each switch port
can be manually configured.
3. An autonegotiation failure can result in connectivity
issues.
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has
configured R2 for PAT. Why is the configuration
incorrect?
NAT-POOL2 is bound to the wrong ACL.
Which address type is not supported in IPv6?
broadcast
Which device connects a local LAN to a geographically
separate network?
router
What is the purpose of the SVI on a Cisco switch?
The SVI provides a virtual interface for remote access to
the switch.
Refer to the exhibit. Interfaces Fa0/5, Fa0/7, and
Fa0/9 are the only connected ports on the switch
CiscoSwitch. All other ports are unused. Which security
best practice did the administrator forget to configure?
Configure all unused ports to a 'black-hole' VLAN that is
not used for anything on the network.

Refer to the exhibit. Routers R1 and R2 are connected

via a serial link. One router is configured as the NTP
master, and the other is an NTP client. Which two
pieces of information can be obtained from the partial
output of the show ntp associations detail command
on R2? (Choose two.)
1. Router R1 is the master, and R2 is the client.
2. The IP address of R1 is 192. 168. 1. 2.
Given IPv6 address prefix 2001:db8::/48, what will be
the last subnet that is created if the subnet prefix is
changed to /52?
2001:db8:0:f000::/52
What is the purpose of deploying dual stack devices?
Dual stack allows companies to migrate to IPv6 over
time.
Which two devices allow hosts on different VLANs to
communicate with each other? (Choose two.)
1. router
2. Layer 3 switch
Refer to the exhibit. Fill in the blank.
There are collision domains in the topology.
12
Refer to the exhibit. A switch with a default
configuration connects four hosts. The ARP table for
host A is shown. What happens when host A wants to
send an IP packet to host D?

Host A sends out a broadcast of FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF. Every

other host connected to the switch receives the
broadcast and host D responds with its MAC address.
What is the most compressed representation of the
IPv6 address
2001:0000:0000:abcd:0000:0000:0000:0001?
2001:0:0:abcd::1
Which three statements are true about full-duplex
operation on an Ethernet network? (Choose three.)
1. A dedicated switch port is required for each node.
2. There are no collisions in full-duplex mode.
3. The host network card and the switch port must both
be in full-duplex mode.
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is
investigating a lag in network performance and issues
the show interfaces fastethernet 0/0 command. Based
on the output that is displayed, what two items should
the administrator check next? (Choose two.)
1. duplex settings
2. cable lengths
What is the purpose of using SSH to connect to a
router?
It allows a secure remote connection to the router
command line interface.
When creating an IPv6 static route, when must a nexthop IPv6 address and an exit interface both be
specified?
when the next hop is a link-local address

Which series of commands will cause access list 15 to

restrict Telnet access on a router?
R1(config)# line vty 0 4
R1(config-line)# access-class 15 in
Refer to the exhibit. Host A sends a data packet to
host B. What will be the addressing information of the
data packet when it reaches host B?
Source af:3c:dc:4c:55:66
Destination a0:4c:5f:21:33:77
Source 172.16.1.10
Destination 172.16.2.10
Data
A network engineer is configuring PAT on a router and
has issued the command:
ip nat source list 1 interface serial 0/1/0 overload
Which additional command is required to specify
addresses from the 192.168.128.0/18 network as the
inside local addresses?
access-list 1 permit 192.168.128.0 0.0.63.255
Refer to the exhibit. How will R1 generate the interface
ID portion of the IPv6 address on interface
FastEthernet 0/0?
by using the interface MAC address with a 16-bit filler
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is
reviewing port and VLAN assignments on switch S2
and notices that interfaces Gi0/1 and Gi0/2 are not
included in the output. Why would the interfaces be
missing from the output?
They are configured as trunk interfaces.

A network administrator has been allocated the IPv4

10.10.240.0/20 block of addresses for a LAN. Two
devices on two different, but contiguous, subnets on
the LAN have been assigned the addresses
10.10.247.1/21 and 10.10.248.10/24, respectively.
The administrator has to create a third subnet from the
remaining address range. To optimize the use of this
address space, the new subnet will follow on directly
from the existing subnets. What is the first available
host address in the next available subnet?
10.10.249.1
Refer to the exhibit. Interfaces Fa0/2, Fa0/4, and
Fa0/6 are connected to users on the data network of a
switch named CiscoSwitch. Interface Fa0/24 is
connected to a file server on the management network.
All other ports are unused. Which security best practice
did the administrator forget to configure?
Disable autonegotiation on interfaces that are not being
utilized as a trunk.
Which combination of DTP modes will form a link to
allow multiple VLANs?
dynamic auto-dynamic desirable
A network administrator has recently implemented
OSPFv2 across the entire network topology. Which
command can be implemented to prevent the
forwarding of OSPF messages to Layer 2 switches and
hosts on interface Fast Ethernet 0/1, while maintaining
network connectivity?
R1(config-router)# passive-interface FastEthernet 0/1
A network technician is configuring port security on a
LAN switch interface. The security policy requires host
MAC addresses to be learned dynamically, stored in

the address table, and saved to the switch running

configuration. Which command does the technician
need to add to the following configuration to
implement this policy?
Switch(config)# interface fa0/1
Switch(config-if)# switchport mode access
Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security
Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address
sticky
Match the order of precedence to the process logic
that an OSPFv3 network router goes through in
choosing a router ID. (Not all options are used.)
A. priority 1
B. priority 2
C. priority 3
D. priority 4
1. The router displays a console message to configure
the router ID manually. - D
2. The router uses the highest configured IPv4 address
of an active interface. - C
3. The router chooses the highest IPv6 address that is
configured on the router.
4. The router uses the highest configured IPv4 address
of a loopback interface. - B
5. The router uses the explicitly configured router ID if
any. - A

Refer to the exhibit. OSPFv2 has been configured on

router R1, and the router-id command has not been
manually configured. When the network administrator
reboots router R1, what will be the value of the OSPF
router ID?
172.16.1.1
A network administrator has enabled single-area
OSPFv3 on a router via the ipv6 router ospf 100
command. Which command will enable this OSPFv3
process on an interface of that router?
R1(config-if)# ipv6 ospf 100 area 0
What can a network administrator modify on a router
to specify the location from which the Cisco IOS loads?
(Choose two.)
1. the startup configuration file
2. the configuration register value
Which three statements characterize UDP? (Choose
three.)
1. UDP provides connectionless, fast transport of data at
Layer 4.
2. UDP relies on application layer protocols for error
detection.
3. UDP works well when an application does not need to
guarantee delivery of data.
Fill in the blank.
A late collision occurs after bits of a frame have been
transmitted.
512

Which three statements describe a DHCP Discover

message? (Choose three.)
1. The message comes from a client seeking an IP
address.
2. The destination IP address is 255.255.255.255.
3. All hosts receive the message, but only a DHCP server
replies.
Which two issues might cause excessive runt and giant
frames in an Ethernet network? (Choose two.)
1. a malfunctioning NIC
2. excessive collisions
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are correct
based on the output as shown in the exhibit? (Choose
two.)
1. The output is the result of the show ip nat
translations command.
2. The host with the address 209.165.200.235 will
respond to requests by using a source address of
192.168.10.10.