CP/16/C6

MOCK CLAT-6
SECTION I-ENGLISH

Direction(1-2): Identify as your answer the correct choice where each choice is the correct
homophone that will be used in the given statement:
1. (i) The texture of (A) fir/ fur (B) of polar bear is very soft.
(ii) The mess ran out of (A) flour/ flower (B) to prepare dinner for students.
(iii) Yuvraj comes out on (A) fourth/ forth (B) number in the batting line up.
(iv) Sulphuric Acid gives out a (A) foul/ fowl (B) smell.
A. BAAB
B. ABBA
C. BABA
D. BAAA
2. (i) Shivam couldnt (A) gauge/ gage (B) the risk he will be facing.
(ii) The (A) gait/ gate (B) of the bungalow is very high.
(iii) My (A) guilt/ gilt (B) conscious didnt allow me to copy in the exams.
(iv) The college was closed for the day because of heavy (A) hail/ hale (B).
A. AAAA
B. ABAA
C. BBBA
Directions(3-7): Identify the meaning of the foreign word:

D.AABA

3. Causa causans
A) based on observation
C) private

B) Nauseating
D) primary cause

4. Beau geste
A) proletariat
C) kitschy

B) Spartan
D) noble gesture going futile

5. Casus belli
A) cause of the war
C) take notice

B) reminder of death
D) Forbidden by law

6. Curia advisarivult
A) open
C) fitting

B) an incorrigible child
D) the court wishes to consider the matter

7. Perestroika
A. radical
C. cure

B.reform
D. revenge

Directions(8-12): Identify the correct antonyms:

8. civilized
a) savage
b)citizen
c) villager
9. virtuous
a) definite
c) vicious

d) countrymen
b) badly
d) refined

10. aid
a) witty

b) vigorous

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c) hindrance
11. deficit
a) deny

d) lusty

c) haste
12. enmity
a) friendship

d) surplus

b) differ

b) impurity

c) indemnify
d) discount
Directions (13-17):Fill in the blank with the correct choice:
13. By the time the Fire Brigade reached there, the whole house had been enveloped ______ flames.
A. with
B. in
C. into
D. within
14. While I started _____ him, he was staring ______ the mirror.
A. on, on
B. at, in
C. at, into
D. on, in
15. I remonstrated ______ him about his drinking habit.
A. of
B. at
C. in
D. with
16. We should not interfere ______ other peoples affairs.
A. in
B. for
C. at
D. none of these
17. There seems to be no solution _______ the food problem of many under-developed countries.
A. of
B. for
C. to
D. with
Directions (18-24): Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow:
South Korea successfully test-fired its first ballistic missile on Wednesday with a range far enough to
hit any part of North Korea, Defense Ministry officials said.With President Park Geun-hye watching,
two missiles blasted off from a test site on the west coast of South Korea. The government released a
photograph of a missile being fired from a tube mounted on what appeared to be a vehicle,
suggesting that the model tested was a prototype for a mobile missile system.
South Korea has been developing a new ballistic missile since the United States agreed in 2012 to
allow it to extend the range of those arms up to 800 kilometers, or about 500 miles, enough to reach
any target in North Korea but not to threaten China or Japan.Until then, mutually agreed-upon
guidelines had barred South Korea from deploying ballistic missiles with a range of more than 185
miles and a payload of more than 500 kilograms, or 1,100 pounds.
A Defense Ministry spokesman, citing ministry policy, declined to reveal the range and payload of
the missiles tested on Wednesday, except to say that they had a range sufficient to hit anywhere in
North Korea. But South Korean news media, citing unidentified military sources, reported that the
new missiles, code-named Hyunmoo-2B, had a range of more than 310 miles and a payload of 2,200
pounds.
South Koreas national news agency, Yonhap, said one or more of the new missiles would be
deployed as early as late this year.Ms. Park observed the test on Wednesday to view South Koreas

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key military capabilities to counter North Koreas threats, said the presidents spokesman, Min
Kyung-wook.
North Korea has an arsenal of ballistic missiles that can reach all of South Korea and Japan, the two
major allies of the United States in the region. It is also developing an intercontinental ballistic
missile. Fears of its missile capacity have grown since it claimed in May that it had successfully testfired a missile from a submarine. It also claimed that it has been building nuclear warheads small
enough to be mounted on a long-range missile.
When the United States agreed to revise its missile guidelines for South Korea in 2012, it tried to
balance its fear of a regional arms race with South Koreas concern over growingmilitary threats
from the North. Some installations in North Korea have been out of the range of South Koreas old
ballistic missiles.Under the revised guidelines, South Korea can deploy ballistic missiles with a range
of up to 500 miles as long as their payloads do not exceed 1,100 pounds. It can also load warheads
weighing as much as 4,400 pounds on ballistic missiles with shorter ranges.

18. Who is the defence minister of South Korea?

A. Park Geun-hye
B. Yonhap
C. Min Kyung-wook
D. None of the above

19. Which of the following countries is in the range of the new ballistic missile?
A. North Korea
B. China
C. Japan
D. All of the above

20. Which type of missile is scheduled to be launched next year by North Korea?
A. Short Range Ballistic missile
B. Long Range Ballistic missile
C. Intercontinental Ballistic missile
D. Intercontinental Long Range Ballistic missile

21. When was the missile test fired from a submarine?

A. May
B. June

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C. July
D. Not mentioned
22. Where was the test site located from where the missiles were launched?
A. East coast of South Korea
B. East coast of North Korea
C. West coast of South Korea
D. East coast of North Korea

23. By how many pounds Hyunmoo-2B violated the agreed pay load guideline?
A. 1100
B. 1500
C. 2200
D. 4400

24. What is the source of the given passage?

A. Research article
B. War documentary
C. News article
D. A blog

Directions(25-30): Identify the part that has an error as your answer:

25. Why dont you find (A) / for me the book (B) / which belongs to the evil fairy? (C) / No Error.
(D).
26. How much one enjoys a film (A) / like PyaarKaPunchnama 2 have got a lot to do (B) / with ones
tolerance for whining. (C) / No Error. (D).
27.Even while restoring this system, (A) / suggestions have been invited by the majority to improve it
(B) / so that it is more responsive to the expectations of civil society. (C) / No Error. (D).
28.The organisers of concerts planned in Mumbai and Pune by Pakistani ghazal singer Ghulam Ali (A) /
were quick to cancel the programmes after the Shiv Sena asked them (B) / to not host a singer belonging
to a country which is firing bullets at Indians. (C) / No Error. (D).
29.The Shiv Sena is turning out to be a huge embarrassment (A) / for not only the BJP, its senior partner
in government (B) / at the Centre and in Maharashtra, but for Indian diplomacy. (C) / No Error. (D).
30.The government should reach out to (A) / the opposition parties, regional outfits and the civil society
movements to form a national secretariat (B) / in mission mode in order to tackle the regions many
challenges. (C) / No Error. (D).
Directions(31-33): Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow:
Within the household, women are significantly more disadvantaged than men. They have poorer
literacy rates (nationally, 54% against 76% for men) and even less control over decision-making

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within the family and over family assets. Secondly, overall two out of three children are moderately
or severely malnourished, and the nutritional status of children from poor families is alarming. In
addition, multiple deprivations linked to poverty, gender and caste is a deeply rooted reality in the
countryside, and any comprehensive effort to reduce poverty must confront that reality and its
consequences. The realities are visible in the segregated hamlets where many of the lower castes live
on the fringes of rural villages, often distant from community services - schools, health centres,
public hand pumps, and shops that distribute subsidized grains-in principle meant to assist the poor.
31. Why are women more disadvantaged than men?
A. Uneducated
B. Under nourished
C. Social stigmas are attached
D. All of the above
32. Which of the following are the problems associated with poverty?
A. Malnourishment
B. Unemployment
C. Child labour
D. All of the above
33. Which of the following facilities are not available for the poor?
A. Schools
B. Health centre
C. Shops
D. All of the above
Directions (34-38): Arrange the following statements to form coherent passages:
34. A. It is not as though Mochizuki has made elaborate attempts to either publicise his work or
render it more comprehensible by giving lectures about it around the world.
B. However, most mathematicians are still flummoxed by the proof which uses a new branch of the
field too abstract even to them.
C. His approach seems to be to quietly work for about a decade in near isolation, and then, equally
quietly, to post the proof online!
D. This was a potential bombshell, as the ABC conjecture holds the key to solving several other
important problems.
A. DBAC
B. ABDC
C. CABD
D.DABC
35. A. Because jeans make you happy?
B. Who knows, but also, who cares? Nothing's bringing down your good vibe.
C. Because happy people make gutsy fashion choices?
D. Skinny jeans wearers are 9 percent more likely to report high levels of happiness.
A. ACDB
B. BADC
C. CABD
D.DACB
36. A. The study included 75,327 children of atomic bomb survivors in the two cities and unexposed
controls, born between 1946 and 1984, and followed up to Dec 31, 2009.
B. Dr Eric J Grant and co workers from the RERF looked at the birth records to identify children
conceived after the atomic bombings and born in Hiroshima and Nagasaki.
C. Researchers interviewed the parents directly or matched them to a master list of survivors to
estimate the radiation exposure to their reproductive organs.
D. This dose depended on distance of the individual from the hypocentre, shielding from such
objects as buildings or hills and shielding from intervening tissues inside the body before radiation
reached a particular organ.
A. BACD
B. BDCA
C. CDAB
D.DCAB

37.A. They reiterate that they attach the greatest importance to the relationship between India and
Nepal.

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B. Even before the recent events, they strained to convey that India cared about the well-being of the
people of Nepal, regardless of political uncertainties.
C. Despite this uneven interdependence, Indian diplomats have sought to cultivate the delicate
impression that they are not viceroys.
D. The people of Nepal are confused by the mixed messages.
A. DBAC

B. ADCB

C. CBAD

D.ABCD

38.A. Similarly, individuals who rely on internet banking to pay bills may have noticed a small logo
on their banks website that reads VeriSign secured.
B. Encryption is the practice of converting data into a garbled mix of numbers, letters and special
characters that can be deciphered only by the intended recipient.
C. The sign suggests the website runs on an encryption platform capable of verifying the identity of
both the account holder and the bank.
D. Apple, for instance, offers end-to-end encryption for its iMessage and FaceTime applications,
which theoretically means communication between iPhone users cannot be intercepted by a third
party, unless Apple voluntarily hands over this data.
A.BDAC
B. ABCD
C.ACBD
D.DABC
Directions (39-40): Identify the analogy in the given statements:
39.The white mares of the moon rush along the sky
Beating their golden hoofs upon the glass Heavens.
A. clouds and mares B. hooves and rain
C. heavens and glass D. moon and horses
40. They crowded very close about him, with their hands always on him in a careful, caressing grip,
as though all the while feeling him to make sure he was there. It was like men handling a fish which
is still alive and may jump back into the water.
A. crowd and fish
B. water and fish
C. hands and fish
D.him and fish

SECTION II-GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

41. Which city got Indias first Integrated Underwater Harbour Defence and Surveillance System (IUHDSS)?
A. Port Blair

B. Mumbai

C. Visakhapatnam

D. Kochi

42. Which one of the following is not a Green House Gas?

A. Water vapours

B. Methane

C. Ozone

D. Carbon Monoxide

43. The Panchayati Raj system under Part-IX of the Constitution of India does not apply to the States
of:
A. Assom, Mizoram, and Nagaland
B. Nagaland, Meghalaya, and Tripura
C. Nagaland, Meghalaya and Mizoram
D. Sikkim, Tripura and Meghalaya

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44. Government of India gives approval to setup some new SEZ. New SEZ is not going to be set up in which
of the following states?
A. Gujarat

B. Uttar Pradesh

C. Maharashtra

D. Karnataka

45. The first Indian Satellite, Aryabhatta was launched in the year:
A. 1972
B. 1975
C. 1976

D. 1979

46. Recently which State Legislative Assembly passed the Public Grievance Redressal Bill 2015 by a voice
vote which will empower people to seek redressal of their grievances in, a time-bound manner by
government officials?
A. Uttar Pradesh

B. Haryana

C. Bihar

D. Odisha

47. Which one of the following in not a sea port?

A. Paradip

B. Haldia

C. Diamond Harbour

D. Dhamra

48. The Indian States Committee was formed in 1928 under:

A. The Raja of Junagadh
B. Ian Copland
C. Sir Harcourt Butler
D. Motilal Nehru
49. Recently which State Assembly has passed a resolution to request the Union government to amend
Section-302 of the IPC to abolish capital punishment?
A. Manipur

B. West Bengal

C. Asom

D. Tripura

50. Union Ministry of Housing and Urban Poverty Alleviation (HUPA) have identified 305 cities and towns
across nine States on August 30, 2015 to start building houses for the poor in urban, areas as per which
scheme?
A. Housing for All

B. Pradhan Mantri Aawas Yojna

C. Both (A) and (B)

D. None of the above

51. World Cancer Day is observed on

A. 26th January

B. 4th February

C. 31st March

D. 1st December

52. The Fourth Schedule to the Constitution of India deals with:

A. provisions related to the administration of tribal areas
B. allocation of seats in the Council of States
C. the Union List, the State List and the Concurrent List
D. recognized languages of the Union of India

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53. Of the following which one is not a fungal disease?
A. Ringworm

B. Athletes foot

C. Baldness

D. Scabies

54. Among the following States of India which one has the highest percentage of Scheduled Caste population
in 2011?
A. West Bengal

B. Punjab

C. Himachal Pradesh

D. Uttar Pradesh

55. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

Rivers

Projects

A. Betwa

Matatila

B. Chenab

Bagalihar

C. Barakar

Ukai

D. Mahanadi

Hirakud

56. Which is the most reactive metal?

A. Sodium
C. Iron

B. Calcium
D. Potassium

57. The origin place of Godavari river is

A. Mahabaleshwar

B. Trayambak

C. Sihava

D. Amarkantak

58. The UN Framework Convention for Climate Change (UNFCCC) has issued carbon credits worth $ 3.56
million to which country for the first time?
A. India

B. Sri Lanka

C. Nepal

D. Bangladesh

59. Who is the first recipient of the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Rtna Award?
A. Geet Sethi

B. K. Malleshwari

C. Vishwanathan AnandD. Leander Paes

60. Which Sikh Guru was born at Patna?

A. Nanak
C. Hargobind

B. Teg Bahadur
D. Gobind Singh

61. Who won Commonwealth Chess Championship 2015 on 30th June, 2015?
A. Abhijeet Gupta

B. Deep Sengupta

C. Arghyadip Das

D. Lalith Basu

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62. In which of the following sport discipline, India has qualified for participation in 2016 Olympics after a
gap of 36 years?
A. Volleyball

B. Football

C. Womens Field Hockey

D. Tennis

63. Which Indian company have been named among the worlds 100 most innovative companies as per
Forbes list recently?
A. Hindustan Unilever

B. Tata Consultancy Services

C. Sun Pharma Industries

D. All of the above

64. Charminar of Hyderabad was built by

A. Nizam Mehboob Ali Khan

B. Nawab Vikar-ul-Ulmara

C. Ali Adil Shah

D. Mohd. Quli Qutub Shah

65. Where did Madam Cama hoist the first tricolor flag in 1907?
A. London
B. Paris
C. Moscow
D. Stuttgart
66. Kanchanjunga, the mountain peak of India is located in the State of
A. Uttarakhand

B. Jammu & Kashmir

C. Sikkim

D. Arunachal Pradesh

67. Which bank has been accredited by the United Nations Green Climate Fund (UNGCF) as an
implementing entity for undertaking climate change related projects in India?
A. The RBI

B. NABARD

C. ADB

D. NIB

68. Which of the following countries has declared massive cut in its army on 70 th anniversary of World War
II?
A. China

B. France

C. Russia

D. Britain

69. Which movement started after the Partition of Bengal?

A. Civil Disobedience Movement
B. Swadeshi Movement
C. Quit India Movement
D. Non-Cooperation Movement
70. Aitareya Brahmana is associated with
A. Atharvaveda

B. Yajurveda

C. Samaveda

D. Rigveda

71. Who was the person to be arrested in the Kanpur conspiracy case?
A. S.A. Dange

B. M.N. Roy

C. Ram Prasad Bismil

D. Bhagat Singh

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72. Indias biggest telescope, the Multi Application Solar Telescope (MAST) was inaugurated at which place?
A. Udaipur Solar Observatory

B. Delhi Jantar Mantar

C. Bhubaneswar Planetorium

D. IIS Bangalore

73. Who was the Governor-General of India in 1857?

A. Wellesley
B. Dalhousie
C. Canning
D. Minto
74. Who has written the book My Days with Mahatma Abdul Kalam?
A. S. Chandra

B. R.K. Pruthi

C. A.K. George

D. G. Katyal & K. Bhushan

75. Name the Indian, who has been awarded Ramon Magsaysay Award, 2015 in Emergent Leadership
category.
A. Sanjiv Chaturvedi

B. Anshu Jain

C. Anshu Gupta

D. Sandeep Chaturvedi

76. Which Indian golfer has become the first Indian to win a gold medal at the Special Olympics World
Games in Los Angeles?
A. Ranveer Singh

B. Ranveer Singh Saini

C. Ranveer Kapoor

D. Ranveer Shah

77. What is Dhai Din Ka Zhonpda?

A. Mosque
C. Saints hut

B. Temple
D. Tower

78. Who has written the book Gods of Corruption published recently?
A. Promila Shankar

B. Sudha Pai

C. Manjulika Gautam

D. Chitra Mudgal

79. Wilfred De Souza, who passed away in September, 2015, had been three times the Chief Minister of
which of the following States?
A. Arunachal Pradesh

B. Goa

C. Sikkim

D. Maharashtra

80. Which University was conferred with Maulana Abul Kalam Azad Trophy for the year 2014-15?
A. Punjabi University

B. Banaras Hindu University

C. Aligarh Muslim University

D. Kurukshetra University

81. Who is called the Napoleon of Ancient India?

A. Chandragupta Maurya
B. Pushyamitra
C. Ashok
D. Samudragupta

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82. Which country has given voting right to women for the first time and their registration in voter list has
begun from 22nd August, 2015?
A. Vatican City

B. United Arab Emirates

C. Saudi Arabia

D. Brunei

83. Who of the following is the first Indian batsman to score a century in all the three formats (Test, ODI, T20) of cricket?
A. Sachin Tendulkar

B. Suresh Raina

C. M.S. Doni

D. Virat Kohli

84. Which senior Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP) leader appointed as Governors of poll-bound Himachal
Pradesh by President Pranab Mukherjee?
A. Acharya Dev Vrat

B. LK Advani

C. Harshavardhan

D. Ram Nath Kovind

85. Typhoid and cholera are typical examples of

A. infectious diseases
B. airborne diseases
C. waterborne diseases
D. None of the above
86. The Jhelum river originates from
A. Mansarovar Lake

B. Wular Lake

C. Dal Lake

D. Verinag Spring

87. The Manas National Park is situated in the State of

A. Madhya Pradesh

B. Jharkhand

C. Assom

D. West Bengal

88. World Environment Day (WED) was observed globally on 5 June 2015 with theme
A. Seven Billion Dreams. One Planet. Consume with Care.
B. Small Islands and Climate Change
C. Think. Eat. Save.
D. Green Economy: Does it include you?
89. The second common border market Border Haat was opened on 11th June15. Between which countries
Border Haat Market is opened?
A. India and Pakistan

B. India and Bangladesh

C. Pakistan and China

D. Bangladesh and Burma

90. Energy is stored in liver and muscles in the form of

A. carbohydrate
B. fat
C. protein
D. glycogen

SECTION III-NUMERIC ABILITY

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Directions for Questions 91 to 95: Each question is followed by two statements, A and B. Select
the correct option based on the following instructions:
Mark (a) : if the question can be answered by statement A alone but not statement B alone or vice
versa.
Mark (b): If the questions can be answered by either of the statements alone, independently of each
other.
Mark (c): if the question can be answered by using both statements together, but not either statement
alone.
Mark (d): if the question cannot be answered even after combining the statements together.
91. What is the profit percentage on selling the product?
A. The selling price is 6/5th of the cost price.
B. The profit is Rs 50.
92. Find the amount received after a period of 7 years?
A. The principal is Rs 2 lakhs.
B. The rate is 10% per annum compounded annually.
93. What is the selling price of the article?
A. The profit percentage is 20%.
B. The selling price is 4/5th of the cost price.
94. Find the value of x, where x is a prime number?
A. The number is greater than 11.
B. The number is smaller than 16.
95. What is the value of x?
A. 4x + 6y = 12
B. 6x + 9y = 18
96. The average of 50 numbers was found to be 76. If one number by mistake was written as 68
instead of 86, find the correct average?
a) 76.74
b) 76
c) 76.36
d) 76.72
97. Which among the following is true?
a) The sum of two distinct squares cannot end in 2 or 8.
b) The sum of two distinct cubes cannot end in 3 and 9.
c) The sum of a cube and a square cannot end in 0.
d) None of the above is true
98. Ram and Raja have started a joint business investing 20000 and 8000 respectively. After one
year, from the profit of Rs. 20000 Raja was paid a certain amount for running the business and
the rest was divided proportionately. If Ram and Raja received the same amount, how much was
Raja paid for running the business?
a) Rs 2000
b) Rs 6000
c) Rs 4000
d) Rs 7500

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99. A man walking at 100 metres/minute takes 2 hours to reach his office. One day he covers this
distance in 100 minutes, then what was his speed in km/minute?
a) 1.2 km/min
b) 12 km/min
c) 0.12 km/min
d) 120 km/min
100. Abhinav spends three times than he saves. If his income increased by 20% and his
expenditure increased by 10%, find the increase in his savings?
a) 40%
b) 50%
c) 60%
d) None of these
101. 12 monkeys can eat 240 banana in 8 days eating 6 hours a day. How many bananas can 30
monkeys eat in 4 days eating 5 hours per day?
a) 240
b) 260
c) 250
d) 280
102. A daily wage laborer was engaged for a certain number of days for Rs 5750. As he was
absent on some of those days he was paid only Rs 5000. What was his maximum possible
daily wage?
a) Rs 250
b) Rs 500
c) Rs 125
d) Rs 1000
103. A and B can do a certain work in 15 days working together. If A alone can do it in 20 days,
find the share of A, if they get Rs 8000 at the end of the work?
a) Rs 6500
b) Rs 5000
c) Rs 2000
d) Rs 6000
104. A man sold two commodities for Rs 2580 each. Find his overall loss % if he sold one at
30% profit and other at 30% loss.
a) 9%
b) 0%
c) 15%
d) None of these
105. A boat takes 9 hours to travel a distance upstream and 3 hours to travel the same distance
downstream. If the speed in still water is 4km/hr, what is the upstream speed?
a) 1 km/hr
b) 4 km/hr
c) 2 km/hr
d) 3 km/hr
Directions for Questions 106 and 107: These questions are based on information below.
A hollow cylindrical tube open at both ends is made of steel 4cm thick. The inner radius is 8cm
and the length of tube is 30cm.
106. Find the volume of the steel in it?
a) 1200
b) 2400

c) 1600

107. Find the inner curved surface area of the tube.

a) 480
b) 240
c) 360

d) 2000

d) 200

108. In how many ways can a 3 digit code be made such that the first digit is non zero?
a) 760
b) 1000
c) 840
d) 900
109. If a, a + 2 and a + 4 are prime numbers, then the possible number of values of a is:
a) One
b) two
c) three
d) more than three
110. Suppose, the seed of any positive integer n is defined as follows:
Seed (n) = n, if n < 10
= seed (s(n)), otherwise,

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Where s(n) indicates the sum of digits of n.
For example, seed(7) = 7, seed(248) = seed(2 + 4 + 8) = seed(14) = seed(1 + 4) = seed(e) = 5
etc.
How many positive integers n, such that n < 500, will have seed (n) = 9?
a) 39
b) 72
c) 81
d) 55
SECTION IV-LEGAL APTITUDE
111. Principle: When two or more persons agree to do or cause to be done an illegal act, or an act
which is not illegal by illegal means, such an agreement is designated as criminal conspiracy and
mere passive cognizance of a conspirer is not sufficient, there must be active cooperation.
Facts: Batman and Robin agree to commit theft in Hushs house, but no theft is actually
committed.
Determine the correct answer.
a)
b)
c)
d)

No offence
Abetment by conspiracy
Abetment by instigation
Criminal Conspiracy

Principles for question number 112, 113, 114 and 115 are mentioned below.
Principle: Homicide is the killing of a human being by a human being. Causing the death of an
animal is not murder. It might amount to offence of mischief or to cruelty to animals.
Principle: Homicide may be lawful or unlawful. Lawful homicide is of two types excusable and
justified homicide. Unlawful homicide includes, culpable homicide not amounting to murder, murder
and homicide by rash or negligent acts.
112. Facts: Atuls wife didnt prepare food at home. Angry Atul with an intension to teach her a
lesson struck his wife on the head with a ploughshare, which made her unconscious. Believing
her to be dead, in order to lay the foundation of a false defense of suicide by hanging, Atul
hanged her. The hanging actually caused her death.
Atul is liable for?
a)
b)
c)
d)

113.

Liable for murder

Liable for culpable homicide
Liable for culpable homicide not amounting to murder
Liable for causing grievous hurt.

Question: Give the correct answer.

a) All culpable homicides are murder.
b) All murders are culpable homicide but not vice versa.
c) A murder can never be a culpable homicide.

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d) A and B both.
114. Facts: Mohit runs a food store and Sumit is his salaried employee. Shopaholic Sumit, spent
all his salary on shopping from Flipkart and died from hunger because he didnt have any money
left to buy food for him. Mohit knew about the hunger conditions of Sumit, and he could have
saved Sumit by offering him some food from his shop.
Mohit is guilty of?
a) Attempt to murder
b) Culpable homicide not amounting to murder
c) Causing death by negligent act
d) No offence.
115. Alia is a National level swimmer. She sees Ranvir drowning but doesnt save him because
her makeup could have washed out. Ranvir is drowned.
Alia is guilty of?
a) Culpable homicide not amounting to murder.
b) Causing death by negligence
c) Abetment to commit suicide
d) No offence
116.

A person on whom a bill of exchange is drawn is a?

a) Payee
b) Bearer
c) Drawee
d) Issuer

117. Principle: Partnership is an agreement between two or more persons to carry on any
business. The sharing of profits and loss in the partnership depends upon the terms and
conditions of the partnership deed.
Facts: Arun and Sushma registered a partnership firm in Lucknow. They both invested 50,000
each towards the initial capital of the firm. It was decided that the business shall be managed by
Sushma in capacity of Managing Partner. Soon after the commencement of the firm, Arun left to
Delhi and founded his own company which made him bankrupt in a year. Arun comes back to
Lucknow and asks Sushma, who has made profits in millions by now, to give him his share of
profits as per the deed terms. Sushma denies any profit except Rs. 50,000 which was invested by
Arun.
Determine the correct answer.
a) Sushma is right because Arun didnt participate in the success of the firm.
b) Sushma is right because Arun lost all his rights after registering a company in Delhi.
c) Sushma will lose because Arun is entitled to appropriate interest rate.
d) Sushma will lose because Arun still has rights in the firm.

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118. Principle: A company cant act beyond the powers granted in its Memorandum of
Association, which is a public document, and the company is not bound by contracts entered into
which are ultravires its memorandum.
Facts: Bhalla Private Limited Company bought and operated a sugar mill. It was ultravires its
memorandum. Some clients bought sugar from the mill. The sugar comes out to be of inferior
quality because of which the clients had to sell it at a very lower price incurring heavy loss. The
company gave them cheques to overcome the loss. Then the company went into liquidation
before the cheques could be encashed.
Determine the most appropriate advice to the clients.
a)
b)
c)
d)

The clients should sue the company.

The clients should sue the directors of the company in personal capacity.
The clients should sue the liquidator.
All of the above.

119. Principle: A surety is discharged if the creditor and the principle debtor vary the terms of the
contract without his consent.
Facts: Lallu agrees to act as a guarantor for Ballus employment by Sallu as a peon. Later Ballu
is promoted as financial head by Sallu. Ballu steals money and leave the country.
a) Sallu can recover from Lallu because he was a guarantor.
b) Sallu cant recover from Lallu because he himself promoted Ballu.
c) Sallu can recover from Lallu because material variations took place in the terms of the
contract.
d) None of the above.
120.

Principle: A person can only be prosecuted and punished once for an offence.

Facts: Makhanlal was caught stealing butter and taking bribe while working as a government
employee. A police case was registered against him. While the trial was going on in the court the
department in which he was working initiated proceedings against him and after finding him
guilty of both the offences dismissed him from service as the punishment. Can he approach the
court asking for dropping the criminal trial against him?
Select the most appropriate answer.
a) Yes he can.
b) No he cant.
c) He was already punished therefore he can.
d) He cant because bribery is a criminal offence.
121. Principle: A contract without consideration is void. If a promisor promises to compensate a
person who has voluntarily done something for the promisor, such promise is a contract.
Facts: Rohit lost his child in Kumbh Mela. When he was returning back to home losing all the
hopes, Tunnu delivered Rohits child to him. Rohit promised to pay 5,000 to Tunnu.
a) Rohit will have to pay because its a valid contract.
b) Tunnu cant enforce this contract.

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c) Rohit cannot be made liable to pay the amount.
d) It was Tunnus moral duty and Rohit cant be forced to pay the amount.
122.

Principle: Notice to an agent is notice to a principle.

Facts: Sheila employs Mia as her agent to buy a company Bluekart for Rs. 1 Billion. Mia goes to
the bidding and analyses that the company will crash in 6 months. Mia negotiates with the
company people and buys it at 50 Million for Sheila. Sheila is not happy with the deal.
a) Sheila can get her money back from the company as she wasnt happy with the deal.
b) Sheila can get her money back as she didnt know the crashing situation of the company.
c) Sheila can recover the money from Mia.
d) None of the above.
123. Principle: Every government has an inherent right to appropriate private property for public
use.
Facts: The Uttar Pradesh government decides to acquire the village land of Sitapur for setting up
a Special Economic Zone. The residents of Sitapur want to challenge it since they fear
displacement and loss of livelihood.
Determine the correct answer.
a) Government will succeed because it is for the public use.
b) Government will not succeed because its against the Right to Property as per our
Constitution.
c) The Government cant acquire unless the villagers agree to it.
d) Government will succeed because it will open employment opportunities for Sitapur.
124.

Principle: No tax may be imposed by an executive officer.

Facts: The Chief Development Officer of Kanpur district imposes a tax of Rs. 100 per family on
the villagers of Kamplapur village of Kanpur because many unlawful activities were taking place
from Kamplapur and the objective behind imposing this tax was to lessen the offensive activities
in the city.
Determine the correct answer.
a) He can do so in capacity of exercising his judicial power.
b) He can do so because its in form of penalty not tax.
c) He cant do so because he doesnt have the power to impose tax.
d) A and B both.
125.

The duration of the question hour in the parliament is.

a) 30 Minutes
b) 60 Minutes
c) 90 Minutes
d) 120 Minutes

126.

The office of National Legal Service Authority is located at?

a) New Delhi
b) Mumbai
c) Chennai

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d) Hyderabad
127.

The person who aids in the commission of an offence is called.

a) Joint offender
b) Second Accused
c) Abettor
d) Bailiff

128. Which Article of the Indian Constitution states that Law declared by Supreme Court to be
binding on all courts within the territory of India.
a) Article 32
b) Article 226
c) Article 141
d) Article 132
129. Principle: Qui facit per alium facit per se means, He who acts through another, is deemed
to have acted himself.
Facts: Alia asks her friend Shahid to buy a bottle of wine for her. Shahid didnt have money so
he stole a bottle from nearby store without telling it to Alia. Police arrests both when both were
enjoying the drink at Alias apartment.
Determine the correct answer.
a) Alia is liable because Shahid acted on her behalf.
b) Alia is liable because she was drinking with Shahid.
c) Alia is not liable because Shahid was his friend.
d) Alia is not liable because she didnt ask to steal.
130.

Principle: When five or more people commit a robbery together, it is an offence of decoity.

Facts: 8 friends planned to rob a bank in Lucknow. They decided to rob the bank on the
upcoming Monday. However, on Monday only four of them turned up because others felt lazy
and uninterested. As soon as the four of them tried to execute the plan they were caught by the
police.
Determine the correct answer.
a) This is decoity because 8 people were intentionally involved.
b) This is decoity because mere intention of 8 people would suffice here.
c) This is not decoity because five people were not involved.
d) A and B both.
131.

Principle: Any publication which maligns the reputation of a person is defamatory.

Facts: Shinchan is a Senior Executive at a multinational company. He speaks ill about the
character of Sheena to everyone who is a colleague at his office.
Determine the correct answer.
a) This is defamation because Sheena is her colleague.
b) This is defamation because it maligns the reputation of Sheena.

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c) This is not defamation because there was no publication.
d) This is not defamation because it was always humorous.
132.
Principle: In order to create criminal liability, it is not sufficient that there is a mens rea or
guilty intention. Mens rea must be followed by actus reus i.e. a criminal act.
Facts: Preetu had violent fight with Suresh. In rage of anger she went home, took a pistol and
returned to Sureshs house. She saw some policeman near Sureshs house. She simply returned
without doing anything.
Determine the correct answer.
a) Preetu is not guilty.
b) This will amount to attempt to murder.
c) Preetu is guilty of criminal conspiracy.
d) Preetu is guilty of culpable homicide not amounting to murder.
133. Principle: A person will be held fully responsible for the offence, even if he didnt commit
the offence directly but made use of an innocent agent.
Facts: A pilot was flying a plane and during the journey he allowed an air hostess to fly the plane
in order to impress her. The plane crashed because the pilot was busy looking at the air hostess.
Determine the correct answer.
a) Only the pilot is liable because he made use of an innocent agent.
b) Only the air hostess is liable because she took the risk by herself.
c) They both are liable.
d) None of the above.
134. Principle: Nothing is an offence which is done by a person who is, or who by reason of a
mistake of fact in good faith believes himself to be bound by law to do it.
Facts: A district magistrate wants to settle scores with a Gram Pradhan. He orders his
subordinate for an inspection of the Gram Pradhans accounts. The subordinate wrongly inspects
another Gram Pradhans accounts and finds him guilty of misappropriation of government funds.
Additionally he slaps and humiliates that Gram Pradhan in public in order to impress the District
Magistrate.
Determine the correct answer.
a) The District magistrate is not liable as he has nothing to do with this act.
b) The subordinate is not liable because he acted on commands of his boss.
c) The district magistrate and his subordinate both are liable.
d) Only the subordinate is liable because he acted on his own.
135. Principle: General offers are offers made to the world at large, but the contract is made only
with that person who comes forward and performs the conditions of the offer.
Facts: A 6 year old boy ran away from his fathers house. The father gets it published in the
newspaper where he promises to give a reward of Rs. 50,000 to anyone who brings his son back
to him. Natthulal was drinking tea at a tea stall. He sees the boy and offers him tea there the boy
tells him that he is going back home now. Natthulal accompanies the boy to his home.

CP/16/C6
Determine the correct answer.
a) Natthulal is not entitled to the award as the boy himself was going back.
b) Natthulal is not entitled to the award because he didnt make any special efforts.
c) Natthulal is entitled to the award because he provided the boy a good company.
d) Natthulal is entitled to the award because he brought the boy back under his custody.
136. Principle: Damages for mental shock can be claimed even in cases where it is suffered
through the medium of the eyes or ears.
Facts: Penny was standing on her balcony. Sheldon negligently drove a car into the building and
Leonard came under the wheels of his car. Penny suffered a nervous shock and a miscarriage as a
result of it. Can Penny claim a tort against Sheldon?
a) Sheldon is liable.
b) Sheldon is not liable.
c) Penny didnt suffer any direct consequences.
d) This is not a tort.
137. Principle: The injured party may release the wrong doer from liability to pay damages by a
written document to that effect.
Facts: Jerry accidently kills Toms pet. Tom forgives Jerry and agrees not to sue him for
anything. Tom goes back to home and his father advices him to bring a claim against Jerry.
Tom files a case against Jerry for compensation.
Determine the correct answer.
a) Tom will succeed because he has the right to reclaim his right.
b) Tom will succeed.
c) Tom will not succeed.
d) Tom will not succeed because he released the wrongdoer from the liability.
138. Principle: An injured party cant bring a case against the wrongdoer twice for the same cause
of action.
Facts: Mickey suffered leg injuries caused by Mini. Mickey obtains Rs. 20,000 for its treatment.
Later on, because of the leg injury Mickey has to go through a major surgery to correct certain
deformities caused due to the leg injury.
Determine the correct answer.
a) Mickey can ask for more compensation.
b) Mickey cant ask for anymore compensation.
c) Mini is not completely discharged from the duty.
d) Mickey will have to sue for the new grounds.
139.

Principle: When a human being kills another human being it is known as homicide.

Facts: Gogo and Dodo are colleagues at a Law firm. Gogo always makes fun of Dodo in front of
other colleagues. Dodo always ends up crying after such incidents. One day, after such incident,
Dodo goes to his home and hangs himself to death.
Determine the correct answer.
a) Gogo is liable for homicide.
b) Gogo is liable for culpable homicide not amounting to murder.

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c) Gogo is liable for attempt to murder.
d) Gogo is liable for abetment to suicide.
140. Determine the circumstances under which an elected Member of Parliament may be
disqualified on the ground of defection?
a) If he voluntarily gives up his membership of a political party.
b) If he speaks against the political party.
c) If he joins a political party other than the party on whose ticket he contested and got
elected.
d) If he votes or abstains from voting contrary to any direction issued by his political party
without prior permission of the political party.
141.

An onerous gift is?

a) A gift in cash.
b) A gift in anything other than cash.
c) A gift burdened with an obligation.
d) A gift which has to be returned back.

142.

Who is an intermediary in Indian Securities Market?

a) Stock Brokers
b) Merchant Bankers
c) Underwriters
d) All of the above.

143.

SEBI doesnt have its regional office at?

a) Mumbai
b) New Delhi
c) Kolkata
d) Chennai

144. Principle: A total restraint of a persons liberty without lawful justification amounts to the
tort of false imprisonment.
Facts: Sunil suspects that his neighbor Mahesh is a murderer. He informs police about the same
and police, after investigating the facts, arrests Mahesh. Later Mahesh is released from custody.
Determine the correct answer.
a) Mahesh can sue Sunil for tort of false imprisonment.
b) Mahesh cant sue Sunil.
c) Mahesh can sue Sunil and Police both.
d) None of the above.
145. Principle: A person who is usually of sound mind, but occasionally of unsound mind may
not contract when he is of unsound mind.
Facts: Sachin is a drunkard. Usually he is not in his senses when he is drunk. One day, after
drinking a lot, he gives his Ferrari to the liquor shop owner for one more bottle of Absinth.
Determine the correct answer.

CP/16/C6
a)
b)
c)
d)
146.

This is a valid agreement based on necessity.

This is a valid agreement because all the essentials were present.
A and B both.
This is not a valid contract.

Principle: Force applied under lawful justification will not amount to battery.

Facts: Sambha undertook a fast in jail in protest at the services he was provided over there.
When his condition deteriorated, he was forced fed by the prison authorities.
Determine the correct answer:
a) Mohan will succeed against jail authorities.
b) Mohan will succeed because it was a legal protest.
c) Mohan will not succeed because of unlawful justification.
d) Mohan will not succeed because the applied force on him was legally justifiable.
147. Principle: When consent to an agreement is caused by undue influence, the agreement is a
contract voidable at the option of the party whose consent was so caused.
Facts: Varun advances Rs. 1 Million to Amit, an agriculturist and, by undue influence, induces
Amit to execute a bond for Rs. 2 Million.
Determine the most appropriate answer.
a) Amit cant be asked to pay anything to Varun.
b) Amit can sue Varun for forgery.
c) Amit will have to pay 1 Million with appropriate interest rates.
d) Amit will have to pay 2 Million as per the bond.
148.

Parliament can legislate on matters in the state list:

a) At its own discretion.
b) If Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by 2/3rd majority.
c) If Lok Sabha passes a resolution by 2/3rd Majority.
d) After presidential assent.

149.

Hicklin Test under Article 19(2) is related to:

a) Freedom of Life and Liberty.
b) Defamation
c) Decency and Morality
d) All of the above.

150. In which case it was held that, Preventive detention is precautionary and not punitive in
nature.
a) A. K. Gopalan v State of Madras
b) P. N. Bhagwati v Union of India
c) Keshvanand Bharti v Union of India
d) Rex v Holiday
151.

The famous commission on center state relation is:

a) Mandal Commission
b) Sarkaria Commission
c) J. P. Shah Commission

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d) Gadgil Commission
152. What cant be done directly cant be done indirectly. This statement epitomizes the
doctrine of.
a) Colorable Legislation
b) Pith and Substance
c) Harmonious Construction
d) Ancillary powers
153.

Residuary Powers are vested in the:

a) Parliament
b) Judiciary
c) Executive
d) All of the above

154. In which case, 39th amendment was challenged and struck down by the Supreme Court as the
amendment excludes power of the judicial review:
a) Maneka Gandhi Case.
b) A. K. Gopalan Case.
c) Minerva Mills Case.
d) Indira Gandhi Case.
155.

Doctrine of basic structure is a creation of:

a) 25th Amendment Act
b) Parliament
c) P. N. Bhagwati
d) Judiciary

156.

The malice necessary to be established in an action for malicious prosecution is:

a) Malice in law
b) Malice in fact
c) Malice in law and malice in fact
d) None of the above.

157.

Which of the following remedies are available in defense to an action of conversion:

a) Lien
b) Right of stoppage in transit
c) A and B both
d) Distress

158.

A person, who treats goods as if they were his when they are not, is liable to be sued in.
a) Conversion
b) Detinue
c) Trespass to goods
d) All of the above

159.

The justification to an action to trespass means:

CP/16/C6
a)
b)
c)
d)
160.

No leave and license

No self defense
Prescription
Not awaiting a nuisance

The defense to trespass include

a) Private defense
b) Justification by law
c) Inevitable accident
d) All of the above

SECTION V- LOGICAL REASONING

161. The bus stop outside the City Main Hall is visited by the 131 and 265 buses. A 131 bus is
scheduled to stop there at exactly 4:00 p.m. What can we conclude about the people waiting at the
stop at 4.01 p.m. the same afternoon?
I. They are probably not waiting for a 131 but we cant be sure.
II. They are probably waiting for a 265.
III. They are definitely not waiting for a 131.
(A) I only (B) II only (C) III only (D) I and II
162. An advert, for IndMax Internet service states: At IndMax weve assembled a fantastic line-up
of top-celebrities writing exclusively for you! Now you can pose questions directly to Lalita Mausi,
our Aap ki Aunty, catch up on all the latest games and gadgets with Chakram Bhai, and get in the
Pitch Report with Jaggu Bouncer, our cricket correspondent, debate the ethics behind the news
with Sahi Saheb, plus enjoy a whole host of other top celebrities and online star interviews.

The impact of this advertisement would be lessened by all of the following EXCEPT:
(A) A survey shows that 90% of members of the public have never heard of Sahi Saheb.
(B) One of the celebrities listed admitted in a newspaper article that he/she had never heard of
IndMax.
(C) The people at whom this advert is targeted would probably never use the phrase Pitch Report.
(D) Chakram Bhai provides services publicly for a rival Internet service.

163. During his last visit to South Africa, Partap witnessed a gang of white men beating a black man
up. He did not report the incident to the police. What a terrible racist he must be!
Which of the following facts would most weaken the conclusion of this argument?
(A) Partap thought that the white men were very frightening.
(B) Partap works with several colleagues who are black people.
(C) On his next visit Partap witnessed a group of black men beating up a white man, and again, did
not report the incident to the police.
(D) Partap did not know the black victim personally.
164. Some pings are pangs. Some pangs are pongs. Which of the following can we conclude for

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sure?
(A) Some pings are pongs. (B) No pongs are pings.
(C) All pings are pongs. (D) Some pangs are pings.

Questions 165 and 166 refer to the following text :

E-business is gradually taking over from ordinary bricks-and-mortar premises. The companies
listed on the BSE, the stock exchange index for the new technological companies, rose more than
twice as fast on an average as the fastest-rising stocks listed on the NSE index.

165. The argument above contains which of the following assumptions?

(A) The share price of e-businesses will continue to rise.
(B) The NSE index only lists companies which perform badly.
(C) The BSE never lists companies which are performing badly.
(D) The NSE index will continue to rise less quickly than the BSE.
166. The argument about e-businesses would be most strengthened by which of the following?
(A) A report by a financial expert stating that share prices are set to rise in the future.
(B) An end-of-year statement-by a company listed on the BSE announcing record profits for the past
year.
(C) An article in the Financial Times indicating that a larger proportion of traditional (non ebusiness) firms have gone bankrupt than new e-businesses.
(D) A reduction in corporation tax for new e-businesses by the Chancellor of the Exchequer.
167. Advert: Rupas FY90 Digital Photocopier. New digital technology makes this copier better
than your average laser-jet copier. It means you get laser quality printing for only Rs 3299.
The main selling point of this advertisement would be nullified if:
(A) Laser-jet copiers work more quickly than the RP9O copier.
(B) Laser-jet copiers produced inferior copies to the RP9O.
(C) Laser-iet copiers cost more than Rs 3299.
(D)Laser-jet copiers cost less than Rs 3299.

168. Headway is now targeted at a wider readership-to include all NUT members who are on the
leadership salary spine. This years NUT membership credential gave members the opportunity to
identify themselves as teachers on the leadership spine and Headway will, in future, be mailed
directly to all members so identified.
From the text above, which of the following can we reasonably conclude?
(A) Headway is a free newspaper.
(B) Formerly, the readership of Headway did not include all members on the leadership salary spine.
(C) Teachers can only be present on the leadership spine thanks to the NUT.
(D) The readership for Headway wifi increase in future years.
Questions 169 to 171 are based on the following text :
Helping children to establish a healthy relationship with food, so that they see it as a pleasurable
aspect of life, is one of the arts of good parenting. The way to do this is not to lecture them about
whats good and whats bad. Your own attitude to food is the best role modelif you take positive
delight in choosing and cooking the best ingredients, it will be easy and natural for them to

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participate.

169. The author of the above statement is trying to

(A) complain (B) congratulate (C) warn (D) encourage

170. With which of the following statements would the author most likely be agreeable?
(A) Do as you would be done by. (B) Dont do as I do, do as I say.
(C) Persuasion is better than compulsion. (D) Children should be seen and not heard.

171. Complete this sentence from the same text with the most suitable choice: A surprising number
of young children are interested in
(A) chocolate and sweets (B) becoming a television chef
(C) vegetables, carbohydrates and proteins (D) cookery and learning about food.

172. My car has several faults, each of which is caused by one single action. When I turn on the
engine, open the door and switch on wipers, there is a clank and a bang. When I open the door, wind
down the window and change gear, there is a twang and a rattle. When I switch on wipers, open the
glove compartment and change gear, there is a twang and a clank.
If I open the door, turn on the engine and open the glove compartment, what will I hear?
(A) a twang (B) a clank and a bang
(C) a bang (D) a bang and a rattle
173. The prospectus advice is not to fill in form A, to fill in either form B or form C, and to send
whichever one of these you complete back to the Department of Education (D0E). if you have filled
in form A and form C, then the prospectus advises you to enclose the payment demanded. Which of
the following most closely follows the advice given in the prospectus?
(A) Filling in form B only and returning it to the DoE with the payment demanded.
(B) Filling in forms B and C and returning them to the DoE with no payment.
(C) Filling in form A and returning it to the DoE with the payment demanded.
(D) Filling in forms A and C and returning them to the DoE with the payment demanded.
174. The average working man takes about two minutes to shave every morning. If you added up all
the time that he spends shaving in a whole year, then it comes to several hours. Just imagine how
many working days are being lost every year to employers up and down the country, through the
national work force shaving!
The argument above depends on which of the following assumptions?
(A) The national work force consists mainly of men who shave.
(B) If men didnt have to shave every morning, they would spend the time working instead.
(C) Working men shave in the morning rather than in the evening.
(D) Men dont shave at the weekend, when they probably wouldnt be at work anyway.
175. Titan, a moon which orbits planet Saturn, is the second largest moon in the solar system,
smaller
only than Ganymede, one of Jupiters moons.
Given that the statement above is true, we may logically conclude all of the following EXCEPT
(A) No moon larger than Ganymede orbits planet Saturn.
(B) Exactly one moon larger than Titan orbits planet Jupiter.
(C) Jupiter has at least one moon other than Ganymede.

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(D) Saturn has at least one moon other than Titan.

.Directions (Q 176180) In each of the quest ions below are given three statements followed by
four conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to take the given statements to be true
even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and
then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements
disregarding commonly known facts.

176. Statements:
Some birthdays are cakes.
Some cakes are chocolate.
All chocolate are tasty.
Conclusions:
I. Some pastries are cakes.
II. Some chocolate are birthdays.
III. All chocolates are either birthdays or cakes.
IV. Some cakes are tasty.
(a) None follows
(b) Only II and IV follow
(c) Only III and IV follow
(d) Only IV follow

177. Statements:
Some red are roses.
All roses are perfumes.
All perfumes are strawberry.
Conclusions:
I. Some strawberry are red.
II. All roses are red.
III. All roses are strawberry.
IV. Some perfumes are strawberry.
(a) Only I, II and III follow
(b) Only I and III follow
(c) Only I and III follow
(d) Only I, III and IV follow

178. Statements:
Some hills are cold.
Some cold are snow.
No snow is a white.
Conclusions:
I. Some white are hills.
II. Some white are snow.
III. No white is a snow.
IV. No white is a hills.
(a) Only either I or IV and either II or III follow
(b) Only III and IV follow
(c) Only III and either I or IV follow

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(d) Only I and II follow
179. Statements:
Some counseling is advice.
Some advices are suggestion.
All suggestions are action.
Conclusions:
I. Some actions are counseling.
II. All suggestions are either counseling or advice.
III. No counseling is a suggestion.
IV. All counseling are action.
(a) None follows
(b) Only I and II follow
(c) Only I, II and IV follow
(d) Only II and III follow
180. Statements:
Some festivals are celebrations.
All celebrations are crackers.
All crackers are blow.
Conclusions:
1. All festivals are celebrations.
II. All celebrations are blow.
III. Some crackers are celebrations.
IV. Some blow are festivals.
(a) All follow
(b) Only II and III and IV follow
(c) Only III and IV follow
(d) Only II and IV follow
181. A set contains 34 distinct integers, 14 of which are greater than 9, and 25 of which are less
than 17. At most, how many numbers in the set can be both greater than 9 and less than 17?
a) 5
b) 6
c) 9
d) 16
182. Sajan randomly picks a two digit positive number. If the number is prime, he tells his sister
Nisha the random number. If the number is not prime, he tells Nisha 8 more than the number.
If he tells Nisha 31, which of the following could have been the random number?
I.
31
II. 39
III. 23
a) I only
b) II only
c) III only
d) I and III only
183. The first animal was a tiger. The second animal was not a tiger. The third animal was not a
cheetah. The fourth animal was same as the second animal. The fifth animal was same as the
third animal.
A circus parade contained 5 animals, each of which was either a tiger, cheetah or lion. The
information above describes a parade. Which of the following statements must be true?
a) There are no lions in the parade
b) There are either 0 or 2 lions in the parade
c) There are either 2 or 4 lions in the parade
d) There are either 0 or 2 or 4 lions in the parade

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184. If day 6 of September lies on Wednesday, and the last Sunday of the month occurs on day
n, what is the value of n?
a) 23
b) 24
c) 25
d) 30
185. If in a faulty clock, the hour hand rotates 15 degrees every hour. How many complete
rotations does the hour hand make in 6 days?
a) 12
b) 8
c) 6
d) None of these
186. What is the greatest number of pieces that can result from three cuts to a cube?
a) 3
b) 6
c) 8
d) 12
187. In a code language, RAILNEER is coded as SFFOMJBS, then how is LAPTOP coded in the
same language?
a) QPUQBN
b) QPUQBM
c) PPUQBM
d) None of these
188. Find the missing term in the series: 26, 17, 124, 37, 342, ___
a) 63
b) 67
c) 64

d) 65

189. A person is facing north, he moves 120 m straight turns right and moves 90 metres. Now he
moves 50 m right. What should his movement be now, such that he reaches back the starting
point?
a) 40 metres right and 70 metres south
b) 90 metres right and 70 metres left
c) 90 metres south and 70 metres east
d) 90 metres right and 70 metres right

190. Find the next term in the series: 73, 79, 83, 89, 97, ____
a) 99
b) 101
c) 103

d) 107

191. There are 101 identical coins of which 1 coin is faulty i.e. it has slightly higher weight. How
many minimum weighing of a pan balance (a tarazu) is required so that the faulty coin can be
definitely determined?
a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
d) 6
192. If a&b = a + b + 1 ; and a # b = a + b -1; find the value of (5# 2)& 3?
a) 10
b) 15
c) 12
d) None of these
193. A is taller than B. B not taller than C. C is taller than D. D is not taller than E. Who among
the following is shortest, if D is shorter than B?
a) D
b) E
c) B
d) Data insufficient
194. A cube of side 16 cm is painted red on all its faces and then cut into smaller cubes, each
having side 4 cm. How many of the smaller cubes have none of their faces painted?
a) 16
b) 8
c) 12
d) None of these

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195. Five students P, Q, R, S and T are standing in a row facing south. S is immediate left of R;
Q is immediate right of T; P is immediate right of R; and Q is immediate left of S. If T is at
one extreme end, then, who has equal number of persons on his either side?
a) P
b) Q
c) R
d) S
Directions for Questions 196 to 200: Answer these questions based on information below.
Each of the six boys Anant, Bittu, Champak, Daler, Ekram and Farooq scored different marks
in an internal test of Mathematics. The paper was out of 100 with 40% as passing marks.
Champak scored more than only Anant and Ekram. Daler scored less than only Bittu. Ekram
did not score the least. The one who scored the third highest marks scored 78 marks. Ekram
scored 56 marks. The marks scored by each of them are non-negative integers.
196. Which of the following could possibly be Champaks score?
a) 56
b) 45
c) 67

d) 86

197. Which of the following is false with respect to the given information?
a) Bittus score was definitely more than 70.
b) Anant scored the minimum marks
c) Exactly three people scored more than Champak
d) There is a possibility that Bittu scored 79 marks
198. The person who scored the maximum scored 15 marks more than Farooqs marks. Which
of the following can be Dalers marks?
a) 89
b) 93
c) 97
d) 78
199. If Champak scored 17 marks more than Anant, what could be the minimum marks scored by
Anant?
a) 41
b) 43
c) 55
d) 40
200. Which among the following statements is true?
a) The minimum marks scored by Daler could be 80.
b) Exactly two among the six boys can fail.
c) Only one of the six boys can fail.
d) None of the six boys will fail.